Physics: Q. No.

01 to 45 (2) Zero as r increases for r < R, increases as

r increases for r > R.
Find charge on capacitor after 1 sec of (3) Decreases as r increases for r < R and for
opening the switch at t = <x>? r > R.
12 k it (4) Increases as r increases for r < R and for r
■AW /W
> R.
: 5 |»F
The x and y coordinates of the particle at any
5 ki t
time are x = 5t - 2t2and y = lOt, respectively,
where x and y are in meters and t in seconds.
(1) 20e~'° pC (2) 25e“'° pC The acceleration of the particle at t = 2s is:
(3 )3 0 ^ 'V C (4) 35e“10 pC (1)5 ms 2 (2 )-^ m s 2
(3) -8 ms (4)0
Three identical spherical shells, each of mass
m and radius r are placed as shown in figure. A particle performs uniform circular motion
Consider an axis XX’ which is touching to with an angular momentum L. If the
two shells and passing through diameter of frequency of particle’s motion is doubled and
third shell. Moment of inertia of the system its kinetic energy is halved, the angular
consisting of these three spherical shells momentum becomes:
about XX’ axis is: (1) 2 L (2) 4 L
(3) L/2 (4) L/4

The velocity of the liquid coming out of a

small hole of a vessel containing two
different liquids of densities 2p and p as
shown in the figure is

mr 2h

(3) 3 mr2 (4) — mr2

5
■1 2p ~
in
Mark the correct options. (1) x/6gh (2) 2V ih
(i) If the far point goes ahead, the power of (3) 2yf2gh (4) Vih
the divergent lens should be reduced.
(ii) If the near point goes ahead, the power of
the convergent lens should be reduced. 9. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in
(iii) If the far point is 1m away from the eye, water and water rises in it to a height h. The
divergent lens should be used. mass of the water in the capillary is 5g.
(iv) If the near point is lm away from the eye, Another capillary tube of radius 2r is
divergent lens should be used. immersed in water. The mass of water that
will rise in this tube is:
(1) OX (>i) (2) (i), (iii)
(3) (ii), (iv) (4) (i), (iv) (1) 10.0 g (2) 20.0 g
(3) 2.5 g (4) 5.0 g
At what height above the earth’s surface is
the acceleration due to gravity 1% less than 10. Power supplied to a particle of mass 2 kg
its value at the surface? [R = 6400 km] 3t2
varies with times as P = ---- watt, here t is in
(1)16 km (2) 32 km 2
(3) 64 km (4) 32V2 km second. If velocity of particle at t = 0 is v = 0.
The velocity of particle at time t = 2s will be
A hollow metal sphere of radius R is (1)1 m/s (2) 4 m/s
uniformly charged. The electric field due to (3) 2 m/s (4) 2^2 m/s
the sphere at a distance r from the centre is:
(1) Zero as r increases for r < R, decreases as
r increases for r > R.

Full Test - 10 1 [Contd...

11. The vector in the direction of the vector H orizontal
r ~ tube
i - 2j + 2k that has magnitude 9 is

(1) > - 2 j + 2k (2) ' ~ 2j3+2k

(3) 3 (i - 2j + 2k) (4) 9 (i - 2j + 2k)

12. The work done to raise a mass m from the

surface of the earth to a height h, which is
equal to the radius of the earth, is:
(1) Water will rise above A in the capillary.
(1)2 mgR (2 )^ m g R (2) Water will fall below A in the capillary
tube.
(3) There will be no effect on the level of
(3) ~m gR (4) mgR
water in the capillary tube.
(4) Air will emerge from end B in the form of
bubbles.
13. Assertion: Orbital velocity of a satellite is
greater than its escape velocity. 17. A solid sphere of radius R has moment of
Reason: Orbit of a satellite is within the inertia I about its geometrical axis, it is
gravitational field of earth whereas escaping melted into a disc of radius r and thickness t.
is beyond the gravitational field of earth. If it’s moment of inertia about the tangential
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and axis (which is perpendicular to plane of the
reason is the correct explanation of the disc), is also equal to I, then the value of r is
equal to:
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If assertion is false but reason is true.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

14. A zener diode differs from a p-n junction that

(1) zener diode is made from very lightly
doped p-n junction.
(2) zener diode is made from a heavily doped
p-n junction. 18. The equation of trajectory of a projectile is
(3) zener diode is made from a metal piece.
y = lOx -x 2. If we assume g = 10 ms“2,
(4) zener diode is made from a heavily doped
p-type semiconductor. then the range of projectile (in metre) is
(1)36 (2)24
15. A screen is placed 50 cm from a single slit, (3)18 (4)9
which is illuminated with 6000 A light. If
distance between first and third minima in the 19. In the given circuit, the sliding contact C is
moved from A to B.
diffraction pattern is 3 mm. What is the width
of the slit?
(1)0.1 mm (2) 0.2 mm
(3) 0.3 mm (4) 0.5 mm

16. Water stands at level A in the arrangement

shown in figure. What will happen if a jet of
air is gently blown into the horizontal tube in (1) The reading of both the ammeter and
the direction shown in the figure? voltmeter remains constant.

Full Test - 10 2 [Contd...

 (2) Reading of both ammeter and voltmeter
will increase.
(3) Reading of ammeter remains constant and
that of voltmeter increases.
(4) Reading of ammeter remains constant and
that of voltmeter decreases.
20. A cane filled with water is revolved in a
vertical circle of radius 4 metre and the water
just does not fall down. Find speed at lowest
point of the vertical circular path. (Take g =
10 m/s2)
(1) V20 m/s (2) V40 m/s
(3) V60 m/s (4) V200 m/s
25. If an electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from
21. The period of revolution of planet A around the 3rdorbit to the 2nd orbit, it emits a photon
the sun is 8 times that of B. The distance of A of wavelength X. When it jumps from the 4th
from the sun is how many times that of B orbit to the 3rd orbit, the corresponding
wavelength of the photon will be
from the sun?
9 20
(1)5 (2)4 (2)
(3)3 (4)2
(3 )2 » x (4)
22. Figure gives a system of logic gates. From 13 25
the study of truth table it can be found that to
produce a high output (1) at R, we must have 26. Assertion: Cobalt-60 is useful in cancer
therapy.
Reason: Cobalt-60 is source o f y-radiations
capable of killing cancerous cell.
(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and
reason is the explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but
(3) X = 1, Y = 0 (4) X = 0, Y = 0 reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
23. The reason of seeing the Sun a little before (3) Assertion is correct but reason is
the sunrise is incorrect.
(1) Reflection of the light. (4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
(2) Refraction of the light.
27. Assertion: A body of mass 1 kg is making 1
(3) Scattering of the light. rps in a circle of radius 1 m. Centrifugal force
(4) Dispersion of the light. acting on it is 47t2N.
Reason: The Centrifugal force is given by
m , ,2
24. In the case of forward biasing of PN-junction, _ mv
F = ----- .
which one of the following figures correctly r
depicts the direction of flow of carriers. (1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but
( 1)
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

(2) 28. If the spinning speed of the earth is increased,

then weight of the body at the equator:
(1) Does not change (2) Doubles
(3) Decreases (4) Increases

Full Test - 10 3 [Contd...

