PAES 201-202:2015

1. This standard specifies the

requirements for heated–air
mechanical grain dryer used for
commercial purposes. It does not
include dryers for seeds. The grain in
this standard refers to paddy and
corn.
a. PNS/ PAES 201:2015
b. PNS/ PAES 202:2018
c. PNS/ PAES 201:2018
d. PNS/ PAES 202:2015
2. This standard specifies the methods
of test for heated-air mechanical
grain dryer to determine the following
performance characteristics.
a. PNS/ PAES 201:2015
b. PNS/ PAES 202:2018
c. PNS/ PAES 201:2018
d. PNS/ PAES 202:2015
3. Organic materials used as renewable
source of energy including but not
limited to agricultural crops, feed and
fiber crop residues, aquatic plants,
forestry and wood residues,
agricultural wastes, processing by-
products and other non-fossil organic
materials.
PAES 201-202:2015 a. Grains
Heated-Air Mechanical Grain Dryer– b. Dehusked corn
Specifications and Methods of Test c. Biomass
d. Plenum
4. chamber wherein the grains are
temporarily held after drying
chamber or to the storage bin.
a. plenum
b. dust collection system
c. safety device
d. tempering bin
5. chamber maintained under pressure
for uniform distribution of the heated
air through the grain mass
a. plenum
b. dust collection system
c. safety device
d. tempering bin
6. any device that is used to avoid
human accident related to drying
operation and/or damage to the parts
and components of the dryer during
the operation and automatically
shuts-off the operation of the dryer in
case of malfunction
a. plenum
b. dust collection system
c. safety device
d. tempering bin
7. device used to accumulate dust
a. plenum
b. dust collection system
Postharvest Machinery|1
 c. fan d. dryer, indirect-fired
d. tempering bin 15.dryer in which the products of
8. air moving device that is used to combustion do not come in contact
force heated air through the mass of with the products being dried
grains at the desired air flow rate and a. dryer, direct-fired
pressure b. recirculating type
a. plenum c. flat bed type
b. fan d. dryer, indirect-fired
c. dust collection system 16.dryer in which the products of
d. tempering bin combustion come into direct contact
9. device for reducing excess moisture with the product being dried
from the grain, with or without a. dryer, direct-fired
introduction of heat b. recirculating type
a. plenum c. flat bed type
b. fan d. dryer, indirect-fired
c. grain dryer 17.grains which show signs of fissures or
d. tempering bin fractures or splinters
10.device used to remove grain moisture a. dehusked corn
by forcing heated air through the b. head rice
grain mass until the desired moisture c. broken grains
content is attained d. Cracked grains
a. grain dryer
b. plenum 18.grain or a piece of a grain with the
c. heated-air mechanical grain length equal to or greater than three-
dryer fourths (3/4) of the average length of
d. tempering bin the whole kernel
a. dehusked corn
11.mechanical grain dryer wherein the b. head rice
grain in fixed amount is held in the c. broken grains
drying chamber in batches until the d. Cracked grains
grain reaches the desired moisture 19.pieces of grains smaller than three-
content fourths (3/4) of the average length of
a. batch type the whole kernel
b. recirculating type a. dehusked corn
c. flat bed type b. head rice
d. continuous flow dryer c. broken grains
12.dryer in which the material being d. Cracked grains
dried moves through the drying
chamber in a substantially continuous 20.fruit of the corn plant where husk has
stream and is discharged without been removed
being recirculated and where the a. dehusked corn
drying and tempering processes are b. ear corn
accomplished in another holding bin c. corn on cob
or column d. All of the above
a. direct-fired
21.Which of the following is not
