Sri Chaitanya IIT Academy.,India.

 A.P  T.S  KARNATAKA  TAMILNADU  MAHARASTRA  DELHI  RANCHI

A right Choice for the Real Aspirant
ICON Central Office - Madhapur - Hyderabad
SEC: Jr.Super60(Incoming) Nucleus BT JEE-MAIN Date:14-04-2025
Time: 08.30Am to 10.00Am NCERT TEST-01 Max. Marks: 200
IMPORTANT INSTRUCTION:
1. Immediately fill in the Admission number on this page of the Test Booklet with Blue/Black Ball Point Pen
only.
2. The candidates should not write their Admission Number anywhere (except in the specified space) on the
Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet.
3. The test is of 90 Minutes duration.
4. The Test Booklet consists of 50 Que#stions. The maximum marks are 200.
5. There are Two parts in the question paper 1,2, consisting of Physics and Chemistry
having 25 Questions in each subject and subject having two sections.
(I) Section –I contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions with only one correct option.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
(II) Section-II contains 05 Numerical Value Type Questions.
∎ The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal then round off to the Nearest Integer
value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If answer is from 10.5 and
less than 11 round off is 11).
To cancel any attempted question bubble on the question number box.
For example: To cancel attempted Question 21. Bubble on 21 as shown belo w

.
Question Answered for Marking Question Cancelled for Marking
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases.
6. Use Blue / Black Point Pen only for writing particulars / marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Use of pencil is
strictly prohibited.
7. No candidate is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, mobile phone any electron
device etc, except the Identity Card inside the examination hall.
8. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only.
9. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the invigilator on duty in the Hall.
However, the candidate are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
10. Do not fold of make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet
Name of the Candidate (in Capital): ________________________________________________

Admission Number:
Candidate’s Signature:________________ Invigilator’s Signature: ________________
 SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 14-04-2025_Jr.Super60(incoming)_NUCLEUS BT_Jee-Main_NCERT TEST-01_Q.P

14-04-2025_Jr.Super60(incoming)_NUCLEUS BT_
Jee-Main_NCERT TEST-01_Q.Paper

PHYSICS : BASIC MATHEMATICS: Trigonometry, Logarithms, Binomial

expansion, Limits, Continuity, Differentiation, Maxima and Minima,
INTEGRATION (Standard Elementary integrals, Method of
transformation, Method of substitution, Definite integrals) and its
applications
CHEMISTRY : BASIC CONCEPTS OF CHEMISTRY: Dalton's atomic theory,
Concept of atoms(subatomic particles, Atomic Number, mass
number, Isotopes, isotones, isobars) and molecules, acidic and basic
radicals ,crisscross method of writing the formulae of compounds
,Laws of chemical combinations, Atomic and molecular masses,
Average atomic mass and relative abundance, Molecular mass and
formula mass; Density, relative density, Vapour density, relation
between vapour density and degree of dissociation,

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PHYSICS Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I (SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
26. As  increases from 0° to 90°, the value of sin 
1) Increases 2) Decreases
3) Remains constant 4) First decreases then increases
2
27. If sin   and  lies in the first quadrant, the value of tan  is
3
1 3 1
1) 2 2) 3) 4)
2 2 2
28. If sin 1  sin  2  sin 3  3 then value of cos 1  cos  2  cos 3 is
1) 3 2) 0 3) -3 4) 1
29. Value of sin 15  sin 30  sin 45  sin 60o  sin 2 75o is
2 o 2 o 2 o 2

3 5
1) 1 2) 3) 4) 3
2 2
30. Frequency f of a simple pendulum depends on its length  and acceleration g due to gravity
1 g
according to the following equation f  . Graph between which of the following
2 
quantities is a parabola?
1) f on the ordinate and 1 /  on the abscissa
2) f on the ordinate and  on the abscissa
3) f 2 on the ordinate and  on the abscissa
4) f 2 on the ordinate and 1 /  on the abscissa
31. The distance between points  a + b, b + c  and  a - b, c - b  is
1) 2 a 2  b2 2) 2 b2  c 2 3) 2 2b 4) 2 a 2  c2
dy
32. If x  at 4 and y  bt 3 . Find
dx
4a 3b 3a 4b
1) 2) 3) 4)
3bt 4at 4bt 3at
33. A metallic disc is being heated. Its area at any time t is given by A  5t 2  4t  8. Calculate rate
of increase in area at t  3s.
1) 30 m2 / s 2) 34 m2 / s 3) 28 m2 / s 4) 20 m 2 / s

