Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*2069473947*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB22 03_9702_12/4RP
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Data

acceleration of free fall g = 9.81 m s–2

speed of light in free space c = 3.00  108 m s–1

elementary charge e = 1.60  10–19 C

unified atomic mass unit 1 u = 1.66  10–27 kg

rest mass of proton mp = 1.67  10–27 kg

rest mass of electron me = 9.11  10–31 kg

Avogadro constant NA = 6.02  1023 mol–1

molar gas constant R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1

Boltzmann constant k = 1.38  10–23 J K–1

gravitational constant G = 6.67  10–11 N m2 kg–2

permittivity of free space 0 = 8.85  10–12 F m–1

1
( = 8.99  109 m F–1)
4 0

Planck constant h = 6.63  10–34 J s

Stefan–Boltzmann constant  = 5.67  10–8 W m–2 K–4

Formulae
1
uniformly accelerated motion s = ut + 2
at 2
v 2 = u 2 + 2as

hydrostatic pressure p =  gh

upthrust F =  gV
fsv
Doppler effect for sound waves fo =
v  vs

electric current I = Anvq

resistors in series R = R1 + R2 + ...

1 1 1
resistors in parallel = + + ...
R R1 R2

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1 What could not be a measurement of a physical quantity?

A 10 K B 11 J N–1 m–1 C 17 Pa m3 N–1 D 25 T m

2 A computer memory stick is labelled as having a storage capacity of 128 GB.

The letter B stands for byte, which is a unit.

What is the equivalent storage capacity?

A 1.28  108 B

B 1.28  1011 B

C 1.28  1014 B

D 1.28  1017 B

3 A man of mass 75.2 kg uses a set of weighing scales to measure his mass three times. He
obtains the following readings.

mass / kg

reading 1 80.2
reading 2 80.1
reading 3 80.2

Which statement describes the precision and accuracy of the weighing scales?

A not precise to  0.1 kg and accurate to  0.1 kg

B not precise to  0.1 kg and not accurate to  0.1 kg

C precise to  0.1 kg and accurate to  0.1 kg

D precise to  0.1 kg and not accurate to  0.1 kg

4 Which statement about scalar and vector quantities is correct?

A A scalar quantity has direction but not magnitude.

B A scalar quantity has magnitude but not direction.
C A vector quantity has direction but not magnitude.
D A vector quantity has magnitude but not direction.

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5 How can the acceleration of an object be determined?

A from the area under a displacement–time graph

B from the area under a velocity–time graph
C from the gradient of a displacement–time graph
D from the gradient of a velocity–time graph

6 A sprinter takes a time of 11.0 s to run a 100 m race. She first accelerates uniformly from rest,
reaching a speed of 10 m s–1. She then runs at a constant speed of 10 m s–1 until the finish line.

What is the uniform acceleration of the sprinter for the first part of the race?

A 0.5 m s–2 B 0.91 m s–2 C 1.7 m s–2 D 5.0 m s–2

7 A single horizontal force F is applied to a block X which is in contact with a separate block Y, as
shown.

F
X
Y

The blocks remain in contact as they accelerate along a horizontal frictionless surface. Air
resistance is negligible. X has a greater mass than Y.

Which statement is correct?

A The acceleration of X is equal to force F divided by the mass of X.

B The force that X exerts on Y is equal to F.
C The force that X exerts on Y is less than F.
D The force that X exerts on Y is less than the force that Y exerts on X.

8 A car of mass 750 kg has a horizontal driving force of 2.0 kN acting on it. It has a forward
horizontal acceleration of 2.0 m s–2.

resistive force
driving force

What is the resistive force acting horizontally?

A 0.50 kN B 1.5 kN C 2.0 kN D 3.5 kN

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9 An object falls freely from rest in a vacuum. The graph shows the variation with time t of the
velocity v of the object.

0
0 t

Which graph, using the same scales, represents the object falling in air?

A B C D
v v v v

0 0 0 0
0 t 0 t 0 t 0 t

10 A rock of mass 2m, travelling in deep space at velocity v, explodes into two parts of equal mass,
one of which is then stationary.

What is the kinetic energy of the moving part after the explosion?

A 1
2
mv2 B mv2 C 3
2
mv2 D 2mv2

11 A horizontal metal bar PQ of length 50.0 cm is hinged at end P. The diagram shows the metal bar
viewed from above.

16.0 N

30° Q

5.0 N
P
50.0 cm

Two forces of 16.0 N and 5.0 N are in the horizontal plane and act on end Q, as shown.

What is the resultant moment about P due to the two forces?

A 1.5 N m B 4.4 N m C 6.5 N m D 9.4 N m

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12 A cube WXZY has sides of length 2.0 cm and mass 24.0 g. The cube rests on a metre rule of
negligible mass. The geometrical centre of the cube is vertically above the 70.0 cm mark on the
scale of the rule.

mass
24.0 g
mass W X NOT TO
23.4 g SCALE
Y Z
30 50 69 71

The cube has a non-uniform density so that its centre of gravity is not at its geometrical centre.
The centre of gravity of the cube is in the plane of the diagram.

The rule rests on a pivot at the 50.0 cm mark. A mass of 23.4 g is placed vertically above the
30.0 cm mark. The rule is horizontal and in equilibrium.

What can be determined about the position of the centre of gravity of the cube?

A It must be somewhere along a horizontal line that is 0.5 cm from line WX.
B It must be somewhere along a horizontal line that is 0.5 cm from line YZ.
C It must be somewhere along a vertical line that is 0.5 cm from line WY.
D It must be somewhere along a vertical line that is 0.5 cm from line XZ.

13 A rigid sphere is held at rest on the sea bed. When the sphere is released, it rises to the surface
of the sea. The seawater has a uniform density.

Which statement about the sphere, from its release until it reaches the surface, is correct?

A The sphere always moves with constant acceleration.

B The sphere always moves with constant velocity.
C The upthrust on the sphere always decreases.
D The upthrust on the sphere is always constant.

14 What is a unit for density?

A N m–3 B g mm–1 C kg cm–2 D g mm–3

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15 The total energy input Ein in a process is partly transferred to useful energy output U and partly
transferred to energy that is wasted W.

What is the efficiency of the process?

A U 100%
E in

B W  100%
Ein

C U  100%
W

D U  W  100%
E in

16 An escalator is 60 m long and lifts passengers through a vertical height of 30 m, as shown.

30 m
60 m

To drive the escalator against the forces of friction when there are no passengers requires a
power of 2.0 kW.

The escalator is used by passengers of average mass 60 kg and the power to overcome friction
remains constant.

How much power is required to drive the escalator when it is carrying 20 passengers and is
travelling at 0.75 m s–1?

A 4.4 kW B 6.4 kW C 8.8 kW D 10.8 kW

17 A rock of mass 40 kg is released from rest from a height of 20 m above the surface of a planet.

The rock has a kinetic energy of 32 kJ when it hits the surface of the planet. The planet does not
have an atmosphere.

What is the weight of the rock on the surface of the planet?

A 1.6 N B 390 N C 1.6 kN D 64 kN

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18 A metal wire is stretched. The wire obeys Hooke’s law.

Which quantity has a value that does not change?

A extension
B strain
C stress
D Young modulus

19 An object is stretched until it reaches the elastic limit.

Which statement must describe the stress on the object when it is at the elastic limit?

A It is the maximum stress for which the object obeys Hooke’s law.
B It is the maximum stress that can be applied to the object before it has elastic deformation.
C It is the maximum stress that can be applied to the object before it has plastic deformation.
D It is the maximum stress the object can withstand before it breaks.

20 Which statement about progressive waves is correct?

A They are always transverse waves.

B They can exist in solids but not liquids.
C They decrease in frequency as their speed increases.
D They transfer energy away from their source.

21 A cathode-ray oscilloscope (CRO) is used to determine the frequency of a sound wave.

The diagram shows the waveform on the screen.

The time-base setting is 5.0 ms div–1.

What is the best estimate of the frequency of the sound wave?

A 50 Hz B 71 Hz C 100 Hz D 143 Hz

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22 The warning signal on an ambulance has a frequency of 600 Hz. The speed of sound is 330 m s–1.
The ambulance is travelling with a constant velocity of 25 m s–1 towards an observer. The
ambulance passes, and then moves away from the observer with no change in velocity.

initial position final position

of ambulance of ambulance

observer

Which overall change in observed frequency takes place between the times at which the
ambulance is a long way behind the observer and when it is a long way in front of the observer?

A 49 Hz B 84 Hz C 91 Hz D 98 Hz

23 Brief pulses of red, blue and green light are emitted from the Sun at the same time.

The pulses travel the same distance to reach Mars. Assume that the pulses travel in a vacuum
for the full duration of their journey.

In which order would these pulses of light arrive at Mars?

A all arrive at the same time

B blue first, then green, then red
C red first, then blue, then green
D red first, then green, then blue

24 Two coherent progressive waves from different sources meet at a point.

Which condition must be satisfied for there to be zero resultant amplitude at the point where the
waves meet?

A The two waves must be emitted from their sources with the same intensity.
B The two waves must be in phase with each other at the point.
C The two waves must be travelling in opposite directions.
D The two waves must have the same amplitude at the point.

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25 A corridor is 13.2 m long and has closed doors that reflect sound at both ends. The speed of
sound in the air in the corridor is 330 m s–1.

13.2 m
closed door closed door

wall position of node

What is the lowest frequency of sound that could create a stationary wave in the corridor with a
node halfway along it?

A 0.040 Hz B 13 Hz C 25 Hz D 50 Hz

26 Water waves of wavelength  are formed in a ripple tank. The waves are diffracted as they pass
through a narrow gap of width d (d is greater than ).

Which gap width and which wavelength will cause the largest decrease in the amount of
diffraction?

gap width wavelength

A 1
2
d 1
2

B 1
2
d 2
C 2d 1
2

D 2d 2

27 Two loudspeakers X and Y emit sound waves that are in phase and of wavelength 0.75 m.

An observer O is able to stand anywhere on a straight line that passes through X and Y, as
shown. The observer stands at a point where the sound waves from X and Y meet in phase.

O
X Y

What could be the distances OY and XY?

distance OY / m distance XY / m

A 1.25 3.50
B 2.00 2.75
C 2.75 2.00
D 3.25 1.50

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28 Light of a single wavelength is incident normally on a diffraction grating.

The resulting diffraction pattern is displayed on a screen.

Which change makes the first orders of intensity maxima further apart from each other on the
screen?

A placing the screen closer to the diffraction grating

B using a diffraction grating with less separation between adjacent slits
C using a diffraction grating with more slits but keeping the same separation between adjacent
slits
D using light with a shorter wavelength

29 For a current-carrying wire, the current can be calculated using the equation shown.

I = Anvq

What is the meaning of n?

A the number of charge carriers in the wire

B the number of charge carriers multiplied by the volume of the wire
C the number of charge carriers per unit length of the wire
D the number of charge carriers per unit volume of the wire

30 The number of free electrons passing a point in a wire in 24 hours is 6.0  1023.

What is the average current in the wire?

A 6.3 pA B 1.1 A C 67 A D 4.0 kA

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31 In the circuit shown, lamp P is rated 250 V, 50 W and lamp Q is rated 250 V, 200 W. The two
lamps are connected in series to a 250 V power supply.

250 V

P Q

Assume that the resistance of each lamp remains constant.

Which statement most accurately describes what happens when the switch is closed?

A Lamp P emits four times as much power as lamp Q.

B Lamp P emits twice as much power as lamp Q.
C Lamp Q emits four times as much power as lamp P.
D Lamp Q emits twice as much power as lamp P.

32 A piece of wire has a length of 0.80 m and a diameter of 5.0  10–4 m. The I–V characteristic of
the wire is shown.

5.0
I/A

2.5

0
0 5 10
V/V

What is the resistivity of the metal from which the wire is made?

A 1.2  10–7  m

B 1.6  10–7  m

C 4.9  10–7  m

D 2.0  10–6  m

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33 Ten cells, each of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 1.5 V, are connected together, as shown.

X Y

What is the combined e.m.f. between terminals X and Y?

A 8V B 9V C 12 V D 15 V

34 A cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) E and internal resistance r is connected to a variable resistor,
as shown.

E
r

The resistance of the variable resistor is gradually increased from r to 3r.

Which graph shows the variation of the potential difference (p.d.) v across the internal resistance
with the p.d. V across the variable resistor?

A B
1.0E 1.0E
v v

0.5E 0.5E

0 0
0 0.5E 1.0E 0 0.5E 1.0E
V V

C D
1.0E 1.0E
v v

0.5E 0.5E

0 0
0 0.5E 1.0E 0 0.5E 1.0E
V V

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35 Each of Kirchhoff’s two laws presumes that some quantity is conserved.

Which row states Kirchhoff’s first law and names the quantity that is conserved?

statement quantity
A the algebraic sum of currents charge
into a junction is zero
B the algebraic sum of currents energy
into a junction is zero

C the e.m.f. in a loop is equal to the charge

algebraic sum of the product of
current and resistance round the loop

D the e.m.f. in a loop is equal to the energy

algebraic sum of the product of
current and resistance round the loop

36 A cell has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 8.0 V and negligible internal resistance. The cell forms
part of a circuit, as shown.

