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4th RPS Olympiad 2023 Class IX Exam Paper

The document is a question paper for the 4th RPS Olympiad 2023 for Class IX, consisting of 70 questions across various subjects including English, Mathematics, and Social Science, with a total mark of 70. It includes general instructions about the examination process, such as the duration, negative marking, and guidelines for filling out the answer sheet. The paper tests students on their knowledge and skills in different subjects through multiple-choice and direct answer questions.

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saravanan p
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
78 views16 pages

4th RPS Olympiad 2023 Class IX Exam Paper

The document is a question paper for the 4th RPS Olympiad 2023 for Class IX, consisting of 70 questions across various subjects including English, Mathematics, and Social Science, with a total mark of 70. It includes general instructions about the examination process, such as the duration, negative marking, and guidelines for filling out the answer sheet. The paper tests students on their knowledge and skills in different subjects through multiple-choice and direct answer questions.

Uploaded by

saravanan p
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

Phase – II Question Paper Class - IX


M.M:70 Time:70 Minutes

OFFLINE EXAMINATION (PHASE–II)

Name: Reg. No. Mobile No.


General Instructions:

1. Duration of the examination is 70 Minutes. Question Paper contains 70 questions


with maximum 70 marks.
2. There will be negative marking in Phase – II, i.e. ¼ mark will be deducted for each
incorrect answer.
3. Use of gadgets is not allowed.
4. Students must abide by the instructions issued during the examination by the
invigilator or the Centre incharge.
5. Before attempting the question paper ensure that it contains all pages & no question is
missing.
6. Immediately fill the particulars on this page of the test booklet and OMR with
BLACK ballpoint pen only. Use of pencil is strictly prohibited.
7. Darken the bubbles completely. Do not put a tick or across . Fill the bubbles
completely.
8. Half –filled or over-filled bubbles will not be read by the software & liable to be
rejected.

Correct Method Wrong Method

Student’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

1
4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

2
4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

(Situation in the past)


ENGLISH (10 Marks) A) would
Q1. He said, “I don’t know the way. Do B) used to
you?” C) shall
(Change into Indirect speech) D) could
A) He tells that he didn’t know the way Q5. We had a chat _________a cup of tea.
but asked if she did. A) at
B) He told that he doesn’t know the B) on
way and further asked if she does. C) over
C) He said he don’t know the way and D) to
asked if she knew it. Q6. You cannot apply _________ you are
D) He said that he didn’t know the way graduate.
and asked her if she did. A) unless
Q2. The book is under printing. B) or
(Change into Passive Voice) C) either
A) The book is under to be printed. D) till
B) The book is being printed. Q7. With hard work and ___________luck,
C) The printing of the book is under nothing can stop you in your way to
process. success.
D) None of these. A) few
Q3. Choose the one option that best B) little
expresses the meaning of the given C) a little
idiom/phrase: D) plenty
‘French leave’ Q8. He is prone to ___________mistakes.
A) Casual leave A) make
B) Absence without permission B) made
C) Absence with permission C) have made
D) Maternity leave D) making
Fill up the blanks choosing the best option: Q9. By the year 2015, Rajan ________his
(Q4. to Q9.) Master’s degree.
Q4. There ___________be a school here. A) will have attained
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4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

B) has attained that its circumference is increased by


C) attained 5%, then area of the circle increases
D) have attained by:
Q10. Identify the underlined clause by A) 12.5%
choosing the best option: B) 10.25%
I knew where I could find him. C) 10.5%
A) Noun clause D) 11.25%
B) Adjective clause Q14. Marbles of diameter 1.4cm are dropped
C) Adverb clause into a cylindrical beaker containing
D) Principal clause some water and are fully submerged.
The diameter of the beaker is 7cm.
MATHEMATICS (20 Marks) Find how many marbles have been
Q11. Consider two squares 𝑨𝑩𝑪𝑫 and dropped in it if the water rises by

𝑩𝑬𝑭𝑮 with the side length of 10cm 5.6cm.