29. A short electric dipole has a dipole moment Reason: In the case of the rifle bullet system,
of 16 x 10 9 cm. The electric potential due to the law of conservation of momentum
the dipole at a point at a distance of 0.6 m violates.
from the centre of the dipole, situated on a (1) Assertion is correct reason is correct;
line making an angle of 60° with the dipole reason is a correct explanation for assertion.
axis is: (2) Assertion is correct reason is correct;
reason is not a correct explanation for
— = 9 x l0 9 Nm2/C2 assertion.
1^471 g 0 j (3) Assertion is correct, reason is incorrect.
(1)400 V (2) Zero (4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.
(3) 50 V (4)200 V
34. A U tube with both ends open to the
30. A particle is moving along a straight line atmosphere, is partially filled with water. Oil,
whose velocity-displacement graph is as which is immiscible with water, is poured
shown in figure below. into one side until it stands at a distance of 10
mm above the water level on the other side.
Meanwhile the water rises by 65 mm from its
original level (see diagram). The density of
the oil is:
Pa Pa

What is the acceleration when displacement

is 3m?
(1) - 4 V3m/s2 (2) 3 V3m/s2

(3) V3m/s2 (4) ~7 =m /s2

x/3

31. Assertion: A glass ball is dropped on (3) 650 gem 3 (4) 425 gem 3
concrete floor can easily get broken
compared if it is dropped on wooden floor. 35. Consider a sample o f oxygen behaving like
Reason: On concrete floor, glass ball will an ideal gas. At 300 K, the ratio of root mean
take less time to come to rest. square (rms) to the average velocity of gas
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and molecule would be: (Molecular weight of
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. oxygen is 32 g/mol; R = 8.3 J K 1m o l1).
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and reason are false.

32. The bulk modulus of a spherical object is ‘B’. 36. Hydrogen atom in ground state is excited by
If it is subjected to uniform pressure ‘p \ the a monochromatic radiation of X = 975A.
fractional decrease in radius is Number of spectral lines in the resulting
_P_ spectrum emitted will be
(2) (1)3 (2)2
B 3B
(3)6 (4)10
P B
(4)
B 3p 37. A particle of mass m is released from rest and
follows a parabolic path as shown. Assuming
33. Assertion: A bullet is fired from a rifle. If the that the displacement of the mass from the
rifle recoils freely, the kinetic energy of the origin is small, which graph correctly depicts
rifle is more than that of the bullet. the position of the particle?

Full Test - 10 4 [Contd...

 v<x)
41. If temperature scale is changed from °C to °F,
the numerical value of specific heat will
( 1 ) Increase
(2) Decrease
(3) Remains unchanged
(4) None of the above

42. An equation of plane progressive wave

If maximum velocity

of particle and velocity of wave are equal,

a
Now — will be
b
(1)2/3 (2)3/2
(3) 1/2 (4) None of these

43. In electromagnetic wave, according to

Maxwell, changing electric field gives
(1) stationary magnetic field
(2) conduction current
(3) eddy current
(4) displacement current

38. The frequency of a vibrating wire is n. If 44. For P-V diagram given for an ideal gas.
tension doubled, density is halved and
diameter is doubled, then new frequency will
be
0 )n (2 )i

(3) 2n (4) 4n Out of the following which one correctly

represents the T-P diagram?
39. Assertion: Eddy current is based on
Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.
Reason: Change in magnetic field through an
area induces eddy currents inside the bulk P
pieces of conductor.
T.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and the
reason is the correct explanation of the 1-------1
(3) (4 )
assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but the
reason is not the correct explanation of the
assertion. 45. If we study the vibration of a pipe open at
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false. both ends, then, which of the following
(4) Both Assertion and reason are false. statement is NOT true?
(1) Open end will be anti-node.
40. A transformer with turns ratio = — is (2) Odd harmonics of the fundamental
N2 1 frequency will be generated.
connected to a 120 V AC supply. If primary (3) All harmonics of the fundamental
and secondary circuit resistances are 15 kO frequency will be generated.
and ID respectively, then find out power of (4) Pressure change will be maximum at both
output. ends.
(1) 5.76 W (2) 11.4 W
(3) 2.89 W (4) 7.56 W

Full Test - 10 5 [Contd...

 Chemistry: Q. No. 46 to 90 53. Oxygen atom is
(1) ferromagnetic (2) ferromagnetic
46. Assertion: If p4, for [Cu(NH3)4]2+is 2.1 x (3) diamagnetic (4) paramagnetic
1013, its instability constant is 4.76 x 10 l4.
Reason: Overall dissociation equilibrium 54. The balancing the half reaction,
constant varies inversely with formation S20 32- ^ S (s),the number of electrons that
constant.
(1) Both assertion and reason are true and must be added is:
reason is the correct explanation of assertion. (1) 4 on the left (2) 3 on the right
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but (3) 2 on the left (4) 2 on the right
reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion. 55. Which of the following is not correctly
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false. matched?
(4) Both assertion and reason are false. (1) [Xe] 4f14, 5d10, 6s2 - Transition element.
(2) [Rn]5f7,6d',7s2- Inner transition element.
47. The wavelength of limiting line of Paschen’s (3) [Xe] 4fl4,5dIH,6s26p6,7s2 - Representative
series of H-spectra is:- element.
(1)3800 A (2) 820 A (4) [Xe] 4f14, 5 d \ 6s2 - d-block element.
(3)8208 A (4)4000 A
56. The number of geometrical isomers of
48. In the reaction: [Co(NH3)3(N 03)2] are:
0)0 ( 2)2
C103(aq)+5Cl(aq)+6H(+aq) —» 3Cl2(g) +3H 2O(0
(3)3 (4)4
The oxidizing and reducing agents are:-
(1) Cl-aq)and C103(aq) (2)C103 a n d C l,^ OH

