NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics - Section A
5. An ideal fluid is flowing in a non-uniform
cross-sectional tube XY (as shown in the
1. The magnetic potential energy when a figure) from end X to end Y . If K1 and K2 are
magnetic bar with a magnetic moment M → is the kinetic energies per unit volume of the fluid
→ is: at X and Y respectively, the correct
placed perpendicular to the magnetic field B
relationship between K1 ​and K2 ​is:
−mB
1. 2. zero
2

3. −mB 4. mB

2. A bob is whirled in a horizontal circle by

means of a string at an initial speed of 10 rpm.
If the tension in the string is quadrupled while 1. K1 = K2 2. 2K 1 = K2

keeping the radius constant, the new speed is: 3. K1 > K2 4. K1 < K2

1. 20 rpm 2. 40 rpm
3. 5 rpm 4. 10 rpm
6. The escape velocity for Earth is v. A planet
having 9 times the mass of Earth and a radius,
3. A metal cube of a side 5 cm, is charged with 16 times that of Earth, has the escape velocity
6 μC. The surface charge density on the cube,
of:
v 2v
is: 1. 2.
1. 0.125 × 10−3 C m−2 2. 0.25 × 10−3 C m−2 3 3

3v 9v
3. 4 × 10−3 C m
−2
4. 0.4 × 10−3 C m
−2
3. 4.
4 4

4. The incorrect relation for a diamagnetic

material (all the symbols carry their usual 7. An electron and an alpha particle are
meaning and ε is a small positive number) is: accelerated by the same potential difference.
1. μ < μ0 Let λe and λα denote the de-Broglie
wavelengths of the electron and the alpha
2. 0 ⩽ μr < 1
particle, respectively, then:
3. −1 ⩽ χ < 0
1. λe > λα 2. λe = 4λα
4. 1 < μr < 1 + ε
3. λe = λα 4. λe < λα

8. An object is moving along the horizontal x-

direction with an initial kinetic energy of 10 J.
It is displaced through x = (3^ i ) m under the

influence of a force F→ = (−2^ i + 3 j) N. The

^

kinetic energy of the object at the end of the

displacement x is:
1. 10 J 2. 16 J
3. 4 J 4. 6 J

Page: 1
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

9. An object falls from a height of 10 m above 13. In an electrical circuit, the voltage is
the ground. After striking the ground it loses measured as V = (200 ± 4) volts and the
50% of its kinetic energy. The height up to current is measured as I = (20 ± 0.2) A. The
which the object can re-bounce from the value of the resistance is:
ground is: 1. (10 ± 4.2) Ω
1. 7.5 m 2. 10 m 2. (10 ± 0.3) Ω
3. 2.5 m 4. 5 m 3. (10 ± 0.1) Ω
4. (10 ± 0.8) Ω

10. In the circuit shown below, the inductance 14. A step-up transformer is connected to an AC
L is connected to a source. The current flowing
mains supply of 220 V to operate at
in the circuit is I = I0 sin ωt. The voltage drop 11000 V, 88 W. The current in the secondary
(VL ) across L is:
circuit, ignoring the power loss in the
transformer, is:
1. 8 mA
2. 4 mA
3. 0.4 A
4. 4 A

15. A particle is moving along the x-axis with

its position (x) varying with time (t) as
+ γt + δ. The ratio of its initial
4 2
I0 x = αt + βt
1. ωL I0 sin ωt 2. sin ωt
ωL
velocity to its initial acceleration is:
I0
3. cos ωt 4. ωL I0 cos ωt 1. 2α : δ
ωL
2. γ : 2δ
3. 4α : β
11. A 12 pF capacitor is connected to a 50 V 4. γ : 2β
battery. The electrostatic energy stored in the
capacitor in nJ is:
1. 15 2. 7.5

3. 0.3 4. 150

12. A uniform wire of diameter d carries a

current of 100 mA when the mean drift
velocity of electrons in the wire is v. For a wire
d
of diameter of the same material to carry a
2
current of 200 mA, the mean drift velocity of
electrons in the wire is:
1. 4v 2. 8v
3. v 4. 2v

Page: 2
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

16. The radius of gyration of a solid sphere of 18. The magnetic moment and moment of
mass 5 kg about XY -axis is 5 m as shown in inertia of a magnetic needle as shown are,
the figure. If the radius of the sphere is
5x
m,
respectively,
−6
√7 2 10 2
If it
−2
1.0 × 10 A m and kg m .
then the value of x is: π2

completes 10 oscillations in 10 s, the

magnitude of the magnetic field is:

1. 5 1. 0.4 T
2. √2 2. 4 T
3. 0.4 mT
3. √3
4. 4 mT
4. √5
19. The capacitance of a capacitor with charge q
17. The I -V characteristics shown below are and a potential difference V depends on:
exhibited by a: 1. both q and V
2. the geometry of the capacitor
3. q only
4. V only

Light-emitting 20. Given below are two statements:

1. 2. Zener diode
diode Image formation needs regular
3. Photodiode 4. Solar cell Statement I:
reflection and/or refraction.
The variety in colour of objects
we see around us is due to the
Statement II:
constituent colours of the light
incident on them.

Statement I is correct but Statement II is

1.
incorrect.
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
2.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
3.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
4.
incorrect.

Page: 3
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

21. A uniform metal wire of length l has 10 Ω 24. A particle executing simple harmonic
resistance. Now this wire is stretched to a motion with amplitude A has the same
length 2l and then bent to form a perfect circle. potential and kinetic energies at the
The equivalent resistance across any arbitrary displacement:
diameter of that circle is: A

1. 10 Ω 2. 5 Ω 1. 2 √A 2.
2
3. 40 Ω 4. 20 Ω A
3. 4. A √2
√2

22. The spectral series which corresponds to the

electronic transition from the levels
n2 = 5, 6, … to the level n1 = 4 is: 25. Two slits in Young's double slit experiment
1. Pfund series are 1.5 mm apart and the screen is placed at a
distance of 1 m from the slits. If the wavelength
2. Brackett series
of light used is 600 × 10 m then the fringe
−9

3. Lyman series
separation is:
4. Balmer series
1. 4 × 10 m
−5

2. 9 × 10 m
−8

3. 4 × 10 m
−7

23. Given below are two statements: One is

labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is 4. 4 × 10 m
−4

labeled as Reason (R).

26. Water is used as a coolant in a nuclear
Houses made of concrete roofs
reactor because of its:
overlaid with foam keep the
Assertion (A): 1. high thermal expansion coefficient
room hotter during
2. high specific heat capacity
summer.
3. low density
The layer of foam insulation 4. low boiling point
Reason (R): prohibits heat transfer, as it
contains air pockets. 27. The pitch of an error-free screw gauge is
1 mm, and there are 100 divisions on the
In the light of the above statements, choose the circular scale. While measuring the diameter of
correct answer from the options given below: a thick wire, the pitch scale reads 1 mm, and
1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
division on the circular scale coincides
rd
63
2. (A) is False but (R) is True. with the reference line. The diameter of the
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the wire is:
3.
correct explanation of (A). 1. 1.63 cm 2. 0.163 cm
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the 3. 0.163 m 4. 1.63 m
4.
correct explanation of (R).

