1.

Patient with maxillofacial injuries

should be carried in:
A. Supine position
B. Lateral position
C. Prone position
D. Sitting position
2. The presence of tension pneumothorax
should be considered in patients who
has feature as:
A. Development of severe respiratory
distress with decreased breath sounds,
hyper resonance on one side of chest
B. Development of severe respiratory
distress and deviation of trachea to the
side involved
C. Patient becomes acutely ill, with
collapsed neck veins.
D. All of the above
3. Raised intracranial pressure following
a maxillofacial injury, is:
A. Normal finding
B. Typically associated with an increase in
the heart rate
C. Typically associated with an
increase in the blood pressure
D. Usually subsides spontaneously
4. Which of the following is an immediate
danger to a patient with severe
facial Injuries
A. Bleeding
B. Associated fracture spine
C. Infection
D. Respiratory obstruction
5. Which of the following always
indicates obstruction to the airway?
A. Slow pounding pulse
B. Stertorous breathing
C. Increase in pulse rate
D. Decrease in blood pressure
6. The head tilt procedure while dealing
with an unconscious patient in dental
chair is done to ensure
A. Patent airway
B. Blood circulation to the brain
C. To clear the foreign body obstacle
D. To relieve spasm of respiratory muscles
 7. Of the following, which is the
immediate treatment for a patient
with
comminuted fracture and in the state
of shock?
A. Ringer’s lactate solution by IV route
B. Normal saline by IV route
C. Blood transfusion
D. Plasma expanders
8. Definitive management of
maxillofacial trauma after trauma can
be delayed up to what time without
substantially compromising the
outcome?
A. Should be done 5-7 days of admission
B. Can be delayed up to 2 weeks
C. Should be performed immediately after
admission
D. None
9. Clinical sign that is always positive in
bone fracture is
A. Crepitus
B. Tenderness
C. Abnormal mobility
D. All of the above
10. Direct impact on the bone will produce
a
A. Transverse fracture
 B. Oblique fracture
C. Spiral fracture
D. Comminuted fracture
11. Green stick fractures are most
common with a…………
A. Older people
B. Adult
C. Children
D. Soldiers
12. Osteomyelitis is most commonly
associated with…………
A. Compound fractures
B. Comminuted fractures
C. Green stick fractures
D. Telescopic fracture
13. Principles in treating fractures include
A. Reduction of fracture
B. Fixation of fracture and restoration of
occlusion
C. Immobilization
D. All of the above
14. During panfacial fractures the
structures that are reconstructed first
are
A. Outer bone segments of the frame
B. Bones inside the framework
C. Maxilla always
D. Mandible always
15. The most common site of fracture of
the mandible is the:
A. Body
B. Angle
C. Symphysis
D. Condyle
16. The weakest part and most vulnerable
part for fracture in the mandible is:
A. Ramus of mandible
B. Condylar neck
C. Angle of the mandible
D. Region of the canine tooth
17. Bones usually fracture at the site of:
A. Compressive strain
B. Tensile strain
C. Rich blood supply
D. Thin periosteal covering
18. Orbital blow out fracture is best seen
in?
A. Reverse town
B. Waters view
C. PA view
D. Submentovertex
19. The radiographic view of choice for
diagnosing horizontally
favorable/unfavorable # is:
A. OPG
B. Occlusal
 C. Lateral Oblique view
D. Transpharyngeal
20. Condylar neck fracture best detected
in:
A. Submentovertex projection
B. Water’s projection
C. Posterio anterior skull projection
D. Reverse towne projection
21. Of the following which is almost
pathognomonic of a mandibular
fracture:
A. Deep laceration near the area of
trauma and paresthesia
B. Ecchymosis in the lingual sulcus and
dearranged occlusion
C. Anterior open bite and deviation of the
mandible on opening
D. None of the above are correct. There is
no pathogenic feature of mandibular
fracture
22. All are features of mandibular fracture
except:
A. Malocclusion
B. Paresthesia of lower lip
C. Fractured ends are prevented from
dislocation by masticatory muscles
D. Are usually compound
23. The proximal segment of mandible
angle fracture usually displaced in:
A. Anterior and superior
B. Posterior and interior
C. Interior only
D. Posterior and superior
24. In a patient with bilateral dislocated
fractures of the necks of the
mandibular condyles, one can expect
the following clinical signs
A. Anterior open bite
B. Inability to protrude the mandible
C. Inability to bring posterior molars into
contact
D. A & B
25. Which of the following are most
complicated fractures?
