NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics - Section A 5. An ideal fluid is flowing in a non-uniform

cross-sectional tube XY (as shown in the
1. The magnetic potential energy when a figure) from end X to end Y . If K1 and K2 are
magnetic bar with a magnetic moment M → is the kinetic energies per unit volume of the fluid
→ is: at X and Y respectively, the correct
placed perpendicular to the magnetic field B
relationship between K1 ​and K2 ​is:
−mB
1. 2. zero
2

3. −mB 4. mB

2. A bob is whirled in a horizontal circle by

means of a string at an initial speed of 10 rpm.
If the tension in the string is quadrupled while 1. K1 = K2 2. 2K 1 = K2

keeping the radius constant, the new speed is: 3. K1 > K2 4. K1 < K2

1. 20 rpm 2. 40 rpm
3. 5 rpm 4. 10 rpm
6. The escape velocity for Earth is v. A planet
having 9 times the mass of Earth and a radius,
3. A metal cube of a side 5 cm, is charged with 16 times that of Earth, has the escape velocity
6 μC. The surface charge density on the cube,
of:
v 2v
is: 1. 2.
1. 0.125 × 10−3 C m−2 2. 0.25 × 10−3 C m−2 3 3

3v 9v
3. 4 × 10−3 C m
−2
4. 0.4 × 10−3 C m
−2
3. 4.
4 4

4. The incorrect relation for a diamagnetic

material (all the symbols carry their usual 7. An electron and an alpha particle are
meaning and ε is a small positive number) is: accelerated by the same potential difference.
1. μ < μ0 Let λe and λα denote the de-Broglie
wavelengths of the electron and the alpha
2. 0 ⩽ μr < 1
particle, respectively, then:
3. −1 ⩽ χ < 0
1. λe > λα 2. λe = 4λα
4. 1 < μr < 1 + ε
3. λe = λα 4. λe < λα

8. An object is moving along the horizontal x-

direction with an initial kinetic energy of 10 J.
It is displaced through x = (3^ i ) m under the

influence of a force F→ = (−2^ i + 3 j) N. The

^

kinetic energy of the object at the end of the

displacement x is:
1. 10 J 2. 16 J
3. 4 J 4. 6 J

Page: 1
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

9. An object falls from a height of 10 m above 13. In an electrical circuit, the voltage is
the ground. After striking the ground it loses measured as V = (200 ± 4) volts and the
50% of its kinetic energy. The height up to current is measured as I = (20 ± 0.2) A. The
which the object can re-bounce from the value of the resistance is:
ground is: 1. (10 ± 4.2) Ω
1. 7.5 m 2. 10 m 2. (10 ± 0.3) Ω
3. 2.5 m 4. 5 m 3. (10 ± 0.1) Ω
4. (10 ± 0.8) Ω

10. In the circuit shown below, the inductance 14. A step-up transformer is connected to an AC
L is connected to a source. The current flowing
mains supply of 220 V to operate at
in the circuit is I = I0 sin ωt. The voltage drop 11000 V, 88 W. The current in the secondary
(VL ) across L is:
circuit, ignoring the power loss in the
transformer, is:
1. 8 mA
2. 4 mA
3. 0.4 A
4. 4 A

15. A particle is moving along the x-axis with

its position (x) varying with time (t) as
+ γt + δ. The ratio of its initial
4 2
I0 x = αt + βt
1. ωL I0 sin ωt 2. sin ωt
ωL
velocity to its initial acceleration is:
I0
3. cos ωt 4. ωL I0 cos ωt 1. 2α : δ
ωL
2. γ : 2δ
3. 4α : β
11. A 12 pF capacitor is connected to a 50 V 4. γ : 2β
battery. The electrostatic energy stored in the
capacitor in nJ is: 16. The radius of gyration of a solid sphere of
1. 15 2. 7.5
mass 5 kg about XY -axis is 5 m as shown in
5x

3. 0.3 4. 150 the figure. If the radius of the sphere is m,

√7

then the value of x is:

12. A uniform wire of diameter d carries a

current of 100 mA when the mean drift
velocity of electrons in the wire is v. For a wire
d
of diameter of the same material to carry a
2
current of 200 mA, the mean drift velocity of
electrons in the wire is:
1. 4v 2. 8v
3. v 4. 2v

1. 5
2. √2
3. √3
4. √5

Page: 2
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

17. The I -V characteristics shown below are 20. Given below are two statements:
exhibited by a: Image formation needs regular
Statement I:
reflection and/or refraction.
The variety in colour of objects
we see around us is due to the
Statement II:
constituent colours of the light
incident on them.
Light-emitting
1. 2. Zener diode Statement I is correct but Statement II is
diode 1.
incorrect.
3. Photodiode 4. Solar cell
Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
2.
correct.
18. The magnetic moment and moment of Both Statement I and Statement II are
3.
inertia of a magnetic needle as shown are, correct.
respectively, Both Statement I and Statement II are
4.
2 10
−6
2 incorrect.
If it
−2
1.0 × 10 A m and kg m .
π2

completes 10 oscillations in 10 s, the

magnitude of the magnetic field is: 21. A uniform metal wire of length l has 10 Ω
resistance. Now this wire is stretched to a
length 2l and then bent to form a perfect circle.
The equivalent resistance across any arbitrary
diameter of that circle is:
1. 10 Ω 2. 5 Ω
3. 40 Ω 4. 20 Ω

22. The spectral series which corresponds to the

1. 0.4 T electronic transition from the levels
2. 4 T n2 = 5, 6, … to the level n1 = 4 is:
3. 0.4 mT 1. Pfund series
4. 4 mT 2. Brackett series
3. Lyman series
19. The capacitance of a capacitor with charge q
and a potential difference V depends on: 4. Balmer series
1. both q and V
2. the geometry of the capacitor
3. q only
4. V only

Page: 3
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

23. Given below are two statements: One is 27. The pitch of an error-free screw gauge is
labeled as Assertion (A) and the other is 1 mm, and there are 100 divisions on the

labeled as Reason (R). circular scale. While measuring the diameter of

Houses made of concrete roofs a thick wire, the pitch scale reads 1 mm, and
overlaid with foam keep the 63
rd
division on the circular scale coincides
Assertion (A):
room hotter during with the reference line. The diameter of the
summer. wire is:
The layer of foam insulation 1. 1.63 cm 2. 0.163 cm
Reason (R): prohibits heat transfer, as it 3. 0.163 m 4. 1.63 m
contains air pockets.

In the light of the above statements, choose the

28. Let us consider two solenoids A and B,
correct answer from the options given below:
made from the same magnetic material of
1. (A) is True but (R) is False. relative permeability μr and of equal area of
2. (A) is False but (R) is True. cross-section. Length of A is twice that of B and
the number of turns per unit length in A is half
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
3.
correct explanation of (A). that of B. The ratio of self-inductances of the
two solenoids, LA : LB is:
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
4. 1. 1 : 2
correct explanation of (R).
2. 2 : 1
3. 8 : 1
24. A particle executing simple harmonic 4. 1 : 8
motion with amplitude A has the same
potential and kinetic energies at the 29. When the output of an OR gate is applied as
displacement: input to a NOT gate, then the combination acts
A
as a:
1. 2√A 2. 1. NAND gate
2
2. NOR gate
A 3. AND gate
3. 4. A√2
√2 4. OR gate

30. An interference pattern can be observed

due to the superposition of more than one of
25. Two slits in Young's double slit experiment
the following waves:
are 1.5 mm apart and the screen is placed at a
(A) y = a sin(ωt)
distance of 1 m from the slits. If the wavelength
(B) y = a sin(2ωt)
of light used is 600 × 10 m then the fringe
−9

separation is: (C) y = a sin(ωt − ϕ)