Page: 4
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

28. Let us consider two solenoids A and B, 32. Among the various types of electromagnetic
made from the same magnetic material of radiation, the one with the smallest wavelength
relative permeability μr and of equal area of is:
cross-section. Length of A is twice that of B and 1. X-rays 2. Gamma rays
the number of turns per unit length in A is half 3. Ultraviolet rays 4. Microwaves
that of B. The ratio of self-inductances of the
two solenoids, LA : LB is:
1. 1 : 2 33. The equilibrium state of a thermodynamic
2. 2 : 1 system is described by:
3. 8 : 1 A. Pressure
4. 1 : 8 B. Total heat

C. Temperature
29. When the output of an OR gate is applied as D. Volume
input to a NOT gate, then the combination acts E. Work done
as a:
1. NAND gate Choose the most appropriate answer from the
2. NOR gate options given below:
3. AND gate 1. A, B and E only
4. OR gate
2. B, C and D only
30. An interference pattern can be observed 3. A, B and C only
due to the superposition of more than one of 4. A, C and D only
the following waves:
(A) y = a sin(ωt)
(B) y = a sin(2ωt) 34. Some energy levels of a molecule are shown
(C) y = a sin(ωt − ϕ) in the figure with their wavelengths of
(D) y = a sin(3ωt) transitions.
Identify the waves from the options given
below:
1. (B) and (C) only 2. (B) and (D) only
3. (A) and (C) only 4. (A) and (B) only

Then:
31. If ϕ is the work function of photosensitive 1. λ3 > λ2 , λ1 = 2λ2 2. λ3 > λ2 , λ1 = 4λ2

material in electron-volts and light of a 3. λ1 > λ2 , λ2 = 2λ3 4. λ2 > λ1 , λ2 = 2λ3

hc
wavelength of numerical value λ = metres
e
is incident on it with energy above its threshold 35. A box of mass 5 kg is pulled by a cord, up
value at an instant, then the maximum kinetic along a frictionless plane inclined at 30∘ with
energy of the photo-electron ejected by it at that the horizontal. The tension in the cord is 30 N.
instant is (in SI units): The acceleration of the box is: (take
(take h as Plank's constant and c as the velocity g = 10 ms
−2
)
of light in free space) 1. 2 ms−2
1. e + 2ϕ 2. zero
2. 2e − ϕ 3. 0.1 ms−2
3. e − ϕ 4. 1 ms−2
4. e + ϕ

Page: 5
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics - Section B
39. An object of mass 100 kg falls from point A
to B as shown in the figure. The change in its
36. If the ratio of relative permeability and weight, corrected to the nearest integer (RE is
relative permittivity of a uniform medium is the radius of the Earth), is:
1 : 4. The ratio of the magnitudes of electric

field intensity (E) to the magnetic field

intensity (H ) of an EM wave propagating in
that medium is:
μ0
(Given that√ = 120π)
ε0

1. 30π : 1
2. 1 : 120π
3. 60π : 1
4. 120π : 1

37. The value of the electric potential at a

distance of 9 cm from the point charge 1. 49 N
4 × 10
−7
C is:
2. 89 N
1
3. 5 N
[Given
9 2
= 9 × 10 N m C
−2
] 4. 10 N
4πε0

1. 4 × 102 V 2. 44.4 V 40. The potential energy of a particle moving

2
3. 4.4 × 10 5
V 4. 4 × 10 4
V
Ax
along the direction varies as
x- V = .
√x + B
2
A
38. The displacement of a traveling wave is The dimensions of are:
B
2π
given by y = C sin (at − x) where
is 1. [M 3/2 L1/2 T −3 ]
t
λ
time, x is distance and λ is the wavelength, all 2. [M
1/2 −3
LT ]

in SI units. The frequency of the wave is: 3. [M L T ]

2 1/2 −4

4. [M L
2 −4
2πλ 2πa T ]
1. 2.
a λ

λ a 41. The two-dimensional motion of a particle,

3. 4.
a λ → = (^i + 2^j)A cos(ωt) is a/an:
described by r
(A) parabolic path
(B) elliptical path
(C) periodic motion
(D) simple harmonic motion

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below:
1. (B), (C), and (D) only
2. (A), (B), and (C) only
3. (A), (C), and (D) only
4. (C) and (D) only

Page: 6
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

42. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I0 45. The magnetic moment of an iron bar is M .
is passed through a polaroid A, through It is now bent in such a way that it forms an arc
∘
∘
another polaroid B, oriented at 60 and finally section of a circle subtending an angle of 60 at
through another polaroid C, oriented at 45
∘
the centre. The magnetic moment of this arc
relative to B as shown in the figure. The section is:
intensity of the emergent light is: 3M 4M
1. 2.
π π

M 2M
3. 4.
π π

46. The given circuit shows a uniform straight

wire AB of 40 cm length fixed at both ends. In
order to get zero reading in the galvanometer
I0 I0
1. 2. G, the free end of J is to be placed from the
16 4

I0 I0
3. 4.
2 32

43. Select the correct statements among the

following:
slow neutrons can cause fission in U92 than
235

A. end B at:
fast neutrons. 1. 32 cm 2. 8 cm

B. α-rays are helium nuclei. 3. 16 cm 4. 24 cm

are fast-moving electrons or

β-rays
C.
positrons.
γ-rays are electromagnetic radiations of
47. According to the law of equipartition of
D. energy, the number of vibrational modes of a
wavelengths larger than X-rays.
Cp
polyatomic gas of constant
is (where
γ =
Choose the most appropriate answer from the Cv

options given below: Cp and Cv are the specific heat capacities of the

1. A, B, and C only 2. A, B, and D only gas at constant pressure and constant volume,
3. A and B only 4. C and D only respectively):
4 + 3γ 3 + 4γ
1. 2.
γ − 1 γ − 1
44. Let ω1 , ω2 and ω3 be the angular speeds of 4 − 3γ 3 − 4γ
the second hand, minute hand, and hour hand 3. 4.
of a smoothly running analog clock, γ − 1 γ − 1

respectively. If x1 , x2 and x3 are their

respective angular distance in 1 minute then
the factor that remains constant (k) is:
ω1 ω2 ω3
1. x1
=
x2
=
x3
= k

2. ω1 x1 = ω2 x2 = ω3 x3 = k

3. ω1 x21 = ω2 x
2

2
= ω3 x
2

3
= k

4. ω1 x1
2 2
= ω x2 = ω x3 = k
2
2
3

Page: 7
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

48. The output Y for the inputs A and B of the 52. The following data is for a reaction between
given logic circuit is: reactants A and B:
Rate
[A] [B]
mol L−1 s−1
2 × 10
−3
0.1 M 0.1 M
4 × 10
−3
0.2 M 0.1 M
¯
¯¯¯
1. A ⋅ B 2. A ⋅ B
¯
¯¯¯
1.6 × 10
−2
0.2 M 0.2 M
¯
¯¯¯
3. A + B 4. A + B
¯
¯¯¯

The order of the reaction with respect to A and

B, respectively are:
1. 1, 0
49. The amplitude of the charge oscillating in a 2. 0, 1
circuit decreases exponentially as 3. 1, 2
−Rt/2L
Q = Q0 e where Q0 is the charge at 4. 2, 1
t = 0 s.The time at which charge amplitude

decreases to 0.50 Q0 is nearly: 53. Given below are two statements:

(Given that R = 1.5 Ω, L = 12 mH, ln(2) = 0.693) Propene on treatment with
1. 19.01 ms diborane gives an addition
Statement I :
2. 11.09 ms product with the formula
3. 19.01 s (CH3 )2 − CH )3 − B

4. 11.09 s Oxidation of
(CH3 )2 − CH )3 − B with
50. The steady-state current in the circuit Statement II : hydrogen peroxide in presence
shown below is: of N aOH gives propan-2-ol.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

1. 0.67 A 54. Baeyer's reagent is:

2. 1.5 A 1. Acidic potassium permanganate solution
3. 2 A 2. Acidic potassium dichromate solution
4. 1 A Cold, dilute, aqueous solution of potassium
3.
permanganate
Hot, concentrated solution of potassium
Chemistry - Section 4.
permanganate