8.0 V

R V V1
4.0 !

4.0 !

V
V2

The reading V1 is 4.0 V and the reading V2 is also 4.0 V.

What is the resistance of resistor R?

A 0.50  B 2.0  C 4.0  D 8.0 

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37 In the circuit shown, the cells have negligible internal resistance and the reading on the
galvanometer is zero.

4.0 V

9.0 ! 3.0 !

6.0 ! R

9.0 V

What is the value of resistor R ?

A 2.0  B 6.0  C 12  D 18 

38 When -particles are directed at gold leaf:

1 almost all -particles pass through without deflection

2 a few -particles are deviated through large angles.

What are the reasons for these effects?

1 2
A most -particles have enough energy gold is very dense so a few low
to pass right through the gold leaf energy -particles bounce back
from the gold surface
B most -particles miss all gold atoms a few -particles bounce off gold atoms
C the gold nucleus is very small occasionally the path of an
so most -particles miss all nuclei -particle is close to a nucleus
D the positive charge in an occasionally an -particle
atom is not concentrated experiences many small
enough to deflect an -particle deflections in the same direction

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39 A nucleus X is radioactive and decays into a nucleus Y.

X and Y are isotopes of the same element.

Which combination of particles could have been emitted during the decay process?

A 1 -particle and 1 – particle

B 1 -particle and 2 – particles

C 2 -particles and 1 – particle

D 2 -particles and 2 – particles

40 A positively charged meson consists of a quark and an antiquark.

What could be the quark and antiquark?

A charm and antiup

B down and antitop
C strange and antibottom
D up and antistrange

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/F/M/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level
* 5 2 5 1 9 9 0 3 8 0 *

PHYSICS 9702/22
Paper 2 AS Level Structured Questions February/March 2022

1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the question paper.

No additional materials are needed.

INSTRUCTIONS
● Answer all questions.
● Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
● Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
● Do not write on any bar codes.
● You may use a calculator.
● You should show all your working and use appropriate units.

INFORMATION
● The total mark for this paper is 60.
● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

DC (PQ/JG) 303268/2
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1 A sphere of radius 2.1 mm falls with terminal (constant) velocity through a liquid, as shown in
Fig. 1.1.

sphere,
radius 2.1 mm
weight 7.2 × 10–4 N constant
velocity
downwards

liquid,
density ρ

Fig. 1.1

Three forces act on the moving sphere. The weight of the sphere is 7.2 × 10–4 N and the upthrust
acting on it is 4.8 × 10–4 N. The viscous force FV acting on the sphere is given by

FV = krv

where r is the radius of the sphere, v is its velocity and k is a constant. The value of k in SI units
is 17.

(a) Determine the SI base units of k.

SI base units ......................................................... [2]

(b) Use the value of the upthrust acting on the sphere to calculate the density ρ of the liquid.

ρ = .............................................. kg m–3 [3]

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(c) (i) On the sphere in Fig. 1.1, draw three arrows to show the directions of the weight W, the
upthrust U and the viscous force FV. Label these arrows W, U and FV respectively. [1]

(ii) Determine the magnitude of the terminal (constant) velocity of the sphere.

velocity = ................................................ m s–1 [2]

[Total: 8]

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2 Water leaves the end of a hose pipe at point P with a horizontal velocity of 6.6 m s–1, as shown in
Fig. 2.1.

hose pipe
P 6.6 m s–1
path of water

Q ground

3.5 m

Fig. 2.1 (not to scale)

Point P is at height h above the ground. The water hits the ground at point Q. The horizontal
distance from P to Q is 3.5 m.

Air resistance is negligible. Assume that the water between P and Q consists of non-interacting
droplets of water and that the only force acting on each droplet is its weight.

(a) Explain, briefly, why the horizontal component of the velocity of a droplet of water remains
constant as it moves from P to Q.

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(b) Show that the time taken for a droplet of water to move from P to Q is 0.53 s.

[1]

(c) Calculate height h.

h = ...................................................... m [2]

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(d) For the movement of a droplet of water from P to Q, state and explain whether the
displacement of the droplet is less than, more than or the same as the distance along its path.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(e) Calculate the magnitude of the displacement of a droplet of water that moves from P to Q.

displacement = ...................................................... m [2]

[Total: 7]

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3 A jet of water hits a vertical wall at right angles, as shown in Fig. 3.1.

horizontal jet
of water, vertical
density 1.0 × 103 kg m–3 wall

water runs
velocity
cross-sectional area down the wall
5.0 m s–1
1.5 × 10–4 m2

Fig. 3.1 (not to scale)

The water hits the vertical wall with a velocity of 5.0 m s–1 in a horizontal direction. The
cross-sectional area of the jet is 1.5 × 10–4 m2. The density of the water is 1.0 × 103 kg m–3.

The water runs down the wall after hitting it.

(a) Show that, over a time of 1.6 s, the mass of water hitting the wall is 1.2 kg.

[2]

(b) Calculate:

(i) the decrease in the horizontal momentum of the mass of water in (a) due to hitting the
wall

decrease in momentum = .................................................... N s [1]

(ii) the magnitude of the horizontal force exerted on the water by the wall.

force = ...................................................... N [1]

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(c) State and explain the magnitude of the horizontal force exerted on the wall by the water.

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(d) Calculate the pressure exerted on the wall by the water.

pressure = .................................................... Pa [2]

[Total: 7]

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4 A child moves down a long slide, as shown in Fig. 4.1.

X
child
surface of slide

Fig. 4.1 (not to scale)

The child moves from rest at the top end X of the slide. An average resistive force of 76 N opposes
the motion of the child as they move to the lower end Y of the slide. The kinetic energy of the child
at Y is 300 J. The decrease in gravitational potential energy of the child as it moves from X to Y is
3200 J.

(a) Determine the ratio

kinetic energy of the child at Y when the resistive force is 76 N .
kinetic energy of the child at Y if there is no resistive force

ratio = ......................................................... [1]

(b) Use the answer in (a) to calculate the ratio

speed of the child at Y when the resistive force is 76 N .
speed of the child at Y if there is no resistive force

ratio = ......................................................... [2]

(c) Calculate the length of the slide from X to Y.

length = ...................................................... m [2]

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(d) At end Y of the slide, the child is brought to rest by a board, as shown in Fig. 4.2.

child board spring

surface of
slide

Fig. 4.2 (not to scale)

A spring connects the board to a fixed point. The spring obeys Hooke’s law and has a spring
constant of 63 N m–1. The child hits the board so that it moves to the right and compresses the
spring. The speed of the child becomes zero when the elastic potential energy of the spring
has increased to its maximum value of 140 J.

(i) Calculate the maximum compression of the spring.

maximum compression = ...................................................... m [2]

(ii) Calculate the percentage efficiency of the transfer of the kinetic energy of the child to the
elastic potential energy of the spring.

percentage efficiency = ..................................................... % [1]

(iii) The maximum compression of the spring is x0. On Fig. 4.3, sketch a graph to show the
variation of the elastic potential energy of the spring with its compression x from x = 0 to
x = x0. Numerical values are not required.

elastic potential energy

0
0 x x0

Fig. 4.3
[2]

[Total: 10]
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5 (a) (i) State the conditions required for the formation of a stationary wave.

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................... [2]

(ii) State the phase difference between any two vibrating particles in a stationary wave
between two adjacent nodes.

phase difference = ........................................................° [1]

(b) A motorcycle is travelling at 13.0 m s–1 along a straight road. The rider of the motorcycle sees
a pedestrian standing in the road directly ahead and operates a horn to emit a warning sound.
The pedestrian hears the warning sound from the horn at a frequency of 543 Hz. The speed
of the sound in the air is 334 m s–1.

(i) Calculate the frequency, to three significant figures, of the sound emitted by the horn.

frequency = .................................................... Hz [2]

(ii) The motorcycle rider passes the stationary pedestrian and then moves directly away from
her. As the rider moves away, he operates the horn for a second time. The pedestrian
now hears sound that is increasing in frequency.

State the variation, if any, in the speed of the motorcycle when the rider operates the
horn for the second time.

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

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(c) A beam of vertically polarised monochromatic light is incident normally on a polarising filter,
as shown in Fig. 5.1.

polarising
filter

vertically polarised 20° transmitted

incident light beam, light beam,

intensity I0 intensity IT

transmission
axis of filter

Fig. 5.1

The filter is positioned with its transmission axis at an angle of 20° to the vertical.
The incident light has intensity I0 and the transmitted light has intensity IT.
IT
(i) By considering the ratio , calculate the ratio
I0

amplitude of transmitted light .

amplitude of incident light

Show your working.

ratio = ......................................................... [3]

(ii) The filter is now rotated, about the direction of the light beam, from its starting position
shown in Fig. 5.1. The direction of rotation is such that the angle of the transmission axis
to the vertical initially increases.

Calculate the minimum angle through which the filter must be rotated so that the intensity
of the transmitted light returns to the value that it had when the filter was at its starting
position.

angle = ....................................................... ° [1]

[Total: 10]
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 14

6 The ends of a metal resistance wire are connected to a battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 8.0 V
and negligible internal resistance, as shown in Fig. 6.1.

8.0 V

resistance wire

Fig. 6.1

The power dissipated by the resistance wire is 36 W.

(a) Calculate:

(i) the current in the resistance wire

current = ....................................................... A [2]

(ii) the number of free electrons that pass through the resistance wire in a time of 50 s

number = ......................................................... [2]

(iii) the resistance of the wire.

resistance = ...................................................... Ω [2]

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 15

(b) The metal of the resistance wire in the circuit has a resistivity of 1.4 × 10–6 Ω m. The
cross-sectional area of the wire is 0.25 mm2.

Determine the length of the wire.

length = ...................................................... m [2]

(c) The circuit shown in Fig. 6.1 is modified by replacing the original resistance wire with a second
resistance wire. The second wire has a greater diameter than the original wire. There are no
other differences between the second wire and the original wire.

By reference to resistance, state and explain whether the power dissipated by the second
wire is more than, less than or the same as the power dissipated by the original wire.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [2]

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 16

(d) The circuit shown in Fig. 6.1 is modified by connecting a second battery, of e.m.f. 8.0 V and
negligible internal resistance, in parallel with the original battery and the original resistance
wire, as shown in Fig. 6.2.

8.0 V

8.0 V

original
resistance wire

Fig. 6.2

By reference to the current in the resistance wire, state and explain whether the addition of
the second battery causes the power in the original resistance wire to decrease, increase or
stay the same.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [2]

[Total: 12]

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 17

7 (a) A nucleus of sodium-22 ( 22 +

11Na) decays by emitting a β particle. A different nucleus is formed
by the decay.

(i) State the name of another lepton that is produced by the decay.

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

(ii) Determine the nucleon number and the proton number of the nucleus that is formed by
the decay.

nucleon number = ...............................................................

proton number = ...............................................................

[2]

(iii) The quark composition of a nucleon in the sodium-22 nucleus is changed during the
decay.

Describe the change to the quark composition of the nucleon.

...........................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

(b) A baryon consists of quarks that are the same flavour (type). The charge of the baryon is –2e,
where e is the elementary charge.

(i) Calculate, in terms of e, the charge of each quark.

charge = ...................................................... e [1]

(ii) State a possible flavour (type) of the quarks.

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

[Total: 6]

© UCLES 2022 9702/22/F/M/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*3154375392*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 20 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

IB22 06_9702_12/2RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 4

4 An object is moving with an initial velocity of 4.0 m s–1 to the right. The velocity of the object
changes so that its final velocity is 3.0 m s–1 downwards, as shown.

initial velocity final velocity

4.0 m s–1 3.0 m s–1

Which arrow represents the change in velocity of the object?

A B

C D

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 5

5 A car travels anticlockwise along a horizontal circular road of radius 12 m, as shown.

The car takes a time of 4.0 s to move from position P to position Q.

direction of
travel of car
12 m
P

road

What is the magnitude of the average velocity of the car for the journey from P to Q?

A 4.2 m s–1 B 4.7 m s–1 C 6.0 m s–1 D 14 m s–1

6 The water surface in a deep well is 78.0 m below the top of the well. A person at the top of the
well drops a heavy stone down the well.

Air resistance is negligible. The speed of sound in the air is 330 m s–1.

What is the time interval between the person dropping the stone and hearing it hitting the water?

A 3.75 s B 3.99 s C 4.19 s D 4.22 s

7 Which statement is not a requirement of a pair of forces that obey Newton’s third law of motion?

A The forces act in opposite directions.

B The forces act on different objects.
C The forces act on objects in contact.
D The forces are of equal magnitude.

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8 A child of mass 20 kg stands on the rough surface of a sledge of mass 40 kg. The sledge can
slide on a horizontal frictionless surface.

One end of a rope is attached to the sledge. The rope passes around a fixed frictionless pole,
and the other end of the rope is held by the child, as shown.

frictionless
horizontal rope pole

frictionless surface

The rope is horizontal. The child pulls on the rope with a horizontal force of 12 N. This causes the
child and the sledge to move with equal acceleration towards the pole.