(3) C103(aq) and (4) Cl(aq) and H(+aq)

49. When the pressure is decreased over system,

Ice Water
What will happen?
(1) More water will form
(2) More ice will form
(3) There will be no effect over equilibrium
(4) Water will decompose in H2 and O 2

50. The noble gas forming maximum number of

compounds is
(1) Ne (2) Xe SO jH
(3) Kr (4) Rn
58. Which have maximum pKa in following?
51. A hypothetical electrochemical cell is shown (1) CH3- COOH (2) CH2- COOH
below.
Cl
A |A+ (xM)| |B+ (yM)| B
The emf measured is +0.38 V. The cell (3) CH2- COOH (4) CHCb - COOH
reaction is: no2
(1) The cell reaction cannot be predicted
59. In which of the following molecule
(2) A + B+ —►A+ + B
Markovnikov’s rule does not apply?
(3) A+ + B —+A + B+
(1 ) CH3- C H = CH2
(4) A+ + e —►A; B^ + e“ —♦ B
(2) CH2 = CH2
52. Which of the following bonds have lowest
bonds energy?
(l)C -C (2) N-N
(3) H-H (4 )0 -0 (4) CH3 - C = CH3

ch3

Full Test - 10 6 [Contd...

60. The coordination number of Th in
K4[Th(C204)4(H20)2] is: (^y = and Q - N O ,
(1)14 (2)6 ( 2)
(3)8 (4)10
C'H,CH-N and CHXfL - O - N = O
61. CH3 - CH - CH = CH2 A ( 3) O
O O O OH
CH3 and
(4)
CH3 - C H - C H = C H , hb(°Ac>2 h2o >b
| NaBH4
67. The decreasing order of the basic character of
ch3 the three amines and ammonia is (in gas
phase)
Major product A and B are:
(1) NH3 > CH3NH2 > C2H5NH2 > C6H5NH2
(1) Homomers
(2) C2H5NH2 > CH3NH2 > NH3 > C6H5NH2
(2) Chain isomers
(3) C6H5NH2 > C2H5NH2 > CH3NH2 > NH3
(3) Functional group isomers
(4) c h 3n h 2 > C2H5NH2 > c 6h 5n h 2 > n h 3
(4) Positional isomers
68. Benzoyl chloride is prepared from benzoic
62. The conversion of maltose to glucose is
acid by
possible by the enzyme:-
(1) Cl2, hv (2) S 0 2C12
(1) Zymase (2) Lactase
(3) SOCl2 (4)C12, H20
(3) Maltase (4) Diastase
69. Equivalent conductivity of Fe2(S 04)3 is
63. The correct stability order is: related to molar conductivity by the
t'H , ?H , t'H , ?H . expression:
1 .. ( 1) Aeq = Am (2) Aeq = Am/3
(3) Aeq = 3Am (4) Aeq = Am/6
p P 6 f T ' '
70. The number of radial nodes, nodal planes for
CH, CJH, tOCH, IV an orbital with n = 4; / = 1 is
I II El (1 )3 ,1 (2)2,1
(1) I > II > III > IV (2) IV > III > II > I (3 )2 ,0 (4 )4 ,0
(3) III > IV > I > II (4) III > IV > II > I 71. The major product of the following reaction
is:
64. Identify the incorrect IUPAC name. Br
(1) (CH3CH2)2NCH3 = N-Ethyl-N-
Methylethanamine
(2) (CH3)3CNH2 = 2-Methylpropan-2-amine
(3) CH3NHCH(CH3)2 = N-Methylpropan-2-
amine
(4) (CH3)2CHNH2 = 2, 2-Dimethyl-N-
Propanamine.

65. 2HCHO-----pp—>P + Q
OH0
Product P + Q in this reaction is/are not
(1) HCOO+CH3OH
(2) CH3 - CH2OH + HCOO©
(3) CH3 - CHO + HCOOH
(4) Both (2) and (3) 72. Nitration of benzene is example for
(1) Nucleophilic substitution
66. Which among the following pair of (2) Electrophilic substitution
compound are not related as tautomers? (3) Nucleophilic addition
(1) Ph - CH = CH and PhCH2CHO (4) Electrophilic addition

OH
Full Test - 10 7 [Contd...
73. 2-Bromopentane is heated with potassium 81. H3BO3 is
ethoxide in ethanol. The major product (1) monobasic acid and weak Lewis acid
obtained is (2) monobasic and weak Bronsted acid.
(1) 2-ethoxypentane (2) pentene-1 (3) monobasic and strong Lewis acid.
(3) trans pent-2-ene (4) cis pent-2-ene (4) tribasic and weak Bronsted acid.

74. Aldehydes are first oxidation products o f : 82. Consider the following reactions:
(1) Primary alcohols C(s) + 02 (g) —» C 0 2(g) + xkJ
(2) Secondary alcohols
(3) Tertiary alcohols CO(g)+ i 0 2(g )—> C 0 2(g) + ykJ
(4) Monohydric alcohols The heat of formation of CO(g) is:
(1) -(x + y) kJ/mol (2) (x - y) kJ/mol
75. Assertion: 4-nitrophenol is more acidic than (3) (y —x) kJ/mol (4) None of these
2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol.
Reason: Phenol is a weaker acid than 83. For the reaction,
carbonic acid. ZnC 03(s) ±5 ZnO(s) + C 0 2(g)
(1) If both assertion and reason are true and expression for the equilibrium constant for
the reason is the correct explanation of the the above reaction would be
assertion. [ZnCQ3][CQ2]
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but 0) K
reason is not the correct explanation of the [ZnO]
assertion. P(ZnO) XPC02
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false. (2)
(4) If assertion is false but reason is true. PznC03
( 3 ) K p - P(ZnO) X PC0 2
76. Glucose does not give which test?
(1) SchifTs Test (4) Kp = PC02
(2) l)NP Test
(3) NaHSOiTest 84. For the process H20(/) (1 bar, 373 K) —>
(4) All of these H20(g) (1 bar, 373 K), the correct set of
thermodynamic parameters is
77. Which of the following salts will give highest (1) AG = 0, AS = + ve
pi I in water? (2) AG = 0, AS = - ve
(l)K jS O , (2) MgS04 (3) AG = + ve, AS = 0
(3) NuC'l (4) KNO3 (4) AG = - ve, AS = + ve