b. recirculating type
considered as corn kernels, mainly of
c. flat bed type
either dent or flint varieties of the
d. continuous flow dryer
plant Zea mays
13.batch type dryer equipped to
a. Shelled corn
circulate and/or mixed fixed amount
b. maize
of grain during the drying operation
c. corn grain
a. dryer, direct-fired
d. None of the above
b. recirculating type
c. flat bed type 22.ratio of the amount of heat added in
d. dryer, indirect-fired the air to the heat available in the
14.batch type dryer wherein a fixed fuel
amount of grain is held stationary in a a. moisture gradient
horizontal grain holding bin b. heating system efficiency
a. dryer, direct-fired c. drying efficiency
b. recirculating type d. heat utilization efficiency
c. flat bed type
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23.difference between the maximum and c. burner efficiency
the minimum grain moisture content d. airflow rate
randomly sampled after drying 31.volume of air in cubic meters
a. moisture gradient delivered to the mass of grains per
b. heating system efficiency second
c. drying efficiency a. combustion efficiency
d. heat utilization efficiency b. drying system efficiency
24.ratio of the total heat utilized to c. burner efficiency
vaporize moisture in the material, to d. airflow rate
the amount of heat added to the 32.average percentage point moisture
drying air expressed in percent content removed from the grain per
a. heating system efficiency drying time
b. drying efficiency a. moisture reduction rate
c. heat utilization efficiency b. drying rate
d. both b and c c. airflow rate
25.according to PNS/ PAES 201:2015- d. Both A and B
Heated-Air Mechanical Grain Dryer- 33.grains which are heat damaged,
specifications, the maximum weather damaged, ground damaged,
moisture gradient for rice and corn in moldy, diseased, insect bored,
a batch type dryer is___. sprouted or distinctly damaged by
a. 2% insects, water, fungi and/or any other
b. 3% means as seen by the naked eye
c. 4% a. immature grains
d. 5% b. damaged grains
26.according to PNS/ PAES 201:2015- c. scattered grains
Heated-Air Mechanical Grain Dryer- d. Cracked grains
specifications, the maximum
moisture gradient for rice and corn in 34.kernels, whole or broken, which are
a recirculating type dryer is___. light green and chalky with soft
a. 2% texture
b. 3% a. immature grains
c. 4% b. damaged grains
d. 5% c. scattered grains
27.according to PNS/ PAES 201:2015- d. Cracked grains
Heated-Air Mechanical Grain Dryer- 35.ratio of the weight of grains that fell
specifications, the minimum drying out from the machine during the
efficiency for rice and corn is ____. drying operation, , to the weight of
a. 75% the total grain input to the dryer,
b. 80% expressed in percent
c. 85% a. immature grains
d. 90% b. damaged grains
28.ratio of the heat supplied by the c. scattered grains
burner, to the heat released by the d. Cracked grains
fuel
a. combustion efficiency 36.air movement through the drying
b. drying system efficiency chamber wherein air is moved
c. burner efficiency through the product at a pressure
d. airflow rate lower that the atmospheric
29.ratio of the heat released by the fuel, condition, expressed in Pascal
to the theoretical heat available from a. suction system
the fuel b. tempering
a. combustion efficiency c. static pressure
b. drying system efficiency d. fuel consumption
c. burner efficiency 37.pressure in the plenum chamber to
d. airflow rate maintain uniform distribution of air
flow through the grain mass,
30.ratio of the total heat utilized for expressed in Pascal
drying, to the heat available in the a. suction system
fuel expressed in percent b. tempering
a. combustion efficiency c. static pressure
b. drying system efficiency d. fuel consumption