A 55. Which of the following molecules has "NON

51. The correct decreasing order of atomic radii
ZERO" dipole moment value?
(pm) of Li, Be, B and C is:
1. CCl4 2. HI
1. Be > Li > B > C
2. Li > Be > B > C 3. CO2 4. BF3

3. C > B > Be > Li

4. Li > C > Be > B

Page: 8
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

56. The major product X formed in the 58. Match List-I with List-II:
following reaction sequence is: List-I List-II
(Atom/Molecule) (Property)
A. Nitrogen I. Paramagnetic
Fluorine Most reactive element
B. II.
molecule in group 18
Element with highest
C. Oxygen molecule III. ionisation enthalpy in
group 15
Strongest oxidising
D. Xenon atom IV.
agent
Identify the correct answer from the option
1. 2. given below:
1. A- III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
3. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-II 4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

59. From the following select the one which is

not an example of corrosion:
1. Rusting of an iron object
3. 4. Production of hydrogen by electrolysis of
2.
water
3. Tarnishing of silver
Development of green coating on copper and
4.
bronze ornaments

57. Which indicator is used and what is the

color change at the endpoint in oxalic acid- 60. Which of the following pairs of ions will
sodium hydroxide titration? have the same spin only magnetic moment
1. Phenolphthalein, pink to yellow values within the pair?
2. Alkaline KMnO4 , colourless to pink A. Zn2+ , Ti2+
3. Phenolphthalein, colourless to pink B. Cr2+ , Fe2+
4. Methyl orange, yellow to pinkish red colour
C. Ti3+ , Cu2+
D. V2+ , Cu+
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. C and D only 2. A and D only
3. A and B only 4. B and C only

Page: 9
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

61. At a given temperature and pressure, the 64. Choose the correct statement for the work
equilibrium constant value for the equilibria done in the expansion and heat absorbed or
are given below: released when 5 liters of an ideal gas at 10
3A2 + B2 ⇌ 2A3 B, K1 atmospheric pressure isothermally expands
3 1 into a vacuum until the volume is 15 liters:
A3 B ⇌ A2 + B 2 , K2
2 2 Both the heat and work done will be greater
The relation between K1 and K2 is: 1.
than zero.
1. K12 = 2K2 Heat absorbed will be less than zero and
2.
2. K2 = 2
K 1
work done will be positive.
1 Work done will be zero and heat absorbed or
3. K1 = 3.
√K
2
evolved will also be zero.
4. K2 =
1
Work done will be greater than zero and
√K 4.
1
heat absorbed will remain zero.

62. Arrange the following compounds in

increasing order of their solubilities in
65. Which of the following options is the correct
chloroform:
IUPAC name for the given compound?
NaCl, CH3 OH, cyclohexane(C6 H12 ), CH3 CN

1.
NaCl < CH3 CN < CH3 OH < Cyclohexane

2.
CH3 OH < CH3 CN < NaCl < Cyclohexane

3.
NaCl < CH3 OH < CH3 CN < Cyclohexane
1. 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
4. 2. 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene
Cyclohexane < CH3 CN < CH3 OH < NaCl
3. 3-Ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
4. 1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene
63. Identify the incorrect statement about
66. Which of the following set of ions act as
PCl5 .
oxidizing agents?
PCl5 possesses two different Cl − P − Cl 4+ 4+
1. 1. Ce and Tb
bond angles. 3+ 3+
2. La and Lu
2. All five P − Cl bonds are identical in length. 2+ 2+
3. Eu and Yb
3. PCl5 exhibits sp3d hybridisation. 4+
4. Eu2+ and Tb
4. PCl5 consists of five P − Cl (sigma) bonds.
67. Select the incorrect reaction among the
following:
H2 O

1. CH3 COCl −−→ CH3 COOH

Δ

2.

−
(i) KMnO4 /OH

3. CH3 CH2 OH −−−−−−−−−−→ CH3 COOH

⊕
(ii) H3 O

CrO3 −H2 SO4

4. CH3 CH2 CH2 OH −−−−−−−−→ CH3 CH2 COOH

Page: 10
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

68. The UV-visible absorption bands in the 73. The major product D formed in the
spectra of lanthanoid ions are 'X', probably following reaction sequence is:
because of the excitation of electrons involving
'Y'. The 'X' and 'Y', respectively, are:
1. Broad and f orbitals
2. Narrow and f orbitals
3. Broad and d and f orbitals
4. Narrow and d and f orbitals

69. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate ion is a/an :

1. Hexadentate ligand 2. Ambidentate ligand
3. Monodentate ligand 4. Bidentate ligand
1. 2.

70. How much glucose is needed to prepare 250

mL of a 1/20 M (M/20) glucose solution? 3. CH3 CH2 OH 4. CH3 CH2 Cl
(Molar mass of glucose: 180 g/mol)
1. 2.25 g
2. 4.5 g 74. Match List-I with List-II
3. 0.44 g List-I
4. 1.125 g List-II
(Block/group in periodic
(Element)
table)
71. Identify the incorrect statement from the A. Lanthanoid I. Ce
following:
B. d-Block element II. As
The acidic strength of HX (X=F, Cl, Br and I)
1. C. p-Block element III. Cs
follows the order: HF > HCI > HBr >HI
Fluorine exhibits - 1 oxidation state whereas D. s-Block element IV. Mn
2. other halogens exhibit +1, +3, +5 and +7 Choose the correct answer from the options
oxidation states also. given below:
1. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
The enthalpy of dissociation of F2 is smaller
3. 2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
than that of Cl2. 3. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
Fluorine is stronger oxidising agent than 4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
4.
chlorine.
75. Which of the following is not an
ambidentate ligand?
72. For the reaction in equilibrium 1. C2 O4
2−

N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g), ΔH = −Q

2. SCN
−

Reaction is favoured in forward direction by: −

3. NO2
1. Use of catalyst −
4. CN
2. Decreasing concentration of N2
Low pressure, high temperature and high
3.
concentration of ammonia
High pressure, low temperature and higher
4.
concentration of H2

Page: 11
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

76. The quantum numbers of four electrons are 80. 1.0 g of H2 has same number of molecules
given below: as in:
1
I. n=4; l=2; ml =-2; s=- 2 1. 14 g of N2 2. 18 g of H2 O
II. n=3; l=2; ml =1; s=+
1
3. 16 g of CO 4. 28 g of N2
2
1
III. n=4; l=1; ml =0; s=+ 2
1
IV. n=3; l=1; ml =-1; s=+ 2 81. Which of the following plot represents the
1
The correct decreasing order of energy of these variation of ln k versus T according to the
electrons is: Arrhenius equation?
1. IV>II>III>I
2. I>III>II>IV
3. III>I>II>IV
4. I>II>III>IV
1. 2.
77. The major product C in the below-
mentioned reaction is:

1. Propan-1-ol 2. Propan-2-ol
3. 4.
3. Propane 4. Propyne

78. The compound that does not undergo

Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction but gives a
positive carbylamine test is:
1. Aniline 82. A steam volatile organic compound which is
2. Pyridine immiscible with water has a boiling point of
∘
3. N-Methylaniline 250 C. During steam distillation, a mixture of

4. Triethylamine this organic compound and water will boil:

∘ ∘
1. Above 100 C but below 250 C.
∘
79. For an endothermic reaction: 2. Above 250 C.
∘
A. qp (heat at constant pressure) is negative. 3. At 250 C.
∘
B. Δr H (enthalpy change of the reaction) is 4. Close to but below 100 C.
positive.
C. Δr H is negative.
D. qp is positive.
Which of the following combinations is correct?
1. B and D
2. C and D
3. A and B
4. A and C