What is the frictional force between the child and the sledge?

A 4.0 N B 6.0 N C 8.0 N D 12 N

9 A stone S and a foam rubber ball R are identical spheres of equal volume. They are released
from rest at time t = 0 and fall vertically through the air. Both reach terminal velocity.

Which graph best shows the variation with time t of the speed v of the stone and of the rubber
ball?

A B C D

v R v S v v S
R and S
R
S R

0 0 0 0
0 t 0 t 0 t 0 t

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 7

10 Two balls X and Y are moving towards each other with speeds of 5 m s–1 and 15 m s–1
respectively.

5 m s–1 15 m s–1

X Y

They make a perfectly elastic head-on collision and ball Y moves to the right with a speed
of 7 m s–1.

What is the speed and direction of ball X after the collision?

A 3 m s–1 to the left

B 13 m s–1 to the left
C 3 m s–1 to the right
D 13 m s–1 to the right

11 Two forces form a couple.

Which statement describes the two forces?

A They are in the same direction.

B They are perpendicular to each other.
C They have the same magnitude.
D They pass through the same point.

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12 A uniform rod is attached by a hinge at one end to a wall. The other end of the rod is supported
by a wire so that the rod is horizontal and in equilibrium.

wire
wall

hinge
rod

Which arrow shows the direction of the force on the rod from the hinge?

A B C D

13 A diving board of length 5.0 m is hinged at one end and supported 2.0 m from this end by a spring
of spring constant 10 kN m–1. A child of mass 40 kg stands at the far end of the board.

mass of child
40 kg

diving board
2.0 m

spring
hinge

5.0 m

What is the extra compression of the spring caused by the child standing on the end of the
board?

A 1.0 cm B 1.6 cm C 9.8 cm D 16 cm

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14 A granite rock at the surface of the Earth has density . The rock is transported to the surface of
another planet.

The acceleration of free fall on the surface of the other planet is twice that on the surface of the
Earth.

What is the density of the rock on the other planet?

A 0.5 B  C 2 D 4

15 A closed U-shaped tube contains a stationary liquid of density . One side of the tube contains a
gas at pressure p1 and the other side contains a gas at pressure p2, as shown.

gas,
pressure p2
gas, z
pressure p1
y

x
liquid, density !

The acceleration of free fall is g.

Which equation is correct?

A p1 =  gy

B p2 =  g(x – z)

C p1 – p2 =  g(y – z)

D p1 + p2 =  gx

16 Which product of two quantities is equal to power?

A force  distance

B force  velocity

C work done  time

D work done  velocity

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17 Researchers have developed a new type of filament lamp with an efficiency of 40%. Old-type
filament lamps have an efficiency of 5.0%. The two types of lamp produce the same useful output
power.

input power to new type of lamp

What is the ratio ?
input power to old type of lamp

A 0.13 B 0.63 C 1.6 D 8.0

18 A student attempts to derive the formula for kinetic energy EK. She begins by considering an
object of mass m which is initially at rest. A constant force F applied to the object causes it to
accelerate to final velocity v in displacement s. The kinetic energy gained by the object is equal to
the work done on the object by the force F.

Which equation would the student not need in order to derive the formula for EK?

A F = ma B W = Fs C E= 1
2
Fs D v 2 = u 2 + 2as

19 A metal wire obeys Hooke’s law and has a Young modulus of 2.0  1011 Pa. The wire has an
original length of 1.6 m and a diameter of 0.48  10–3 m.

What is the spring constant of the wire?

A 7.2  103 N m–1

B 2.3  104 N m–1

C 2.9  104 N m–1

D 9.0  104 N m–1

20 A wire is being stretched by a tensile force.

Which statement about the elastic limit must be correct?

A The deformation is plastic after the elastic limit has been reached.
B The deformation is plastic until the elastic limit is reached.
C The extension is proportional to the tensile force after the elastic limit has been reached.
D The extension is proportional to the tensile force until the elastic limit is reached.

21 Which statement is correct for all types of progressive wave?

A The distance from a peak to the next trough is equal to a wavelength.

B They can be demonstrated in ripple tanks.
C They consist of vibrating atoms.
D They transfer energy from one position to another.

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22 A transverse water wave is moving along the surface of some water. This causes a ball to move
vertically without moving horizontally as it floats upon the surface. At one instant, the ball is at the
position shown.

ball

0.70 m
NOT TO direction of
SCALE wave travel

2.4 m

The wave has a frequency of 0.20 Hz and an amplitude of 0.70 m. The distance between a trough
and an adjacent peak is 2.4 m.

What is the distance travelled by the ball in a time of 20 s?

A 5.6 m B 9.6 m C 11.2 m D 19.2 m

23 A sound wave travels from left to right across a room. The variation with distance across the
room of the displacement of the air molecules at one instant is shown.

At which distance will the air pressure be lowest?

displacement
right

0
A B C D distance from left-hand
left end of room

24 A source emits a sound wave of a single frequency. The Doppler effect causes a different
frequency of sound to be heard by a stationary observer.

What is a requirement for the Doppler effect to occur?

A a source that is moving as it produces the sound wave

B a source that produces a polarised sound wave
C a source that produces a sound wave of changing amplitude
D a source that produces a sound wave of changing frequency

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 12

25 An electromagnetic wave in free space has a frequency of 2.5  1014 Hz.

Which region of the electromagnetic spectrum includes this frequency?

A infrared
B microwave
C ultraviolet
D X-ray

26 Two polarising filters are placed next to each other so that their planes are parallel.

The first polarising filter has its transmission axis at an angle of 50 to the vertical.

The second polarising filter has its transmission axis at an angle of 20 to the vertical. The angle
between the transmission axes of the two polarising filters is 30

A beam of vertically polarised light of intensity 8.0 W m–2 is incident normally on the first polarising
filter.

What is the intensity of the light that is transmitted from the second polarising filter?

A zero B 2.5 W m–2 C 2.9 W m–2 D 6.0 W m–2

27 A stationary wave on a stretched string is set up between two points P and T.

Q S
P
T

vibrator

Which statement about the stationary wave is correct?

A Point R is at a node.
B Points Q and S vibrate in phase.
C The distance between P and T is three wavelengths.
D The wave transfers energy from P to T.

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 13

28 A bar vibrates with frequency f to produce water waves in a ripple tank.

bar vibrating
with frequency f

barrier with
gap of width x

The waves pass through a gap of width x in a barrier so that diffraction occurs.

Which combination of vibration frequency and gap width will produce the smallest angle of
diffraction?

vibration
gap width
frequency

A f x
2 2

B f 2x
2

C 2f x
2
D 2f 2x

29 An outdoor concert has two large speakers beside the stage for broadcasting music.

In order to test the speakers, they are made to emit sound of the same wavelength and the same
amplitude.

The curved lines in the diagram represent wavefronts.

Where is the loudest sound heard?

A C

D
B

speakers
stage

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30 The equation

d sin
=
n

is used to calculate the wavelength  of light in an experiment that uses a diffraction grating. The
light from the diffraction grating is displayed on a screen.

What do the symbols n and d represent?

n d

A number of slits in the grating distance between adjacent slits in the grating
B number of slits in the grating distance from grating to screen
C order of intensity maximum distance between adjacent slits in the grating
D order of intensity maximum distance from grating to screen

31 The diagram shows a metal block.

I I
c
a

The block has sides of length a, b and c as shown, and its volume is V. Each charge carrier has a
charge –q and the number density of the charge carriers in the metal is n. It takes each charge
carrier an average time of t to pass through the block.

What is an expression for the current I ?

nqV nqbc
A I = nqabc B I= C I= D I = nqaV
t t

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 15

32 The circuit diagrams show two lamps X and Y each connected to a cell. The current in lamp X is
0.50 A and its resistance is 9.6 . The current in lamp Y is 3.0 A and its resistance is 1.2 .

0.50 A 3.0 A
lamp X lamp Y

9.6 " 1.2 "

power in lamp X
What is the ratio ?
power in lamp Y
A 0.22 B 0.75 C 1.3 D 4.5

33 The intensity of light incident on a light-dependent resistor (LDR) is increased. The temperature
of a thermistor is increased. In each case, the current in the component is maintained at a
constant value.

What happens to the potential difference across each component?

LDR thermistor

A increases increases
B increases decreases
C decreases increases
D decreases decreases

34 An iron wire has length 8.0 m and diameter 0.50 mm. The wire has resistance R.

A second iron wire has length 2.0 m and diameter 1.0 mm.

What is the resistance of the second wire?

A R B R C R D R
16 8 2

35 A cell with constant electromotive force (e.m.f.) is connected across a fixed resistor. Over time,
the internal resistance of the cell increases.

Which change occurs as the internal resistance of the cell increases?

A a decrease in the charge of each charge carrier

B a decrease in the potential difference measured across the cell
C an increase in the energy dissipated per unit time in the fixed resistor
D an increase in the number of charge carriers leaving the cell per unit time

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36 Kirchhoff’s first and second laws are consequences of the conservation of different quantities.

What are those quantities?

Kirchhoff’s Kirchhoff’s
first law second law

A charge energy
B energy current
C current charge
D energy charge

37 A potentiometer circuit is used to determine the electromotive force (e.m.f.) EX of a cell. The
circuit includes a second cell of known e.m.f. E0 and negligible internal resistance, and a uniform
resistance wire PQ of known length.

EX is less than E0.

The movable connection J can be positioned anywhere along the length of the resistance wire.

Which circuit is suitable for determining EX?

A B
E0 EX

P Q P Q
J J

EX E0

C D
E0 EX

J
P Q P Q
J

EX E0

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 17

38 In an experiment on -particle scattering, -particles are directed at a thin gold foil. Most of the
-particles pass straight through the foil or are deflected by a small angle. A small number of
-particles are deflected by a large angle.

Which statement cannot be deduced from this experiment?

A Atoms are mostly empty space.

B Most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus.
C The nucleus of an atom contains protons.
D The nucleus of an atom is small compared to the size of an atom.

39 Four nuclei are represented below.

28 25 25 24
14 E 15 G 12 M 13 Q

Which statement about these nuclei is correct?

A An uncharged atom of element Q has 24 orbital electrons.

B Nuclei G and M are isotopes of the same element.

C When E absorbs a neutron and then emits an-particle, E transforms into M.

D When M emits a – particle, M transforms into Q.

40 A neutron is composed of one up (u) quark and two down (d) quarks. When a neutron decays to
a proton, a beta-particle is emitted.

What is the change in the quark structure of the neutron due to the emission of the beta-particle?

(The symbol for a neutrino is e and for an antineutrino is e .)

A d  u + – + e

B d  u + – + e

C u  d + + + e

D u  d + + + e

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/M/J/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level
* 5 4 4 4 6 7 8 1 0 8 *

PHYSICS 9702/22
Paper 2 AS Level Structured Questions May/June 2022

1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the question paper.

No additional materials are needed.

INSTRUCTIONS
● Answer all questions.
● Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
● Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
● Do not write on any bar codes.
● You may use a calculator.
● You should show all your working and use appropriate units.

INFORMATION
● The total mark for this paper is 60.
● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

DC (PQ/CT) 303286/2
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 4

1 (a) In the following list, underline all units that are SI base units.

ampere degree Celsius kilogram newton [1]

(b) Fig. 1.1 shows a horizontal beam clamped at one end with a block attached to the other end.

block
direction
of oscillations
clamp beam

Fig. 1.1

The block is made to oscillate vertically.

The Young modulus E of the material of the beam is given by

kM
E=
T2
where M is the mass of the block,
T is the period of the oscillations
and k is a constant.

A student determines the values and percentage uncertainties of k, M and T.

Table 1.1 lists the percentage uncertainties.

Table 1.1

percentage
quantity
uncertainty
k ± 2.1%

M ± 0.6%

T ± 1.5%

The student uses the values of k, M and T to calculate the value of E as 8.245 × 109 Pa.

(i) Calculate the percentage uncertainty in the value of E.

percentage uncertainty = ..................................................... % [2]

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 5

(ii) Use your answer in (b)(i) to determine the value of E, with its absolute uncertainty, to an
appropriate number of significant figures.

E = (..................................... ± .....................................) × 109 Pa [2]

[Total: 5]

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2 A sphere is attached by a metal wire to the horizontal surface at the bottom of a river, as shown in
Fig. 2.1.

sphere
direction of
flow of water

water
wire

horizontal
68° surface

Fig. 2.1 (not to scale)

The sphere is fully submerged and in equilibrium, with the wire at an angle of 68° to the horizontal
surface. The weight of the sphere is 32 N. The upthrust acting on the sphere is 280 N. The density
of the water is 1.0 × 103 kg m–3.

Assume that the force on the sphere due to the water flow is in a horizontal direction.

(a) By considering the components of force in the vertical direction, determine the tension in the
wire.

tension = ..................................................... N [2]

(b) For the sphere, calculate:

(i) the volume

volume = .................................................... m3 [1]

(ii) the density.

density = .............................................. kg m–3 [2]

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 7

(c) The centre of the sphere is initially at a height of 6.2 m above the horizontal surface. The
speed of the water then increases, causing the sphere to move to a different position. This
movement of the sphere causes its gravitational potential energy to decrease by 77 J.