78. In which of the following process change in 85. In which of the following pairs of compounds
bond angle is maximum? the ratio of C, H and O is same
(D IM ) 1 If" ...........» (1) Acetic acid and methyl alcohol
(2) NIL 1 I l*i* .N IL '" (2) Glucose and acetic acid
(1) lll'i ♦ F • HF«"' (3) Fructose and sucrose
(4) PH i 4 H ' * 1*114* (4) All of these
86. 10 moles N2and 15 moles of H2were allowed
7'* llrn,iin mill Inluone form nearly ideal to react over a suitable catalyst. 10 moles of
><iilolloit'i, At ’•! 1 , tin vapour pressure of NFL were formed. The remaining moles ofN 2
In n/i in lx h inn mid 1I111I of toluene is 22 and H2respectively are:
(mi Hit pmiiiil Mipiuii pii mure of benzene (1)0 moles, 5 mole (2) 5 moles, 0 mole
ii MM bn a >•!tin)Inn containing 78g of (3) 9 moles, 12 mole (4) 0 moles, 0 mole
In 101 in and ii <m"I Inlmniv In tore is
III VI (2)21 87. The relationship between osmotic pressure at
( »| IM (4 )1 M 273 K when lOg glucose (jii), lOg urea (7r2)
and lOg sucrose (713) are dissolved in 250 ml
Mil In i ixpliiii [Link] tin pm ventage of p- of water is:
• lim ai ii i id tin hi In id orbitals in (1) 7t| > 7t2 > 713 (2) 7t3> 7T| > 712
livluldlualltin hi**ii [Link] ! lively (3) 7t2 > 7Tl > 713 (4) 7T2> 7t3 > 7Ii
11) 11 and 21 (2)11 and 71
11) 111 and11 (4)6/ mid 71

I nil I m ( III 8 [Contd...

88. CH,-CH=CH-C~CH,- ■+ CHj-CH=CH-C~OH Group Example Characteristics
II H i. Phycom ycetes Albugo Septate
O o dikaryotic hvpha
Reagent A to bring out above conversion is — ii. Phycom ycetes Mucor Aseptate
(1) KMn04/H+ coenocytic
Hyphae
(2) K2Cr20 7/H+ iii. A scom ycetes Penicilliiun Aseptate
(3) NaOH + I2, H® branched hypha
(4) All of these iv. Basidiom ycetes Agaricus M ycelium
89. branched and
Which of the following is ‘E’ isomer?
septate

(1) (i) and (iii) (2) (ii) and (iv)

C (3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i) and (iv)
( 1)
c 93. Read the following statements.
/ \ (i) One codon codes only one amino acid.
Cl CH,Br
HO (ii) Some amino acids are coded by more than
\ one codon.
H:C C H ,-C H 2OH (iii) The sequence of triplet nitrogenous bases
\ / in DNA or mRNA corresponds to the amino
( 2) c
acid sequence in the polypeptide chain.
c Give suitable terms for the characteristics of
/ \ l ‘genetic code’ as per the above statements
F a (1) Degeneracy - (i), Collinearity - (iii),
H ,N
\ / CH, Unambiguous - (iii)
(2) Degeneracy - (iii), Collinearity - (ii),
(3 )
N=C
/ C
\
C~H
Unambiguous - (i)
(3) Degeneracy - (ii), Collinearity - (iii),

O
I Unambiguous —(i)
(4) Degeneracy - (i), Collinearity - (ii),
(4) All of these Unambiguous - (iii)

90. The ratio of t3/4 and ti/2o f first order reaction 94. Which of the following does belong to red
is: algae?
( 1) 1/2 ( 2)2 (1) Gelidium, Porphyra
(3)2/3 (4) 5/2 (2) Ectocarpus, Dictyota
(3) Laminaria, Fucus
Botany: Q. No. 91 to 135 (4) Sargassum, Ectocarpus

91. Study the following table which shows 95. Various morphological features are used to
different organisms with their taxonomic describe a flowering plant. Description has to
categories. be brief in a simple and scientific language
j Common Ph> lum/ and presented in a proper sequence. After
Family O rder Class
Name Division i
Man Hominadae Primata Mamma lia A describing various parts of plant e.g. , roots,
Arthro-
Housefly Muscidae Diptera B
poda
stem and leaves, a floral diagram and floral
Mango C Sapindulcs
Dicotyle- Angio- formula of three important families are given
donae spermae i
Angio- below.
Wheat Poaceae Poales D
spermae j
Family Floral formula
(1) A-Chordata; B-Insecta; C- jAfemti,&y >jsm m -*■. 8

Anacardiaceae; D-Monocotyledonae
(2) A-Animalia; B-Arachnida; C- *
Anacardiaceae; D- Monocotyledonae
(3) A-Chordata; B-Arachnida; C-
Polygonaceae; D- Monocotyledonae
(4) A-Non-Chordata; B-Insecta; C- c Br ® $Pj3 + 3jA3 , , G( v.
Anacardiaceae; D-Dicotyledonae
Which of the following floral diagrams
represents given in formula C?
92. In the following table, one example and one
specific characteristic of the group is given.
Select the correct option.
Full Test - 10 9 [Contd...
 (3) Two to four xylem bundles - Dicot root
(4) Polyarch xylem bundles —Maize root
98. Which of the following are correct
statements?
(I) The parenchyma performs various
functions like photosynthesis, storage,
secretion.
(II) Cells of collenchyma are much
thickened at the comer due to a deposition
of cellulose, hemicellulose and pectin.
(III) Cells of sclerenchyma are usually dead
and without protoplasts.
(IV) Parenchyma, collenchyma and
sclerenchyma are simple permanent tissues.
(1) I, II and III only (2) I and II only
(3) I, III and IV only (4) 1, II, III and IV
99. With reference to factors affecting the rate of
photosynthesis, which of the following
statements is not correct?
(1) Increasing atmospheric C02
concentration up to 0.05% can enhance
C02 fixation rate.
(2) C3 plants respond to higher temperature
with enhanced photosynthesis while C4
plants have much lower temperature
optimum.
96. Consider the following statements regarding (3) Tomato is a greenhouse crop which can
the given figure and select the correct one. be grow-in C02-enriched atmosphere for
higher yield.
(4) Light saturation for C 02fixation occurs
at 10% of full sunlight.
100. Assertion: The C4 plants have a special type
of leaf anatomy called Kranz anatomy.
Reason: The bundle sheath cells of C4 plants
have thick walls and no intercellular spaces.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct,
and Reason is the correct explanation for
(1) ‘L’ is the collenchymatous hypodermis Assertion
that provides mechanical strength and (2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct,
flexibility to young dicot stem. but Reason is not the correct explanation for
(2) 'M' is the innermost layer of cortex Assertion
which usually possesses Casparian strips. (3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is
(3) 'N' is the parenchymatous pericycle that incorrect
synthesises food. (4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect
(4) 'O' is xylem which is exarch with respect
to the positions of protoxylem and 101. Which of the following statements is
metaxylem. incorrect regarding to Calvin cycle of C3
plants?
97. Select the mismatched pair.
(1) First stable product of Calvin cycle in C3
(1) Conjoint and open vascular bundles -
plants is 3-Phosphoglyceric acid.
Sunflower stem
(2) Sunflower is an example of C3 plants.
(2) Radial and closed vascular bundles -
Maize stem