Page: 12
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

83. Given below are two statements: 85. Given below are two statements:
Statement Glycogen is similar to amylose in The Balmer spectral line for H
I: its structure. atom with lowest energy
Statement Glycogen is found in yeast and Statement I: 5
appears at RH cm
−1
( RH =
II: fungi also. 36

In the light of the above statements, choose the Rydberg constant)

correct answer from the options given below: When the temperature of a
Statement I is correct and Statement II is black body increases, the
1.
incorrect. Statement II: maxima of the curve (intensity
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is versus wavelength) shifts
2. towards shorter wavelength.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are In the light of the above statements, choose the
3. correct answer from the options given below:
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is
incorrect. 1.
incorrect.
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
2.
84. Given the following reaction involving correct.
manganese Both Statement I and Statement II are
3.
(Mn): correct.
3MnO
2−
+ 4H
+
→ 2MnO
−
+ MnO2 + 2H2 O Both Statement I and Statement II are
4 4 4.
Which oxidation states of manganese are not incorrect.
observed in the above reaction?
A. +6
B. +2
C. +4 Chemistry - Section
D. +7
E. +3 B
Mark the most appropriate answer from the 86. Identify D in the following sequence of
options given below: reactions:
1. D and E only
2. B and D only
3. A and B only
4. B and E only

1. n-Propyl alcohol
2. Isopropyl alcohol
3. Propanal
4. Propionic acid

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

87. Identify the incorrect statement. 90. The standard cell potential of the following
PEt3 and Asph3 as ligands can form
2+ 2+
cell Zn ∣∣Zn (aq)∥Fe (aq)∣
∣ Fe is 0.32 V.
1.
dπ − dπ bond with transition metals. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy change for
The N − N single bond is as strong as the the reaction:
2.
P − P single bond.
2+ 2+
Zn(s) + Fe (aq) → Zn (aq) + Fe(s)

Nitrogen has unique ability to form pπ − pπ (Given : 1 F = 96487Cmol ) −1

3. multiple bonds with nitrogen, carbon and 1. −61.75 kJ mol−1 2. +5.006 kJ mol
−1

oxygen.
3. −5.006 kJ mol
−1
4. +61.75 kJ mol
−1

Nitrogen cannot form dπ − pπ bond as

4.
other heavier elements of its group.
91. Match List-I with List-II:
(List-I) (List-II )
88. Match the items given in List-I with those
Solid salt treated with dil. Anion
in List-II and select the correct option given
H2 SO4 detected
below:
List-II Effervescence of colourless −

List-I A. I. NO2
(Radical gas
(Test/reagent) 2−
identified) B. Gas with smell of rotten egg II. CO3
−
A. Lake Test I. NO
3 C. Gas with pungent smell III. S2−
B. Nessler's Reagent II. Fe
3+
D. Brown fumes IV. SO
2−

Potassium sulpho Choose the correct answer from the options

C. III. Al 3+

cyanide given below:

+
D. Brown Ring Test IV. NH
4
1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
Options: 2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
1. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I 3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
2. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I 4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I 92. The
ratio of solubility of AgCl in
0.1 M KCl solution to the solubility of AgCl in

89. Match Column I (Molecule) with Column II water is:

(Bond enthalpy) and mark the correct option: (Given: Solubility product of AgCl = 10
−10
)
Column-II 1. 10 −4
2. 10 −6

Column-I (Bond enthalpy)

(Molecule) −1
3. 10 −9
4. 10−5
(kJ mol )

A. HCl I. 435.8
93. On complete combustion, 0.3 g of an
B. N2 II. 498
organic compound gave 0.2 g of
C. H2 III. 946.0
CO2 and 0.1 g of H2 O. The percentage
D. O2 IV. 431.0 composition of carbon and hydrogen in the
compound, respectively is:
1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 1. 4.07% and 15.02%
2. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II 2. 18.18% and 3.70%
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I 3. 15.02% and 4.07%
4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II 4. 3.70% and 18.18%

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

94. The following reaction method 98. What mass of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) must be
dissolved in 1 liter of solution to make it
isotonic with a 15 g/L solution of urea
−1
(NH₂CONH₂)? (Given : Molar mass in g mol
C:12, H:1, O: 16, N:14)
1. 55 g
2. 15 g
3. 30 g
4. 45 g
is not suitable for the preparation of the
corresponding haloarene products, due to the 99. Identify the structural features common to
high reactivity of halogen, when X is: [Mn₂(CO)₁₀] and [Co₂(CO)₈]:
1. F A. Presence of a metal-metal bond
2. I B. Presence of terminal carbonyl groups
3. Cl C. Presence of bridging carbonyl groups
4. Br D. Metals in the zero oxidation state
Choose the correct answer from the options
95. The alkane that can be oxidized to the given below:
corresponding alcohol by KMnO4 as per the 1. Only A, B and C 2. Only B, C and D
equation 3. Only A, C and D 4. Only A, B and D

100. Methyl group attached to a positively

charged carbon atom stabilizes the carbocation
due to:
1. -I inductive effect
2. Electromeric effect
is, when:
3. Hyperconjugation
1. R1 = H; R2 = H; R3 = H
4. Mesomeric effect
2. R1 = CH3 ; R2 = CH3 ; R3 = CH3

3. R1 = CH3 ; R2 = H; R3 = H

4. R1 = CH3 ; R2 = CH3 ; R3 = H Biology - 1 - Section

96. For the following reaction at 300K
A2 ( g) + 3 B2 ( g) → 2AB3 ( g)
A
101. The regions with high level of species
the enthalpy change is +15 kJ, then the internal richness, high degree of endemism and a loss of
energy change is: 70% of the species and habitat are identified as
1. 19.98 K J :
2. 200 J 1. Natural Reserves
3. 1999 J 2. Sacred Groves
4. 1.9988 kJ 3. Biodiversity Hotspots
4. Biogeographical Regions
97. Rate constants of a reaction at 500 K and
700 K are 0.04 s−1 and 0.14 s−1 , respectively; 102. Which of the following simple tissues are
then, activation energy of the reaction is: commonly found in the fruit walls of nuts and
−1
(Given : log 3.5 = 0.5441, R = 8.31 J K −1 mol ) pulp of pear?
1. 182310 J 1. Sclereids 2. Fibres
2. 18500 J 3. Parenchyma 4. Collenchyma
3. 18219 J
4. 18030 J

Page: 15
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

103. In a chromosome, there is a specific DNA 106. Match List-I with List-II
sequence, responsible for initiating replication. List-I List-II
It is called as: Disc shaped sacs or cisternae
recognition A Fleming I.
1. 2. cloning site near cell nucleus
sequence Robert
3. restriction site 4. ori site B. II. Chromatin
Brown
George
C. III. Ribosomes
Palade
104. Given below are two statements: Camillo
When many alleles of single gene D. Golgi IV. Nucleus
Statement
govern a character, it is called Choose the correct answer form the options
I:
polygenic inheritance. given below:
Statement In polygenic inheritance, the effect 1. A-II,B-IV,C-III,D-I
II: of each allele is additive 2. A-II, B-III,C-I,D-IV
In the light of the above statements, choose the 3. A-I,B-II, C-III, D-IV
correct answer from the options given below. 4. A-IV,B-II, C-III, D-I
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True 107.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True List-I
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False List-II
Types of
Example
inheritance
105. Which of the following are required for the Incomplete Blood groups in
light reaction of photosynthesis? A. I.
dominance human
A. CO2
Flower colour in
B. O2 B. Co-dominance II.
Antirrhinum
C. H2 O
C. Pleiotropy III. Skin colour in human
D. Chlorophyll
E. Light Polygenic
D. IV. Phenylketonuria
1. A , C, D and E only inheritance
2. C, D and E only Choose the correct answer from the options
3. A and B only given below:
4. A, C and E only 1. A-III,B-IV, C-II, D-I
2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3. A-II,B-III, C-I, D-IV
4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