Calculate the final height of the centre of the sphere above the horizontal surface.

height = ..................................................... m [3]

(d) The extension of the wire increases when the sphere changes position as described in (c).
The wire obeys Hooke’s law.

(i) State a symbol equation that gives the relationship between the tension T in the wire and
its extension x. Identify any other symbol that you use.

...........................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

(ii) Before the sphere changed position, the initial elastic potential energy of the wire was
0.65 J. The change in position of the sphere causes the extension of the wire to double.

Calculate the final elastic potential energy of the wire after the sphere has changed
position.

final elastic potential energy = ...................................................... J [2]

[Total: 11]

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 8

3 A man standing on a wall throws a small ball vertically upwards with a velocity of 5.6 m s–1. The
ball leaves his hand when it is at a height of 3.1 m above the ground, as shown in Fig. 3.1.

ball
velocity 5.6 m s–1
man

3.1 m wall

ground

Fig. 3.1 (not to scale)

Assume that air resistance is negligible.

(a) Show that the ball reaches a maximum height above the ground of 4.7 m.

[2]

(b) The man does not catch the ball as it falls.

Calculate the time taken for the ball to fall from its maximum height to the ground.

time taken = ...................................................... s [2]

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 9

(c) The ball leaves the man’s hand at time t = 0 and hits the ground at time t = T.

On Fig. 3.2, sketch a graph to show the variation of the velocity v of the ball with time t from
t = 0 to t = T. Numerical values of v and t are not required. Assume that v is positive in the
upward direction.

0
0 T
t

Fig. 3.2
[3]

(d) State what is represented by the gradient of the graph in (c).

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(e) The man now throws a second ball with the same velocity and from the same height as the
first ball. The mass of the second ball is greater than that of the first ball. Assume that air
resistance is still negligible.

For the first and second balls, compare:

(i) the magnitudes of their accelerations

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

(ii) the speeds with which they hit the ground.

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

[Total: 10]

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4 (a) State the principle of conservation of momentum.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [2]

(b) Two balls, X and Y, move along a horizontal frictionless surface, as shown from above in
Fig. 4.1.

3.0 kg X
4.0 m s–1

θ 3.7 m s–1
A B A X Y B
θ

4.8 m s–1
2.5 kg Y

before collision after collision

Fig. 4.1 (not to scale) Fig. 4.2 (not to scale)

Ball X has a mass of 3.0 kg and a velocity of 4.0 m s–1 in a direction at angle θ to a line AB.
Ball Y has a mass of 2.5 kg and a velocity of 4.8 m s–1 in a direction at angle θ to the line AB.

The balls collide and stick together. After colliding, the balls have a velocity of 3.7 m s–1 along
the line AB on the horizontal surface, as shown in Fig. 4.2.

(i) By considering the components of the momenta along the line AB, calculate θ.

θ = ....................................................... ° [3]

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(ii) By calculation of kinetic energies, state and explain whether the collision of the balls is
inelastic or perfectly elastic.

...........................................................................................................................................

..................................................................................................................................... [2]

[Total: 7]

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5 Light from a laser is used to produce an interference pattern on a screen, as shown in Fig. 5.1.

0.44 mm O central bright fringe

P dark fringe
Q bright fringe
light of R dark fringe
wavelength
660 nm 1.8 m
double screen
slit

Fig. 5.1 (not to scale)

The light of wavelength 660 nm is incident normally on two slits that have a separation of 0.44 mm.
The double slit is parallel to the screen. The perpendicular distance between the double slit and
the screen is 1.8 m.

The central bright fringe on the screen is formed at point O. The next dark fringe below point O
is formed at point P. The next bright fringe and the next dark fringe below point P are formed at
points Q and R respectively.

(a) The light waves from the two slits are coherent.

State what is meant by coherent.

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(b) For the two light waves superposing at R, calculate:

(i) the difference in their path lengths, in nm, from the slits

path difference = ................................................... nm [1]

(ii) their phase difference.

phase difference = ....................................................... ° [1]

© UCLES 2022 9702/22/M/J/22

 13

(c) Calculate the distance OQ.

distance OQ = ..................................................... m [3]

(d) The intensity of the light incident on the double slit is increased without changing the
frequency.

Describe how the appearance of the fringes after this change is different from, and similar to,
their appearance before the change.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [3]

(e) The light of wavelength 660 nm is now replaced by blue light from a laser.

State and explain the change, if any, that must be made to the separation of the two slits so
that the fringe separation on the screen is the same as it was for light of wavelength 660 nm.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [2]

[Total: 11]

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 14

6 (a) A network of three resistors of resistances R1, R2 and R3 is shown in Fig. 6.1.

R1 R2 R3

I
V1 V2 V3
V

Fig. 6.1

The individual potential differences across the resistors are V1, V2 and V3. The current in the
combination of resistors is I and the total potential difference across the combination is V.

Show that the combined resistance R of the network is given by

R = R1 + R2 + R3.

[2]

(b) A battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 8.0 V and negligible internal resistance is connected
to a thermistor, a switch X and two fixed resistors, as shown in Fig. 6.2.

6.0 kΩ R1

8.0 V X

4.0 kΩ R2

Fig. 6.2

Resistor R1 has resistance 6.0 kΩ and resistor R2 has resistance 4.0 kΩ.

© UCLES 2022 9702/22/M/J/22

 15

(i) Switch X is open.

Calculate the potential difference across R1.

potential difference = ...................................................... V [2]

(ii) Switch X is now closed. The resistance of the thermistor is 12.0 kΩ.

Calculate the current in the battery.

current = ...................................................... A [2]

(c) The switch X in the circuit in (b) remains closed. The temperature of the thermistor decreases.

By reference to the current in the battery, state and explain the effect, if any, of the decrease
in temperature on the power produced by the battery.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [3]

[Total: 9]

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 16

137
7 (a) A nucleus of caesium-137 ( 55Cs) decays by emitting a β– particle to produce a nucleus of an
element X and an antineutrino. The decay is represented by
137 Q P 0
55Cs SX + R β– + 0ν.

(i) State the number represented by each of the following letters.

P .......................

Q .......................

R .......................

S .......................
[2]

(ii) State the name of the class (group) of particles that includes the β– particle and the
antineutrino.

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

(b) A particle Y has a quark composition of ddd where d represents a down quark.

A particle Z has a quark composition of u̅ d where u̅ represents an up antiquark.

(i) Show that the charges of particles Y and Z are equal.

[2]

(ii) State and explain which particle is a meson and which particle is a baryon.

meson: ..............................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................

baryon: ..............................................................................................................................

...........................................................................................................................................
[2]

[Total: 7]

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 9702/22/M/J/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2022
1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the multiple choice answer sheet.

*2151627545*

You will need: Multiple choice answer sheet

Soft clean eraser
Soft pencil (type B or HB is recommended)

INSTRUCTIONS
 There are forty questions on this paper. Answer all questions.
 For each question there are four possible answers A, B, C and D. Choose the one you consider correct
and record your choice in soft pencil on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Follow the instructions on the multiple choice answer sheet.
 Write in soft pencil.
 Write your name, centre number and candidate number on the multiple choice answer sheet in the
spaces provided unless this has been done for you.
 Do not use correction fluid.
 Do not write on any bar codes.
 You may use a calculator.

INFORMATION
 The total mark for this paper is 40.
 Each correct answer will score one mark.
 Any rough working should be done on this question paper.

This document has 16 pages.

IB22 11_9702_12/3RP
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 3

1 Which quantity is a physical quantity?

A flavour
B kelvin
C minute
D potential difference

2 What is a power of 3.7 MW when expressed in kilowatts?

A 3.7  10–3 kW

B 3.7  10–3 KW

C 3.7  103 kW

D 3.7  103 KW

3 A spring is suspended from a fixed point and a force is applied. The position of a pointer attached
to the bottom of the spring against a vertical ruler is recorded.

Before the force is applied, the position of the pointer is (225  2) mm.

After the force is applied, the position of the pointer is (250  2) mm.

The extension of the spring is determined.

What is the percentage uncertainty in the extension?

A 1.6% B 1.8% C 8.0% D 16%

4 What is the difference between a scalar quantity and a vector quantity?

A A scalar quantity has direction but a vector quantity does not.

B A scalar quantity has magnitude but a vector quantity does not.
C A vector quantity has direction but a scalar quantity does not.
D A vector quantity has magnitude but a scalar quantity does not.

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 4

5 A toy car travels on a circular track at a constant speed of 0.50 m s–1. It passes a point on the
track at time t = 0 and takes a time of 40 s to travel once around the track.

The magnitude of the average velocity of the car between t = 0 and t = 20 s is v20.

The magnitude of the average velocity of the car between t = 0 and t = 40 s is v40.

What are v20 and v40?

v20 / m s–1 v40 / m s–1

A 0.32 0
B 0.32 0.32
C 0.50 0
D 0.50 0.50

6 The graph shows how the velocity v of an object moving in a straight line varies with time t from
t = 0 to t = T.

0 t
0 T

Which graph could represent the displacement s of the object from time t = 0 to t = T ?

A B
s s

0 t
0 T

0 t
0 T

C D
s s

0 t 0 t
0 T 0 T

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/O/N/22

 5

7 A goods train passes through a station at a steady speed of 10 m s–1 at time t = 0. An express
train is at rest at the station. The express train leaves the station with a uniform acceleration of
0.5 m s–2 just as the goods train goes past. Both trains move in the same direction on straight,
parallel tracks.

At which time t does the express train overtake the goods train?

A 6s B 10 s C 20 s D 40 s

8 A constant resultant force F acts on an object of mass m for time t.

What is the change in momentum of the object?

F Ft F
A B C Ft D
t m mt

9 The acceleration of free fall on the surface of planet P is one-tenth of that on the surface of
planet Q.

On the surface of P, an object has a mass of 1.0 kg and a weight of 1.0 N.

What are the mass and the weight of the same object on the surface of planet Q?

mass on Q / kg weight on Q / N

A 1.0 0.1
B 1.0 10
C 10 10
D 10 100

10 A parachutist falls from rest from a balloon. The variation with time of the vertical velocity of the
parachutist is shown.

In which region is the force due to air resistance much greater than the weight of the parachutist?

vertical B
velocity

C
A

0
0 time

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11 Two solid spheres form an isolated system. Sphere X moves with speed 6 cm s–1 in a straight line
directly towards a stationary sphere Y, as shown.

sphere X sphere Y
6 cm s–1

The spheres have a perfectly elastic collision. After the collision, sphere X moves with speed
2 cm s–1 in the same direction as before the collision.

What is the speed of sphere Y?

A 2 cm s–1 B 4 cm s–1 C 6 cm s–1 D 8 cm s–1

12 What is not a necessary requirement of the forces in a couple?

A They act in opposite directions.

B They act along different lines.
C They have the same magnitude.
D They produce a resultant force.

13 A box of length 12 cm and weight 0.43 N is placed on a horizontal table, with the greater part of its
length overhanging the edge of the table. The edge of the table acts as a pivot. The centre of
gravity of the box is at its geometric centre.

To balance the box, a uniform sphere of diameter 2.4 cm is placed inside the box, touching one
end, as shown.

12 cm

box
2.4 cm
sphere

table
edge of table (pivot)

Assume that the forces acting on the box are in the plane of the diagram.

What is the minimum mass of the sphere that is needed to maintain the system in equilibrium?

A 0.066 kg B 0.13 kg C 0.22 kg D 1.3 kg

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/O/N/22

 7

14 An object is suspended by two ropes. One rope has a tension of 410 N at an angle of 60 to the
horizontal. The other rope has a tension of 210 N at an angle of 10 to the horizontal.

410 N
ropes

60! 210 N
10!

object

The object is in equilibrium.

What is the mass of the object?

A 40 kg B 42 kg C 390 kg D 410 kg

15 A solid cube is floating in equilibrium in liquid mercury. The cube is made of iron of density
7900 kg m–3.

The cube floats with 42% of its volume above the surface of the mercury.

What is the density of the mercury?

A 3300 kg m–3
B 4600 kg m–3
C 14 000 kg m–3
D 19 000 kg m–3

16 The diagram shows two vessels, P and Q, both with sides inclined at 45 to the horizontal.

vessel P vessel Q

Vessel P tapers outwards and vessel Q tapers inwards, as shown.

Both vessels contain a liquid. The depth of the liquid in the vessels is the same. The liquid in
vessel P is twice as dense as the liquid in vessel Q.

pressure due to the liquid on the base of P

What is the ratio ?
pressure due to the liquid on the base of Q
2 2 1 1
A B C D
1 1 2 2

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17 A motor is used to lift a load vertically upwards.

The load has weight W.

The motor produces useful power output P.

The load is lifted at constant velocity v.

Which expression gives the time taken for the motor to lift the load vertically upwards through a
distance d ?
P Wv Wd Pv
A B C D
Wd P P W

18 A lamp is switched on for 2.0 hours. The power input to the lamp is 1.0 W. The energy given out
by the lamp as light is 7.0  103 J.