A. Symphysis
B. Body
C. Condyle
D. Angle
26. A 7-year-old boy presented with
fracture of left sub condylar region
with occlusion undisturbed, the
treatment would be:
A. Immobilization for 7 day
B. Immobilization for 14 days with
intermittent active opening
 C. No immobilization with restricted
mouth opening for 10 days
D. No immobilization and no active
treatment
27. In children fracture mandible which
has not been perfectly reduced but has
become firm with slight imperfection,
the choice of the management would
be:
A. Arch bar and elastric traction
B. Accept the slight imperfection and
allow for later remodeling
C. Refracture and plating
D. Refracture and interosseous wiring
28. An adult patient sustained a
subcondylar fracture on the left side.
Clinically it is seen that there is
A. Moderate intraoral bleeding
B. Trismus and bilateral crepitus
C. Deviation of the mandible to the right-
on protrusion
D. Inability to deviate the mandible to
the right-on opening
29. The muscle, under the influence of
which, the superior fragment of
condyle, in a condylar neck # is
displaced anteriorly and medially is:
A. Medial Pterygoid
 B. Lateral Pterygoid
C. Masseter
D. Temporalis
30. In case of pure symphysis fracture of
mandible, fracture segments are
usually displaced
A. Lingually & downward by the pull of
Genioglossus mylohyoid muscles.
B. Mainly lingually and lingual &
downward movement due to the pull of
Geniohyoid & myohyoid muscle.
C. Mainly upward movement. Lingual and
upward movement due to the pull of
Geniohyoid and mylohyoid muscle.
D. None of the above are correct. A
little (or) no displacement occurs.
31. Posterior displacement of the
fractured anterior segment in the
bilateral fracture of the mandible in
the canine region is due to the action of
the
A. Thyrohyoid, genioglossus and
geniohyoid
B. Mylohyoid, genioglossus and
geniohyoid
C. Geniohyoid and genioglossus and
anterior belly of digastric muscles
 D. Mylohyoid, geniohyoid and thyrohyoid
muscle
32. A fractured coronoid process of
mandible displaces upwards by the
action of following muscle
A. Buccinator
B. Lateral Pterygoid
C. Mylohyoid
D. Temporalis
33. Which of the following is seen with
guardsman fracture associated with
bilateral condylar fractures
A. Increased intercanthal distance
B. Increased interpupillary distance
C. Increased gonion gnathion distance
D. Increased interangular distance
34. Fracture most commonly resulting in
widening of face is?
A. Parasymphyseal and symphyseal
region fracture without condylar fracture
B. Parasymphyseal and symphyseal
region fracture with condylar fracture
C. Zygomaticomaxillary complex fracture
D. Cranio-facial disjunction fracture
35. Fracture of mandible not involving
dental arch is treated by
A. Open reduction
B. Closed reduction
 C. No treatment required
D. None of the above
36. A displaced, unfavorable fracture in
the mandibular angle region is a
potentially difficult fracture to treat
because of:
A. Injury to neurovascular bundle
B. Malocclusion secondary to injury
C. Distraction of fracture segments by
muscle pull
D. Increased density of bone in this region
of mandible
37. Unfavorable fracture of angle of
mandible is best treated by:
A. Closed reduction with IMF
B. Closed reduction with cap splint
C. Open reduction with bone plate
fixation
D. Circummandibular wiring
38. The splint which is most commonly
used in dentulous mandibular fracture
is:
A. Gunning splint
B. Cap splint
C. Ribbon splint
D. All of these
39. How many weeks of fixation are
required for fracture mandible?