Full Test - 10 10 [Contd...

 (3) Calvin cycle occurs in bundle sheath cells 105. Statement I: Protonema is haploid and found
of C3 plants. in pteridophytes.
(4) Enzyme PEP case is absent in C3 plants. Statement II: The giant Redwood tree
(Sequoia sempervirens) is a gymnosperm.
102. Select the incorrect statement, with respect to (1) Both statements I and II are correct
the given representation (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
H
incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
106. If red eyed (dominant) fly is mated with
white eyed (recessive) fly, the ratio of red to
white eyed in F2 generation would be
(1)3 : 1 (2)2 : 2
(3)2:1 (4)1:3

(1) X is the enzyme pyruvate dehydrogenase 107. Consider the following statements and
and Y is the enzyme ethanol decarboxylase choose the correct option.
(2) This process is involved in brewing A. The ovule is attached to the placenta by
industry for producing beverages like beer, means of a stalk called filament.
rum, whisky, etc. B. The ovule fuses with the stalk in the region
(3) Accumulation of the end product (i.e., called hilum.
ethanol) during this process, in a culture of C. The two protective envelopes of ovule are
yeast, stops the multiplication of yeast cells called integuments.
and may even lead to death of cells. D. The small opening in the tip of ovule is
(4) None of these called germ pore.
Of the above statements
103. Read the given statements and identify the (1) A and D are correct
plant hormones X, Y and Z. (2) A and C are correct
(i) Hormone Y induces flowering in mango (3) B and D are correct
and promotes rapid internode/petiole (4) B and C are correct
elongation in deep water rice plants and
hence helping leaves or upper part of shoot 108. Select the option which correctly identify the
to remain above water.
(ii) Hormone X promotes apical dominance.
(iii) Hormone Z inhibits the seed
germination, increases the tolerance of plant
to various stresses, play important role in
seed development, maturation and
dormancy.
(1) X- Auxin, Y- ABA, Z- GA
(2) X-Auxin, Y-C 2/ / 4, Z-GA
(3) X - C 2H 4, Y-Auxin, Z- GA
(4) X- Auxin, Y-C 2H 4, Z-ABA (1) Helianthus (2) Commelina
(3) Rosa (4) Gossypium
104. Match the following.____________________
Column I Column 11 109. Which of the following statements are
A. IAA (i) Herring sperm DNA correct?
B. ABA (ii) Bolting (i) Endothecium lies below epidermis.
C. Ethylene (iii) Stomatal closure (ii) Fusion of egg with male gamete is called
D. GA (iv) Weed-free lawns. apogamy.
E. Cytokinin (v) Ripening of fruits. (iii) Synergids are haploid.
(1) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(v), D-(ii), E-(i) (iv) The point at which funicle touches the
(2) A-(v), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(ii), E-(i) ovule is chalaza.
(3) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(v), D-(iii), E-(ii) (1) (i) and (iv) (2) (i) and (ii)
(4) A-(v), B-(iii), C-(ii), D-(i), E-(iv) (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (ii) and (iii)
Full Test - 10 II [Contd...
110. Assertion: Xenogamy is pollination between (2) Legume-Rhizobium symbiosis
two flowers on different plants. (3) Mycorrhizae
Reason: Pollination between two flowers on (4) Azolla Pinnat
the same plant is autogamy.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, 115. Identify the blank spaces A, B, C and D in the
and Reason is the correct explanation for given table and select the correct option.
Assertion. Type of microbe Scientific name Product
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Medical application Fungus A Cyclosporin A
but Reason is not the correct explanation for B C Monascus purpureus Statin D
Assertion (1) A-Trichoderma polysporum, B-As an
(3) Assertion is correct, but Reason is immunosuppressive agent, C-Yeast
incorrect (Fungus), D-Lowering of blood cholesterol
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect (2) A-Trichoderma polysporum, B-Lowering of
blood cholesterol, C-Yeast (Fungus), D- As
111. Insertion or deletion of a single base causes an immunosuppressive agent
(1) inversion mutation (3) A-Monascus purpureus, B-Lowering of
(2) transition mutation blood cholesterol, C-Bacterium, D-As an
immunosuppressive agent
(3) frame-shift mutation
(4) A-Streptococcus, B-As an immuno­
(4) transversion mutation
suppressive agent, C-Bacterium, D-
Lowering of blood cholesterol
112. Read the given statements and select the
correct option. 116. UAA is known as
(i) Percentage of homozygous dominant (l)O pal (2) Amber
individuals obtained by selfing Aa (3) Ochre (4) None of these
individuals is 25%.
(ii) Types of genetically different gametes 117. If N = population density at time ‘t’, then
produced by genotype AABbcc are 2. population density at tim e't + 1' ca be written
(iii) Phenotypic ratio of monoliybrid F2 as
progeny in case of Antirrhinum is 3:1. = W ,[ H + f l ) - ( C + D ) ]
(1) All the statements are true.
Select the correct option for A, B, C and D in
(2) Statements (i) and (ii) are true, but
the above equation.
statement (iii) is false.
(1) A can be mortality and B can be natality
(3) Statements (i) and (iii) are true, but
(2) B can be immigration and C can be
statement (ii) is false.
natality.
(4) Statements (i) and (ii) are true, but
(3) C can be mortality and D can be
statement (i) is false.
immigration.
(4) A can be natality and D can be
113. The given Punnett’s square represents the
emigration.
pattern of inheritance in a dihybrid cross
where yellow (Y) and round (R) seed
118. Select the incorrect statement regarding DNA
condition is dominant over white (y) and
replication
wrinkled (r) seed condition.______ _______
(1) Leading strand is formed in 5’ —*■ 3’
YR Yr yR Yr
direction
YR F J N R
(2) Okazaki fragments are formed in 5’ —►3’
Yr G K O S direction
yR H L P T (3) DNA polymerase catalyses
Yr I M Q U polymerisation in 3’ —►5’ direction
A plant of type ‘H’ will produce seeds with (4) DNA polymerase catalyses
the genotype identical to seeds produced by polymerisation in 5’ —►3’ direction
the plants of
(l)ty p e M (2) type J 119. Refer to the given table. If ‘+’ sign has been
(3 )type P (4 )typeN assigned for beneficial interaction^ sign
for detrimental interaction and ‘0’ for neutral
114. Farmers have reported over 50% higher interaction, identify the type of interactions