How much energy is converted to other forms by the lamp?

A 120 J B 200 J C 3400 J D 7200 J

19 An object of mass m is dropped onto the surface of two planets, X and Y, which have no
atmosphere.

The height from which the object is dropped and the change in gravitational potential energy of
the object, for each planet, are given in the table.

change in gravitational
height / m
potential energy

planet X 3 ∆E
planet Y 4 4∆E

The acceleration of free fall near the surface of planet X is gX.

What is the acceleration of free fall near the surface of planet Y?

A 3g B 4g C 3gX D 4gX
X X
4 3

20 A known tensile force acts on a metal wire. The wire does not exceed its limit of proportionality.

Which two measurements enable the strain of the wire to be calculated?

A the unstretched length of the wire and the cross-sectional area of the wire
B the unstretched length of the wire and the extension of the wire
C the Young modulus of the metal and the extension of the wire
D the Young modulus of the metal and the unstretched length of the wire

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/O/N/22

 9

21 A wire is extended by different forces. The wire obeys Hooke’s law.

A graph is plotted to show the variation of a quantity y with a quantity x.

0
0 x

What could x and y represent?

x y

A elastic potential energy extension

B extension force
C force extension
D extension elastic potential energy

22 A wave pulse moves along a stretched rope in the direction shown.

Which diagram shows the variation with time t of the displacement s of the particle P in the rope?

A B

s s

0 0
0 t 0 t

C D

s s

0 0
0 t 0 t

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23 Which statement about progressive transverse and longitudinal waves is correct?

A Particles in a transverse wave have fixed equilibrium positions but those in longitudinal
waves do not.
B Transverse waves can be polarised but longitudinal waves cannot.
C Transverse waves transfer energy but longitudinal waves do not.
D Two-source interference can be demonstrated with transverse waves but not with
longitudinal waves.

24 A miniature loudspeaker, initially at rest, falls vertically from a window in a high building. When
the speaker has fallen a distance of 10.0 m, it emits a very short pulse of sound of constant
frequency 256 Hz in all directions. The pulse of sound, travelling at a speed of 330 m s–1, is heard
by a person leaning out of the window.

Air resistance is negligible.

What is the frequency of the pulse of sound heard by the person?

A 246 Hz B 249 Hz C 267 Hz D 313 Hz

25 Two electromagnetic waves have wavelengths of 5.0  10–7 m and 5.0  10–2 m in a vacuum.

Which row identifies the regions of the electromagnetic spectrum to which the waves belong?

wavelength wavelength
5.0  10–7 m 5.0  10–2 m

A ultraviolet infrared
B visible microwave
C ultraviolet microwave
D visible infrared

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/O/N/22

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26 The wavelength of sound in air may be determined by using stationary waves.

In one experiment, a loudspeaker produces a sound wave of constant frequency which is

reflected directly back along its original path by a metal plate approximately 1 m away. A
microphone connected to a cathode-ray oscilloscope (CRO) is moved between the loudspeaker
and plate to identify regions of high sound intensity (‘loud’ spots) and low sound intensity (‘quiet’
spots).

The wavelength of the sound is determined using the least possible number of measured
quantities.

Which row shows the quantities that are needed?

frequency mean separation speed of sound

of sound of ‘quiet’ spots in air

A key
B = needed
C = not needed
D

27 Two progressive waves meet at a fixed point P. The variation with time of the displacement of
each wave at point P is shown.

2
displacement
/ cm 1

0
0 0.1 0.2 0.3 0.4 0.5 0.6 0.7 0.8
–1 time / s

–2

The two waves superpose at point P.

What is the resultant displacement at time 0.38 s?

A +1.0 cm B –1.0 cm C +1.8 cm D –1.8 cm

28 In which situation does diffraction occur?

A A wave bounces back from a surface.

B A wave passes from one medium into another.
C A wave passes through a gap in a barrier.
D Waves from two identical sources are superposed.

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29 Light of a single frequency is incident on a pair of narrow slits that are a distance of 0.10 mm
apart. A series of bright and dark fringes is observed on a screen a distance of 2.0 m away. The
distance between adjacent bright fringes is 8.0 mm.

screen

slits
second-order dark fringe
light
zero-order bright fringe

distance between
2.0 m bright fringes = 8.0 mm

NOT TO SCALE

What is the path difference of the light waves from the two slits that meet at the second-order
dark fringe?

A 2.0  10–7 m

B 4.0  10–7 m

C 6.0  10–7 m

D 8.0  10–7 m

30 Red light of a single wavelength passes through a diffraction grating. Bright dots are formed on a
screen, as shown.

screen

bright dot

The red light is replaced with white light.

Which diagram, drawn to the same scale, shows a possible pattern of bright light on the screen?

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/O/N/22

 13

31 A nichrome wire has a resistance of 15  and a diameter of 3.0 mm. The number density of the
free electrons in nichrome is 9.0  1028 m–3.

A potential difference (p.d.) of 6.0 V is applied between the ends of the wire.

What is the average drift speed of the free electrons in the wire?

A 9.8  10–7 m s–1

B 3.9  10–6 m s–1

C 6.1  10–6 m s–1

D 2.5  10–5 m s–1

32 The diagrams show two different circuits.

R R R

The cells in each circuit have the same electromotive force (e.m.f.) and negligible internal
resistance. The three resistors each have the same resistance R.

In the circuit on the left, the power dissipated in the resistor is P.

What is the total power dissipated in the circuit on the right?

P P
A B C P D 2P
4 2

33 The potential difference (p.d.) across a filament lamp is increased.

Which statement is correct?

A The resistance of the lamp decreases because the temperature decreases.

B The resistance of the lamp decreases because the temperature increases.
C The resistance of the lamp increases because the temperature decreases.
D The resistance of the lamp increases because the temperature increases.

34 A metal wire has resistance R.

The wire is stretched so that its diameter decreases to 94.0% of the original diameter.

The volume of the wire is unchanged.

What is the resistance of the stretched wire?

A 1.06R B 1.13R C 1.20R D 1.28R

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 14

35 The diagram shows a cell of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 3.0 V and internal resistance 4.7 
connected across a lamp. The lamp has a resistance of 9.3 .

3.0 V
4.7 "

9.3 "

What is the power dissipated by the internal resistance of the cell?

A 0.22 W B 0.43 W C 0.64 W D 1.0 W

36 A circuit consists of a battery, a high-resistance voltmeter and four fixed resistors, as shown. The
battery has an electromotive force (e.m.f.) of 15.0 V and negligible internal resistance.

15.0 V

24.0 " 6.0 "

V
6.0 " 9.0 "

What is the reading on the voltmeter?

A 3.0 V B 6.0 V C 9.0 V D 12.0 V

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/O/N/22

 15

37 A potential divider circuit is designed to detect the difference in temperature between two different
places.

20 mV

Y V

The cell has electromotive force (e.m.f.) 20 mV and negligible internal resistance.

Initially, thermistors X and Y are at the same temperature and have the same resistance. The
voltmeter reads 10 mV. X is then placed in a cold environment and its resistance doubles. Y is
placed in a warm environment and its resistance halves.

What is the new reading on the voltmeter?

A 4 mV B 5 mV C 15 mV D 16 mV

38 In the -particle scattering experiment, a beam of -particles is aimed at a thin gold foil. Most of
the -particles go straight through or are deflected by a small angle. A very small proportion are
deflected by more than 90, effectively rebounding towards the source of the -particles.

Which conclusion about the structure of atoms cannot be drawn from this experiment alone?

A Most of the atom is empty space.

B Most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus.
C The nucleus contains both protons and neutrons.
D The nucleus is charged.

39 Which two particles have opposite charges?

A alpha-particle and helium nucleus

B antiproton and beta-plus particle
C beta-minus particle and electron
D positron and proton

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/O/N/22 [Turn over

 16

40 Which particle is a lepton?

A meson
B positron
C proton
D quark

Permission to reproduce items where third-party owned material protected by copyright is included has been sought and cleared where possible. Every
reasonable effort has been made by the publisher (UCLES) to trace copyright holders, but if any items requiring clearance have unwittingly been included, the
publisher will be pleased to make amends at the earliest possible opportunity.

To avoid the issue of disclosure of answer-related information to candidates, all copyright acknowledgements are reproduced online in the Cambridge
Assessment International Education Copyright Acknowledgements Booklet. This is produced for each series of examinations and is freely available to download
at www.cambridgeinternational.org after the live examination series.

Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge Assessment. Cambridge Assessment is the brand name of the University of Cambridge
Local Examinations Syndicate (UCLES), which is a department of the University of Cambridge.

© UCLES 2022 9702/12/O/N/22

 Cambridge International AS & A Level
* 9 7 7 5 7 4 3 3 6 7 *

PHYSICS 9702/22
Paper 2 AS Level Structured Questions October/November 2022

1 hour 15 minutes

You must answer on the question paper.

No additional materials are needed.

INSTRUCTIONS
● Answer all questions.
● Use a black or dark blue pen. You may use an HB pencil for any diagrams or graphs.
● Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes at the top of the page.
● Write your answer to each question in the space provided.
● Do not use an erasable pen or correction fluid.
● Do not write on any bar codes.
● You may use a calculator.
● You should show all your working and use appropriate units.

INFORMATION
● The total mark for this paper is 60.
● The number of marks for each question or part question is shown in brackets [ ].

This document has 16 pages. Any blank pages are indicated.

DC (KN/JG) 303278/3
© UCLES 2022 [Turn over
 3

1 (a) State what is meant by work done.

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(b) Use the answer to (a) to determine the SI base units of power.

SI base units ......................................................... [2]

(c) The maximum useful output power P of a car travelling on a horizontal road is given by

P = v3b

where v is the maximum speed of the car and b is a constant.

For the car,

P = 84 kW ± 5%
and b = 0.56 ± 7% in SI units.

(i) Calculate the value of v.

v = ................................................ m s–1 [2]

(ii) Determine the absolute uncertainty in the value of v.

absolute uncertainty = ................................................ m s–1 [2]

[Total: 7]

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2 A spherical balloon is filled with a fixed mass of gas. A small block is connected by a string to the
balloon, as shown in Fig. 2.1.

balloon

string
block
ground

Fig. 2.1 (not to scale)

The block is held on the ground by an external force so that the string is vertical. The density of
the air surrounding the balloon is 1.2 kg m–3. The upthrust acting on the balloon is 0.071 N. The
upthrust acting on the string and block is negligible.

(a) By using Archimedes’ principle, calculate the radius r of the balloon.

r = ..................................................... m [2]

(b) The total weight of the balloon, string and block is 0.053 N.

The external force holding the block on the ground is removed so that the released block is
lifted vertically upwards by the balloon.

Calculate the acceleration of the block immediately after it is released.

acceleration = ................................................ m s–2 [3]

© UCLES 2022 9702/22/O/N/22

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(c) The balloon continues to lift the block. The string breaks as the block is moving vertically
upwards with a speed of 1.4 m s–1. After the string breaks, the detached block briefly continues
moving upwards before falling vertically downwards to the ground. The block hits the ground
with a speed of 3.6 m s–1.

Assume that the air resistance on the block is negligible.

(i) By considering the motion of the block after the string breaks, calculate the height of the
block above the ground when the string breaks.

height = ..................................................... m [2]

(ii) The string breaks at time t = 0 and the block hits the ground at time t = T.

On Fig. 2.2, sketch a graph to show the variation of the velocity v of the block with time t
from t = 0 to t = T.

Numerical values of t are not required. Assume that v is positive in the upward direction.

3
v / m s–1
2

0
0 T
–1 t

–2

–3

–4

Fig. 2.2
[2]

[Total: 9]

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3 (a) State what is meant by the centre of gravity of an object.

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(b) A uniform beam AB is attached by a frictionless hinge to a vertical wall at end A. The beam is
held so that it is horizontal by a metal wire CD, as shown in Fig. 3.1.

C
wire
wall
45 N
block
37° D
A B

23 N W
hinge

0.56 m 0.20 m 0.20 m

Fig. 3.1 (not to scale)

The beam is of length 0.96 m and weight 23 N. A block of weight W rests on the beam at a
distance of 0.20 m from end B. The wire is attached to the beam at point D which is a distance
of 0.40 m from end B. The wire exerts a force on the beam of 45 N at an angle of 37° to the
horizontal. The beam is in equilibrium.

(i) Calculate the vertical component of the force exerted by the wire on the beam.

vertical component of the force = ..................................................... N [1]

(ii) By taking moments about A, calculate the weight W of the block.

W = ..................................................... N [3]

© UCLES 2022 9702/22/O/N/22

 7

(iii) The hinge exerts a force on the beam at end A.

Calculate the horizontal component of this force.

horizontal component of force = ..................................................... N [1]

(iv) The block is now placed closer to point D on the beam.

State whether this change will increase, decrease or have no effect on the tension in the
wire.

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

(v) The stress in the wire is 5.3 × 107 Pa. The wire is now replaced by a second wire that has
a radius which is three times greater than that of the original wire. The tension in the wire
is unchanged.