1. 4 × 10 m
−5 (D) y = a sin(3ωt)
Identify the waves from the options given
2. 9 × 10 m
−8

below:
3. 4 × 10 m
−7

1. (B) and (C) only 2. (B) and (D) only

4. 4 × 10 m
−4

3. (A) and (C) only 4. (A) and (B) only

26. Water is used as a coolant in a nuclear
reactor because of its:
1. high thermal expansion coefficient
2. high specific heat capacity
3. low density
4. low boiling point

Page: 4
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

31. If ϕ is the work function of photosensitive 34. Some energy levels of a molecule are shown
material in electron-volts and light of a in the figure with their wavelengths of
hc transitions.
wavelength of numerical value λ = metres
e
is incident on it with energy above its threshold
value at an instant, then the maximum kinetic
energy of the photo-electron ejected by it at that
instant is (in SI units):
(take h as Plank's constant and c as the velocity Then:
of light in free space) 1. λ3 > λ2 , λ1 = 2λ2 2. λ3 > λ2 , λ1 = 4λ2
1. e + 2ϕ 3. λ1 > λ2 , λ2 = 2λ3 4. λ2 > λ1 , λ2 = 2λ3
2. 2e − ϕ
3. e − ϕ
4. e + ϕ 35. A box of mass 5 kg is pulled by a cord, up
along a frictionless plane inclined at 30∘ with
32. Among the various types of electromagnetic the horizontal. The tension in the cord is 30 N.
radiation, the one with the smallest wavelength The acceleration of the box is: (take
is: g = 10 ms
−2
)
1. X-rays 2. Gamma rays 1. 2 ms −2

3. Ultraviolet rays 4. Microwaves 2. zero

3. 0.1 ms−2
4. 1 ms−2
33. The equilibrium state of a thermodynamic
system is described by:
A. Pressure Physics - Section B
B. Total heat
36. If the ratio of relative permeability and
C. Temperature
relative permittivity of a uniform medium is
D. Volume
1 : 4. The ratio of the magnitudes of electric
E. Work done
field intensity (E) to the magnetic field
intensity (H ) of an EM wave propagating in
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
that medium is:
options given below:
μ 0

1. A, B and E only (Given that√

ε
= 120π)
0

2. B, C and D only 1. 30π : 1

3. A, B and C only 2. 1 : 120π
4. A, C and D only 3. 60π : 1
4. 120π : 1

37. The value of the electric potential at a

distance of 9 cm from the point charge
C is:
−7
4 × 10

1
9 2 −2
[Given = 9 × 10 N m C ]
4πε0

1. 4 × 102 V 2. 44.4 V

3. 4.4 × 10 5
V 4. 4 × 104 V

Page: 5
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

38. The displacement of a traveling wave is 41. The two-dimensional motion of a particle,
given by y = C sin
2π
(at − x) where t is
described by r → = (^i + 2^j)A cos(ωt) is a/an:
λ (A) parabolic path
time, x is distance and λ is the wavelength, all
(B) elliptical path
in SI units. The frequency of the wave is:
(C) periodic motion
2πλ 2πa
1. 2. (D) simple harmonic motion
a λ

λ a
3. 4. Choose the correct answer from the options
a λ given below:
1. (B), (C), and (D) only
2. (A), (B), and (C) only
39. An object of mass 100 kg falls from point A
3. (A), (C), and (D) only
to B as shown in the figure. The change in its
weight, corrected to the nearest integer (RE is 4. (C) and (D) only
the radius of the Earth), is:

42. A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I0

is passed through a polaroid A, through
∘
another polaroid B, oriented at 60 and finally
∘
through another polaroid C, oriented at 45
relative to B as shown in the figure. The
intensity of the emergent light is:

1. 49 N
2. 89 N
3. 5 N
4. 10 N I0 I0
1. 2.
16 4
40. The potential energy of a particle moving I0 I0
Ax
2 3. 4.
along the x- direction varies as V = . 2 32
√x + B
2
A
The dimensions of are:
B

1. [M
3/2 1/2 −3
L T ]

2. [M 1/2
LT
−3
]
2 1/2 −4
3. [M L T ]

4. [M L2 T −4 ]

Page: 6
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

43. Select the correct statements among the 46. The given circuit shows a uniform straight
following: wire AB of 40 cm length fixed at both ends. In
slow neutrons can cause fission in U92 than order to get zero reading in the galvanometer
235

A. G, the free end of J is to be placed from the

fast neutrons.
B. α-rays are helium nuclei.
are fast-moving electrons or
β-rays
C.
positrons.
γ-rays are electromagnetic radiations of
D.
wavelengths larger than X-rays.

Choose the most appropriate answer from the end B at:

options given below:
1. 32 cm 2. 8 cm
1. A, B, and C only 2. A, B, and D only
3. 16 cm 4. 24 cm
3. A and B only 4. C and D only

47. According to the law of equipartition of

44. Let ω1 , ω2 and ω3 be the angular speeds of energy, the number of vibrational modes of a
the second hand, minute hand, and hour hand Cp
of a smoothly running analog clock, polyatomic gas of constant γ = is (where
respectively. If x1 , x2 and x3 are their Cv

respective angular distance in 1 minute then Cp and Cv are the specific heat capacities of the
the factor that remains constant (k) is: gas at constant pressure and constant volume,
1.
ω 1
=
ω
=
ω
2
= k
3 respectively):
x1 x2 x3
4 + 3γ 3 + 4γ
2. ω1 x1 = ω2 x2 = ω3 x3 = k 1. 2.
γ − 1 γ − 1
3. ω1 x21 = ω2 x
2
2
= ω3 x
2
3
= k
2 2 2 4 − 3γ 3 − 4γ
4. ω1 x1 = ω x2 = ω x3 = k
2 3 3. 4.
γ − 1 γ − 1

45. The magnetic moment of an iron bar is M .

It is now bent in such a way that it forms an arc
section of a circle subtending an angle of 60∘ at 48. The output Y for the inputs A and B of the
the centre. The magnetic moment of this arc given logic circuit is:
section is:
3M 4M
1. 2.
π π

M 2M
3. 4. ¯
¯¯¯
π π 1. A ⋅ B 2. A ⋅ B
¯
¯¯¯

¯
¯¯¯
3. A + B 4. A + B
¯
¯¯¯

Page: 7
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

49. The amplitude of the charge oscillating in a 52. The following data is for a reaction between
circuit decreases exponentially as reactants A and B:
where Q0 is the charge at Rate
−Rt/2L
Q = Q0 e
[A] [B]
t = 0 [Link] time at which charge amplitude mol L−1 s−1
decreases to 0.50 Q0 is nearly: 2 × 10
−3
0.1 M 0.1 M
(Given that R = 1.5 Ω, L = 12 mH, ln(2) = 0.693) −3
4 × 10 0.2 M 0.1 M
1. 19.01 ms −2
0.2 M 0.2 M
1.6 × 10
2. 11.09 ms

3. 19.01 s
The order of the reaction with respect to A and
4. 11.09 s
B, respectively are:
1. 1, 0
50. The steady-state current in the circuit
2. 0, 1
shown below is:
3. 1, 2
4. 2, 1

53. Given below are two statements:

Propene on treatment with
diborane gives an addition
Statement I :
product with the formula
(CH3 )2 − CH )3 − B

Oxidation of
1. 0.67 A
(CH3 )2 − CH )3 − B with
2. 1.5 A Statement II :
3. 2 A hydrogen peroxide in presence
4. 1 A of N aOH gives propan-2-ol.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options
given below:
Chemistry - Section 1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
A 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect
51. The correct decreasing order of atomic radii
(pm) of Li, Be, B and C is:
54. Baeyer's reagent is:
1. Be > Li > B > C
2. Li > Be > B > C 1. Acidic potassium permanganate solution
3. C > B > Be > Li 2. Acidic potassium dichromate solution
4. Li > C > Be > B Cold, dilute, aqueous solution of potassium
3.
permanganate
Hot, concentrated solution of potassium
4.
permanganate