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38.temporarily holding the grain d. mechanical energy source
between the drying passes, allowing 46.according to PNS/ PAES 221:2015-
the moisture content in the center of Heated-Air Mechanical Grain Dryer-
the grain and that on the surface of Method of tests, Milling test of the
the grain to equalize samples obtained during drying test
a. suction system shall be conducted at least _____
b. tempering hours after the drying test
c. static pressure a. 12
d. fuel consumption b. 24
39.source of energy which includes c. 36
petroleum-based fuels such as d. 48
kerosene, gasoline, diesel oil and 47.according to PNS/ PAES 221:2015-
bunker fuel oil Heated-Air Mechanical Grain Dryer-
a. biomass Method of tests, The grain to be used
b. non-renewable energy source shall be homogeneous and the
c. renewable energy source moisture content should be at least
d. mechanical energy source ____ for rice and corn.
40.source of energy that includes non- a. 20%
petroleum based fuels such as b. 21%
biomass and solar energy c. 22%
a. gas d. 23%
b. non-renewable energy source 48.according to PNS/ PAES 221:2015-
c. renewable energy source Heated-Air Mechanical Grain Dryer-
d. mechanical energy source Method of tests, The length of the
41.total amount of heat utilized to test shall be such that one full
vaporize moisture in the material, capacity of grain has been dried to a
expressed in kJ/kg of H2O final moisture content of
a. heat capacity approximately _____ (for rice and
b. heat utilization corn).
c. fuel capacity a. 12%
d. fuel consumption b. 13%
42.total amount of fuel consumed c. 14%
divided by the total drying time d. 15%
a. heat capacity 49.Measurement of air velocity shall be
b. heat utilization made at the air duct or at the heat
c. fuel capacity exchanger, whichever is applicable
d. fuel consumption a. True
43.average temperature of the air to be b. False
used for drying the grain, measured 50.Static pressure shall be taken at the
at a number of points as close as plenum/transition duct (above the
practicable to its entry to the grain blower and the dryer).
bed a. True
a. wet bulb temperature b. False
b. drying air temperature The plenum/transition duct is
c. drying temperature located BETWEEN the blower and
d. air temperature dryer.
44.For continuous flow dryer: weight of ANSWER KEY (PAES 201:2015 – PAES
grain that could be contained in the 202:2015)
dryer and for batch type dryer: 1. A
weight of grain required to fill the 2. D
dryer at the input moisture content 3. C
a. Load capacity 4. D
b. grain holding capacity
5. A
c. grain capacity
6. C
d. Both A and B
45.source of energy that includes non- 7. B
petroleum based fuels such as 8. B
biomass and solar energy 9. C
a. gas 10.C
b. non-renewable energy source 11.A
c. renewable energy source 12.D
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13.B
14.C
15.D
16.A
17.D
18.B
19.C
20.D
21.D
22.B
23.A
24.D
25.C
26.A
27.A
28.C
29.A
30.B
31.D
32.D
33.B
34.A
35.C
36.A
37.C
38.B
39.B
40.C PAES 203:2000
41.B Moisture Content Determination for
42.D Rice and Corn
43.B
44.D
45.C
46.D
47.C
48.C
49.A
50.B