Calculate the stress in the second wire.

stress = .................................................... Pa [2]

[Total: 9]

© UCLES 2022 9702/22/O/N/22 [Turn over

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4 A horizontal spring is fixed at one end. A block is pushed against the other end of the spring so
that the spring is compressed, as shown in Fig. 4.1.

compressed spring

block frictionless
surface

Fig. 4.1

The block is released and accelerates along a horizontal frictionless surface as the spring returns
to its original length. The block leaves the end of the spring with a speed of 2.3 m s–1, as shown in
Fig. 4.2.

speed
spring 2.3 m s–1
block leaving
the spring

Fig. 4.2

The block has a mass of 250 g and the spring has a spring constant of 420 N m–1.

Assume that the spring always obeys Hooke’s law and that all the elastic potential energy of the
spring is transferred to the kinetic energy of the block.

(a) Calculate the kinetic energy of the block as it leaves the spring.

kinetic energy = ...................................................... J [2]

(b) Calculate the compression of the spring immediately before the block is released.

compression = ..................................................... m [2]

© UCLES 2022 9702/22/O/N/22

 9

(c) After leaving the spring, the block moves along the surface until it hits a barrier at a speed of
2.3 m s–1. The block then rebounds at a speed of 1.5 m s–1 and moves back along its original
path. The block is in contact with the barrier for a time of 0.086 s.

Calculate:

(i) the change in momentum of the block during the collision

change in momentum = ................................................... N s [2]

(ii) the average resultant force exerted on the block during the collision.

average resultant force = ..................................................... N [1]

(d) The maximum compression x of the spring is now varied in order to vary the kinetic
energy EK of the block as it leaves the spring. Assume that all the elastic potential energy in
the spring is always transferred to the kinetic energy of the block.

On Fig. 4.3, sketch a graph to show the variation with x of EK.

EK

0
0 x

Fig. 4.3
[1]

[Total: 8]

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 10

5 (a) Two progressive sound waves meet to form a stationary wave. The two waves have the
same amplitude, wavelength, frequency and speed.

State the other condition that must be fulfilled by the two waves in order for them to produce
the stationary wave.

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(b) A stationary wave is formed on a string that is stretched between two fixed points A and B.
Fig. 5.1 shows the string at time t = 0 when each point is at its maximum displacement.

A B

Fig. 5.1

Distance AB is 0.80 m. The period of the stationary wave is 0.016 s.

(i) On Fig. 5.1, sketch a solid line to show the position of the string:

● at time t = 0.004 s (label this line P)

● at time t = 0.024 s (label this line Q).

[2]

(ii) Determine the speed of a progressive wave along the string.

speed = ................................................ m s–1 [3]

© UCLES 2022 9702/22/O/N/22

 11

(c) A beam of vertically polarised light of intensity I0 is incident normally on a polarising filter that
has its transmission axis at 30° to the vertical, as shown in Fig. 5.2.

vertically polarised
incident light 30° transmitted transmitted
beam, beam, beam,
intensity I0 intensity I1 intensity I2

polarising filter with second polarising filter

transmission axis at with transmission axis at
30° to the vertical 90° to the vertical

Fig. 5.2

The transmitted light from the first polarising filter has intensity I1. This light is then incident
normally on a second polarising filter that has its transmission axis at 90° to the vertical. The
transmitted light from the second filter has intensity I2.

Calculate:
I1
(i) the ratio
I0

I1
= ......................................................... [2]
I0
I2
(ii) the ratio .
I0

I2
= ......................................................... [2]
I0
[Total: 10]

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 12

6 (a) Define electric potential difference.

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [1]

(b) A battery is connected to two resistors X and Y, as shown in Fig. 6.1.

X Y

Fig. 6.1

The resistance of resistor X is greater than the resistance of resistor Y.

State and explain which resistor dissipates more power.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [3]

(c) A battery of electromotive force (e.m.f.) 9.0 V and internal resistance r is connected to two
resistors P and Q, as shown in Fig. 6.2.

9.0 V
r

4.5 A

Fig. 6.2

© UCLES 2022 9702/22/O/N/22

 13

A total charge of 650 C moves through resistor P in a time interval of 540 s. During this time
resistor P dissipates 4800 J of energy. The current in resistor Q is 4.5 A. Assume that the
e.m.f. of the battery remains constant.

Calculate:

(i) the current in resistor P

current = .......................................................A [2]

(ii) the potential difference across resistor P

potential difference = ...................................................... V [2]

(iii) the internal resistance r of the battery.

r = ..................................................... Ω [2]

[Total: 10]

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 15

238
7 (a) Describe the structure of an atom of uranium-238, 92
U.

...................................................................................................................................................

...................................................................................................................................................

............................................................................................................................................. [2]

(b) The decay of uranium-238 is shown by the equation

238 234
92
U 90
Th + X.

For nucleus X, calculate the ratio, in C kg–1, of

charge
.
mass

ratio = .............................................. C kg–1 [3]

(c) Two particles P and Q each consist of three quarks. These quarks are up (u) or down (d)
quarks.

Particle P has no overall charge.

Particle Q has an overall charge of +2e, where e is the elementary charge.

State the quark composition of:

(i) particle P

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

(ii) particle Q.

..................................................................................................................................... [1]

[Total: 7]

© UCLES 2022 9702/22/O/N/22

 9702/12 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme February/March 2022
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1
Cambridge International AS & A Level 2 B 1

PHYSICS 9702/12
3 D 1

Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2022 4 B 1

MARK SCHEME
5 D 1
Maximum Mark: 40
6 D 1

7 C 1
Published
8 A 1

9 C 1
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the 10 D 1
examination.
11 A 1
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
12 C 1
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
13 D 1
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the February/March 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level 14 D 1
components.
15 A 1

16 B 1

17 C 1

18 D 1

19 C 1

20 D 1

21 B 1

22 C 1

23 A 1

24 D 1

25 C 1

26 C 1

27 D 1
This document consists of 3 printed pages.
28 B 1
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30 B 1
Cambridge International AS & A Level
31 A 1 PHYSICS 9702/22
32 C 1 Paper 2 AS Level Structured Questions February/March 2022
MARK SCHEME
33 C 1
Maximum Mark: 60
34 A 1

35 A 1
Published
36 B 1

37 C 1

38 C 1 This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
39 B 1
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
40 D 1 Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the February/March 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 12 printed pages.

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© UCLES 2022 Page 3 of 3
9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme February/March 2022 9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme February/March 2022
PUBLISHED PUBLISHED
Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

1(a) Fv: kg m s–2 C1 2(d) displacement is straight-line distance (from P to Q) so less (than distance along path) B1

k: kg m s–2 / m × m s–1 or

= kg m–1 s–1 A1 displacement is the shortest distance (from P to Q).

1(b) F = ρgV C1 2(e) (displacement)2 = 3.52 + 1.42 C1

V = 4 / 3 × π × (2.1 × 10–3)3 (=3.88 × 10–8 m3) displacement = 3.8 m A1

ρ = 4.8 × 10–4 / 9.81 × V C1

Question Answer Marks
= 1300 kg m–3 A1
3(a) (m =) ρV C1
1(c)(i) W downwards, U upwards, Fv upwards B1
= 1.0 × 103 × 1.5 × 10–4 × 5.0 × 1.6 = 1.2 (kg) A1
1(c)(ii) FV = 7.2 × 10–4
– 4.8 × 10–4 C1
= 2.4 × 10–4 (N) 3(b)(i) (∆)p = 1.2 × 5.0 A1
= 6.0 N s
velocity = 2.4 × 10–4 / (17 × 2.1 × 10–3) A1
= 6.7 × 10–3 m s–1 3(b)(ii) F = 6.0 / 1.6 or 1.2 × 5.0/1.6 A1
= 3.8 N

Question Answer Marks 3(c) Newton’s third law applies (so) 3.8 N. B1

2(a) force (on droplet of water) in horizontal direction is zero. B1 3(d) p = F/A C1
= 3.8 / 1.5 × 10–4
2(b) (time taken =) 3.5 / 6.6 = 0.53 (s) A1
= 2.5 × 104 Pa A1
2(c) s = ut + ½at 2 C1

s = ½ × 9.81 × 0.532

h = 1.4 m A1

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9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme February/March 2022 9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme February/March 2022
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Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

4(a) ratio = 300 / 3200 A1 5(b)(i) fO = fS v / v–vS C1

= 0.094
543 = f × 334 / (334 – 13)
4(b) E = ½mv 2 or E ∝ v 2 C1
f = 522 Hz A1
ratio = (0.094)0.5 A1
= 0.31 5(b)(ii) (the speed is) decreasing B1

4(c) work (done against frictional force) = 3200 – 300 (=2900) C1 5(c)(i) I ∝ A2 B1

length = 2900 / 76 A1 IT / I0 = cos2 20° or AT / A0 = cos 20° C1

= 38 m
ratio = 0.94 A1
4(d)(i) E = ½kx 2 or E = ½Fx and F = kx C1
5(c)(ii) angle = 140° A1
140 = ½ × 63 × x 2 or 140 = ½Fx and F = 63x

x = 2.1 m A1 Question Answer Marks

4(d)(ii) percentage efficiency = (140 / 300) × 100 A1 6(a)(i) C1
P = VI
= 47%
I = 36 / 8.0 A1
4(d)(iii) curved line from the origin M1
= 4.5 A
gradient of line increases A1
6(a)(ii) charge = 4.5 × 50 C1
= 225

Question Answer Marks number = 225 / 1.6 × 10–19 A1

= 1.4 × 1021
5(a)(i) (two) waves travelling (at same speed) in opposite directions overlap B1
6(a)(iii) R = V 2/P or R = V/I or R = P/I 2 C1
waves (of the same type) have same frequency/wavelength B1
= 8.02 / 36 or = 8.0 / 4.5 or = 36 / 4.52
5(a)(ii) phase difference = 0 A1
= 1.8 Ω A1

© UCLES 2022 Page 10 of 12 © UCLES 2022 Page 11 of 12

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme February/March 2022

PUBLISHED
Question Answer Marks
Published
6(b) R = ρL / A C1

L = (1.8 × 0.25 × 10–6) / 1.4 × 10–6 A1

= 0.32 m

6(c) (larger cross-sectional area, same length, same resistivity and so) less resistance M1 This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.
(same p.d. and more current so) more power (dissipated) A1

6(d) current (in wire) is the same M1 Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
(same p.d. across wire so) power stays the same A1

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Question Answer Marks
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
7(a)(i) (electron) neutrino B1
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
7(a)(ii) nucleon number = 22 A1 Cambridge O Level components.
proton number = 10 A1

7(a)(iii) up up down changes to up down down B1

or
up changes to down

7(b)(i) charge = – ⅔ e A1

7(b)(ii) antiup / anticharm / antitop B1

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PUBLISHED PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

1 C 1 29 D 1

2 B 1 30 C 1

3 C 1 31 B 1

4 B 1 32 A 1

5 A 1 33 D 1

6 D 1 34 A 1

7 C 1 35 B 1

8 A 1 36 A 1

9 B 1 37 D 1

10 B 1 38 C 1

11 C 1 39 C 1

12 D 1 40 B 1

13 C 1

14 B 1

15 C 1

16 B 1

17 A 1

18 C 1

19 B 1

20 A 1

21 D 1

22 C 1

23 D 1

24 A 1

25 A 1

26 B 1

27 B 1

28 D 1

© UCLES 2022 Page 2 of 3 © UCLES 2022 Page 3 of 3

 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/22
Paper 2 AS Level Structured Questions May/June 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 60

9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme May/June 2022

PUBLISHED
Question Answer Marks
Published
1(a) only ampere and kilogram underlined B1

1(b)(i) percentage uncertainty = 2.1 + 0.6 + (1.5  2) C1

= 5.7% A1
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the 1(b)(ii) absolute uncertainty = (5.7 / 100)  8.245  109 C1

details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have ( = 4.7  108 Pa or 0.47  109 Pa)
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
E = (8.2 ± 0.5)  109 Pa A1
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers. Question Answer Marks

2(a) T sin 68° + 32 = 280 C1

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
T = 270 N A1
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
2(b)(i) F = gV A1
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components. V = 280 / (1.0  103  9.81)

= 0.029 m3

2(b)(ii)  = (32 / 9.81) / 0.029 C1

= 110 kg m–3 A1

© UCLES 2022 Page 7 of 14

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Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

2(c) (∆)E = mg(∆)h or (∆)E = W(∆)h C1 2(d)(ii) 1 (A1)

final E   540  9.6  10 3
2
(∆)h = (–) 77 / 32 C1 or
(∆)h = (–) 2.4 A1 E=
1
2

  270  2   4.8  10 3  2 
final height = 6.2 – 2.4 or
1
 
2
E =  5.6  10 4  9.6  10 3
= 3.8 m 2

2(d)(i) T = kx where k is a constant B1 = 2.6 J

or

T = (EA / L)x where A is (cross-sectional) area, E is Young modulus, L is (original/unstretched) length

2(d)(ii) 1 2 C1
E kx
2
or
1
E  Fx and F = kx
2

E = 0.65  22 A1

= 2.6 J

or

1 (C1)
E Fx
2
1
0.65   270  x and so x = 4.8  10–3 m
2
k = F / x = 270 / 4.8  10–3