108. Which part of the ovule store reserve food

material?
1. Nucellus
2. Integument
3, Placenta
4. Funicle

109. Which one of the following is not found in

Gymnosperms?
1. Sieve Cells
2. Albuminous Cells
3. Tracheids
4. Vessels

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

110. Which one of the following is not included 115. Given below are statements regarding RNA
under in-situ conservation? polymerase in prokaryotes:
1. Wild-life sanctuary In prokaryotes, RNA polymerase is
2. Botanical garden Statement
capable of catalysing the process of
3. Biosphere reserve I:
elongation during transcription.
4. National park RNA polymerase associates
Statement
transiently with 'Rho' factor to
111. Given below are two statements: II:
initiate transcription.
The Indian Government has set up In the light of the above statements, choose the
Statement GEAC, which will make decisions correct answer from options given below:
I: regarding the validity of GM 1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
research. 2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
Biopiracy is the term used to refer 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
Statement
to the use of bio-resources by 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are
II:
native people False
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: 116. Which of the following is a nucleotide?
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False 1. Uridine
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True 2. Adenylic acid
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True 3. Guanine
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False 4. Guanosine

112. Pollen grains remain preserved as fossil 117. Match List I with List II:
due to the presence of : List I List II
1. Epidermal layer A. Vexillary aestivation I. Brinjal
2. Tapetum
B. Epipetalous stamens II. Peach
3. Exine layer
4. Intine layer C. Epiphyllous stamens III. Pea
D. Perigynous flower IV. Lily
113. Identify the incorrect pair:
1. Sphenopsida-Adiantum Choose the correct answer from the options
2. Pteropsida-Dryopteris given below:
3. Psilopsida-Psilotum 1. A- III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
4. Lycopsida - Selaginella 2. A- III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
3. A- III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
114. Which of the following is the correct 4. A- II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
match?
1. Gymnosperms: Cedrus, Pinus, Sequoia 118. Match List I with List II
2. Angiosperms: Wolffia, Eucalyptus, Sequoia List I List II
3. Bryophytes : Polytrichum, Polysiphonia, A. China rose I. Free central
Sphagnum B. Mustard II. Basal
4. Pteridophytes : Equisetum, Ginkgo, Adiantum
C. Primrose III. Axile
D. Marigold IV. Parietal

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below:
1. A- IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. A- II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
3. A- III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
4. A- III, B-VI, C-II, D-I

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

119. Which of the following helps in 122. Match List-I with List-II:
maintenance of the pressure gradient in sieve List-I List-II
tubes? Genetically
1. Albuminous cells A. engineered Human I. Gene therapy
2. Sieve cells Insulin
3. Phloem parenchyma
B. GM Cotton II. E.Coli
4. Companion cells
Antigen-antibody
C. ADA Deficiency III.
120. Mesosome in a cell is a: interaction
1. Membrane bound vesicular structure Bacillus
D. ELISA IV.
thuringiensis
Chain of many ribosomes attached to a
2. Choose the correct answer from the options
single mRNA
given below:
special structure formed by the extension of
3. 1. A-III, B-II, C- IV, D- I
plasma membrane
2. A-II, B-I, C- IV, D- III
4. medium sized chromosome 3. A-IV, B-III, C- I, D- II
4. A-II, B-IV, C- I, D- III

121. Match List-I with List-II: 123. Match List I with List II:
List-I List-II List I List II
Abscisic Promotes female flowers in A. ETS Complex I I. NADH Dehydrogenase
A. I.
acid cucumber B. ETS Complex II II. Cytochrome bC1
Helps seeds to withstand
B. Ethylene II. ETS Complex
desiccation C. III. Cytochrome C oxidase
III
Helps in nutrient
C. Gibberellin III. Succinate
mobilisation D. ETS Complex IV IV.
Dehydrogenase
Promotes bolting in beet
D. Cytokinin IV.
cabbage etc
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options 1. A-IV, B-I, C- III, D- II
given below: 2. A-I, B-IV, C- II, D- III
1. A-II, B-III, C- IV, D- I 3. A-III, B-I, C- IV, D- II
2. A-III, B-II, C- I, D- IV 4. A-I, B-II, C- IV, D- III
3. A-II, B-I, C- IV, D- III
4. A-II, B-I, C- III, D- IV 124. Cryopreservation technique is used for:
1. Protection of environment
2. Protection of biodiversity hotspots
Preservation of gametes in viable and fertile
3.
conditions for a long period
4. In-situ conservation

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

125. Which of the following are correct about 127. Match List I with List II:
cellular respiration? List I List II
Cellular respiration is the breaking of C-C Loosely packed
A. bonds of complex organic molecules by A. Histones I.
chromatin
oxidation. Densely packed
The entire cellular respiration takes place in B. Nucleosome II.
B. chromatin
mitochondria. Positively charged
Fermentation takes place under anaerobic C. Euchromatin III.
C. basic proteins
conditions in germinating seeds. DNA wrapped around
The fate of pyruvate formed during D. Heterochromatin IV.
histone octamer
D. glycolysis depends on the type of organism
also. Choose the correct answer from the options
Water is formed during respiration as a given below:
E. result of O2 accepting electrons and getting 1. A-IV, B-III, C- II, D- I
reduced. 2. A-III, B-I, C- IV, D- II
Choose the correct answer from the options 3. A-II, B-III, C- IV, D- I
given below: 4. A-III, B-IV, C- I, D- II
1. A, C, D, E only
2. A, B, E only 128. Given below are two statements:
3. A, B, C, E only Failure of segregation of
4. B, C, D, E only chromatids during cell cycle,
Statement
resulting in the gain or loss of
I:
126. Given below are two statements: whole set of chromosome in an
In eukaryotes, there are three RNA organism, is known as aneuploidy.
Statement polymerases in the nucleus in Failure of cytokinesis after
I: addition to the RNA polymerase Statement anaphase stage of cell division
found in the organelle. II: resulting in the gain or loss of
All the three RNA polymerases in chromosome is called polyploidy.
Statement
eukaryotic nucleus have different In the light of the above statements, choose the
II:
roles. correct answer from the options given below:
In the light of the above statements, choose the 1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
correct answer from the options given below: 2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
incorrect. 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
correct. 129. Recombination between homologous
3. Both Statement I and Statement II is chromosomes is completed by the end of:
correct. 1. Diakinesis 2. Zygotene
4. Both Statement I and Statement II is 3. Diplotene 4. Pachytene
incorrect.

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

130. Match List I with List II: 133. Given below are some statements about
List I List II plant growth regulators:
Metacentric Chromosome has a A. All GAs are acidic in nature.
A. I.
chromosome terminal centromere B. Auxins are antagonists to GAs.
Sub- Middle centromere C. Zeatin was isolated from coconut milk.
B. metacentric II. forming two equal arms D. Ethylene induces flowering in Mango.
chromosome of chromosome E. Abscisic acid induces parthenocarpy.
Centromere is slightly Choose the correct set of statements from the
Acrocentric away from the middle ones given below:
C. III.
chromosome chromosome resulting 1. A,C,D 2. B,E
into two unequal arms
3. A,B,C 4. B,D,E
Centromere is situated
Telocentric close to its end forming
D. IV.
chromosome one extremely short and
134. Identify the incorrect statement related to
one very long arm
electrophoresis:
Separated DNA fragments can be directly
Choose the correct answer from the options 1.
seen under UV radiation
given below:
1. A-II, B-I, C- IV, D- III Separated DNA can be extracted from gel
2.
2. A-IV, B-I, C- II, D- III piece.
3. A-I, B-II, C- III, D- IV 3. Fragments of DNA move toward anode.
4. A-II, B-III, C- IV, D- I Sieving effect of agarose gel helps in
4.
separation of DNA fragments.
131. Ligases is a class of enzymes responsible
for catalysing the linking together of two
compounds. Which of the following bonds is 135. Which of the following examples show
not catalysed by it? monocarpellary, unilocular ovary with many
1. C-C 2. P-O ovules?
3. C-O 4. C-N A. Sesbania
B. Brinjal
C. Indigofera
132. F. Skoog observed that callus proliferated D. Tobacco
from the internodal segments of tobacco stem E. Asparagus
when auxin was supplied with one of the Choose the correct answer from options given
following, except: below:
1. Extract of vascular tissues 1. B and E only
2. Coconut milk 2. C, D and E only
3. Abscisic acid 3. A, B and D only
4. Yeast extract 4. A and C only