55. Which of the following molecules has "NON

ZERO" dipole moment value?
1. CCl4 2. HI

3. CO2 4. BF3

Page: 8
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

56. The major product X formed in the 58. Match List-I with List-II:
following reaction sequence is: List-I List-II
(Atom/Molecule) (Property)
A. Nitrogen I. Paramagnetic
Fluorine Most reactive element
B. II.
molecule in group 18
Element with highest
C. Oxygen molecule III. ionisation enthalpy in
group 15
Strongest oxidising
D. Xenon atom IV.
agent
Identify the correct answer from the option
1. 2. given below:
1. A- III, B-I, C-IV, D-II 2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
3. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-II 4. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

59. From the following select the one which is

not an example of corrosion:
1. Rusting of an iron object
3. 4. Production of hydrogen by electrolysis of
2.
water
3. Tarnishing of silver
Development of green coating on copper and
4.
bronze ornaments

57. Which indicator is used and what is the

color change at the endpoint in oxalic acid- 60. Which of the following pairs of ions will
sodium hydroxide titration? have the same spin only magnetic moment
1. Phenolphthalein, pink to yellow values within the pair?
2. Alkaline KMnO4 , colourless to pink A. Zn2+ , Ti2+
3. Phenolphthalein, colourless to pink B. Cr2+ , Fe2+
4. Methyl orange, yellow to pinkish red colour
C. Ti3+ , Cu2+
D. V2+ , Cu+
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. C and D only 2. A and D only
3. A and B only 4. B and C only

Page: 9
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

61. At a given temperature and pressure, the 64. Choose the correct statement for the work
equilibrium constant value for the equilibria done in the expansion and heat absorbed or
are given below: released when 5 liters of an ideal gas at 10
3A2 + B2 ⇌ 2A3 B, K1 atmospheric pressure isothermally expands
3 1 into a vacuum until the volume is 15 liters:
A3 B ⇌ A2 + B 2 , K2
2 2 Both the heat and work done will be greater
The relation between K1 and K2 is: 1.
than zero.
1. K12 = 2K2 Heat absorbed will be less than zero and
2.
2. K2 = 2
K 1
work done will be positive.
1 Work done will be zero and heat absorbed or
3. K1 = 3.
√K
2
evolved will also be zero.
4. K2 =
1
Work done will be greater than zero and
√K 4.
1
heat absorbed will remain zero.

62. Arrange the following compounds in

increasing order of their solubilities in
65. Which of the following options is the correct
chloroform:
IUPAC name for the given compound?
NaCl, CH3 OH, cyclohexane(C6 H12 ), CH3 CN

1.
NaCl < CH3 CN < CH3 OH < Cyclohexane

2.
CH3 OH < CH3 CN < NaCl < Cyclohexane

3.
NaCl < CH3 OH < CH3 CN < Cyclohexane
1. 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-2-nitrobenzene
4. 2. 4-Ethyl-1-fluoro-6-nitrobenzene
Cyclohexane < CH3 CN < CH3 OH < NaCl
3. 3-Ethyl-6-fluoro-1-nitrobenzene
4. 1-Ethyl-4-fluoro-3-nitrobenzene
63. Identify the incorrect statement about
66. Which of the following set of ions act as
PCl5 .
oxidizing agents?
PCl5 possesses two different Cl − P − Cl 4+ 4+
1. 1. Ce and Tb
bond angles. 3+ 3+
2. La and Lu
2. All five P − Cl bonds are identical in length. 2+ 2+
3. Eu and Yb
3. PCl5 exhibits sp3d hybridisation. 4+
4. Eu2+ and Tb
4. PCl5 consists of five P − Cl (sigma) bonds.
67. Select the incorrect reaction among the
following:
H2 O

1. CH3 COCl −−→ CH3 COOH

Δ

2.

−
(i) KMnO4 /OH

3. CH3 CH2 OH −−−−−−−−−−→ CH3 COOH

⊕
(ii) H3 O

CrO3 −H2 SO4

4. CH3 CH2 CH2 OH −−−−−−−−→ CH3 CH2 COOH

Page: 10
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

68. The UV-visible absorption bands in the 73. The major product D formed in the
spectra of lanthanoid ions are 'X', probably following reaction sequence is:
because of the excitation of electrons involving
'Y'. The 'X' and 'Y', respectively, are:
1. Broad and f orbitals
2. Narrow and f orbitals
3. Broad and d and f orbitals
4. Narrow and d and f orbitals

69. Ethylene diaminetetraacetate ion is a/an :

1. Hexadentate ligand 2. Ambidentate ligand
3. Monodentate ligand 4. Bidentate ligand
1. 2.

70. How much glucose is needed to prepare 250

mL of a 1/20 M (M/20) glucose solution? 3. CH3 CH2 OH 4. CH3 CH2 Cl
(Molar mass of glucose: 180 g/mol)
1. 2.25 g
2. 4.5 g 74. Match List-I with List-II
3. 0.44 g List-I
4. 1.125 g List-II
(Block/group in periodic
(Element)
table)
71. Identify the incorrect statement from the A. Lanthanoid I. Ce
following:
B. d-Block element II. As
The acidic strength of HX (X=F, Cl, Br and I)
1. C. p-Block element III. Cs
follows the order: HF > HCI > HBr >HI
Fluorine exhibits - 1 oxidation state whereas D. s-Block element IV. Mn
2. other halogens exhibit +1, +3, +5 and +7 Choose the correct answer from the options
oxidation states also. given below:
1. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
The enthalpy of dissociation of F2 is smaller
3. 2. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
than that of Cl2. 3. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
Fluorine is stronger oxidising agent than 4. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
4.
chlorine.
75. Which of the following is not an
ambidentate ligand?
72. For the reaction in equilibrium 1. C2 O4
2−

N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g), ΔH = −Q

2. SCN
−

Reaction is favoured in forward direction by: −

3. NO2
1. Use of catalyst −
4. CN
2. Decreasing concentration of N2
Low pressure, high temperature and high
3.
concentration of ammonia
High pressure, low temperature and higher
4.
concentration of H2

Page: 11
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

76. The quantum numbers of four electrons are 81. Which of the following plot represents the
given below: 1
variation of ln k versus T according to the
1
I. n=4; l=2; ml =-2; s=- 2 Arrhenius equation?
1
II. n=3; l=2; ml =1; s=+ 2
1
III. n=4; l=1; ml =0; s=+ 2
1
IV. n=3; l=1; ml =-1; s=+ 2
1. 2.
The correct decreasing order of energy of these
electrons is:
1. IV>II>III>I
2. I>III>II>IV
3. III>I>II>IV
4. I>II>III>IV

77. The major product C in the below- 3. 4.

mentioned reaction is:

1. Propan-1-ol 2. Propan-2-ol
82. A steam volatile organic compound which is
3. Propane 4. Propyne
immiscible with water has a boiling point of
250 C. During steam distillation, a mixture of
∘

this organic compound and water will boil:

78. The compound that does not undergo
1. Above 100∘ C but below 250∘ C.
Friedel-Crafts alkylation reaction but gives a
2. Above 250∘ C.
positive carbylamine test is:
3. At 250∘ C.
1. Aniline
4. Close to but below 100∘ C.
2. Pyridine
3. N-Methylaniline
83. Given below are two statements:
4. Triethylamine
Statement Glycogen is similar to amylose in
I: its structure.
79. For an endothermic reaction:
A. qp (heat at constant pressure) is negative. Statement Glycogen is found in yeast and
B. Δr H (enthalpy change of the reaction) is II: fungi also.
positive. In the light of the above statements, choose the
C. Δr H is negative. correct answer from the options given below:
D. qp is positive. Statement I is correct and Statement II is
1.
Which of the following combinations is correct? incorrect.
1. B and D Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
2.
2. C and D correct.
3. A and B Both Statement I and Statement II are
3.
4. A and C correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
80. 1.0 g of H2 has same number of molecules 4. incorrect.
as in:
1. 14 g of N2 2. 18 g of H2 O
3. 16 g of CO 4. 28 g of N2