 A. 8-10 weeks
B. 6-8 weeks
C. 4-6 weeks
D. 2-4 weeks
40. Which of the following is used for ‘figure
of eight’ wiring for stabilization of
subluxated teeth in alveolar injuries?
A. 0.23 mm stainless steel wire
B. 0.35 mm stainless steel wire
C. 0.45 mm stainless steel wire
D. 0.55 mm stainless steel wire
41. A fracture of the mandible in the
canine region in a 6-year-old child
should be managed by:
A. Cap splint fixation
B. Intermaxillary fixation
C. Risdon wiring
D. Transosseous wiring
42. Which one of the following is not an
appropriate method of stabilizing # in
childhood
A. Arch bar with circumdental wiring
B. Circumdental wiring with skeletal
wiring
C. Risdon wiring
D. Splints
43. The movement employed in the
reduction of dislocated non-fractured
 mandible condyle is:
A. Downward and backward
B. Upward and forward
C. Upward and backward
D. Downward and forward
44. Paresthesia is one of the commonest
finding in which of the following
fractures?
A. Subcondylar fracture of the mandible
B. Zygomatico maxillary complex
fracture
C. Fractured coronoid and displacement
of the fracture
D. Symphysis fracture associated with
bilateral subcondylar fracture
45. Paresthesia over nasal and upper lip
following fractured zygoma is because
of involvement of
A. Facial nerve
B. Posterior superior alveolar nerve
C. Infraorbital nerve
D. Mental nerve
46. A 35-year-old man with a Le Fort III
fracture complains of blood tinged
watery discharge from his nose 2 days
after the trauma. CT scan confirms
NOE fracture as well. What clinical
features suggest that the discharge is
 CSF Leak?
A. Continuous discharge
B. Appearance of tram line or halo
rings
C. Stoppage of discharge on pressure
D. None of the above
47. The most common site of leak in CSF
rhinorrhoea is
A. Sphenoid sinus
B. Frontal sinus
C. Cribriform plate
D. Tegmen tympani
48. CSF rhinorrhea is not seen in
A. Le Fort I
B. Le Fort II
C. Le Fort III
D. Ethmoidal
49. Le Fort III fracture is the same as
A. Craniofacial disjunction
B. Guerrin’s fracture
C. Pyramidal fracture
D. None of the above
50. Floating maxilla is typically found in
A. Le Fort I or Guerin fractures
B. Le Fort II or pyramidal fractures
C. Craniomandibular dysjunction
D. All of the above
51. In Le Fort I fracture, the fracture
fragment includes all of the following
except the:
A. Bridge of the nose
B. Nasal spine
C. Lower portions of the pterygoid
D. Upper teeth and palate processes
52. Which of the following is characteristic
of Le Fort I fracture?
A. CSF rhinorrhea
B. Bleeding from the ear
C. Bleeding into the antrum
D. A & B
53. “Panda Facies” is one of the term to
describe the patient’s face after mid
face trauma. The appearance is due to:
A. Gross swelling of the face
B. C.S.F. rhinorrhea and bleeding from the
nose & laceration results in red &
white streaks on the face
C. Edema & ecchymosis around the
eyes
D. Sub-conjunctival hemorrhage
(bilateral)
54. The Sub-conjunctival hemorrhage
remains red in color for a long time
because?
A. Hemoglobin prevents breakdown of
 R.BC.
B. Permeability of the conjunctiva to
oxygen
C. Oxygen content of blood to conjunctiva
is vey high
D. All of the above
55. Bilateral subconjunctival ecchymosis is
not associated with
A. Le Fort II fracture
B. Le-Fort III fracture
C. Naso ethmoidal complex fracture
D. Le-Fort I fracture
56. The incision used for treatment of
traumatic telecanthus is
A. Bicoronal incision
B. Upper blepheroplasty
C. Infraorbital incision
D. Preauricular incision
57. In Le Fort III fracture which of the
following are seen:
A. Whole face is mobile with crack pot
sound on tapping teeth
B. CSF rhinorrhea
C. Fracture at frontozygomatic suture
D. All of the above
58. Battle sign is seen in:
A. # of anterior cranial fossa
B. # of middle cranial fossa
 C. # of posterior cranial Fossa
D. None of the above
59. Of the following which is weakest part
of orbit:
A. Medial wall
B. Lateral wall
C. Floor of the orbit
D. A&B
E. A&C
60. Hanging drop effect in blow-out
fracture is due to herniation of
A. Superior oblique and inferior oblique
muscles
B. Inferior oblique and inferior rectus
muscles
C. Superior rectus and superior oblique
muscles
D. Inferior oblique and superior rectus
muscle
61. Diplopia is most common with:
A. Mandibular body fracture
B. Alvedan fractures
C. Craniofacial dysjunction
D. Zygomatico maxillary complex
62. After orbital injury the cause of
diplopia in the acute phase is?