and 12cm respectively as shown A) 150

below. Find the area of shaded region. B) 100

A) 100 C) 50

B) 120 D) 300

C) 50 Q15. Find the remainder when 𝟑𝟐𝟎𝟎𝟎 is


D) 60 divided by 13.
Q12. In the figure, ∆𝑨𝑩𝑪 is inscribed in A) 0
circle with centre 𝑶, ∠𝑨𝑪𝑩 = B) 3

𝟓𝟒𝒐 , ∠𝑪𝑩𝑨 = 𝟕𝟎𝒐 and 𝑨𝑫 ⊥ 𝑩𝑪 . C) 6

Join 𝑨𝑶 and extend it to meet the D) 9

circle at 𝑬, find ∠𝑫𝑨𝑬. Q16. Find the equation of the line equidistant

A) 𝟏𝟔𝒐 from 𝒙 = 𝟐 and 𝒙 = 𝟖.

B) 𝟓𝟒𝒐 A) 𝒙 = 𝟒

C) 𝟐𝟎𝒐 B) 𝒙 = 𝟓

D) 𝟓𝟔𝒐 C) 𝒚 = 𝟔

Q13. The radius of a circle is so increased, D) 𝒚 = 𝟓

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4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

Q17. If the point (𝒂, 𝒃) lies on x-axis and Q21. If each observation in a data is
(𝒄, 𝒅) lies on the line 𝒚 = 𝟐 then 𝒃𝟐 + multiplied by 3 then find the
𝒅𝟐 is: percentage of change in the mean.
A) 4 A) 30%
B) 25 B) 300%
C) 9 C) 150%
D) 0 D) None of these
Q18. P is vertex of cuboid and Q, R and S Q22. The mean of a group of eleven
are three points on the adjacent edges consecutive natural numbers is 𝒎.
passing through P as shown. PQ = PR What will be the percentage change in
= 2cm and PS = 1cm. Then the area of the mean when next six consecutive
∆QRS (in cm2) is: natural numbers are included in the

A)
√𝟏𝟓 group?
𝟒
𝟓 A) 𝒎%
B)
𝟐 𝒎
B) %
𝟑
C) √𝟔
𝒎
C) %
D) 𝟐√𝟐 𝟑𝟎𝟎

Q19. In a family with 3 children find the 𝟑𝟎𝟎


D) %
𝒎
probability of at most 1 boy.
Q23. A cube of side 12cm, is painted blue on
A) 0
all the faces and then cut into smaller
B) 1/3
cubes each of side 3cm. The total
C) 1/2
number of smaller cubes having none
D) 7/8
of their faces painted blue will be:
Q20. The mean of all prime numbers
A) 8
between 50 to 80 will be:
B) 12
𝟏
A) 𝟔𝟓 C) 16
𝟕
𝟏 D) 24
B) 𝟔𝟑
𝟕
𝟏 Q24. Solve 𝒙𝒚 = 𝒙 + 𝒚 + 𝟑 for integer
C) 𝟔𝟔
𝟕
values of 𝒙 and 𝒚, find the number of
𝟏
D) 𝟔𝟕 integral solutions.
𝟕

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4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

A) 4 C) 12
B) 5 D) 14
C) 6 Q29. A triangle with perimeter 7 has integer
D) 2 side lengths. If maximum possible area
Q25. If 𝟑𝒙 + 𝟐𝒚 = 𝟗𝟖𝟓 𝐚𝐧𝐝 𝟑𝒙 − 𝟐𝒚 = of such triangle is of the form
𝒂√𝒃
.
𝒄
𝟒𝟕𝟑, what is the value of 𝒙𝒚?
Find the sum of 𝒂 + 𝒃 + 𝒄.
A) 28
A) 10
B) 38
B) 12
C) 48
C) 14
D) 58
D) 16
𝟏
Q26. = √𝒎 − √𝒏, where 𝒎 Q30. Find the area of equilateral ∆ in which
√𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟏+√𝟐𝟎𝟏𝟏𝟐 −𝟏
perpendiculars are drawn on the sides
and 𝒏 are positive integers, what is the
from a point inside the triangle of
value of 𝒎 + 𝒏?
length √𝟑cm, 𝟐√𝟑cm & 𝟓√𝟑cm
A) 2011
respectively.
B) 2022
C) 2010 A) 8√𝟑