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Chemistry - Section
84. Given the following reaction involving
manganese
(Mn):
3MnO
2−

4
+ 4H
+
→ 2MnO
−

4
+ MnO2 + 2H2 O B
Which oxidation states of manganese are not 86. Identify D in the following sequence of
observed in the above reaction? reactions:
A. +6
B. +2
C. +4
D. +7
E. +3
Mark the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
1. D and E only
2. B and D only 1. n-Propyl alcohol
3. A and B only 2. Isopropyl alcohol
4. B and E only 3. Propanal
4. Propionic acid
85. Given below are two statements:
The Balmer spectral line for H 87. Identify the incorrect statement.
atom with lowest energy PEt3 and Asph3 as ligands can form
1.
Statement I: 5 dπ − dπ bond with transition metals.
appears at RH cm
−1
( RH =
36 The N − N single bond is as strong as the
Rydberg constant) 2.
P − P single bond.

When the temperature of a Nitrogen has unique ability to form pπ − pπ

black body increases, the 3. multiple bonds with nitrogen, carbon and
Statement II: maxima of the curve (intensity oxygen.
versus wavelength) shifts Nitrogen cannot form dπ − pπ bond as
towards shorter wavelength. 4.
other heavier elements of its group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
88. Match the items given in List-I with those
Statement I is correct and Statement II is in List-II and select the correct option given
1.
incorrect. below:
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is List-II
2. List-I
correct. (Radical
(Test/reagent)
Both Statement I and Statement II are identified)
3.
correct. A. Lake Test I. NO
−

3
Both Statement I and Statement II are
4. B. Nessler's Reagent II. 3+
Fe
incorrect.
Potassium sulpho
C. III. Al3+
cyanide
+
D. Brown Ring Test IV. NH
4

Options:
1. A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
2. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
3. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
4. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

89. Match Column I (Molecule) with Column II 92. The ratio of solubility of AgCl in
(Bond enthalpy) and mark the correct option: 0.1 M KCl solution to the solubility of AgCl in

water is:
Column-II (Given: Solubility product of AgCl
−10
= 10 )
Column-I (Bond enthalpy)
(Molecule) −1
1. −4
10 2. −6
10
(kJ mol )
3. −9
10 4. −5
10

A. HCl I. 435.8
B. N2 II. 498
93. On complete combustion, 0.3 g of an
C. H2 III. 946.0
organic compound gave 0.2 g of
D. O2 IV. 431.0
CO2 and 0.1 g of H2 O. The percentage
composition of carbon and hydrogen in the
1. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
compound, respectively is:
2. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
1. 4.07% and 15.02%
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. 18.18% and 3.70%
4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
3. 15.02% and 4.07%
4. 3.70% and 18.18%
90. The standard cell potential of the following
2+ 2+
cell Zn ∣∣Zn (aq)∥Fe (aq)∣
∣ Fe is 0.32 V. 94. The following reaction method
Calculate the standard Gibbs energy change for
the reaction:
2+ 2+
Zn(s) + Fe (aq) → Zn (aq) + Fe(s)

(Given : 1 F = 96487Cmol−1 )
1. −61.75 kJ mol−1 2. +5.006 kJ mol
−1

3. −5.006 kJ mol
−1
4. +61.75 kJ mol
−1

is not suitable for the preparation of the

91. Match List-I with List-II: corresponding haloarene products, due to the
(List-I) (List-II ) high reactivity of halogen, when X is:
Solid salt treated with dil. Anion 1. F
H2 SO4 detected 2. I
Effervescence of colourless − 3. Cl
A. I. NO
4. Br
gas 2

2−
B. Gas with smell of rotten egg II. CO
3

C. Gas with pungent smell III. S2−

2−
D. Brown fumes IV. SO
3

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below:
1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

95. The alkane that can be oxidized to the 99. Identify the structural features common to
corresponding alcohol by KMnO4 as per the [Mn₂(CO)₁₀] and [Co₂(CO)₈]:
equation A. Presence of a metal-metal bond
B. Presence of terminal carbonyl groups
C. Presence of bridging carbonyl groups
D. Metals in the zero oxidation state
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. Only A, B and C 2. Only B, C and D
3. Only A, C and D 4. Only A, B and D
is, when:
1. R1 = H; R2 = H; R3 = H
2. R1 = CH3 ; R2 = CH3 ; R3 = CH3 100. Methyl group attached to a positively
3. R1 = CH3 ; R2 = H; R3 = H charged carbon atom stabilizes the carbocation
4. R1 = CH3 ; R2 = CH3 ; R3 = H due to:
1. -I inductive effect
96. For the following reaction at 300K 2. Electromeric effect
A2 ( g) + 3 B2 ( g) → 2AB3 ( g) 3. Hyperconjugation
the enthalpy change is +15 kJ, then the internal 4. Mesomeric effect
energy change is:
1. 19.98 K J
2. 200 J Biology - 1 - Section
3. 1999 J
4. 1.9988 kJ A
101. The regions with high level of species
97. Rate constants of a reaction at 500 K and richness, high degree of endemism and a loss of
700 K are 0.04 s−1 and 0.14 s−1 , respectively; 70% of the species and habitat are identified as
then, activation energy of the reaction is: :
−1
(Given : log 3.5 = 0.5441, R = 8.31 J K −1 mol ) 1. Natural Reserves
1. 182310 J 2. Sacred Groves
2. 18500 J 3. Biodiversity Hotspots
3. 18219 J 4. Biogeographical Regions
4. 18030 J
102. Which of the following simple tissues are
98. What mass of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) must be commonly found in the fruit walls of nuts and
dissolved in 1 liter of solution to make it pulp of pear?
isotonic with a 15 g/L solution of urea 1. Sclereids 2. Fibres
−1
(NH₂CONH₂)? (Given : Molar mass in g mol 3. Parenchyma 4. Collenchyma
C:12, H:1, O: 16, N:14)
1. 55 g
2. 15 g 103. In a chromosome, there is a specific DNA
3. 30 g sequence, responsible for initiating replication.
4. 45 g It is called as:
recognition
1. 2. cloning site
sequence
3. restriction site 4. ori site

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

104. Given below are two statements: 107.

When many alleles of single gene List-I
Statement List-II
govern a character, it is called Types of
I: Example
polygenic inheritance. inheritance
Statement In polygenic inheritance, the effect Incomplete Blood groups in
A. I.
II: of each allele is additive dominance human
In the light of the above statements, choose the Flower colour in
B. Co-dominance II.
correct answer from the options given below. Antirrhinum
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False C. Pleiotropy III. Skin colour in human
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True Polygenic
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True D. IV. Phenylketonuria
inheritance
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
105. Which of the following are required for the
1. A-III,B-IV, C-II, D-I
light reaction of photosynthesis?
2. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
A. CO2
3. A-II,B-III, C-I, D-IV
B. O2
4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
C. H2 O
D. Chlorophyll 108. Which part of the ovule store reserve food
E. Light material?
1. A , C, D and E only 1. Nucellus
2. C, D and E only 2. Integument
3. A and B only 3, Placenta
4. A, C and E only 4. Funicle

106. Match List-I with List-II 109. Which one of the following is not found in
List-I List-II Gymnosperms?
Disc shaped sacs or cisternae 1. Sieve Cells
A Fleming I.
near cell nucleus 2. Albuminous Cells
Robert 3. Tracheids
B. II. Chromatin 4. Vessels
Brown
George
C. III. Ribosomes 110. Which one of the following is not included
Palade
under in-situ conservation?
Camillo
D. IV. Nucleus 1. Wild-life sanctuary
Golgi
2. Botanical garden
Choose the correct answer form the options
3. Biosphere reserve
given below:
4. National park
1. A-II,B-IV,C-III,D-I
2. A-II, B-III,C-I,D-IV
3. A-I,B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-IV,B-II, C-III, D-I