A. Ischemic injury leading to fibrosis
B. Entrapment of extra ocular muscles
 C. Intrusion of eye
D. None of the above
63. Which of the following statements
about a blow-out fracture are true?
A. It has been established beyond doubt
that such an injury is caused by the
eyeball being forced backwards, thus
raising the intraorbital pressure and
causing the thin orbital floor to blow-out.
B. If the patient has diplopia and a
coronal tomogram shows a small blow-
out of the orbital floor, it should be
repaired immediately.
C. Early repair of the orbital floor always
prevents enophthalmos
D. None of the above
64. In a patient with fresh blowout
fracture of the orbit, best immediate
management is
A. Wait and watch
B. Antral pack
C. Titanium mesh
D. Glass bead mesh
65. Gillis approach for reduction of
zygomatic fracture is done through
A. Temporal fossa
B. Intra temporal fossa
 C. Infra orbital fossa
D. All of the above
66. In depressed zygomatic arch fracture,
difficult in opening the mouth is
caused by impingement of
A. Condyles
B. Ramus
C. Petrous temporal
D. Coronoid process
67. After fracture of middle cranial
foramen there is epiphora this is due
to damage of
A. Ciliary ganglion
B. Greater palatine nerve
C. Infraorbital nerve
D. Nasolacrimal duct
68. All of the following statements of nasal
fractures are true except
A. Even if minor, they may be followed
by bilateral ecchymosis and facial
oedema
B. They may need to be reduced for a few
weeks
C. They need not be complicated by
traumatic telecanthus
D. They may lead to the telescoping of the
nasal complex into the frontal sinus
69. Which of the following statements
about CSF rhinorrhoea is true?
A. It suggests a fracture of the petrous
temporal bone
B. It reduces after a Valsalva manoeuvre
C. The fluid tastes sweet
D. None of the above
70. 70. Which of the following methods of
osteosynthesis in the treatment of
fracture mandible results in primary
bone healing?
A. Mini-plates
B. Intraosseous wiring
C. Inter-maxillary fixation
D. Compression bone plates
71. In osteosynthesis all are used except:
A. Lag screw
B. Wires
C. Clampy bone plate
D. Eyelet wiring
72. Miniplate fixation is effective at:
A. Zone of tension
B. Near the roots of teeth
C. Zone of compression
D. Near to the mental foramen
73. Where on a true lag screw are the
threads placed?
A. On the distal end, only
 B. On the end close to the head
C. On the entire length of screw
D. Both on distal end and the end near the
head
74. In fracture of atrophic mandible
treatment modality is
A. Bone grafting & load bearing
B. Bone grafting & load sharing
C. Open reduction
D. Semi rigid
75. Mandibular fracture managed by
adapting mini plates is a type of
A. Load bearing osteosynthesis
B. Load sharing osteosynthesis
C. Non-rigid osteosynthesis
D. Rigid osteosynthesis
76. Primary healing of a mandibular
fracture is seen following fixation
with:
A. Gunning splints
B. Compression plates
C. Trans-osseous wires
D. Champy plates
77. According to the tension and
compression forces acting at the
condylar border which of these would
best attenuate them?
A. A plate at the anterior border and
 another at the posterior border
B. A plate at the anterior border
C. A plate at the post border
D. A plate at the lateral border
78. The optimum length of screw, for
fixation of plate in mandible is
A. 2 mm
B. 3 mm
C. 4 mm
D. 6 mm
79. Open reduction and internal fixation
of fracture fragments in the older
patients is risky because
A. of their old age, they less likely tolerate
the major procedure under general
anesthesia.