yields of rice by using which of the following (i), (ii) and (iii) and select-the correct option.
biofertilizers?
(1) Bacillus thuringiensis
Full Test - 10 12 |Contd...
 Species A Species B Type of (iv) ‘A’ and ‘B’ represent gymnosperms and
interaction angiosperms respectively.
- -
(0 (1) (i) and (iv) (2) (ii) and (iv)
+ -
(ii) (3) (i) and (iii) (4) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
+ 0 (iii) 122. Statement I: Test cross is the cross between
(1) (i)- Predation, (ii)- Parasitism, (iii)-
the F i progeny and either of the parent types.
Amensalism
Statement II: A monohybrid cross involves
(2) (i)- Competition, (ii)- Predation, (iii)-
the study of inheritance of a single trait.
Commensalism
(1) Both statements 1 and II are correct
(3) (i)- Competition, (ii)- Parasitism, (iii)-
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
Commensalism
incorrect.
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
120. Study the age pyramids given below and
(4) Both statements 1 and II are incorrect.
123. Ovules are borne on central axis in
(1) Parietal placentation
(2) Marginal placentation
(3) Basal Placentation
(4) Free Central placentation
(1) A is a triangular age pyramid, where pre- 124. Select the option with correct labelling of
reproductive stage is very large as compared
to the reproductive and post-reproductive
stages of the population. This type of age
structure indicates that the population would
increase rapidly.
(2) B is an inverted bell-shaped age pyramid,
where number of pre-reproductive and
reproductive individuals is almost equal. This
type of age structure indicates that the (1) A- Thylakoid, B- Stroma lamellae, C-
population is stable. Granum, D- Stroma
(3) C is an urn shaped aged pyramid, where a (2) A- Granum, B- Thylakoid, C- Stroma
greater number of reproductive individuals lamellae, D- Stroma
are present. This type of age structure (3) A- Stroma lamellae, B- Thylakoid, C-
indicates that the population is declining. Stroma, D- Granum
(4) All of these (4) A- Stroma lamellae, B- Stroma, C-
Thylakoid, D- Granum
121. The given pie diagram represents the
proportionate number of species of major tata 125. Floridean starch as stored food is found in
of plants. Select the incorrect statements (1) Fucus (2) Volvox
regarding A and B. (3) Chara (4)Gelidium
126. How many compounds in the list given
below are common products of glycolysis,
fermentation and Krebs cycle?
NAD", CO: fructose-6-phosphate, GTP,
Lactic acid, Malic acid, NADH + H+, FADH
(l)Z ero (2) Four
(3) Two (4) One
127. If a somatic cell undergoes two successive
(i) ‘A’ represents the achlorophyllous, nuclear divisions without cytokinesis, the
heterotrophic, eukaryotic organisms with resultant structure will have
chitinous cell walls. (1)2 diploid nuclei (2) 4 diploid nuclei
(ii) ‘B’ represents the members of Kingdom (3) 4 haploid nuclei (4) 2 haploid nuclei
Monera, e.g., bacteria and cyanobacteria.
(iii) ‘B’ represents those seed plants in which
seeds are enclosed inside fruits.

Full Test - 10 13 [Contd...

128. In the list given below, how many plants (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but
belong to family Liliaceae? the Reason is not the correct explanation of
Onion, Tulip, Pea, Datura, Gram, Gloriosa, the Assertion.
Tobacco (3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(1)2 (2)3 (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.
(3)4 (4)1
135. Read the given statements and select the
129. Pedigree analysis is applicable for how many correct option.
following disorder:- Statement I: A cell having 2n = 16, shall
Tumor syndrome, Down syndrome, Cystic have 8 chromatids at metaphase II stage in
fibrosis, Albinism, Haemophilia, each cell, in meiosis.
Colorblindness, Phenylketonurea Statement II: Metaphase II of meiosis shows
(1)3 (2)4 bivalent chromosomes align on the equatorial
(3)5 (4)6 plate.
(1) Both Statements I and II are correct
130. Choose the incorrect statement from (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
following incorrect
(1) Bacteria show the most extensive (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
metabolic diversity is correct
(2) Members of Protista are primarily (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
aquatic
(3) Fungi show a great diversity in Zoology: Q. No. 136 to 180
morphology and habitat.
(4) In five kingdom classification virus, 136. Which of the following statements are
viroids and prions are placed in kingdom incorrect?
monera (i) Parapodia are lateral appendages in
arthropods used for swimming.
131. Slime moulds have: - (ii) Radula in molluscs are structures
(1) Identical pigments of higher plants involved in excretion.
(2) Wall in vegetative phage (iii) Aschelminthes are dioecious.
(3) Wall in spore (iv) Echinoderm adults show radial
(4) Two flagella - one lies longitudinally and symmetry.
other transversely (v) Ctenophores are diploblastic.
132. The outer membrane of the nucleus: (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii)
(i) Is continuous with the endoplasmic (3) (i), (iv) and (v) (4) (iii) and (v)
reticulum
(ii) Does not bear ribosomes 137. Which of the following have a porous body
(1) Only (i) is correct and are diploblastic?
(2) Only (ii) is correct (1) Aurelia and Obelia
(3) Both (i) and (ii) are correct (2) Adamsia and Euspongia
(4) Both (i) and (ii) are incorrect (3) Sycon and Spongilla
(4) Meandrina and Hydra
133. Who first theorised the semiconservative
mode of replication for DNA? 138. Which one of the following is a matching set
(1) Watson and Crick of a phylum and its three examples?
(2) Meselson and Stahl (1) Porifera —Spongilla, Euspongia,
(3) Hershey and Chase Pennatula
(4) Beadle and Tatum (2) Cnidaria —Fasciola, Physalia, Aurelia
(3) Platyhelminthes - Planaria, Taenia,
134. Assertion: In bacteria, translation can begin Ancylostoma
much before the mRNA is fully transcribed. (4) Mollusca - Loligo, Aplysia, Octopus
Reason: In bacteria, the mRNA does not
require any processing to become active and 139. Strength to the bones is given by a hard and
transcription and translation take place in the nonpliable substance composed of
same compartment. (1) Calcium salts and collagen fibres
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and (2) Calcium salts only
the Reason is the correct explanation of the (3) Calcium and magnesium salts
Assertion. (4) Elastin fibres