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Biology - 1 - Section
138. Given below are two statements:
In a dicotyledonous leaf, the

B Statement I:
adaxial epidermis general bears
more stomata than the abaxial
136. Given below are two statements : epidermis.
In the lac operon, the z gene codes In a dicotyledonous leaf, the
beta-galactosidase which is adaxially placed palisade
Statement
primary responsible for the parenchyma is made up of
I: Statement II:
hydrolysis of lactose into galactose elongated cells, which are
and glucose. arranged vertically and parallel
In addition of lactose, glucose or to each other.
Statement In light of the above statements, choose the
galactose can also induce lac
II: correct answer from the options given below:
operon.
In the light of the above statements choose the 1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
correct answer from the options given below: 2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False 139. Which of the following are not fatty acids?
A. Glutamic acid
137. The marked part as 'x' in the given figure B. Arachidonic acid
is C. Palmitic acid
D. Lecithin
E. Aspartic acid
Choose ​the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. C, D and E only
2. A and B only
3. A, D and E only
4. B and C only

140. Consider the pyramid of energy of an

ecosystem given below :

1. Endosperm 2. Thalamus
3. Endocarp 4. Mesocarp

If T4 is equivalent to 1000 J, what is the value

of T1?
1000 1000
1. J 2. × 4 J
10 10

3. 10, 000 J 4. 10, 00, 000 J

Page: 21
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

141. Which one of the following products 145. Match List-I with List-II:
diffuses out chloroplast during photosynthesis? List-I List-II
1. ADP Organisms Mode of Nutrition
2. NADPH A. Euglenoid I. Parasitic
3. O2
B. Dinoflagellate II. Saprophytic
4. ATP
C. Slime mould III. Photosynthetic
142. Recombinant DNA molecule can be created Switching between
normally by cutting the vector DNA and source D. Plasmodium IV. photosynthetic and
DNA respectively with: heterotrophic mode
1. Hind II, Hind II
2. Hind II, Alu I Choose the correct answer from the options
3. Hind II, EcoR I given below:
4. Hind II, Bam HI 1. A-III, B-IV, C- II, D- I
2. A-IV, B-II, C- I, D- III
143. Which one of the following is not a 3. A-IV, B-III, C- II, D- I
limitation of ecological pyramids? 4. A-IV, B-II, C- III, D- I
Saprophytes are not given any place in
1. 146. Which of the following graphs depicts the
ecological pyramids
effect of substrate concentration on velocity of
It assumes a simple food chain that, almost,
2. enzyme catalysed reaction?
never exists in nature
3. It accommodates a food web
It does not take into account the same
4. species belonging to two or more trophic
levels 1. 2.

144. The Bt toxin in genetically engineered Bt

cotton kills the pest by:
1. creating pores in the midgut
2. damaging the respiratory system
3. degenerating the nervous system
4. altering the pH of body fluids 3. 4.

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

147. When will the population density increase, 150. Observe the given figure. Identify the
under special conditions? different stages labelled with alphabets by
When the number of: selecting the correct option:
deaths exceeds number of births and also
1. number of emigrants equals number of
immigrants
births plus number of immigrants equal
2.
number of deaths plus number of emigrants
birth plus number of emigrants is more than
3. the number of deaths plus number of
immigrants
birth plus number of immigrants is more
4. than the sum of number of deaths and
number of emigrants

148. When a tall pea plant with round seeds

was selfed, it produced the progeny of:
(a) tall plants with round seeds and
(b) tall plants with wrinkled seeds
Identify the genotype of the parent plant:
1. TtRr A-Carboxylation, B-Regeneration, C-
1.
2. TtRR Reduction
3. TTRR A-Reduction, B-Decarboxylation, C-
4. TTRr 2.
Regeneration
A-Carboxylation, B-Reduction, C-
149. Match List-I with List-II: 3.
Regeneration
List-I List-II A-Reduction, B-Carboxylation, C-
Biodiversity 4.
Khasi and Jantia hills
A. I. Regeneration
hotspot in Meghalaya
World Summit in
B. Sacred groves II. Sustainable
Development 2002 Biology - 2 - Section
Johannesburg
C.
South Africa
III. Parthenium
A
Alien species 151. Match List-I with List-II:
D. IV. Western Ghats
invasion List-I List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options A. Predator I. Ophrys
given below: B. Mutualism II. Pisaster
1. A-IV, B-I, C- II, D- III
C. Parasitism III. Female wasp and fig
2. A-II, B-III, C- IV, D- I
3. A-I, B-IV, C- III, D- I D. Sexual deceit IV. Plasmodium
4. A-III, B-I, C- II, D- IV Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
2. A-IV,B-I,C-II,D-III
3. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV
4. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

152. Match List-I with List-II: 154. Match List-I with List-II:
List-II Type List-I List-II
List-I Location of Joint
of Joint A. Gene pool I. Stable within a generation
Joint between humerus Change in gene frequency
A. I. Gliding joint B. Genetic drift II.
and pectoral girdle by chance
Ball and Transfer of genes into or
B. Knee joint II. C. Genetic flow III.
socket joint out of population
Joint between atlas and Gene Total number of genes and
C. III. Hinge Joint D. IV.
axis frequency their alleles
D. Joint between carpals IV. Pivot joint Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options 1. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
given below: 2. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
1. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I 3. A-I,B-II,C-III,D-IV
2. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV 4. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I
3. A-I,B-IV,C-III,D-II
4. A-II,B-I,C-III,D-IV 155. Which evolutionary phenomenon is
depicted by the sketch given in figure?
153. Following are the steps involved in action
of toxin in Bt Cotton:
The inactive toxin converted into active
A.
form due to alkaline pH of gut of insect
Bacillus thuringiensis produce crystals with
B.
toxic insecticidal proteins.
C. The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals. 1. Artificial selection
The activated toxin binds to the surface of 2. Genetic drift
D. midgut cells, creates pores and causes death 3. Convergent evolution
of the insect. 4. Adaptive radiation
The toxin proteins exist as inactive
E. 156. A person with blood group A Rh- can
protoxins in bacteria.
Choose the correct sequence of steps from the receive the blood transfusion from which of the
options given below: following types?
1. E→C→B→A→D A. B Rh-
2. B→C→A→E→D B. AB Rh-
3. A→E→B→D→C C. O Rh-
4. B→E→C→A→D D. A Rh-
E. A Rh+
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. D and E only
2. D only
3. A and B only
4. C and D only