D) 1 B) 𝟏𝟔√𝟑

Q27. Arrange the following in descending C) 𝟒𝟖√𝟑


order: 𝟐𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓 , 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 , 𝟔𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 D) 𝟔𝟒√𝟑
A) 𝟐𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓 > 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 > 𝟔𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐
B) 𝟐𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓 > 𝟔𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 > 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 SOCIAL SCIENCE (10 Marks)
C) 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 > 𝟐𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓 > 𝟔𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 Q31. Choose the incorrect statement:
D) 𝟔𝟐𝟐𝟐𝟐 > 𝟐𝟓𝟓𝟓𝟓 > 𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑𝟑 A) Blue – white – red were the national
Q28. Three real numbers 𝒙, 𝒚, 𝒛 are such that colours of France.
𝒙𝟐 + 𝟔𝒚 = −𝟏𝟕, 𝒚𝟐 + 𝟒𝒛 = 𝟏 & 𝒛𝟐 + B) The winged woman was the symbol

𝟐𝒙 = 𝟐 . What is the value of 𝒙𝟐 + of the personification of the law.

𝒚𝟐 + 𝒛𝟐 ? C) Scepter was the symbol of

A) 8 democracy.

B) 10 D) A broken chain stands for the act of


becoming free.
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4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

Q32. When was the Russian Social A) Latin


Democratic Workers Party founded in B) Arabic
U.S.S.R.? C) French
A) 1898 D) Spanish
B) 1899 Q36. We have seen in lesson ‘People as a
C) 1900 Resource’ that India’s large population
D) 1901 has been more of a liability for the
Q33. Choose the correct statement: nation. However, it is not the case with
A) The world’s largest drainage basin is every highly populated country. How
of the Nile River. can we convert this liability into an
B) Ganga river has the largest basin in asset?
India. A) By educating the population
C) Brahmaputra is known as the Tsang B) By providing skill training to the
Po in Tibet and Jamuna in population
Bangladesh. C) By investing in the health of the
D) None of these. population
Q34. Match the following: D) All of the above
(a) Chandra Prabha (1) Telangana Q37. What is term limit for Rajya Sabha
Wildlife Sanctuary members?
(b) Mahanadi Wildlife (2) Rajasthan A) 3 years
Sanctuary B) 6 years
(c) Kawal Wildlife (3) Uttar C) 4 years
Sanctuary Pradesh D) 5 years
(d) Sariska Wildlife (4) West Bengal Q38. According to the National Food
Sanctuary Security Act, 2013 what percentage of
A) a–1, b–2, c–3, d–4 rural people have been categorized as
B) a–4, b–3, c–2, d–1 eligible households for food security?
C) a–3, b–4, c–1, d–2 A) 25%
D) a–3, b–4, c–2, d–1 B) 50%
Q35. From which language the word ‘El C) 75%
Nino’ is derived? D) 80%
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4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

Q39. In the Indian Constitution, the power to Q43. The minute hand of a clock overtakes
issue writs is vested upon in the hands the hour hand at intervals of 63 min of
of: the correct time. How much does a
A) Supreme Court clock gain or loss in a day?
B) High Court 𝟖
A) 𝟓𝟒 min. (gain)
𝟕𝟕
C) Subordinate Court 𝟖
B) 𝟓𝟔 min. (gain)
D) Both Supreme and High Court 𝟕𝟕
𝟖
Q40. Which country is known as the C) 𝟓𝟑 min. (gain)
𝟕𝟕