Full Test - 10 14 [Contd...

140. Each muscle is made of many long, 147. Select the answer which correctly matches
cylindrical fibres arranged in parallel arrays. the endocrine gland with the hormone it
These fibres are composed of numerous fine secretes and its function/deficiency
fibrils, called symptom:
(1) Fascicles (2) Myofibrils (1) Endocrine gland - Corpus luteum.
(3) Myofilaments (4) Both (2) and (3) Hormone - Testosterone,
Function/deficiency symptoms - Stimulates
141. The manner in which the subunits of spermatogenesis
hemoglobin are arranged with respect to each (2) Endocrine gland - Anterior pituitary,
other is its _______ . Hormone - Oxytocin, Function/deficiency
(1) Primary structure symptoms - Stimulates uterus contraction
(2) Secondary structure during childbirth
(3) Tertiary structure (3) Endocrine gland - Posterior pituitary,
(4) Quaternary structure Hormone - Growth hormone (GH),
Function/deficiency symptoms - Over­
142. Which of the following use as secretion stimulates abnormal growth
immunosuppressor (4) Endocrine gland - Thyroid gland,
(1) Cyclosporin A (2) Streptokinase Hormone - Thyroxine, Function/deficiency
(3) Statins (4) Acetic acid symptoms - Lack of iodine in diet results in
goitre
143. The blood at times clots inside the blood
vessels and is termed: 148. What is the correct sequence in which milk
(1) Thrombosis (2) Haemolysis flows out through the mammary glands?
(3) Prothrombin (4) Thromboplastin (1) mammary duct-mammary tubules-
lactiferous duct
144. Which of the following enlists all the criteria (2) mammary tubules-mammary duct-
that need to be maintained for the healthy lactiferous duct
functioning of the body? Choose the best (3) lactiferous duct-mammary duct-
answer. mammary tubule
(1) Oxygen supply and removal of carbon (4) lactiferous duct-mammary tubule-
dioxide mammary duct
(2) Maintenance of an uniform body
temperature 149. A right and left primary bronchi are formed
(3) Supply of oxygen and nutrients and by the division of the trachea at the level of
continuous removal of waste products
(4) Supply of nutrients and metabolites (1) Seventh cervical vertebra
(2) Third thoracic vertebra
145. Brush border is characteristic of (3) Fifth thoracic vertebra
(1) Neck of nephron (4) Seventh thoracic vertebra
(2) Collecting tube
(3) Proximal convoluted tubule 150. Select the odd one from the following:
(4) All of these (1) Labia majora (2) Clitoris
(3) Mons pubis (4) Ovaries
146. Which of the following statements are
incorrect regarding a normal human? 151. In a contractile unit, each actin filament has
(i) The skull is dicondylic. (1) Two F-actin polymers made of F-actin
(ii) Metacarpals are five in numbers. monomers
(iii) Patella is a cup-shaped bone covering the (2) Two G-actin polymers made of G-actin
knee dorsally. monomers
(iv) Scapula is a large triangular flat bone, (3) Two F-actin polymers made of G-actin
situated in the pelvic girdle. monomers
(v) The pelvic girdle has two coxal bones. (4) Two G-actin polymers made of F-actin
(1) (i) and (v) (2) (i) and (ii) monomers
(3) (ii) and (v) (4) (iii) and (iv)

Full Test - 10 15 [Contd...

152. Match the following columns and select the (3) Annelida (4) All the above
correct option.
Column -1 Column-II 158. Which of the following represents a correct
a. Gout i. Decreased levels sequence of events?
of Estrogen (1) CNS signal —►Acetylcholine production
b. Osteoporosis ii. Low Ca** —» Action potential —+ C a2+binds to
ions in the blood troponin —» Cross bridge formation
c. Tetany iii. Accumulation of (2) CNS signal —►C a 2+binds to troponin —*
uric acid crystals
Acetylcholine production —►Action potential
d. Muscular iv. Autoimmune
—►Cross bridge formation
dystrophy disorder
(3) CNS signal —» Action potential —►
v. Genetic disorder
(1) a- iii, b -v, c- ii, d- iv Acetylcholine production —►C a2+ binds to
(2) a-iii, b-i, c-ii, d- v troponin —* Cross bridge formation
(3) a-iv, b-v, c-i, d-ii (4) CNS signal —* Action potential —♦ C a2+
(4) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv binds to troponin —*• Acetylcholine
production —►Cross bridge formation
153. Increased asthmatic attacks in certain seasons
are related to 159. The ventilation movements of the lungs in
(1) Hot and humid environment mammals are governed by
(2) Eating fruits preserved in tin containers (1) Muscular walls of lung
(3) Inhalation of seasonal pollen (2) Diaphragm
(4) Low temperature (3) Intercostal muscles
(4) Both (2) and (3)
154. Which of the following is not a component of
downstream processing? 160. All sensory information to be registered
(1) Separation consciously by the forebrain must pass via
(2) Purification the:
(3) Preservation (1) Thalamus
(4) Expression (2) Reticular activating system
(3) Cerebellum
155. Bt com has been made resistant to com borer (4) Pons
disease by the introduction of the gene—
(ljO jIA b (2) Cry II Ab 161. Artificial insemination means
(3) am pR (4) Trp (1) Transfer of sperms of a healthy donor to a
test-tube containing ova
(2) Transfer of sperms of husband to a test-
156. How many statements given below are
tube containing ova
examples of "Naturally Acquired Passive
(3) Artificial introduction of sperms of a
Immunity"?
healthy donor into the vagina
(i) In case of snake bites, the injection which
(4) Introduction of sperms of healthy donor
is given to the patients, contain preformed
directly into the ovary
antibodies against the snake venom.
(ii) The foetus receives some antibodies
162. The figure given here shows diagrammatic
from their mother through placenta during
representation of internal organs of frogs.
pregnancy.
Identify A to E and select the correct option.
(iii) Colostrum secreted by mother during
the initial days of lactation has abundant IgA
antibodies to protect the infant.
(iv) 'ATS' (Anti-tetanus serum) provides
temporary protection in case of injuries and
bums.
(l)O n e (2) Two
(3) Three (4) Four