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
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111. Given below are two statements: 116. Which of the following is a nucleotide?
The Indian Government has set up 1. Uridine
Statement GEAC, which will make decisions 2. Adenylic acid
I: regarding the validity of GM 3. Guanine
research. 4. Guanosine
Biopiracy is the term used to refer
Statement 117. Match List I with List II:
to the use of bio-resources by
II: List I List II
native people
In the light of the above statements, choose the A. Vexillary aestivation I. Brinjal
correct answer from the options given below: B. Epipetalous stamens II. Peach
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False C. Epiphyllous stamens III. Pea
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True D. Perigynous flower IV. Lily
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
112. Pollen grains remain preserved as fossil
1. A- III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
due to the presence of :
2. A- III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
1. Epidermal layer
3. A- III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
2. Tapetum
4. A- II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
3. Exine layer
4. Intine layer
118. Match List I with List II
113. Identify the incorrect pair: List I List II
1. Sphenopsida-Adiantum A. China rose I. Free central
2. Pteropsida-Dryopteris B. Mustard II. Basal
3. Psilopsida-Psilotum C. Primrose III. Axile
4. Lycopsida - Selaginella D. Marigold IV. Parietal

114. Which of the following is the correct Choose the correct answer from the options
match? given below:
1. Gymnosperms: Cedrus, Pinus, Sequoia 1. A- IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
2. Angiosperms: Wolffia, Eucalyptus, Sequoia 2. A- II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
3. Bryophytes : Polytrichum, Polysiphonia, 3. A- III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
Sphagnum 4. A- III, B-VI, C-II, D-I
4. Pteridophytes : Equisetum, Ginkgo, Adiantum
119. Which of the following helps in
115. Given below are statements regarding RNA maintenance of the pressure gradient in sieve
polymerase in prokaryotes: tubes?
In prokaryotes, RNA polymerase is 1. Albuminous cells
Statement
capable of catalysing the process of 2. Sieve cells
I:
elongation during transcription. 3. Phloem parenchyma
RNA polymerase associates 4. Companion cells
Statement
transiently with 'Rho' factor to
II:
initiate transcription. 120. Mesosome in a cell is a:
In the light of the above statements, choose the 1. Membrane bound vesicular structure
correct answer from options given below: Chain of many ribosomes attached to a
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False 2.
single mRNA
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
special structure formed by the extension of
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True 3.
plasma membrane
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are
False 4. medium sized chromosome

Page: 17
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

121. Match List-I with List-II: 124. Cryopreservation technique is used for:
List-I List-II 1. Protection of environment
Abscisic Promotes female flowers in 2. Protection of biodiversity hotspots
A. I.
acid cucumber Preservation of gametes in viable and fertile
3.
Helps seeds to withstand conditions for a long period
B. Ethylene II.
desiccation 4. In-situ conservation
Helps in nutrient
C. Gibberellin III.
mobilisation
Promotes bolting in beet 125. Which of the following are correct about
D. Cytokinin IV.
cabbage etc cellular respiration?
Cellular respiration is the breaking of C-C
Choose the correct answer from the options A. bonds of complex organic molecules by
given below: oxidation.
1. A-II, B-III, C- IV, D- I The entire cellular respiration takes place in
2. A-III, B-II, C- I, D- IV B.
mitochondria.
3. A-II, B-I, C- IV, D- III Fermentation takes place under anaerobic
4. A-II, B-I, C- III, D- IV C.
conditions in germinating seeds.
The fate of pyruvate formed during
122. Match List-I with List-II:
D. glycolysis depends on the type of organism
List-I List-II also.
Genetically Water is formed during respiration as a
A. engineered Human I. Gene therapy E. result of O2 accepting electrons and getting
Insulin reduced.
B. GM Cotton II. [Link] Choose the correct answer from the options
Antigen-antibody given below:
C. ADA Deficiency III.
interaction 1. A, C, D, E only
Bacillus 2. A, B, E only
D. ELISA IV.
thuringiensis 3. A, B, C, E only
Choose the correct answer from the options 4. B, C, D, E only
given below:
1. A-III, B-II, C- IV, D- I 126. Given below are two statements:
2. A-II, B-I, C- IV, D- III In eukaryotes, there are three RNA
3. A-IV, B-III, C- I, D- II Statement polymerases in the nucleus in
4. A-II, B-IV, C- I, D- III I: addition to the RNA polymerase
found in the organelle.
123. Match List I with List II: All the three RNA polymerases in
Statement
List I List II eukaryotic nucleus have different
II:
A. ETS Complex I I. NADH Dehydrogenase roles.
B. ETS Complex II II. Cytochrome bC1 In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below:
ETS Complex
C. III. Cytochrome C oxidase 1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
III
incorrect.
Succinate 2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
D. ETS Complex IV IV.
Dehydrogenase correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II is
Choose the correct answer from the options correct.
given below: 4. Both Statement I and Statement II is
1. A-IV, B-I, C- III, D- II incorrect.
2. A-I, B-IV, C- II, D- III
3. A-III, B-I, C- IV, D- II
4. A-I, B-II, C- IV, D- III
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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
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127. Match List I with List II: 130. Match List I with List II:
List I List II List I List II
Loosely packed Metacentric Chromosome has a
A. Histones I. A. I.
chromatin chromosome terminal centromere
Densely packed Sub- Middle centromere
B. Nucleosome II.
chromatin B. metacentric II. forming two equal arms
Positively charged chromosome of chromosome
C. Euchromatin III.
basic proteins Centromere is slightly
DNA wrapped around Acrocentric away from the middle
D. Heterochromatin IV. C. III.
histone octamer chromosome chromosome resulting
into two unequal arms
Choose the correct answer from the options Centromere is situated
given below: Telocentric close to its end forming
D. IV.
1. A-IV, B-III, C- II, D- I chromosome one extremely short and
2. A-III, B-I, C- IV, D- II one very long arm
3. A-II, B-III, C- IV, D- I
4. A-III, B-IV, C- I, D- II Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
128. Given below are two statements: 1. A-II, B-I, C- IV, D- III
Failure of segregation of 2. A-IV, B-I, C- II, D- III
chromatids during cell cycle, 3. A-I, B-II, C- III, D- IV
Statement
resulting in the gain or loss of 4. A-II, B-III, C- IV, D- I
I:
whole set of chromosome in an
organism, is known as aneuploidy. 131. Ligases is a class of enzymes responsible
Failure of cytokinesis after for catalysing the linking together of two
Statement anaphase stage of cell division compounds. Which of the following bonds is
II: resulting in the gain or loss of not catalysed by it?
chromosome is called polyploidy. 1. C-C 2. P-O
In the light of the above statements, choose the 3. C-O 4. C-N
correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True 132. F. Skoog observed that callus proliferated
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True from the internodal segments of tobacco stem
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False when auxin was supplied with one of the
following, except:
129. Recombination between homologous 1. Extract of vascular tissues
chromosomes is completed by the end of: 2. Coconut milk
1. Diakinesis 2. Zygotene 3. Abscisic acid
3. Diplotene 4. Pachytene 4. Yeast extract

Page: 19
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Biology - 1 - Section
133. Given below are some statements about
plant growth regulators:

B
A. All GAs are acidic in nature.
B. Auxins are antagonists to GAs.
C. Zeatin was isolated from coconut milk. 136. Given below are two statements :
D. Ethylene induces flowering in Mango. In the lac operon, the z gene codes
beta-galactosidase which is
E. Abscisic acid induces parthenocarpy. Statement
primary responsible for the
Choose the correct set of statements from the I:
hydrolysis of lactose into galactose
ones given below:
and glucose.
1. A,C,D 2. B,E
In addition of lactose, glucose or
3. A,B,C 4. B,D,E Statement
galactose can also induce lac
II:
operon.
In the light of the above statements choose the
134. Identify the incorrect statement related to correct answer from the options given below:
electrophoresis: 1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False
Separated DNA fragments can be directly 2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
1.
seen under UV radiation 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True
Separated DNA can be extracted from gel 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False
2.
piece.
3. Fragments of DNA move toward anode. 137. The marked part as 'x' in the given figure
Sieving effect of agarose gel helps in is
4.
separation of DNA fragments.