‘Rainbow Nation’? D) 𝟓𝟑
𝟖
min. (loss)
𝟕𝟕
A) India
Q44. The Republic Day of India was
B) USA
celebrated on Friday in the year 2008.
C) South Africa
On which day, will it be celebrated in
D) Sri Lanka
2012?
A) Tuesday
APTITUDE (10 Marks)
B) Wednesday
Q41. In a certain code, REFRIGERATOR is
C) Thursday
coded as ROTAREGIRFER. Which
D) Friday
word would be coded as
Direction (Q45): Study the following
NOITINUMMA?
information to answer the given
A) AMMIUNTION
question.
B) AMMUNITOIN
Ten people are sitting in two parallel
C) AMMUNITION
rows containing five people each, in
D) AMUMNITION
such a way that there is an equal
Q42. Observing the pattern given in the
distance between adjacent persons. In
following sequence, identify the
row 1 - P, Q, R, S and T are seated and
missing number in the sequence?
all of them are facing South. In row
3, 18, 219, ______, 10005
2 - A, B, C, D and E are seated and all
A) 1743
of them are facing North.
B) 1746
Therefore, in the given seating
C) 4096
arrangement each member seated in a
D) 4100
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4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

row faces another member of the assignment?


other row. D sits third to the left of A. P A) P-Foreign, Q-Industry and
faces immediate neighbour of D, R sits Commerce, R-Agriculture, S-Rural
second to the right of P. Only one Development, T-Human Resources
person sits between Q and S, B and E B) R-Foreign, S-Industry and
are immediate neighbours of each Commerce, P-Agriculture, Q-Rural
other. E does not face P and Q. Development, T-Human Resources
Q45. How many persons are seated between C) P-Foreign, Q-Industry and
Q and T? Commerce, T- Agriculture, S-Rural
A) None Development, U-Human Resource
B) One D) Q-Foreign, U-Industry and
C) Two Commerce, T-Agriculture, R-Rural
D) Three Development, P-Human Resources
Direction (Q46): Answer the questions on Direction (Q.47) Study the following
the basis of the information given information to answer the following
below. questions.
The head of a newly formed A number arrangement machine, when
Government desires to appoint five of given an input line of numbers,
the six elected ministers P, Q, R, S, T rearranges them following a
and U to portfolios of Foreign, Industry particular rule in each step. The
and Commerce, Agriculture, Rural following is the illustration of the input
Development and Human Resources. and the steps of arrangement.
U does not want any portfolio if S Input 13 25 9 17 15 32 7 20
gets one of the five. R wants either Step I 8 20 4 12 10 27 2 15
Foreign or Human Resources or no Step II 22 34 18 26 24 41 16 29
portfolio. Q says that if S gets Step III 121 529 49 225 169 900
industry and Commerce or Rural 25 324
Development, then she must get the Step IV 169 625 81 289 225 1024
other one. T insists on a portfolio if P 49 400
gets one. Step V 144 576 64 256 196 961
Q46. Which of the following is a valid 36 361
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4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

Step VI 676 2500 324 1156 900 The height of the wall from the ground
4096 196 1600 is ________.
Q47. What will be the fourth step of the A) 115 cm
following input? B) 120 cm
Input 8 18 28 38 48 58 68 27 C) 127.5 cm
A) 46, 289, 1444, 2304, 3364, 4624, D) 130 cm
729 Q50. Find the value of # in the figure given
B) 64, 324, 784, 1444, 2304, 3364, below.
4624, 729
C) 64, 324, 748, 1444, 2364, 4624, 729
D) 64, 748, 324, 1444, 2304, 3364,
4624, 729
Q48. Count the number of parallelograms in
the given figure.
A) 20
B) 18
C) 16
A) 10
D) 12
B) 15
Q49. Two friends Mr. A and B stand
C) 32
according to figure 1. The two friends
then interchange their positions as D) 21
given in figure 2.
PHYSICS (07 Marks)
Q51. If velocity of block B in the given
arrangement is 300 mm/sec. Then
velocity of A will be:

A) 200 mm/sec
B) 100 mm/sec

10
4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

C) 450 mm/sec A) A
D) 150 mm/sec B) B
Q52. Find the reading of spring balance as C) Both simultaneously
shown in figure. Assume that mass M D) Data insufficient
is in equilibrium. All surfaces are Q55. A person P is 600 m away from the
smooth. station. When train is approaching
station with 72 km/h, it blows