157. A phylum with triploblastic acoelomate

animals is
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes
Full Test - 10 16 [Contd...
 (1) A - Gall bladder, B - Liver, C - Ovary, D - (1) Both Statements I and II are correct
Testis, E - Rectum (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
(2) A - Liver, B - Pancreas, C - Fat bodies, D incorrect
- Testis, E - Gall bladder (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
(3) A - Pancreas, B - Lung, C - Testis, D - is correct
Kidney, E - Liver (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
(4) A - Gall bladder, B - Lung, C - Fat bodies,
D - Kidney, E - Rectum 168. Read the given statements and select the
correct option.
163. Severe malaria is caused by the Statement I: A sarcomere comprises of one
Plasmodium________ . dark band and two half light bands.
(1) vivax (2) malariae Statement II: Head and tail comprises light
(3) ovale (4) falciparum meromyosin.
(1) Both Statements I and II are correct
164. Assertion: Restriction enzymes can cut the (2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
strand of DNA a little away from the centre incorrect
of the palindrome sites, but between the same (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
two bases on the opposite strands. is correct
Reason: The palindrome in DNA is a (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
sequence of base pairs that reads the same on
the two strands when orientation of reading 169. Read the given statements and select the
is kept the same. correct option.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true, and Statement I: As long as the mother breast­
the Reason is the correct explanation of the feeds the child fully, chances of conception
Assertion. are almost nil.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true, but Statement II: Lactational amenorrhea
the Reason is not the correct explanation of method is based on the fact that ovulation
the Assertion. does not occur during the period of intense
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false. lactation.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false. (1) Both Statements I and II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
165. Read the given statements and select the incorrect
correct option. (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
Statement I: Ancylostoma (Hookworm) is is correct
triploblastic, eucoelomate roundworm. (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Statement II: Chelone, Testudo and Struthio
show poikilothermy. 170. Which of the following involves micro-
(1) Both Statements I and II are correct puncturing of the zona pellucida?
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is (1) Gamete intra-fallopian transfer
incorrect (2) Zygote intrafallopian transfer
(3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II (3) Intracytoplasmic sperm injection
is correct (4) Intrauterine insemination
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
171. Read the given statements and select the
166. Which of the following about the globular correct option.
head of a meromyosin protein is NOT true? Statement I: Evolution is not a directed
(1) It consists the active sites for actin process in sense of determinism.
(2) Itis an active ATPase Statement II: Evolution is a stochastic
(3) It projects outwards process based on chance events in nature and
(4) It is a part of the Light meromyosin chance mutation in the organisms.
(LMM) (1) Both Statements I and II are correct
(2) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is
167. Read the given statements and select the incorrect
correct option. (3) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II
Statement I: Vital capacity includes ERV, is correct
TV and IRV. (4) Both statements I and II are incorrect
Statement II: Functional residual capacity
includes ERV and IRV.
Full Test - 10 17 [Contd...
172. Which of the following is/are a physical 177. What is the utility of the bacterium Thermus
process(es)? aquaticus?
(1) Change in shape without breaking of (1) It is used in RFLP mapping
bonds (2) It is used to create recombinant plasmids
(2) Change in state of matter (when ice melts (3) It is used in automated DNA sequencing
into water, or when water becomes vapour) (4) It facilitates the polymerase chain
(3) Hydrolysis of starch into glucose reaction
(4) Both (1 )and (2)
178. Match the terms given in column-I with their
173. A protein is imagined as a line, the left end is definitions in column-11 and select the correct
represented by the first amino acid and the answer from codes given below.__________
right end is represented by the last amino Column I Column 11
A. Transformation (i) Sequence cut by
acid. The first and last acids are called as
restriction enzymes
(1) N-terminal amino acid and C-terminal B. Recognition (ii) Process by
amino acid respectively sequence which DNA
(2) C-terminal amino acid and N-terminal sequences
amino acid respectively fragments are
(3) O-terminal amino acid and C-terminal separated based on
amino acid respectively their size
C. Gel (iii) Plasmid DNA
(4) N H 2 -terminal amino acid and COOH- electrophoresis that has
terminal amino acid respectively incorporated
human DNA
174. Bone that is not the part of axial skeleton is D. Recombinant (iv) Process by
(1) Malleus (2) Frontal DNA which bacteria take
(3) Humerus (4) Parietal up pieces of DNA
from the
175. Which of the following statements about environment
lactation is true? (1 ) A-(iii), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
(1) It nourishes the foetus during the (2) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iii)
gestation period (3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(2) It decreases after parturition (4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(3) Colostrum induces immunity in the
newborn 179. Choose the correct pair from the following
(4) It contributes to foetal ejection reflex (1) Nucleases - Separate the two strands of
DNA
176. Recognise the figure and find out the correct (2) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific
matching. positions within DNA
(3) Ligases - Join the two DNA molecules
(4) Polymerases —Break the DNA into
fragments

180. Crystals of Bt toxin produced by some

bacteria do not kill the bacteria themselves
a b because
(1) Toxin is inactive
(1) a-blastocyst, b-morula
(2) Toxin is immature
(2) a-morula, b-blastocyst
(3) Bacteria are resistant to the toxin
(3) a-blastocyst, b-gastrula
(4) Bacteria encloses toxin in a special sac
(4) a-morula, b-gastrula

Full Test - 10 18 [Contd...