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

157. Enzymes that catalyse the removal of 160. Match List-I with List-II
groups from substrates by mechanisms other List-I List-II
than hydrolysis leaving double bonds, are A. Epinephrine I. Hyperglycemia
known as:
B. Thyroxine II. Smooth muscle contraction
1. Transferases
2. Oxidoreductases C. Oxytocin III. Basal metabolic rate
3. Dehydrogenases D. Glucagon IV. Emergency hormone
4. Lyases Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
158. Match List-I with List-II: 1. A-II,B-I,C-IV,D-III
List-II 2. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
List-I Stage of 3. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
Event Prophase-I 4. A-I,B-IV,C-III,D-II
(Meiosis - I)
A. Chiasmata I. Pachytene 161. Which of the following statements is
correct about the type of junction and their role
B. Crossing over II. Diakinesis
in our body?
Synaptonemal complex Adhering junctions facilitate the cells to
C. III. Diplotene 1.
formation communicate with each other.
Terminalisation of Tight junctions help to stop substances from
D. IV. Zygotene 2.
chiasmata leaking across a tissue.
Choose the correct answer from the options
Tight junctions help to perform cementing to
given below: 3.
keep neighbouring cells together.
1. A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II
2. A-II,B-I,C-III,D-IV Gap junctions help to create gap between the
4.
3. A-III,B-I,C-II,D-IV cells and tissues.
4. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I

159. Match List-I with List-II: 162. Select the restriction endonuclease
List-I List-II enzymes whose restriction sites are present for
Primary structure of Human the tetracycline resistance (tetR) gene in the
A. I. pBR322 cloning vector.
protein haemoglobin
1. Bam HI and Sal I
Secondary structure
B. II. Disulphide bonds 2. Sal I and Pst I
of protein
3. Pst I and Pvu I
Tertiary structure of 4. Pvu I and Bam HI
C. III. Polypeptide chain
protein
Quaternary structure Alpha helix and β 163. Match List-I with List-II:
D. IV.
of protein sheet List-I List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options A. Chondrichthyes I. Clarias
given below:
B. Cyclostomata II. Carcharodon
1. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I
2. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV C. Osteichthyes III. Myxine
3. A-I,B-III,C-II,D-IV D. Amphibia IV. Ichthyophis
4. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
2. A-I,B-III,C-II,D-IV
3. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV
4. A-I,B-II,C-III,D-IV

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

164. Given below are two statements: One is 166. Match List-I with List-II:
labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as List-I List-II
Reason (R). Cells are metabolically active and G2
During menstrual cycle, the A. I.
proliferate phase
Assertion (A): ovulation takes place
G
approximately on 14th day. B. DNA replication takes place II. 1
phase
Rapid secretion of LH in the
G
middle of menstrual cycle C. Proteins are synthesised III. 0
Reason (R): induces rupture of Graafian phase
follicle and thereby the release Quiescent stage with
D. IV. S phase
of ovum. metabolically active cells
In the light of the above statements, choose the Choose the correct answer from the options
most appropriate answer from the options given below:
given below. 1. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
1. (A) is True but (R) is False. 2. A-I,B-III,C-IV,D-II
3. A-II,B-I,C-III,D-IV
2. (A) is False but (R) is True
4. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
3.
correct explanation of (A). 167. Match List-I with List-II:
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the List-I List-II
4.
correct explanation of (A).
Migratory flamingoes and
Interference
A. resident fish in South I.
competition
American lakes
165. Match List-I with List-II with respect to
Abingdon tortoise became
convergent evolution: Competitive
B. extinct after introduction II.
List-I List-II release
of goats in their habitat
A. Lemur I. Flying phalanger
Chathamalus expands its
B. Bobcat II. Numbat Resource
C. distributional range in the III.
C. Anteater III. Spotted cuscus partitioning
absence of Balanus
D. Flying squirrels IV. Tasmanian tiger cat Five closely related species
Choose the correct answer from the options of Warblers feeding in Interspecific
D. IV.
given below: different location on the competition
1. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I same tree
2. A-III,B-II,C-IV,D-I Choose the correct answer from the options
3. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I given below:
4. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I 1. A-I,B-IV,C-III,D-II
2. A-IV,B-I,C-II,D-III
3. A-III,B-I,C-II,D-IV
4. A-II,B-IV,C-III,D-I

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

168. Match List-I with List-II relating to 171. Given below are two statements:
microbes and their products : Antibiotics are chemicals
Statement
List-I List-II produced by microbes that kill
I:
(Microbes) (Products) other microbes.
A. Streptococcus I. Citric acid Statement Antibodies are chemicals formed
B. Trichoderma polysporum II. Clot buster II: in body that eliminate microbes.
C. Monascus purpureus III. Cyclosporin A In the light of the above statements, choose the
D. Aspergillus niger IV. Statins most appropriate answer from the options
given below.
1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
Choose the correct answer from the options
incorrect.
given below:
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
correct.
2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are
3. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
correct.
4. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
169. Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II 172. Arrange the following parts in human
A. F1 Particles I. Chromosomes mammary gland, traversing the route of milk
B. Histones II. Cilia ejection.
C. Axoneme III. Golgi apparatus A. Mammary duct
B. Lactiferous duct
D. Cisternae IV. Mitochondria
C. Mammary alveolus
Choose the correct answer from the options
D. Ampulla
given below:
E. Mammary tubule
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
Choose the correct answer from the options
2. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
given below:
3. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
1. D→C→E→A→B
4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
2. C→E→B→A→D
3. C→E→A→D→B
170. Match List-I with List-II relating to
4. A→C→E→D→B
examples of various kind of IUDs and barrier :
List-I List-II 173. Which of the following are correct about
A. Copper releasing IUD I. Vaults EcoRI?
B. Non-medicated IUD II. Multiload 375 A. Cut the DNA with blunt end
C. Contraceptive barrier III. LNG-20 B. Cut the DNA with sticky end
D. Hormone releasing IUD IV. Lippes loop C. Recognises a specific palindromic sequence.
Cut the DNA between the base G and A
Choose the correct answer from the options D. where it encounters the DNA sequence
given below : 'GAATTC'
1. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I E. Exonuclease
2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Choose the correct answer from the options
3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
given below:
4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
1. B,C,E only 2. A,D,E only
3. A,C,D only 4. B,C,D only

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

174. Which of the following is/are present in 178. Which of the following pairs is an
female cockroach? incorrect match?
A. Collateral gland 1. Annelids and arthropods - Bilateral
B. Mushroom gland symmetry
C. Spermatheca 2. Sponges - Acoelomates
D. Anal style 3. Coelenterates and Ctenophores - Radial
E. Phallic gland symmetry
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 4. Platyhelminthes - Diploblastic organisation
options given below:
1. B and D only 179. Match List-I with List-II:
2. B and E only List-I List-II
3. A only Maximum volume of air
4. A and C only Residual
A. I. that can be breathed in
volume
after forced expiration
175. Match List-I with List-II:
Volume of air inspired or
List-I List-II Vital
B. II. expired during normal
A. Malignant tumors I. Destroy tumors capacity
respiration
B. MALT II. AIDS Volume of air remaining in
Expiratory
C. NACO III. Metastasis C. III. lungs after forcible
capacity
D. α - Interferons IV. Lymphoid tissue expiration
Choose the correct answer from the options D. Tidal Volume IV. Total volume of air expired
given below: after normal inspiration
1. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I Choose the correct answer from the options
2. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I given below:
3. A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II 1. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
4. A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II 2. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
3. A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II
176. Open Circulatory system is present in: 4. A-I,B-II,C-III,D-IV
1. Palaemon, Nereis, Balanoglossus
2. Hirudinaria, Bombyx, Salpa 180. Match List-I with List-II
3. Anopheles, Limax, Limulus List-I List-II
4. Pheretima, Musca, Pila A. Living Fossil I. Elongated canine teeth
B. Connecting Link II. Vermiform appendix
177. In which of the following connective
tissues, the cells secrete fibres of collagen or C. Vestigial Organ III. Echidna
elastin? D. Atavism IV. Latimeria
A. Cartilage Choose the correct answer from the options
B. Bone given below:
C. Adipose tissue 1. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
D. Blood 2. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
E. Areolar tissue 3. A-IV,B-III,C-I,D-II
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 4. A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II
options given below:
1. B,C,D and E only
2. A,B,C and E only
3. B,C and D only
4. A,C and D only