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34. The side of a square is increasing at the rate of 0.1 cm/s. The rate of increase of perimeter
w.r.t. time is :
1) 0.2 cm / s 2) 0.4 cm / s 3) 0.6 cm / s 4) 0.8 cm / s
35. A particle moves along the straight line 3 y  x  5 . Which coordinate changes at a faster rate ?
1) x–coordinate 2) y–coordinate
3) Both x and y coordinates 4) Data insufficient
36. The slope of graph as shown in figure at points 1, 2 and 3 is m1 , m2 and m3 respectively then

1) m1  m2  m3 2) m1  m2  m3 3) m1  m2  m3 4) m1  m3  m2
37. Magnitude of slope of the shown graph.

1) First increases then decreases 2) First decreases then increases

3) Increases 4) Decreases
38. Calculate the area enclosed under the curve f  x   x 2 between the limits x  2 and x  3

19 17
1) 5 2) 3) 4) 8
3 3

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 /2
39.  sin x dx is equal to
 /6

1 1 3
1) 2) 3) 4 4) 0
2 2 2

40. The equation of a curve is given as y  x 2  2  3 x. The curve intersects the y-axis at
1) (1, 0) 2) (2, 0) 3) (0, 2) 4) No where
41. If y = x 2 + 2x-3 , then y-x graph is

1) 2) 3) 4)
42. If y  x –1 , then y-x graph is :-

1) 2) 3) 4)
43. The coordinates of a particle moving in XY– plane vary with time
x  a cos t , y  a sin t . The locus of the particle is a :-
1) Straight line 2) Circle 3) Parabola 4) Ellipse
1 1 1
44. The sum of the series 1     ......... is :-
3 9 27
8 6 2 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
7 5 3 2

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45. In the given figure, each box represents a function machine. A function machine illustrates
what it does with the input.

Which of the following statements is correct ?

1) z   2 x  32 2) z  2  x  32 3) z  2 x  3 4) z  2  x  3

SECTION-II (NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)

This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal
then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If
answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases
x2  9
46. lim 
x 3 x3

47. Value of  tan1o tan 2o tan 3o......... tan 89o  is

48. The value of acceleration due to gravity  g  at height h above the surface of earth is given by

gR 2  nh 
g'  . If h  R, then g '  g 1   . n  ?
 R  h
2
 R

49. log 2 8  ____

50. log b a  log a b  _______

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 SRI CHAITANYA IIT ACADEMY, INDIA 14-04-2025_Jr.Super60(incoming)_NUCLEUS BT_Jee-Main_NCERT TEST-01_Q.P
CHEMISTRY Max Marks: 100
SECTION-I (SINGLE CORRECT ANSWER TYPE)
This section contains 20 Multiple Choice Questions. Each question has 4 options (1), (2), (3) and (4) for its answer, out of which
ONLY ONE option can be correct.
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempted and –1 in all other cases.
51. Which of the following statement about a compound is incorrect?
1) A compound contain molecules whcih has atoms of different elements.
2) A compound differ in properties from those of its constituent elements.
3) The ratio of atoms of different elements in a compound is fixed.
4) All atoms in a compound always have same atomic mass.
52. Correct statements according to Dalton’s atomic theory are
A) In a chemical reaction reactants convert in to products by reorganization of atoms.
B) Atoms of an element in different compounds will have different atomic mass.
C) It explains the bond formation between atoms in a molecule.
D) This theory explains law of conservation of mass.

1) A & B Only 2) B & C Only 3) A & D Only 4) C & D Only

53. Which of the following is not according to law of conservation of mass.

1) P4 ( s )  5O2( g )  P4O10( s ) 2) 2 NO2( g )  O2( g )  N 2O5( s )

3) PCl5( g )  PCl3( g )  Cl2( g ) 4) H 2( g )  Cl2( g )  2 HCl( g )

54. The mass of a CO2 molecule is (atomic mass: C  12 u ; O  16 u )
1) 44 g 2) 7.310 25 g 3) 7.310 23 g 4) 2.65 1025 g
55. Identify the combination of isotopes in the following

1) 14 14
6C , 7 N 2) 12 H , 13 H 3) 14 16
6 C , 8O 4) 12 14
6C , 7 N

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56. Mass ratio of oxygen which combine with fixed mass of carbon to form carbon monoxide
and carbon dioxide is
1) 1:1 2) 3:4 3) 4:3 4) 1:2
57. Mass percentage of hydrogen in hydrogen peroxide  H 2O2  is
1) 29.41 2) 94.12 3) 5.88 4) 2.94