B. fixation is difficult because bone will
become denser as age advances.
C. delayed (or) non-union may occur
because of over all decrease in reparative
abilities of the body.
D. None of the above are correct.
80. Eburnation is seen in:
A. Malunion
B. Non-union
C. Osteomyelitis
D. Osteoradionecrosis
81. Which of the following is a
complication of an open fracture?
A. Malunion
B. Nonunion
C. Infection
D. Crepitation
82. Cause of death during the 2nd peak in
a patient with severe injuries is:
A. Spinal injury
B. Epidural and Subdural hemorrhage
C. Aortic arch rupture
D. Sepsis
83. A patient with suspendcted cervical
fracture should be kept in:
A. Prone position
B. Both body and neck flexed
C. Body and neck extended
D. Body extended and neck flexed
84. The recommendation about the
resuscitation of elderly trauma
patients include all except
A. The presence of pre-existing medical
conditions will adversely affect the
outcome in elderly trauma patient.
B. Elderly trauma patients (65 years or
older) with a GCS score less than 8 has a
very poor prognosis. If improvement is
not possible within 72 hours, then
 limitation of continued aggressive
therapy should be considered.
C. Invasive hemodynamic monitoring
is not indicated for those geriatric
trauma patients even with uncertain
cardiovascular or renal diseases.
D. Effort should be made to optimize the
cardiac index (>4 L/min./m2) and oxygen
consumption index (170 mL/min/m2)
85. Gunshot wounds of the face caused by
A. Low-veiocity hand-gun bullets are
typically less serious than those caused by
high velocity missiles.
B. Low-velocity missiles have a
deceptive external appearance in that
there is extensive internal damage
covered by a small entry wound.
C. High-velocity bullets are sterile.
D. High-velocity bullets must be sutured
as soon as possible.
86. From the scheme given below, choose
the appropriate order of priorities in
the management of a patient with
polytruama:
1. Control of extermal haemorrhage
2. Intravenous infusion and
transfusion
3. Maintenance of a patient airway
 4. Relief of a tension pneumothorax
5. Splinting of fractures
A. 1, 5, 2, 3, 4
B. 3, 4, 1, 2, 5
C. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2
D. 2, 1, 5, 3, 4
87. The first step in management of head
injury is:
A. Secure airway
B. I.V. mannitol
C. I.V. dexamethasone
D. Blood transfusion
88. The safest initial approach to open
airway of patient with maxillofacial
trauma is:
A. Head tilt – chin tilt
B. Jaw thrust technique
C. Head lift – neck lift
D. Heimlich procedure
89. An average patient with maxillofacial
trauma requires how much of daily
sodium?
A. 100 mmol
B. 50 – 60 mmol
C. 10 mmol
D. 1000 mmol
90. Suturing in facial would injuries
should be done within:
 A. 2 hours
B. 6 hours
C. 4 hours
D. 8 hours
91. The fracture of the tooth bearing
segment of the mandible is:
A. simple
B. complex
C. compound
D. comminuted
92. Fractures in edentulous mandible are
commonly described as:
A. Compound fracture
B. Comminuted fracture
C. Simple fracture
D. Compound comminuted fracture
93. Of the following which facial bone is
most frequently fractured?
A. Mandible
B. Maxilla
C. Nasal
D. Zygomatic
94. Which side of face is more commonly
affected in trauma?
A. Right
B. Left
C. Both equall
D. None
95. The most common anatomic site of
fracture of mandible is the:
A. body
B. angle
C. condyle
D. symphysis
96. Zygomatic fracture is better viewed in:
A. Reverse town
B. Waters view
C. PA view
D. Submentovertex view
97. The radiographic view of choice for
demonstrating a nasal # is:
A. Reverse towne’s
B. PA view
C. True lateral
D. OPG
98. Fracture of mandible all are true
except
A. Fractures of the mandible are common
at the angle of the mandible.