A) 8 N a whistle of frequency 800 Hz when


B) 9 N 800 m away from the station. Find the
C) 12 N frequency heard by the person P at
D) Zero rest. Speed of sound = 𝟑𝟒𝟎𝐦𝐬 −𝟏 .
Q53. For the arrangement shown in figure, A) 800 Hz
the tension in the string to prevent it B) 839.5 Hz
from sliding down, is: C) 829.5 Hz
A) 6 N D) 843.5 Hz
B) 6.4 N Q56. In the figure, a ball A is released from
C) 0.4 N rest when the spring is at its natural
D) Zero (unstretched) length. For the block B
Q54. Two particles A and B (of masses m of mass M to leave contact with the
and 4m) are released from rest in the ground at some stage, the minimum
two tunnels as shown in the figure. mass of A must be:
Which particle will cross the equatorial A) 2M
plane first? B) M
C) M/2
D) Depend on spring constant
Q57. A solid sphere of radius 𝑹 and density
𝝆 is attached to one end of a massless

11
4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

spring of force constant 𝒌. The other Q60. The number of sodium atoms in 2
end of the spring is connected to moles of sodium ferrocyanide is:
another solid sphere of radius 𝑹 and A) 12 × 1023
density 𝟑𝝆. The complete arrangement B) 26 × 1023
is placed in a liquid of density 𝟐𝝆 and C) 34 × 1023
is allowed to reach equilibrium. The D) 48 × 1023
correct statement(s) is(are): Q61. Caffeine has a molecular weight of 194.
A) The net elongation of the spring is If it contains 28.9% by mass of
𝟒𝝅𝑹𝟑 𝝆𝐠 nitrogen, number of atoms of nitrogen
𝟑𝒌
in one molecule of caffeine is:
B) The net elongation of the spring is
A) 4
𝟖𝝅𝑹𝟑 𝝆𝐠
𝟑𝒌 B) 6
C) The light sphere is partially C) 2
submerged D) 3
D) None of these Q62. Which among the following species
have the same number of electrons in
CHEMISTRY (07 Marks) its outermost as well as penultimate
Q58. If the four tubes of a car are filled to the shell?
same pressure with 𝑵𝟐 , 𝑶𝟐 , 𝑯𝟐 and A) 𝑴𝒈𝟐+
helium separately, then which one will B) 𝑶𝟐−
be filled first. C) 𝑭−
A) 𝑵𝟐 D) 𝑪𝒂𝟐+
B) 𝑶𝟐 Q63. A hydrocarbon contains 80% carbon.
C) 𝑯𝟐 What is the empirical formula of the
D) 𝑯𝒆 compound?
Q59. Brownian motion shown by colloidal A) CH2
particle is its __________ property. B) CH3
A) Optical C) CH4
B) Electrical D) CH
C) Kinetic Q64. Which of the following is the best
D) Chemical scientific method to test the presence
12
4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

of water in a liquid? C) Enterocoel


A) Use of anhydrous copper sulphate D) Haemocoel
B) Use of litmus paper Q68. Inland fisheries are related to:
C) Taste A) Culturing of fish in fresh water
D) Smell B) Trapping and capturing fish from
sea shore
BIOLOGY (06 Marks) C) Deep sea fisheries
Q65. Which one of the following statements D) Extraction of oil from fishes
about cell organelles and their function Q69. Which WBC related to cell mediated
is correct? immunity?
A) Mitochondria are associated with A) T-lymphocyte
anaerobic respiration. B) Basophil
B) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum is C) Neutrophil
involved in protein synthesis. D) B-lymphocyte
C) Lysosomes are important in Q70. In a highly pesticide polluted pond,
membrane biogenesis. which of the following aquatic
D) Golgi bodies are involved in organisms will have the maximum
packaging and dispatching of amount of pesticide per gram of body
materials. mass?
Q66. Grass stem elongates by the activity of: A) Lotus
A) Primary meristem B) Fishes
B) Secondary meristem C) Spirogyra
C) Intercalary meristem D) Zooplanktons
D) Apical meristem
Q67. Body cavity of Hydra is known as:
A) Coelenteron
B) Pseudocoel

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4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK

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4TH RPS OLYMPIAD -2023 Phase –II Class - IX

16

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