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PAES 203:2000 7. accurate balance graduated to
1. This standard specifies the permit 0.001g reading and
methods for determining the accuracy of + 0.001g
moisture content of rice and corn a. desiccator
for mechanical grain dryer testing. b. moisture dishes
a. PAES 203:2000 c. analytical balance
b. PAES 203:2001 d. oven
c. PAES 203:2002 8. ventilated drying oven with
d. PAES 203:2003 temperature range that can be
2. This standard specifies the regulated
methods amount of moisture in a. desiccator
the grain expressed as percentage b. moisture dishes
of the total weight of the sample, c. analytical balance
wet basis d. oven
a. Moisture 9. clean, heavy glass with ground-on
b. Moisture Determination cover with knob, and should
c. Moisture Content contain standard desiccant (i.e.
d. Grain Moisture silica gel)
3. method of grain moisture a. desiccator
determination based on some b. moisture dishes
characteristics of the grain sample c. analytical balance
such as electrical resistance and d. oven
capacitance which are related to 10.apparatus that includes
moisture content and must be capacitance type, resistance type
periodically calibrated against an etc.
official primary method a. primary moisture meters
a. Primary method b. secondary moisture meters
b. Secondary method c. direct moisture meters
c. Direct method d. indirect moisture meters
d. indirect method 11.According to PAES 203:2000
4. method of grain moisture Moisture content determination
determination based on actual for rice and corn, The moisture
extraction of water either by meter shall be calibrated every ___
convection heating (oven method) months.
or distillation a. 4
a. Primary method b. 5
b. Secondary method c. 6
c. Direct method d. 7
d. indirect method 12.This method of sample size
5. which of the following is not a reduction uses a device consists of
characteristic of a grinding mill. a hopper mounted over a cone,
a. made of material which which has a number of small
does not absorb moisture collecting bins around its base.
b. easy to clean and having as a. Using sample divider
little dead space as possible b. Through coning and
c. enabling grinding to be quartering
carried out rapidly and c. Calibration
uniformly, without d. None of the above
appreciable development of 13.Which of the following is a
heat and as far as possible methods of grain sampling
without contact with the a. Sampling from materials in
outside air. bulk
d. None of the above b. Sampling from materials in
6. drying containers with lid, having bags or packed units
a diameter of at least 50 mm. c. Sampling from materials in
a. desiccator bags or pre-packed units
b. moisture dishes d. Both A and C
c. analytical balance 14.In sampling from materials in bulk,
d. oven Approximately divide the grain bulk
into 4 lots. From each lot, take ___
samples of not less than ___ g each
Postharvest Machinery|6
and bulk to provide one sample of grain has cooled to ambient
about 5 kg. temperature.
a. 30 samples, 50 grams a. True
b. 50 samples, 30 grams
c. 50 samples, 100 grams b. False
d. 100 samples, 50 grams 21.In sample preparation, collect how
15.In Sampling from materials in bags many kg original samples of
or pre-packed units, if the test homogenous variety that will be
materials is up to 10, how many used in calibration?
number of bags is needed to be a. 3
sampled? b. 4
a. Each bag c. 5
b. 10, taken at random d. 6
c. Double
d. Square root (approximately) 22.In sample preparation, Weigh 10
of total number, taken samples of approximately ___ and
according to a suitable place in airtight plastic film bags
sampling scheme or test sample bottles.
16.In Sampling from materials in bags a. 200 grams
or pre-packed units, if the test b. 250 grams
materials is more than 100, how c. 300 grams
many number of bags is needed to d. 350 grams
be sampled? 23.In grinding samples, For rough
a. Each bag rice, grind for ___ seconds; ___
b. 10, taken at random seconds for milled rice.
c. Double a. 30,25
d. Square root (approximately) b. 25,30
of total number, taken c. 20,35
according to a suitable d. 35,20
sampling scheme 24.In drying samples, Place all 30
17.In Sampling from materials in bags dishes (3 for each samples)
or pre-packed units, if the test containing the test portion
materials 10 to 100, how many together with the lid, in the oven
number of bags is needed to be which has been pre-heated to
sampled? 130o C and leave for ___ minutes
a. Each bag ± 5 minutes for rice and ____
b. 10, taken at random minutes ± 5 minutes for corn.
c. Double a. 30,60
d. Square root (approximately) b. 60,120
of total number, taken c. 120,240
according to a suitable d. 240,480
sampling scheme 25.IF 20 KG OF WATER IS REMOVED
18.In batch dryers, At least___ FROM 110 KG OF PADDY, WHAT IS
samples from the batch of grain to THE PERCENTAGE MOISTURE
be dried shall be taken, spaced CONTENT OF PADDY IN WET
evenly over the loading period. BASIS?
a. 10 a. 17.17%
b. 12 b. 18.18%
c. 20 c. 19.19%
d. 50 d. 20.20%
19.In batch dryers, At least___
randomly taken from the batch of
dried grain shall be taken during ANSWER KEY (PAES 203:2000)
unloading.
1. A
a. 10
2. C
b. 12
c. 20 3. B
d. 50 4. A
20.Moisture content measurements 5. D
should be measured when the 6. B
7. C
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8. D
9. A
10.B
11.C
12.A
13.D
14.C
15.A
16.D
17.B
18.B
19.D
20.A
21.A
22.B
23.A
24.C
25.B