B. Fractures of the mandible are effected
by the muscle pull.
C. Fractures of the mandible are usually
characterized by sublingual hematoma.
D. C.S.F. rhinorrhea is a common
finding.
 99. A patient came to the trauma center
who had a blow over his lower jaw.
Intraoral examination reveals
hematoma near lingual side of lower
second molar. The proximal fragment
is medially displaced. Which of the
following might explain the above
findings?
A. Vertically favorable fracture of angle of
the mandible & displacement is due to
masseter action
B. Vertically unfavorable fracture of
angle of the mandible & displacement
is due to internal pterygoid action
C. Horizontally favourable fracture at the
angle & displacement is due to medial
pterygoid action
D. Horizontally unfavourable fracture at
the angle & displacement is due to
masseter action
100. After a blow to the chin, patient has
pain and tenderness over the right
TMJ. Open bite, and deviation of the
chin to the right side. This suggests:
A. Fracture mandible right angle region
B. Fracture mandible left angle region
C. Fracture mandible right condyle
D. Fracture mandible left condyle
101. Diagnostic findings of condylar
fractures include which of the
following:
A. Limitation in opening mouth
B. Evidence of facial trauma, especially in
the areaof mandible and symphysis
C. Deviation, upon opening, towards the
involved side
D. All of the above
102. Early complication following fracture
of the mandibular condyle includes all
except:
A. Fracture of tympanic plate
B. Vascular injuries
C. Fracture of glenoid fossa with or
without displacement of the condylar
segment into the middle cranial fossa
D. Malocclusion
103. In which of the following anterior open
bite occur?
A. Bilateral condylar fractures
B. Symphysis fracture on one side and
angle fracture on the other side of the
mandible
C. Horizontal fracture of the maxilla
D. A & C
104. Sixteen-year-old boy presented with
pain on left side of the TMJ on
 mandibular movement. Patient gives
H/O road side accident one day back.
Clinically, occlusion is normal.
Radiograph reveals undisplaced crack
in the left mandibular condyle. What is
the treatment of choice?
A. Open reduction & internal fixation
B. Maxillo-mandibular fixation for 3
weeks
C. Maxillo-mandibular fixation for 4
weeks
D. No surgical intervention, instruction
for soft diet for 3 weeks and
observation for any change in
occlusion
105. Most common complication of
condylar injuries in children:
A. Pain
B. Ankylosis
C. Osteoarthritis
D. Fracture of glenoid fossa
106. In case of subcondylar fracture, the
condyle moves in
A. Anterior lateral direction
B. Posterior medial direction
C. Posterior lateral direction
D. Anterior medial direction
107. In bilateral parasymphysis fracture the
mandible is pulled posteriorly due to
the action of
A. Genioglossus
B. Geniohyiod
C. Mylohyoid
D. Hyoglossus
108. Excessive muscular contraction is one
of the frequent cause of:
A. Unilateral condylar fracture
B. Coronoid fracture
C. Fracutre of angle of the mandible
D. Bilateral condylar fracture
109. Facial widening/flaring is a
complication seen in:
A. Symphyseal #
B. Bilateral condylar #
C. Tightening of rnaxillo-mandibular
D. All of the above fixation
110. Fracture of body of mandible with full
arch of teeth [undisplaced] is treated
by
A. IMF
B. Open reduction and internal fixation
C. Close reduction and internal fixation
D. External pin fixation
111. The treatment for a mandibular
fracture between the incisors is
 treated with
A. Risdon wiring
B. Essig wiring
C. Cap splint with circum-mandibular
wiring
D. Transosseous wiring
112. The ideal treatment for fracture of the
angle of mandible is:
A. Transosseous wiring
B. Intermaxillary fixation
C. Plating on the lateral side of the body of
the mandible
D. Plating at the inferior border of the
mandible
113. In condylar fracture with greater than
5 mm overlapping of greater with
fracture segment, what is the line of
treatment?