135. Which of the following examples show

monocarpellary, unilocular ovary with many
ovules?
A. Sesbania
B. Brinjal
C. Indigofera
D. Tobacco
E. Asparagus
Choose the correct answer from options given
1. Endosperm 2. Thalamus
below:
1. B and E only 3. Endocarp 4. Mesocarp
2. C, D and E only
3. A, B and D only
4. A and C only

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

138. Given below are two statements: 141. Which one of the following products
In a dicotyledonous leaf, the diffuses out chloroplast during photosynthesis?
adaxial epidermis general bears 1. ADP
Statement I: 2. NADPH
more stomata than the abaxial
epidermis. 3. O2
In a dicotyledonous leaf, the 4. ATP
adaxially placed palisade
parenchyma is made up of 142. Recombinant DNA molecule can be created
Statement II: normally by cutting the vector DNA and source
elongated cells, which are
arranged vertically and parallel DNA respectively with:
to each other. 1. Hind II, Hind II
In light of the above statements, choose the 2. Hind II, Alu I
correct answer from the options given below: 3. Hind II, EcoR I
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False 4. Hind II, Bam HI
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True 143. Which one of the following is not a
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False limitation of ecological pyramids?
Saprophytes are not given any place in
1.
139. Which of the following are not fatty acids? ecological pyramids
A. Glutamic acid It assumes a simple food chain that, almost,
2.
B. Arachidonic acid never exists in nature
C. Palmitic acid 3. It accommodates a food web
D. Lecithin It does not take into account the same
E. Aspartic acid 4. species belonging to two or more trophic
Choose ​the correct answer from the options levels
given below:
1. C, D and E only
2. A and B only 144. The Bt toxin in genetically engineered Bt
3. A, D and E only cotton kills the pest by:
4. B and C only 1. creating pores in the midgut
2. damaging the respiratory system
140. Consider the pyramid of energy of an 3. degenerating the nervous system
ecosystem given below : 4. altering the pH of body fluids

145. Match List-I with List-II:

List-I List-II
Organisms Mode of Nutrition
A. Euglenoid I. Parasitic
B. Dinoflagellate II. Saprophytic
If T4 is equivalent to 1000 J, what is the value C. Slime mould III. Photosynthetic
of T1? Switching between
1000 1000 D. Plasmodium IV. photosynthetic and
1. J 2. × 4 J heterotrophic mode
10 10

3. 10, 000 J 4. 10, 00, 000 J

Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. A-III, B-IV, C- II, D- I
2. A-IV, B-II, C- I, D- III
3. A-IV, B-III, C- II, D- I
4. A-IV, B-II, C- III, D- I

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
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146. Which of the following graphs depicts the 149. Match List-I with List-II:
effect of substrate concentration on velocity of List-I List-II
enzyme catalysed reaction? Biodiversity Khasi and Jantia hills
A. I.
hotspot in Meghalaya
World Summit in
B. Sacred groves II. Sustainable
1. 2. Development 2002
Johannesburg
C. III. Parthenium
South Africa
Alien species
D. IV. Western Ghats
invasion
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. A-IV, B-I, C- II, D- III
3. 4. 2. A-II, B-III, C- IV, D- I
3. A-I, B-IV, C- III, D- I
4. A-III, B-I, C- II, D- IV

150. Observe the given figure. Identify the

different stages labelled with alphabets by
147. When will the population density increase, selecting the correct option:
under special conditions?
When the number of:
deaths exceeds number of births and also
1. number of emigrants equals number of
immigrants
births plus number of immigrants equal
2.
number of deaths plus number of emigrants
birth plus number of emigrants is more than
3. the number of deaths plus number of
immigrants
birth plus number of immigrants is more
4. than the sum of number of deaths and
number of emigrants

148. When a tall pea plant with round seeds

was selfed, it produced the progeny of:
(a) tall plants with round seeds and
(b) tall plants with wrinkled seeds A-Carboxylation, B-Regeneration, C-
1.
Identify the genotype of the parent plant: Reduction
1. TtRr A-Reduction, B-Decarboxylation, C-
2.
2. TtRR Regeneration
3. TTRR A-Carboxylation, B-Reduction, C-
3.
4. TTRr Regeneration
A-Reduction, B-Carboxylation, C-
4.
Regeneration

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Biology - 2 - Section 153. Following are the steps involved in action

of toxin in Bt Cotton:

A A.
The inactive toxin converted into active
form due to alkaline pH of gut of insect
151. Match List-I with List-II: Bacillus thuringiensis produce crystals with
B.
List-I List-II toxic insecticidal proteins.
A. Predator I. Ophrys C. The alkaline pH solubilises the crystals.
B. Mutualism II. Pisaster The activated toxin binds to the surface of
C. Parasitism III. Female wasp and fig D. midgut cells, creates pores and causes death
D. Sexual deceit IV. Plasmodium of the insect.
Choose the correct answer from the options E. The toxin proteins exist as inactive
given below: protoxins in bacteria.
1. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV Choose the correct sequence of steps from the
2. A-IV,B-I,C-II,D-III options given below:
3. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV 1. E→C→B→A→D
4. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I 2. B→C→A→E→D
3. A→E→B→D→C
152. Match List-I with List-II: 4. B→E→C→A→D
List-II Type
List-I Location of Joint 154. Match List-I with List-II:
of Joint
Joint between humerus List-I List-II
A. I. Gliding joint A. Gene pool I. Stable within a generation
and pectoral girdle
Ball and Change in gene frequency
B. Knee joint II. B. Genetic drift II.
socket joint by chance
Joint between atlas and Transfer of genes into or
C. III. Hinge Joint C. Genetic flow III.
axis out of population
D. Joint between carpals IV. Pivot joint Gene Total number of genes and
D. IV.
frequency their alleles
Choose the correct answer from the options Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: given below:
1. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I 1. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
2. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV 2. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
3. A-I,B-IV,C-III,D-II 3. A-I,B-II,C-III,D-IV
4. A-II,B-I,C-III,D-IV 4. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I

155. Which evolutionary phenomenon is

depicted by the sketch given in figure?