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Biology - 2 - Section
181. Match List-I with List-II
List-I List-II
A. Schwann cells
B. Synaptic knob
I. Neurotransmitter
II. Cerebral cortex
B
C. Bipolar neurons III. Myelin Sheath 186. Match List-I with List-II relating to human
female external genitalia :
D. Multipolar neurons IV. Retina
List-I List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options
(Structures) (Features)
given below:
1. A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II A fleshy fold of tissue
2. A-I,B-IV,C-II,D-III A. Mons pubis I. surrounding the vaginal
3. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I opening
4. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV Fatty cushion of cells
B. Clitoris II.
covered by skin and hair
182. Diuresis is prevented by: Tiny finger-like structure
C. Hymen III.
1. Renin from JG cells via switching off the above labia minora
osmoreceptors. A thin membrane-like
2. ANF from atria of the heart Labia
D. IV. structure covering vaginal
3. Aldosterone from adrenal medulla majora
opening
4. Vasopressin from Neurohypophysis
Choose the correct answer from the options
183. Following is a list of STDs. Select the given below:
diseases which are not completely curable. 1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
A. Genital warts 2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
B. Genital herpes 3. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
C. Syphilis 4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
D. Hepatitis-B
E. Trichomoniasis 187. Aneuploidy is a chromosomal disorder
Choose the correct answer from options given where chromosome number is not the exact
below: copy of its haploid set of chromosomes, due to :
1. A and D only A. Substitution
2. B and D only B. Addition
3. A and C only C. Deletion
4. D and E only D. Translocation
E. Inversion
184. What is the correct order (old to recent) of Choose the most appropriate answer from the
periods in Paleozoic era? options given below :
1. Silurian, Devonian, Permian, Carboniferous 1. C and D only
2. Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous, Permian 2. D and E only
3. Permian, Devonian, Silurian, Carboniferous 3. A and B only
4. Silurian, Carboniferous, Permian, Devonian 4. B and C only

185. 'Lub' sound of heart is caused by the

___________.
1. closure of the semilunar valves
2. opening of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
3. opening of the semilunar valves
4. closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

188. Given below are two statements: 191. Given below are two statements:
RNA interference takes place in Concentrated urine is formed
Statement I: all eukaryotic organisms as Statement I: due to counter current
method of cellular defense. mechanism in nephron.
RNAi involves the silencing of a Counter current mechanism
specific mRNA due to a helps to maintain osmotic
Statement II:
Statement II: complementary single stranded gradient in the medullary
RNA molecule that binds and interstitium.
prevents translation of mRNA In the light of the above statements, choose the
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
correct answer from the options given below. given below:
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False. 1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True. incorrect.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True. 2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False. correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are
189. Identify the wrong statements : correct.
Erythropoietin is produced by 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are
A. incorrect.
juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
B. Leydig cells produce Androgens
192. Given below are two statements:
Atrial Natriuretic factor, a peptide hormone
C. is secreted by the seminiferous tubules of Concentrically arranged
the testes cisternae of Golgi complex are
arranged near the nucleus with
Cholecystokinin is produced by gastro Statement I:
D. distinct convex cis or maturing
intestinal tract
and concave trans or forming
Gastrin acts on intestinal wall and helps in face.
E.
the production of pepsinogen
A number of proteins are
Choose the most appropriate answer from the modified in the cisternae of Golgi
options given below Statement II:
complex before they are
1. D and E only released from cis face.
2. A and B only
In the light of the above statements, choose the
3. C and E only
most appropriate answer from the options
4. A and C only
given below:
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False.
190. Following are the steps involved in the
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True.
process of PCR.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True.
A. Annealing
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
B. Amplification (~1 billion times)
C. Denaturation
D. Treatment with Taq polymerase and
deoxynucleotides
E. Extension
Choose the correct sequence of steps of PCR
from the options given below :
1. C → A → D → E → B
2. A → B → E → D → C
3. A → C → E → D → B
4. D → B → E → C → A

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

193. Match List-I with List-II: 195. The mother has A+ blood group, the father
List-I List-II has B+ and the child is A+. What can be possible
Several antibodies for new- genotypes of all three, respectively?
A. Parturition I. A. IAIA | IBi | IBi
born babies
Collection of ovum after B. IAIA | IBi | IAi
B. Placenta II.
ovulation C. IB i IA IA| IA IB
C. Colostrum III. Foetal ejection reflex D. IAIA | IBIB | IAi
D. Fimbriae IV. Secretion of the hormone hCG E. IA | IBi | IAi
Choose the correct answer from the options Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: given below:
1. A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II 1. C and D
2. A-I,B-IV,C-II,D-III 2. D and A
3. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I 3. A and B
4. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I 4. B and E

194. Given below are two statements: One is 196. What do 'a' and 'b' represent in the
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled following population growth curve?
as Reason R.
Members of subphylum
vertebrate possess notochord
during the embryonic period.
Assertion (A):
The notochord is replaced by a
cartilaginous or bony vertebral
column in the adult.
All chordates are vertebrates
Reason (R): but not all vertebrates are
chordates 'a' represents exponential growth when
In the light of the above statements, choose the responses are not limiting the growth; and 'b'
1.
correct answer from the options given below: represents logistic growth when responses
1. (A) is True but (R) is False are limiting the growth.
2. (A) is False but (R) is True 'a' represents logistic growth when responses
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the are not limiting the growth; 'b' represents
3. 2.
correct explanation of (A). exponential growth when responses are
limiting the growth.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
4. 'a' represents carrying capacity and 'b' shows
correct explanation of (A).
3. logistic growth when responses are limiting
the growth.
'a' represents exponential growth when
4. responses are not limiting the growth and 'b'
shows carrying capacity.

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

197. Select the correct statements regarding 199. Match List-I with List-II:
mechanism of muscle contraction. List-I List-II
It is initiated by a signal sent by CNS via B-
A. A. I. Passive immunity
sensory neuron. Lymphocytes
Neurotransmitter generates action potential B. Interferons II. Cell mediated immunity
B.
in the sarcolemma. Produce an army of
++ level leads to the binding of T-
C. Increased Ca C. III. proteins in response to
Lymphocytes
calcium with troponin actin filaments. pathogens
D. Masking of active site for actin is activated. D. Colostrum IV. Innate immunity
Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis to Choose the correct answer from the options
E.
form cross bridge. given below:
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 1. A-I,B-IV,C-II,D-III
options given below: 2. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
1. B, C and E only 3. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I
2. C, D and E only 4. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
3. A and D only
4. B, D and E only 200. Given below are two statements: One is
labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
198. Match List-I with List-II: as Reason R.
List-I List-II During the transporation of
Squamous Goblet cells of gases, about 20-25 percent of
A. I. Assertion (A):
Epithelium alimentary canal CO2 is carried by haemoglobin
Ciliated Inner lining of as carbamino-haemoglobin.
B. II. This binding is related to high
Epithelium pancreatic ducts Reason (R):
Glandular pCO2 and low pO2 in the tissues
C. III. Walls of blood vessels
Epithelium
Compound Inner surface of In the light of the above statements, choose the
D. IV. correct answer from the options given below.
Epithelium Fallopian tubes
Choose the correct answer from the options 1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
given below: 2. (A) is False but (R) is True.
1. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
2. A-II,B-IV,C-III,D-I 3.
correct explanation of (A).
3. A-III,B-I,C-II,D-IV Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
4. A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II 4.
correct explanation of (A).

Page: 32
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

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