PAES 208-209:2000
Power-Operated Corn Sheller –
Specifications and Methods of Test

Postharvest Machinery|8
PAES 208-209:2000
6. Cylinder-type is type of shelling unit
1. This standard is a revision of the consisting of a cylinder with shelling
PNS 142:1988 “Specification for elements such as knife bar or
Corn Sheller” initiated by pegtooth. The cylinder rotates inside
a. Department of Agriculture a concave component.
b. Agricultural Machinery Testing and a. First statement is correct.
Evaluation Center (AMTEC b. Both statement are correct.
c. Bureau of Post-harvest Research c. Second statement is Incorrect.
and Extension d. Both statement are Incorrect.
d. Philippine Society of Agricultural
Engineers 7. Which of the following refer to the
National Agriculture and Fisheries dry and indehiscent seed developed
Council from the ovary of the ear corn?
a. kernel-ear corn ratio
2. Blower loss is best described which b. mechanically damaged kernels
of the following? c. kernel
a. ratio of the weight of corn kernels d. None of the above.
blown by the sheller fan, to the 8. In moisture content, Mo stands for:
weight of the total corn kernel a. mass in grams of the dry test
input of the sheller, expressed in portion
percent b. initial mass in grams of the test
b. type of shelling cylinder formed by portion
a rolled metal sheet/plate
c. iron grill frame partially or fully 9. In moisture content, M1 stands for:
surrounding the cylinder on which a. mass in grams of the dry test
the shelling elements rubs, shear portion
and/or impact the corn ear with or b. Initial mass in grams of the test
without husk portion
d. None of these.
e. part of the ear corn where the 10.Warranty shall be provided for parts
kernels are attached and services within _____ after the
purchase of the sheller, except on
3. It refers to the type of shelling fast moving and easy to wear parts
cylinder formed by a rolled metal such as belts.
sheet/plate or formed by a. 5months
longitudinal bars adjacently b. 7months
arranged forming a continuous c. 6months
cylinder d. 1 year
a. concave component
b. closed-frame cylinder
c. corn cob 11.Which of the followinb best
d. corn ear described to unshelled loss?
a. ratio of the weight of corn kernels
4. The shelling elements are either that remained in the cobs of the
attached around the periphery of a corn fed into the shelling
cylinder or at the longitudinal bars. chamber, to the weight of the
a. Partially False total corn kernel input of the
b. Partially True sheller, expressed in percent
c. True b. ratio of the weight of the shelled
d. False corn kernels collected at the main
outlet, to the total weight of the
5. All of the following are definition of corn kernel input of the sheller,
ear corn. Which one is not? expressed in percent
a. dehusked corn c. ratio of the weight of the shelled
b. kernels which show signs of corn kernels collected at all
fissures or fractures or splinters outlets, to the total corn kernel
c. corn-in-cob input of the sheller, expressed in
d. unshelled fruit of the corn plant percent
where the husk has been removed d. ratio of the weight of corn kernels
mechanically or manually that come out of the shelling
Postharvest Machinery|9
 chamber with the cobs at the cob chamber with the cobs at the cob
outlet, to the weight of the total outlet, to the weight of the total
corn kernel input of the sheller, corn kernel input of the sheller,
expressed in percent expressed in percent
e. ratio of the weight of corn kernels e. ratio of the weight of corn kernels
that fell out from the machine that fell out from the machine
during shelling operation to the during shelling operation to the
weight of the total corn kernel weight of the total corn kernel
input of the sheller, expressed in input of the sheller, expressed in
percent percent