= 5.6  104

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9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme May/June 2022 9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme May/June 2022
PUBLISHED PUBLISHED
Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

3(a) v2 = u2 + 2as C1 4(a) sum/total momentum before = sum/total momentum after M1

or
s = 5.62 / (2  9.81) sum/total momentum (of a system of objects) is constant

(max height =) 3.1 + 5.62 / (2  9.81) = 4.7 (m) A1 if no (resultant) external force/for a closed system A1

3(b) 1 2 C1 4(b)(i) (3.0  4.0  cos) or (2.5  4.8  cos) or (5.5  3.7) C1
s  ut  at
2
(3.0  4.0  cos) + (2.5  4.8  cos) = (5.5  3.7) C1
1
4.7   9.81 t 2  = 32° A1
2
4(b)(ii) 1 1 C1
t = 0.98 s A1 (initial EK =  3.0  4.02 +  2.5  4.82 =) 53 (J)
2 2
3(c) line drawn from a non-zero speed at t = 0 to a greater speed at t = T B1 or
1
(final EK =  5.5  3.72 =) 38 (J)
a single sloping straight line drawn from t = 0 to t = T B1 2

line starts with a positive non-zero value of v and ends with a negative non-zero value of v B1 values of initial EK and final EK both correct and inelastic stated A1

3(d) acceleration (of the ball) B1

3(e)(i) (magnitudes of accelerations are) equal / same B1

3(e)(ii) (speeds are) equal / same B1

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Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

5(a) constant phase difference (between the waves) B1 6(a) V = V1 + V2 + V3 B1

5(b)(i) path difference = 1.5  660 A1 IR = IR1 + IR2 + IR3 or (V / I) = (V1 / I) + (V2 / I) + (V3 / I) B1

= 990 nm and

5(b)(ii) phase difference = 360°  1.5 A1 R = R1 + R2 + R3

= 540° 6(b)(i) V / 8.0 = 6.0  103 / (4.0  103 + 6.0  103) C1

5(c)  = ax / D C1 or

x = (660  10–9  1.8) / 0.44  10–3 C1 I = 8.0 / (4.0  103 + 6.0  103) = 8.0  10–4

= 2.7  10–3 m A1 V = 8.0  10–4  6.0  103

5(d) bright fringes are brighter B1 V = 4.8 V A1

no change to dark fringes B1 6(b)(ii) total resistance in parallel = 3.0  103 () or 3.0 (k) C1

no change to (fringe) separation / (fringe) spacing B1 current = 8.0 / (3.0  103 + 6.0  103) A1

5(e) (blue light has) shorter wavelength M1 = 8.9  10–4 A

(so) decrease (slit) separation A1 6(c) thermistor resistance increases B1

(thermistor resistance increases so total resistance increases so) current decreases (in battery) M1

(P = EI and E constant so) power decreases A1

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 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme May/June 2022

PUBLISHED
Question Answer Marks
Published
7(a)(i) P = 0 and Q = 137 A1

R = –1 and S = 56 A1

7(a)(ii) lepton(s) B1
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
7(b)(i) 1 1 1 B1
(charge of ddd / Y =)   e    e    e  = –1(e) examination.
3 3 3

1 2 B1 Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
(charge of ud / Z =)   e    e  = –1(e)
3 3 Teachers.
7(b)(ii) meson: Z / u d because consists of a quark and an antiquark B1
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
baryon: Y / ddd because consists of three quarks B1
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

© UCLES 2022 Page 14 of 14

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PUBLISHED 2022 PUBLISHED 2022

Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

1 D 1 29 C 1

2 C 1 30 D 1

3 D 1 31 B 1

4 C 1 32 B 1

5 A 1 33 D 1

6 A 1 34 D 1

7 D 1 35 A 1

8 C 1 36 B 1

9 B 1 37 A 1

10 C 1 38 C 1

11 D 1 39 B 1

12 D 1 40 B 1

13 B 1

14 A 1

15 C 1

16 A 1

17 C 1

18 B 1

19 C 1

20 B 1

21 A 1

22 D 1

23 B 1

24 A 1

25 B 1

26 D 1

27 B 1

28 C 1

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 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/22
Paper 2 AS Level Structured Questions October/November 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 60

9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme October/November 2022

PUBLISHED
Question Answer Marks
Published
1(a) force  displacement in the direction of the force B1

1(b) P = Fs / t C1

= (kg m s–2  m) / s
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the = kg m2 s–3 A1
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have 1(c)(i) 84  103 = v 3  0.56 C1
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
v = 53 m s–1 A1
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for 1(c)(ii) percentage uncertainty = (5% + 7%) / 3 (= 4%) C1
Teachers. or
fractional uncertainty = (0.05 + 0.07) / 3 (= 0.04)
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes. absolute uncertainty = 0.04  53 A1

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2022 series for most = () 2 m s–1
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

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Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

2(a) F = gV C1 3(a) point where (all) the weight (of an object) is taken to act B1

0.071 = 1.2  9.81  V 3(b)(i) vertical component = 45 sin 37° A1

(V = 6.03  10–3 m3) A1 = 27 N

4/3    r 3 = 6.03  10–3 3(b)(ii) the magnitudes of the three moments about A are (23  0.48), (27  0.56) and (W  0.76) C1

r = 0.11 m correct magnitude of any one moment about A

2(b) m = 0.053 / 9.81 C1 correct magnitudes of any two moments about A C1

( = 5.4  10–3 kg) (23  0.48) + (W  0.76) = 27  0.56 A1

F = 0.071 – 0.053 C1 W = 5.4 N

( = 0.018 N) 3(b)(iii) horizontal component = 45 cos 37° A1

a = (0.071 – 0.053) / (0.053 / 9.81) A1 = 36 N

= 3.3 m s–2 3(b)(iv) decrease B1

2(c)(i) v 2 = u 2 + 2as C1 3(b)(v)  = F/A C1

3.62 = (–1.4)2 + 2  9.81  s or 3.62 = 1.42 + 2  9.81  s  = F / r 2 or 4F / d 2 A1

s = 0.56 m A1 so  = 5.3  107  r 2 / (3r)2

2(c)(ii) single straight line from any positive non-zero value of v at t = 0 to any negative non-zero value of v at t = T B1 = 5.3  107 / 9

line starting at (0, 1.4) and ending at (T, –3.6) B1 = 5.9  106 Pa

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Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

4(a) E = ½mv2 C1 5(a) (they travel in) opposite directions B1

= ½  0.25  2.32 A1 5(b)(i) straight line from A to B, labelled P B1

= 0.66 J line that is ‘mirror image’ of given line, labelled Q B1

4(b) E = ½kx2 C1 5(b)(ii)  = 0.80 / 2 C1

or
E = ½Fx and F = kx ( = 0.40 m)

x = [(2  0.66) / 420]0.5 A1 v = /T C1

or
= 0.056 m v = f and f = 1 / T

or v = 0.40 / 0.016 or 62.5  0.40 A1

E = ½kx2 (C1) = 25 m s–1

½mv2 = ½kx2 (A1) 5(c)(i) I1 / I0 = cos2 30° C1

x = (0.25  2.32 / 420)0.5 = 0.75 A1

= 0.056 m 5(c)(ii) I2 / I1 = cos2 60° C1

4(c)(i) (p =) 0.25  2.3 or 0.25  1.5 C1 I2 / I0 = cos2 30°  cos2 60° or 0.75  cos2 60°

change in momentum = 0.25 (2.3 + 1.5) A1 = 0.19 A1

= 0.95 N s

4(c)(ii) resultant force = 0.95 / 0.086 or 0.25  (2.3 + 1.5) / 0.086 A1

= 11 N

4(d) curved line from the origin with an increasing gradient B1

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Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

6(a) energy transferred per (unit) charge (from electrical to other forms) B1 7(a) 92 protons and 146 neutrons (in nucleus) B1

6(b) same/equal current (in X and Y) B1 92 (orbital) electrons B1

P = I2R (and RX > RY) M1 7(b) charge = 2e C1

or
P = VI and VX > VY ( = 2  1.60  10–19 C)

(so) X (dissipates more power) A1 mass = 4u C1

6(c)(i) I = Q/t C1 ( = 4  1.66  10–27 kg)

= 650 / 540 A1 ratio = (2  1.60  10–19) / (4  1.66  10–27) A1

= 1.2 A = 4.8  107 C kg–1

6(c)(ii) V = W / Q or W / It C1 7(c)(i) up down down / udd B1

= 4800 / 650 or 4800 / (1.2  540) A1 7(c)(ii) up up up / uuu B1

= 7.4 V

or

V = P / I and P = W / t (C1)

= 8.9 / 1.2 (A1)

= 7.4 V

6(c)(iii) I = 4.5 + 1.2 (= 5.7 A) C1

9.0 = 7.4 + 5.7r or 9.0 = 5.7 (1.3 + r) A1

r = 0.28 

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 9702/12 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme February/March 2022
PUBLISHED

Question Answer Marks

1 B 1
Cambridge International AS & A Level 2 B 1

PHYSICS 9702/12
3 D 1

Paper 1 Multiple Choice February/March 2022 4 B 1

MARK SCHEME
5 D 1
Maximum Mark: 40
6 D 1

7 C 1
Published
8 A 1

9 C 1
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the 10 D 1
examination.
11 A 1
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
12 C 1
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
13 D 1
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the February/March 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level 14 D 1
components.
15 A 1

16 B 1

17 C 1

18 D 1

19 C 1

20 D 1

21 B 1

22 C 1

23 A 1

24 D 1

25 C 1

26 C 1

27 D 1
This document consists of 3 printed pages.
28 B 1
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29 D 1

30 B 1
Cambridge International AS & A Level
31 A 1 PHYSICS 9702/22
32 C 1 Paper 2 AS Level Structured Questions February/March 2022
MARK SCHEME
33 C 1
Maximum Mark: 60
34 A 1

35 A 1
Published
36 B 1

37 C 1

38 C 1 This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have
39 B 1
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
40 D 1 Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the February/March 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

This document consists of 12 printed pages.

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9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme February/March 2022 9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme February/March 2022
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Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

1(a) Fv: kg m s–2 C1 2(d) displacement is straight-line distance (from P to Q) so less (than distance along path) B1

k: kg m s–2 / m × m s–1 or

= kg m–1 s–1 A1 displacement is the shortest distance (from P to Q).

1(b) F = ρgV C1 2(e) (displacement)2 = 3.52 + 1.42 C1

V = 4 / 3 × π × (2.1 × 10–3)3 (=3.88 × 10–8 m3) displacement = 3.8 m A1

ρ = 4.8 × 10–4 / 9.81 × V C1

Question Answer Marks
= 1300 kg m–3 A1
3(a) (m =) ρV C1
1(c)(i) W downwards, U upwards, Fv upwards B1
= 1.0 × 103 × 1.5 × 10–4 × 5.0 × 1.6 = 1.2 (kg) A1
1(c)(ii) FV = 7.2 × 10–4
– 4.8 × 10–4 C1
= 2.4 × 10–4 (N) 3(b)(i) (∆)p = 1.2 × 5.0 A1
= 6.0 N s
velocity = 2.4 × 10–4 / (17 × 2.1 × 10–3) A1
= 6.7 × 10–3 m s–1 3(b)(ii) F = 6.0 / 1.6 or 1.2 × 5.0/1.6 A1
= 3.8 N

Question Answer Marks 3(c) Newton’s third law applies (so) 3.8 N. B1

2(a) force (on droplet of water) in horizontal direction is zero. B1 3(d) p = F/A C1
= 3.8 / 1.5 × 10–4
2(b) (time taken =) 3.5 / 6.6 = 0.53 (s) A1
= 2.5 × 104 Pa A1
2(c) s = ut + ½at 2 C1

s = ½ × 9.81 × 0.532

h = 1.4 m A1

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Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

4(a) ratio = 300 / 3200 A1 5(b)(i) fO = fS v / v–vS C1

= 0.094
543 = f × 334 / (334 – 13)
4(b) E = ½mv 2 or E ∝ v 2 C1
f = 522 Hz A1
ratio = (0.094)0.5 A1
= 0.31 5(b)(ii) (the speed is) decreasing B1

4(c) work (done against frictional force) = 3200 – 300 (=2900) C1 5(c)(i) I ∝ A2 B1

length = 2900 / 76 A1 IT / I0 = cos2 20° or AT / A0 = cos 20° C1

= 38 m
ratio = 0.94 A1
4(d)(i) E = ½kx 2 or E = ½Fx and F = kx C1
5(c)(ii) angle = 140° A1
140 = ½ × 63 × x 2 or 140 = ½Fx and F = 63x

x = 2.1 m A1 Question Answer Marks

4(d)(ii) percentage efficiency = (140 / 300) × 100 A1 6(a)(i) C1
P = VI
= 47%
I = 36 / 8.0 A1
4(d)(iii) curved line from the origin M1
= 4.5 A
gradient of line increases A1
6(a)(ii) charge = 4.5 × 50 C1
= 225