A. Closed reduction and IMF
B. ORIF
C. Soft diet
D. No treatment
114. A Gunning’s splint is used in the
treatment of:
A. Fracture of the condyiar neck of a child
B. Fracture of the edentulous mandible
C. Anterior dentoalveolar fracture
D. None of the above
115. Treatment period of fixation for
alveolar bone fracture is
A. 3-4 week
B. 6-8 week
C. 2-3 week
D. 1 week
116. Important factor in treatment of
condylar neck fractures in young
patients is by
A. Early mobilization
B. Surgical approach
C. Minibone plating
D. All the above
117. In children with mixed dentition
fracture mandible is treated by:
A. Bone plating
B. Transosseous wiring
C. Eyelet intermaxillary wiring
D. Splinting with circumferential
wiring
118. After reduction of a mandibular
dislocation that occurred for the first
time, treatment should be to:
A. Inject sclerosing solution into the joint,
so further dislocation is less likely.
B. Inject corticosteroids into the joint
which reduces the inflammation.
C. Immobilize with IMF for 5-6 weeks.
 D. Advise the patient to limit opening
of the mouth for 2-3 weeks.
119. Facial paralysis following maxillofacial
fractures is most common in
A. # of the condylar neck
B. # of the nasal bones
C. # of the zygomaticomaxillary
D. # of the mandibular symphysis
complex.
120. The inferior orbital fissure is the key to
remembering the usual lines of ZMC #,
three lines of fracture extend from
inferior orbital fissure are:
A. Antero-medial, a supero-medial and
lateral direction
B. Antero-medial, a supero-lateral and
inferior direction
C. Antero-inferior, a supero-posterior and
medial direction
D. Antero-lateral, a supero-lateral and
medial direction
121. Flattening of the cheek seen in:
A. Maxillary fractures
B. Condylar fractures
C. Zygomatic bone fractures
D. Orbital injuries
122. CSF rhinorrhea is found in:
A. Frontal bone structure
 B. Zygomatico maxillary fracture
C. Naso ethmoidal fracture
D. Condylar fracture
123. The most common site of leak in CSF
rhinorrhea is into
A. Sphenoid sinus
B. Frontal sinus
C. Ethmoidal sinus
D. Maxillary sinus
124. Fracture commonly pyramidal in
shape is
A. Le Fort 1
B. Le Fort 2
C. Le Fort3
D. Mandibular
125. Craniofacial dysjunction seen in
A. Le Fort III fracture
B. Guerrin’s fracture
C. High Le Fort I fracture
D. None of the above
126. Moon face is seen in:
A. Le Fort I
B. Le Fort II
C. Le Fort III
D. Orbital fractures
127. Which of the following is not a feature
of Le Fort II fracture?
A. Enophthalmos
 B. Malocclusion
C. Paraesthesia
D. CSF rhinorrhea
128. Sub-conjunctival haemorhage occurs
due to:
A. Zygomatic complex fractures
B. Orbital fractures
C. Le Fort II fractures
D. All of the above
129. The intercanthal distance suggestive of
traumatic telecanthus is:
A. 30 mm
B. 32 mm
C. 25 mm
D. 40 mm
130. “Dish face’ deformity commonly seen
with fractures of middle third of face is
because of
A. Posterior and downward movement
of maxilla
B. Anterior and forward movement of
maxilla
C. Anterior and downward movement of
maxilla
D. Nasal complex fracture
131. Hooding of eyes is seen in which
fracture:
A. Le Fort I
 B. Le Fort II
C. Le Fort III
D. Nasal bone
132. Ecchymosis in the post auricular
region over the mastoid process is
called as
A. Battle’s sign
B. Murphy’s sign
C. Guerin’s sign
D. None
133. “Hanging drop” sign in the maxillary
sinus radiograph usually indicates
A. Nasal bone fracture
B. Orbital floor blow out fracture
C. Isolated coronoid fracture fragment
hanging by temporalis muscle
D. Condylar fracture
134. In blowout fracture of the orbital floor
the following occurs
A. Paralysis of lower eyelid
B. Paralysis of upper eyelid
C. Loss of sensation of upper lip
D. None of the above
135. Diplopia resulting due to facial trauma
is all except:
A. Monocular diplopia usually indicates a
detached lens, hyphema or other
traumatic injuries of globe requiring
 immediate attention of ophthalmology.