1. Artificial selection
2. Genetic drift
3. Convergent evolution
4. Adaptive radiation

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

156. A person with blood group A Rh- can 159. Match List-I with List-II:
receive the blood transfusion from which of the List-I List-II
following types? Primary structure of Human
A. I.
A. B Rh- protein haemoglobin
B. AB Rh- Secondary structure
B. II. Disulphide bonds
C. O Rh- of protein
D. A Rh- C.
Tertiary structure of
III. Polypeptide chain
E. A Rh+ protein
Choose the correct answer from the options Quaternary structure Alpha helix and β
D. IV.
given below: of protein sheet
1. D and E only Choose the correct answer from the options
2. D only given below:
3. A and B only 1. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I
4. C and D only 2. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
3. A-I,B-III,C-II,D-IV
157. Enzymes that catalyse the removal of 4. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
groups from substrates by mechanisms other
than hydrolysis leaving double bonds, are 160. Match List-I with List-II
known as: List-I List-II
1. Transferases A. Epinephrine I. Hyperglycemia
2. Oxidoreductases B. Thyroxine II. Smooth muscle contraction
3. Dehydrogenases
C. Oxytocin III. Basal metabolic rate
4. Lyases
D. Glucagon IV. Emergency hormone
158. Match List-I with List-II: Choose the correct answer from the options
List-II given below:
List-I Stage of 1. A-II,B-I,C-IV,D-III
Event Prophase-I 2. A-III,B-II,C-I,D-IV
(Meiosis - I) 3. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
4. A-I,B-IV,C-III,D-II
A. Chiasmata I. Pachytene
B. Crossing over II. Diakinesis 161. Which of the following statements is
Synaptonemal complex correct about the type of junction and their role
C. III. Diplotene
formation in our body?
Terminalisation of Adhering junctions facilitate the cells to
D. IV. Zygotene 1.
chiasmata communicate with each other.
Choose the correct answer from the options Tight junctions help to stop substances from
given below: 2.
leaking across a tissue.
1. A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II Tight junctions help to perform cementing to
2. A-II,B-I,C-III,D-IV 3.
keep neighbouring cells together.
3. A-III,B-I,C-II,D-IV
Gap junctions help to create gap between the
4. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I 4.
cells and tissues.

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

162. Select the restriction endonuclease 165. Match List-I with List-II with respect to
enzymes whose restriction sites are present for convergent evolution:
the tetracycline resistance (tetR) gene in the List-I List-II
pBR322 cloning vector. A. Lemur I. Flying phalanger
1. Bam HI and Sal I B. Bobcat II. Numbat
2. Sal I and Pst I
C. Anteater III. Spotted cuscus
3. Pst I and Pvu I
4. Pvu I and Bam HI D. Flying squirrels IV. Tasmanian tiger cat
Choose the correct answer from the options
163. Match List-I with List-II: given below:
List-I List-II 1. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I
2. A-III,B-II,C-IV,D-I
A. Chondrichthyes I. Clarias
3. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
B. Cyclostomata II. Carcharodon 4. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
C. Osteichthyes III. Myxine
D. Amphibia IV. Ichthyophis 166. Match List-I with List-II:
Choose the correct answer from the options List-I List-II
given below: Cells are metabolically active and G2
1. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III A. I.
proliferate phase
2. A-I,B-III,C-II,D-IV
G
3. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV B. DNA replication takes place II. 1
4. A-I,B-II,C-III,D-IV phase
G
C. Proteins are synthesised III. 0
164. Given below are two statements: One is phase
labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Quiescent stage with
Reason (R). D. IV. S phase
metabolically active cells
During menstrual cycle, the Choose the correct answer from the options
Assertion (A): ovulation takes place given below:
approximately on 14th day. 1. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
Rapid secretion of LH in the 2. A-I,B-III,C-IV,D-II
middle of menstrual cycle 3. A-II,B-I,C-III,D-IV
Reason (R): induces rupture of Graafian 4. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
follicle and thereby the release
of ovum.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options
given below.
1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. (A) is False but (R) is True
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
3.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
4.
correct explanation of (A).

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

167. Match List-I with List-II: 170. Match List-I with List-II relating to
List-I List-II examples of various kind of IUDs and barrier :
Migratory flamingoes and List-I List-II
Interference
A. resident fish in South I. A. Copper releasing IUD I. Vaults
competition
American lakes B. Non-medicated IUD II. Multiload 375
Abingdon tortoise became C. Contraceptive barrier III. LNG-20
Competitive
B. extinct after introduction II. D. Hormone releasing IUD IV. Lippes loop
release
of goats in their habitat
Chathamalus expands its Choose the correct answer from the options
Resource
C. distributional range in the III. given below :
partitioning
absence of Balanus 1. A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
Five closely related species 2. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
of Warblers feeding in Interspecific 3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
D. IV.
different location on the competition 4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
same tree
Choose the correct answer from the options 171. Given below are two statements:
given below: Antibiotics are chemicals
1. A-I,B-IV,C-III,D-II Statement
produced by microbes that kill
2. A-IV,B-I,C-II,D-III I:
other microbes.
3. A-III,B-I,C-II,D-IV Statement Antibodies are chemicals formed
4. A-II,B-IV,C-III,D-I II: in body that eliminate microbes.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
168. Match List-I with List-II relating to most appropriate answer from the options
microbes and their products : given below.
List-I List-II 1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
(Microbes) (Products) incorrect.
A. Streptococcus I. Citric acid 2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
B. Trichoderma polysporum II. Clot buster correct.
C. Monascus purpureus III. Cyclosporin A 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are
D. Aspergillus niger IV. Statins correct.
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect.
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
172. Arrange the following parts in human
1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
mammary gland, traversing the route of milk
2. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
ejection.
3. A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
A. Mammary duct
4. A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
B. Lactiferous duct
C. Mammary alveolus
169. Match List-I with List-II.
D. Ampulla
List-I List-II E. Mammary tubule
A. F1 Particles I. Chromosomes Choose the correct answer from the options
B. Histones II. Cilia given below:
C. Axoneme III. Golgi apparatus 1. D→C→E→A→B
2. C→E→B→A→D
D. Cisternae IV. Mitochondria
3. C→E→A→D→B
Choose the correct answer from the options
4. A→C→E→D→B
given below:
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2. A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
3. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
4. A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Page: 26
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

173. Which of the following are correct about 177. In which of the following connective
EcoRI? tissues, the cells secrete fibres of collagen or
A. Cut the DNA with blunt end elastin?
B. Cut the DNA with sticky end A. Cartilage
B. Bone
C. Recognises a specific palindromic sequence.
C. Adipose tissue
Cut the DNA between the base G and A D. Blood
D. where it encounters the DNA sequence E. Areolar tissue
'GAATTC' Choose the most appropriate answer from the
E. Exonuclease options given below:
Choose the correct answer from the options 1. B,C,D and E only
given below: 2. A,B,C and E only
1. B,C,E only 2. A,D,E only 3. B,C and D only
3. A,C,D only 4. B,C,D only 4. A,C and D only

178. Which of the following pairs is an

174. Which of the following is/are present in incorrect match?
female cockroach? 1. Annelids and arthropods - Bilateral
A. Collateral gland symmetry
B. Mushroom gland 2. Sponges - Acoelomates
C. Spermatheca 3. Coelenterates and Ctenophores - Radial
D. Anal style symmetry
E. Phallic gland 4. Platyhelminthes - Diploblastic organisation
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below: 179. Match List-I with List-II:
1. B and D only List-I List-II
2. B and E only Maximum volume of air
Residual
3. A only A. I. that can be breathed in
volume
4. A and C only after forced expiration
Volume of air inspired or
175. Match List-I with List-II: Vital
B. II. expired during normal
capacity
List-I List-II respiration
A. Malignant tumors I. Destroy tumors Volume of air remaining in
Expiratory
B. MALT II. AIDS C. III. lungs after forcible
capacity
C. NACO III. Metastasis expiration
D. α - Interferons IV. Lymphoid tissue Total volume of air expired
D. Tidal Volume IV.
Choose the correct answer from the options after normal inspiration
given below: Choose the correct answer from the options
1. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I given below:
2. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I 1. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
3. A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II 2. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
4. A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II 3. A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II
4. A-I,B-II,C-III,D-IV
176. Open Circulatory system is present in:
1. Palaemon, Nereis, Balanoglossus
2. Hirudinaria, Bombyx, Salpa
3. Anopheles, Limax, Limulus
4. Pheretima, Musca, Pila