58. Relative abundance of three isotopes of an element 20 X ,22 X and 23 X are 60%, 30% and
10% respectively. The average atomic mass of element ' X ' is
1) 20.9 2) 21.5 3) 21.7 4) 20
59. Statement -1: At same temperature and pressure, the total volume of reactants combining
must equal to total volume of products forming.
Statement-2 : If two elements combine to form more than one compound, the masses of one
element that combine with a fixed mass of the other element, are in the ratio of small whole
numbers.
1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct.
2) Statement-1 is wrong but statement-2 is correct.
3) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is wrong.
4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are wrong.
60. Isotopes differ in
1) Number of electrons only 2) Number of protons only
3) Number of neutrons only 4) Number of protons and number of neutrons both
61. Assertion (A): Formula mass of sodium chloride is 58.5 u
Reason (R): Sodium chloride exist as discrete molecule with molecular formula NaCl .
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation for A.
2) A is correct but R is wrong.
3) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation for A.
4) A is wrong but R is correct.

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62. At same temperature and pressure, 10 lit of helium gas and 10 lit of oxygen gas are
1) Equal in weight 2) Equal in density
3) Equal in no. of molecules 4) Equal in no. of atoms
63. When 10 g of water is vaporized in a closed container, same 10 g of water is dissociated into
hydrogen and oxygen gases in another container. Which of the following remains same in
both process
1) Number of gas molecules
2) Number of atoms in a molecule
3) Total mass of all components in the container
4) Molecular mass of components in the container
64. Law of multiple propotion explained by
1) Formation of NaCl and NaBr 2) Formation of SO2 and CO2
3) Formation of PCl3 and PCl5 4) Formation of H 2O and Cl2O
65. Irrespective of source or method of preparation, pure water have hydrogen & oxygen in 1:8
mass ratio. This statement explains
1) Law of definite proportion 2) Law of multiple proportion
3) Law of reciprocal proportion 4) Law of conservation of mass
66. Statement-I: Equal volumes of all gases at same temperature and pressure should contain
equal number of atoms
Statement-II: At same temperature and pressure 1 mole of atoms of helium and 1 mole of
sodium atomic vapour occupy same volume
1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct.
2) Statement-1 is wrong but statement-2 is correct.
3) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is wrong.
4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are wrong.

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67. Number of hydrogen atoms in 1g of hydrogen gas is nearly
1) 6.02  1023 2) 6.02  1024 3) 6.02  1025 4) 6.02  1022
68. Assertion (A): At same temperature and pressure 10 mL of hydrogen combine with 5 mL of
oxygen to give 15 mL of water vapour.
Reason (R): Mass of water formed should be equal to sum of masses of hydrogen and
oxygen gases reacted.
1) Both A & R are correct and R is correct explanation for A.
2) A is correct but R is wrong.
3) Both A & R are correct but R is not correct explanation for A.
4) A is wrong but R is correct.
69. Average atomic mass of magnesium is 24.31 amu. Abundance of isotopes of magnesium is
79% of 24 Mg and remaining 21% is of 25 Mg and 26 Mg . Calculate percentage of relative
abundance for 26 Mg
1) 10 2) 11 3) 15 4) 16
70. Statement-I: Dalton’s atomic theory could not able to explain Gay Lussac’s law of gaseous
volumes.
Statement-II: Hydrogen is a diatomic molecule.
1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are correct.
2) Statement-1 is wrong but statement-2 is correct.
3) Statement-1 is correct but statement-2 is wrong.
4) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are wrong.
SECTION-II (NUMERICAL VALUE TYPE)
This section contains 5 Numerical Value Type Questions. The Answer should be within 0 to 9999. If the Answer is in Decimal
then round off to the Nearest Integer value (Example i,e. If answer is above 10 and less than 10.5 round off is 10 and If
answer is from 10.5 and less than 11 round off is 11).
Marking scheme: +4 for correct answer, 0 if not attempt and -1 in all other cases
71. Mass of oxygen atom is_____u.
72. If 1 1016 molecules of methane gas occupy 2 litre volume at T K and P atm, then volume
occupied by 4 1017 molecules of carbon dioxide at same temperature and pressure
is______litre.
1
73. Atomic mass unit is defined as parts of mass of one carbon – 12 atom. Value of ‘x’ is
x
74. Mass percent of oxygen in Sulphur trioxide  SO3  molecule is ________
75. Boron has two isotopes 10 B and 11 B . If the average atomic weight of boron is 10.8, the
relative percentage of isotopic abundance of 10 B is
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