B. Binocular diplopia as a result of trauma
due to soft tissue entrapment (muscle or
periorbital), neuromuscular injury or a
change in orbital shape.
C. General edema of the orbit usually
causes diplopia in the extremes of
medial or lateral gaze.
D.Diplopia of edema & hemorrhage origin
should resolve in a few days, whereas due
to entrapment of orbital tissue does not.
136. Basic mechanism responsible for post
traumatic enopthalmos
A. Increase in size of orbit
B. A decrease in content of orbit
C. A disruption in the ligament structure
of the globe
D. All of the above
137. In blow out fractures which of the
following is seen
A. Enophthalmos
B. Exophthalmos
C. Bulbar hemorrhage
D. None
138. Depressed fracture of the zygomatic
area may be clinically recognized by
A. Concavity of the overlying tissue in the
zygomatic arch area
 B. Interference with movements of the
mandible
C. Subluxation of condyles
D. A & B
139. During the Gillies approach, the
structure of anatomic significance is
A. Superficial temporal artery
B. Marginal mandibular nerve
C. Internal jugular vein
D. Inferior alveolar nerve
140. Fixation with pack in maxillary sinus
is
A. To support comminuted fracture of the
body of zygomatic complex
B. To support and reconstitute
comminuted orbital floor fracture
C. To protect mucosal covering of
maxillary sinus
D. [A] and [B] are correct
141. The muscle that aids in displacement
of maxillary fractures are:
A. Masseter
B. Temporalis
C. Orbicularis oculi and orbicularis oris
D. None
142. Key to successful open reduction of
nasal fractures is?
A. Patient presenting before 4 weeks
 (early treatment)
B. Management of the nasal septum
C. Cartilage segment of septum be
handled without resection at all the times
D. All the above
143. Primary bone healing all are true
except:
A. Gap healing and contact healing both
produce healed fracture without
intermediate cartilaginous callus
formation
B. Contact healing is process of bone
formation occurring when the
interfragmentary gap is essentially zero
C. If the interfragmentary gap is less than
0.5 mm lamellar bone forms directly
D. Primary bone healing relies heavily
on periosteum for repair.
144. Champy’s plates are?
A. Rigid fixation with bicortical screws
B. Semirigid fixation with
monocortical screws
C. Rigid fixation with monocortical screws
D. Semirigid fixation with bicortical
screws
145. Which of them is not rigid
osteosynthetic fixation?
A. Osteosynthesis
 B. Microplating
C. Screw plating
D. Wiring
146. Indication for lag screw osteosynthesis
are all except:
A. Fractures in chin region
B. Fractures of the angle
C. Long sagittal fractures in the body
region of mandible
D. Short sagittal fracture in the body
region of mandible
147. In fracture through menta! foramen in
atrophic mandible with more than
treatment would be
A. Champy’s plate
B. Lag screw
C. Non-rigid fixation
D. Reconstruction plates
148. A transverse fracture of symphysis is
treated by all of the following except:
A. Two compression plates (2 mm)
B. Two lag screws
C. Single miniplate fixation (1.5 mm)
D. 2.4 mm reconstruction plate
149. Which of the following provides rigid
fixation of the fracture site and heals
by primary intention?
A. Direct transosseous wiring
 B. Miniplate osteosynthesis without IMF
C. Compression plate osteosynthesis
without IMF
D. IMF utilsing arch bars
150. The treatment of choice in
comminuted fracture mandible is?
A. Mini plate
B. External pins
C. Reconstruction plate with central holes
D. Expansive compression plate with
screws
151. Transosseous wiring is an example of
A. IMF with osteosynthesis
B. Osteosynthesis without IMF
B. IMF
D. None of the above
152. Compression osteosynthesis heats
fracture mandible by
A. Primary union without callus
formation
B. Primary union with callus formation
C. Secondary union without callus
formation
D. Secondary union with callus formation
153. Most common complication in
mandibular fracture after surgical
management is?
A. Witche’s chin