Page: 27
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

180. Match List-I with List-II 184. What is the correct order (old to recent) of
List-I List-II periods in Paleozoic era?
A. Living Fossil I. Elongated canine teeth 1. Silurian, Devonian, Permian, Carboniferous
2. Silurian, Devonian, Carboniferous, Permian
B. Connecting Link II. Vermiform appendix
3. Permian, Devonian, Silurian, Carboniferous
C. Vestigial Organ III. Echidna 4. Silurian, Carboniferous, Permian, Devonian
D. Atavism IV. Latimeria
Choose the correct answer from the options 185. 'Lub' sound of heart is caused by the
given below: ___________.
1. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I 1. closure of the semilunar valves
2. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I 2. opening of tricuspid and bicuspid valves
3. A-IV,B-III,C-I,D-II 3. opening of the semilunar valves
4. A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II 4. closure of the tricuspid and bicuspid valves

181. Match List-I with List-II

List-I List-II Biology - 2 - Section
A. Schwann cells
B. Synaptic knob
I. Neurotransmitter
II. Cerebral cortex B
C. Bipolar neurons III. Myelin Sheath 186. Match List-I with List-II relating to human
female external genitalia :
D. Multipolar neurons IV. Retina
List-I List-II
Choose the correct answer from the options
(Structures) (Features)
given below:
1. A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II A fleshy fold of tissue
2. A-I,B-IV,C-II,D-III A. Mons pubis I. surrounding the vaginal
3. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I opening
4. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV Fatty cushion of cells
B. Clitoris II.
covered by skin and hair
182. Diuresis is prevented by: Tiny finger-like structure
C. Hymen III.
1. Renin from JG cells via switching off the above labia minora
osmoreceptors. A thin membrane-like
2. ANF from atria of the heart Labia
D. IV. structure covering vaginal
3. Aldosterone from adrenal medulla majora
opening
4. Vasopressin from Neurohypophysis
Choose the correct answer from the options
183. Following is a list of STDs. Select the given below:
diseases which are not completely curable. 1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
A. Genital warts 2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
B. Genital herpes 3. A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
C. Syphilis 4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
D. Hepatitis-B
E. Trichomoniasis
Choose the correct answer from options given
below:
1. A and D only
2. B and D only
3. A and C only
4. D and E only

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 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

187. Aneuploidy is a chromosomal disorder 190. Following are the steps involved in the
where chromosome number is not the exact process of PCR.
copy of its haploid set of chromosomes, due to : A. Annealing
A. Substitution B. Amplification (~1 billion times)
B. Addition C. Denaturation
C. Deletion D. Treatment with Taq polymerase and
D. Translocation deoxynucleotides
E. Inversion E. Extension
Choose the most appropriate answer from the Choose the correct sequence of steps of PCR
options given below : from the options given below :
1. C and D only 1. C → A → D → E → B
2. D and E only 2. A → B → E → D → C
3. A and B only 3. A → C → E → D → B
4. B and C only 4. D → B → E → C → A

188. Given below are two statements: 191. Given below are two statements:
RNA interference takes place in Concentrated urine is formed
Statement I: all eukaryotic organisms as Statement I: due to counter current
method of cellular defense. mechanism in nephron.
RNAi involves the silencing of a Counter current mechanism
specific mRNA due to a helps to maintain osmotic
Statement II:
Statement II: complementary single stranded gradient in the medullary
RNA molecule that binds and interstitium.
prevents translation of mRNA In the light of the above statements, choose the
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options
correct answer from the options given below. given below:
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False. 1. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True. incorrect.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True. 2. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False. correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are
189. Identify the wrong statements : correct.
Erythropoietin is produced by 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are
A. incorrect.
juxtaglomerular cells of the kidney
B. Leydig cells produce Androgens
Atrial Natriuretic factor, a peptide hormone
C. is secreted by the seminiferous tubules of
the testes
Cholecystokinin is produced by gastro
D.
intestinal tract
Gastrin acts on intestinal wall and helps in
E.
the production of pepsinogen
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below
1. D and E only
2. A and B only
3. C and E only
4. A and C only

Page: 29
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

192. Given below are two statements: 194. Given below are two statements: One is
Concentrically arranged labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
cisternae of Golgi complex are as Reason R.
arranged near the nucleus with Members of subphylum
Statement I:
distinct convex cis or maturing vertebrate possess notochord
and concave trans or forming during the embryonic period.
Assertion (A):
face. The notochord is replaced by a
A number of proteins are cartilaginous or bony vertebral
modified in the cisternae of Golgi column in the adult.
Statement II:
complex before they are All chordates are vertebrates
released from cis face. Reason (R): but not all vertebrates are
In the light of the above statements, choose the chordates
most appropriate answer from the options In the light of the above statements, choose the
given below: correct answer from the options given below:
1. Statement I is True but Statement II is False. 1. (A) is True but (R) is False
2. Statement I is False but Statement II is True. 2. (A) is False but (R) is True
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False. 3.
correct explanation of (A).
193. Match List-I with List-II: Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
4.
correct explanation of (A).
List-I List-II
Several antibodies for new-
A. Parturition I.
born babies
195. The mother has A+ blood group, the father
Collection of ovum after has B+ and the child is A+. What can be possible
B. Placenta II.
ovulation genotypes of all three, respectively?
C. Colostrum III. Foetal ejection reflex A. IAIA | IBi | IBi
D. Fimbriae IV. Secretion of the hormone hCG B. IAIA | IBi | IAi
Choose the correct answer from the options C. IB i IA IA| IA IB
given below:
D. IAIA | IBIB | IAi
1. A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II
2. A-I,B-IV,C-II,D-III E. IA | IBi | IAi
3. A-II,B-III,C-IV,D-I Choose the correct answer from the options
4. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I given below:
1. C and D
2. D and A
3. A and B
4. B and E

Page: 30
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

196. What do 'a' and 'b' represent in the 198. Match List-I with List-II:
following population growth curve? List-I List-II
Squamous Goblet cells of
A. I.
Epithelium alimentary canal
Ciliated Inner lining of
B. II.
Epithelium pancreatic ducts
Glandular
C. III. Walls of blood vessels
Epithelium
Compound Inner surface of
D. IV.
Epithelium Fallopian tubes
Choose the correct answer from the options
'a' represents exponential growth when
given below:
responses are not limiting the growth; and 'b'
1. 1. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV
represents logistic growth when responses
2. A-II,B-IV,C-III,D-I
are limiting the growth.
3. A-III,B-I,C-II,D-IV
'a' represents logistic growth when responses 4. A-III,B-IV,C-I,D-II
are not limiting the growth; 'b' represents
2.
exponential growth when responses are 199. Match List-I with List-II:
limiting the growth. List-I List-II
'a' represents carrying capacity and 'b' shows B-
3. logistic growth when responses are limiting A. I. Passive immunity
Lymphocytes
the growth.
B. Interferons II. Cell mediated immunity
'a' represents exponential growth when
Produce an army of
4. responses are not limiting the growth and 'b' T-
C. III. proteins in response to
shows carrying capacity. Lymphocytes
pathogens
D. Colostrum IV. Innate immunity
197. Select the correct statements regarding Choose the correct answer from the options
mechanism of muscle contraction. given below:
It is initiated by a signal sent by CNS via 1. A-I,B-IV,C-II,D-III
A. 2. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
sensory neuron.
3. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I
Neurotransmitter generates action potential
B. 4. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
in the sarcolemma.
++
C. Increased Ca level leads to the binding of
calcium with troponin actin filaments.
D. Masking of active site for actin is activated.
Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis to
E.
form cross bridge.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below:
1. B, C and E only
2. C, D and E only
3. A and D only
4. B, D and E only

Page: 31
 NEET 2024 Exam Paper - (1563 RENEET)
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

200. Given below are two statements: One is

labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled
as Reason R.
During the transporation of
gases, about 20-25 percent of
Assertion (A):
CO2 is carried by haemoglobin
as carbamino-haemoglobin.
This binding is related to high
Reason (R):
pCO2 and low pO2 in the tissues

In the light of the above statements, choose the

correct answer from the options given below.
1. (A) is True but (R) is False.
2. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
3.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
4.
correct explanation of (A).

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