Question Answer Marks number = 225 / 1.6 × 10–19 A1

= 1.4 × 1021
5(a)(i) (two) waves travelling (at same speed) in opposite directions overlap B1
6(a)(iii) R = V 2/P or R = V/I or R = P/I 2 C1
waves (of the same type) have same frequency/wavelength B1
= 8.02 / 36 or = 8.0 / 4.5 or = 36 / 4.52
5(a)(ii) phase difference = 0 A1
= 1.8 Ω A1

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 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice May/June 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme February/March 2022

PUBLISHED
Question Answer Marks
Published
6(b) R = ρL / A C1

L = (1.8 × 0.25 × 10–6) / 1.4 × 10–6 A1

= 0.32 m

6(c) (larger cross-sectional area, same length, same resistivity and so) less resistance M1 This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination.
(same p.d. and more current so) more power (dissipated) A1

6(d) current (in wire) is the same M1 Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers.
(same p.d. across wire so) power stays the same A1

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
Question Answer Marks
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
7(a)(i) (electron) neutrino B1
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
7(a)(ii) nucleon number = 22 A1 Cambridge O Level components.
proton number = 10 A1

7(a)(iii) up up down changes to up down down B1

or
up changes to down

7(b)(i) charge = – ⅔ e A1

7(b)(ii) antiup / anticharm / antitop B1

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Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

1 C 1 29 D 1

2 B 1 30 C 1

3 C 1 31 B 1

4 B 1 32 A 1

5 A 1 33 D 1

6 D 1 34 A 1

7 C 1 35 B 1

8 A 1 36 A 1

9 B 1 37 D 1

10 B 1 38 C 1

11 C 1 39 C 1

12 D 1 40 B 1

13 C 1

14 B 1

15 C 1

16 B 1

17 A 1

18 C 1

19 B 1

20 A 1

21 D 1

22 C 1

23 D 1

24 A 1

25 A 1

26 B 1

27 B 1

28 D 1

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 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/22
Paper 2 AS Level Structured Questions May/June 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 60

9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme May/June 2022

PUBLISHED
Question Answer Marks
Published
1(a) only ampere and kilogram underlined B1

1(b)(i) percentage uncertainty = 2.1 + 0.6 + (1.5  2) C1

= 5.7% A1
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the 1(b)(ii) absolute uncertainty = (5.7 / 100)  8.245  109 C1

details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have ( = 4.7  108 Pa or 0.47  109 Pa)
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
E = (8.2 ± 0.5)  109 Pa A1
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
Teachers. Question Answer Marks

2(a) T sin 68° + 32 = 280 C1

Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
T = 270 N A1
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the May/June 2022 series for most
2(b)(i) F = gV A1
Cambridge IGCSE, Cambridge International A and AS Level and Cambridge Pre-U components, and some
Cambridge O Level components. V = 280 / (1.0  103  9.81)

= 0.029 m3

2(b)(ii)  = (32 / 9.81) / 0.029 C1

= 110 kg m–3 A1

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Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

2(c) (∆)E = mg(∆)h or (∆)E = W(∆)h C1 2(d)(ii) 1 (A1)

final E   540  9.6  10 3
2
(∆)h = (–) 77 / 32 C1 or
(∆)h = (–) 2.4 A1 E=
1
2

  270  2   4.8  10 3  2 
final height = 6.2 – 2.4 or
1
 
2
E =  5.6  10 4  9.6  10 3
= 3.8 m 2

2(d)(i) T = kx where k is a constant B1 = 2.6 J

or

T = (EA / L)x where A is (cross-sectional) area, E is Young modulus, L is (original/unstretched) length

2(d)(ii) 1 2 C1
E kx
2
or
1
E  Fx and F = kx
2

E = 0.65  22 A1

= 2.6 J

or

1 (C1)
E Fx
2
1
0.65   270  x and so x = 4.8  10–3 m
2
k = F / x = 270 / 4.8  10–3

= 5.6  104

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Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

3(a) v2 = u2 + 2as C1 4(a) sum/total momentum before = sum/total momentum after M1

or
s = 5.62 / (2  9.81) sum/total momentum (of a system of objects) is constant

(max height =) 3.1 + 5.62 / (2  9.81) = 4.7 (m) A1 if no (resultant) external force/for a closed system A1

3(b) 1 2 C1 4(b)(i) (3.0  4.0  cos) or (2.5  4.8  cos) or (5.5  3.7) C1
s  ut  at
2
(3.0  4.0  cos) + (2.5  4.8  cos) = (5.5  3.7) C1
1
4.7   9.81 t 2  = 32° A1
2
4(b)(ii) 1 1 C1
t = 0.98 s A1 (initial EK =  3.0  4.02 +  2.5  4.82 =) 53 (J)
2 2
3(c) line drawn from a non-zero speed at t = 0 to a greater speed at t = T B1 or
1
(final EK =  5.5  3.72 =) 38 (J)
a single sloping straight line drawn from t = 0 to t = T B1 2

line starts with a positive non-zero value of v and ends with a negative non-zero value of v B1 values of initial EK and final EK both correct and inelastic stated A1

3(d) acceleration (of the ball) B1

3(e)(i) (magnitudes of accelerations are) equal / same B1

3(e)(ii) (speeds are) equal / same B1

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5(a) constant phase difference (between the waves) B1 6(a) V = V1 + V2 + V3 B1

5(b)(i) path difference = 1.5  660 A1 IR = IR1 + IR2 + IR3 or (V / I) = (V1 / I) + (V2 / I) + (V3 / I) B1

= 990 nm and

5(b)(ii) phase difference = 360°  1.5 A1 R = R1 + R2 + R3

= 540° 6(b)(i) V / 8.0 = 6.0  103 / (4.0  103 + 6.0  103) C1

5(c)  = ax / D C1 or

x = (660  10–9  1.8) / 0.44  10–3 C1 I = 8.0 / (4.0  103 + 6.0  103) = 8.0  10–4

= 2.7  10–3 m A1 V = 8.0  10–4  6.0  103

5(d) bright fringes are brighter B1 V = 4.8 V A1

no change to dark fringes B1 6(b)(ii) total resistance in parallel = 3.0  103 () or 3.0 (k) C1

no change to (fringe) separation / (fringe) spacing B1 current = 8.0 / (3.0  103 + 6.0  103) A1

5(e) (blue light has) shorter wavelength M1 = 8.9  10–4 A

(so) decrease (slit) separation A1 6(c) thermistor resistance increases B1

(thermistor resistance increases so total resistance increases so) current decreases (in battery) M1

(P = EI and E constant so) power decreases A1

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 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/12
Paper 1 Multiple Choice October/November 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 40

9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme May/June 2022

PUBLISHED
Question Answer Marks
Published
7(a)(i) P = 0 and Q = 137 A1

R = –1 and S = 56 A1

7(a)(ii) lepton(s) B1
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
7(b)(i) 1 1 1 B1
(charge of ddd / Y =)   e    e    e  = –1(e) examination.
3 3 3

1 2 B1 Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for
(charge of ud / Z =)   e    e  = –1(e)
3 3 Teachers.
7(b)(ii) meson: Z / u d because consists of a quark and an antiquark B1
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes.
baryon: Y / ddd because consists of three quarks B1
Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2022 series for most
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

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Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

1 D 1 29 C 1

2 C 1 30 D 1

3 D 1 31 B 1

4 C 1 32 B 1

5 A 1 33 D 1

6 A 1 34 D 1

7 D 1 35 A 1

8 C 1 36 B 1

9 B 1 37 A 1

10 C 1 38 C 1

11 D 1 39 B 1

12 D 1 40 B 1

13 B 1

14 A 1

15 C 1

16 A 1

17 C 1

18 B 1

19 C 1

20 B 1

21 A 1

22 D 1

23 B 1

24 A 1

25 B 1

26 D 1

27 B 1

28 C 1

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 Cambridge International AS & A Level

PHYSICS 9702/22
Paper 2 AS Level Structured Questions October/November 2022
MARK SCHEME
Maximum Mark: 60

9702/22 Cambridge International AS & A Level – Mark Scheme October/November 2022

PUBLISHED
Question Answer Marks
Published
1(a) force  displacement in the direction of the force B1

1(b) P = Fs / t C1

= (kg m s–2  m) / s
This mark scheme is published as an aid to teachers and candidates, to indicate the requirements of the
examination. It shows the basis on which Examiners were instructed to award marks. It does not indicate the = kg m2 s–3 A1
details of the discussions that took place at an Examiners’ meeting before marking began, which would have 1(c)(i) 84  103 = v 3  0.56 C1
considered the acceptability of alternative answers.
v = 53 m s–1 A1
Mark schemes should be read in conjunction with the question paper and the Principal Examiner Report for 1(c)(ii) percentage uncertainty = (5% + 7%) / 3 (= 4%) C1
Teachers. or
fractional uncertainty = (0.05 + 0.07) / 3 (= 0.04)
Cambridge International will not enter into discussions about these mark schemes. absolute uncertainty = 0.04  53 A1

Cambridge International is publishing the mark schemes for the October/November 2022 series for most = () 2 m s–1
Cambridge IGCSE™, Cambridge International A and AS Level components and some Cambridge O Level
components.

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Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

2(a) F = gV C1 3(a) point where (all) the weight (of an object) is taken to act B1

0.071 = 1.2  9.81  V 3(b)(i) vertical component = 45 sin 37° A1

(V = 6.03  10–3 m3) A1 = 27 N

4/3    r 3 = 6.03  10–3 3(b)(ii) the magnitudes of the three moments about A are (23  0.48), (27  0.56) and (W  0.76) C1

r = 0.11 m correct magnitude of any one moment about A

2(b) m = 0.053 / 9.81 C1 correct magnitudes of any two moments about A C1

( = 5.4  10–3 kg) (23  0.48) + (W  0.76) = 27  0.56 A1

F = 0.071 – 0.053 C1 W = 5.4 N

( = 0.018 N) 3(b)(iii) horizontal component = 45 cos 37° A1

a = (0.071 – 0.053) / (0.053 / 9.81) A1 = 36 N

= 3.3 m s–2 3(b)(iv) decrease B1

2(c)(i) v 2 = u 2 + 2as C1 3(b)(v)  = F/A C1

3.62 = (–1.4)2 + 2  9.81  s or 3.62 = 1.42 + 2  9.81  s  = F / r 2 or 4F / d 2 A1

s = 0.56 m A1 so  = 5.3  107  r 2 / (3r)2

2(c)(ii) single straight line from any positive non-zero value of v at t = 0 to any negative non-zero value of v at t = T B1 = 5.3  107 / 9

line starting at (0, 1.4) and ending at (T, –3.6) B1 = 5.9  106 Pa

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Question Answer Marks Question Answer Marks

4(a) E = ½mv2 C1 5(a) (they travel in) opposite directions B1

= ½  0.25  2.32 A1 5(b)(i) straight line from A to B, labelled P B1

= 0.66 J line that is ‘mirror image’ of given line, labelled Q B1

4(b) E = ½kx2 C1 5(b)(ii)  = 0.80 / 2 C1

or
E = ½Fx and F = kx ( = 0.40 m)

x = [(2  0.66) / 420]0.5 A1 v = /T C1

or
= 0.056 m v = f and f = 1 / T

or v = 0.40 / 0.016 or 62.5  0.40 A1

E = ½kx2 (C1) = 25 m s–1

½mv2 = ½kx2 (A1) 5(c)(i) I1 / I0 = cos2 30° C1

x = (0.25  2.32 / 420)0.5 = 0.75 A1

= 0.056 m 5(c)(ii) I2 / I1 = cos2 60° C1

4(c)(i) (p =) 0.25  2.3 or 0.25  1.5 C1 I2 / I0 = cos2 30°  cos2 60° or 0.75  cos2 60°

change in momentum = 0.25 (2.3 + 1.5) A1 = 0.19 A1

= 0.95 N s

4(c)(ii) resultant force = 0.95 / 0.086 or 0.25  (2.3 + 1.5) / 0.086 A1

= 11 N

4(d) curved line from the origin with an increasing gradient B1

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6(a) energy transferred per (unit) charge (from electrical to other forms) B1 7(a) 92 protons and 146 neutrons (in nucleus) B1

6(b) same/equal current (in X and Y) B1 92 (orbital) electrons B1

P = I2R (and RX > RY) M1 7(b) charge = 2e C1

or
P = VI and VX > VY ( = 2  1.60  10–19 C)

(so) X (dissipates more power) A1 mass = 4u C1

6(c)(i) I = Q/t C1 ( = 4  1.66  10–27 kg)

= 650 / 540 A1 ratio = (2  1.60  10–19) / (4  1.66  10–27) A1

= 1.2 A = 4.8  107 C kg–1

6(c)(ii) V = W / Q or W / It C1 7(c)(i) up down down / udd B1

= 4800 / 650 or 4800 / (1.2  540) A1 7(c)(ii) up up up / uuu B1

= 7.4 V

or

V = P / I and P = W / t (C1)

= 8.9 / 1.2 (A1)

= 7.4 V

6(c)(iii) I = 4.5 + 1.2 (= 5.7 A) C1

9.0 = 7.4 + 5.7r or 9.0 = 5.7 (1.3 + r) A1

r = 0.28 

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