12.Which of the following best 14.Which of the following best

described to shelling recovery loss? described to separation loss?
a. ratio of the weight of corn kernels a. ratio of the weight of corn kernels
that remained in the cobs of the that remained in the cobs of the
corn fed into the shelling corn fed into the shelling
chamber, to the weight of the chamber, to the weight of the
total corn kernel input of the total corn kernel input of the
sheller, expressed in percent sheller, expressed in percent
b. ratio of the weight of the shelled b. ratio of the weight of the shelled
corn kernels collected at the main corn kernels collected at the main
outlet, to the total weight of the outlet, to the total weight of the
corn kernel input of the sheller, corn kernel input of the sheller,
expressed in percent expressed in percent
c. ratio of the weight of the shelled c. ratio of the weight of the shelled
corn kernels collected at all corn kernels collected at all
outlets, to the total corn kernel outlets, to the total corn kernel
input of the sheller, expressed in input of the sheller, expressed in
percent percent
d. ratio of the weight of corn kernels d. ratio of the weight of corn kernels
that come out of the shelling that come out of the shelling
chamber with the cobs at the cob chamber with the cobs at the cob
outlet, to the weight of the total outlet, to the weight of the total
corn kernel input of the sheller, corn kernel input of the sheller,
expressed in percent expressed in percent
e. ratio of the weight of corn kernels e. ratio of the weight of corn kernels
that fell out from the machine that fell out from the machine
during shelling operation to the during shelling operation to the
weight of the total corn kernel weight of the total corn kernel
input of the sheller, expressed in input of the sheller, expressed in
percent percent
13.Which of the followinb best
described to shelling efficiency? 15.Which of the followinb best
a. ratio of the weight of corn kernels described to scattering loss?
that remained in the cobs of the a. ratio of the weight of corn kernels
corn fed into the shelling that remained in the cobs of the
chamber, to the weight of the corn fed into the shelling
total corn kernel input of the chamber, to the weight of the
sheller, expressed in percent total corn kernel input of the
b. ratio of the weight of the shelled sheller, expressed in percent
corn kernels collected at the main b. ratio of the weight of the shelled
outlet, to the total weight of the corn kernels collected at the main
corn kernel input of the sheller, outlet, to the total weight of the
expressed in percent corn kernel input of the sheller,
c. ratio of the weight of the shelled expressed in percent
corn kernels collected at all c. ratio of the weight of the shelled
outlets, to the total corn kernel corn kernels collected at all
input of the sheller, expressed in outlets, to the total corn kernel
percent input of the sheller, expressed in
d. ratio of the weight of corn kernels percent
that come out of the shelling
Postharvest Machinery|10
 d. ratio of the weight of corn kernels b. kernel
that come out of the shelling c. kernel-ear corn ratio
chamber with the cobs at the cob d. mechanically damaged kernels
outlet, to the weight of the total
corn kernel input of the sheller, 21.Which of the following is TRUE
expressed in percent definition of table-fed type?
e. ratio of the weight of corn kernels a. type of corn sheller wherein the
that fell out from the machine ear corn are fed into shelling
during shelling operation to the chamber with the application of
weight of the total corn kernel external force
input of the sheller, expressed in b. kernels that remain in the cob
percent after shelling
c. unbroken kernels after shelling
16.Each corn sheller unit shall be d. part of the sheller where the
provided with ear plugs or ear kernels are detached and
muffs, dust masks and the following separated from the corn cobs
basic tools:
a. three pieces open wrenches
b. one piece each of Philips and flat
screw driver
c. one piece adjustable wrench 22.One of these are materials of
d. All of the above. construction, which of the following?
a. Steel bars and metal sheet or
17.Each corn sheller shall be marked at plate shall be generally used in
prominent place with the following the manufacture of the different
information: components of corn sheller.
1. Registered trademark of the b. Shelling elements shall be made
manufacturer of carbon steel
2. Brand c. A & B
3. Model d. None of the above.
4. Serial number
5. Name and address of the 23.It refers to difference between the
manufacturer percent cracked sample taken
a. 1,3,5 before and after the shelling
b. 1,2,4,5 operation
c. 1,2,3,4,5 a. net cracked kernel
d. 1 and 5 only b. open-frame cylinder
c. purity
18.Whole kernels is unbroken kernels d. mechanically damaged kernels
after shelling. Unshelled kernels is
kernels that remain in the cob after 24.Whole kernels refers to:
shelling. a. kernels that remain in the cob
a. First statement is correct after shelling
b. Second statement is correct b. unbroken kernels after shelling
c. Both statement are correct c. shelling chamber
d. Both statement are incorrect d. None of the above.

19.Which of the following is refers to 25.This standard is a revision of the

machine used to remove the husk of “Specification for Corn Sheller”
corn ear, detach, separate and clean a. PNS 143:1988
the corn kernels from the cobs in b. PNS 147:1988
one operation? c. PNS 142:1987
a. corn sheller d. PNS 142:1988
b. corn husker-sheller
c. corn ear 26.This standard is a pursuance of the
d. None of these. “Power Operated Corn Sheller–
Methods of Test”
20.It is the type of corn sheller wherein a. AMTEC 05:1988
the ear corn are fed into shelling b. AMTEC 04:1988
chamber by gravity, known as: c. AMTEC 07:1988
a. hopper-fed type d. PNS 143: 1985

Postharvest Machinery|11
 scattering losses in a sheller,
27.Clean shelled kernel is shelled expressed in percent by weight
kernel free from foreign. Concave a. total losses
clearance is clearance between b. total kernel input
cylinder shelling elements and c. primemover
concave component matter. d. oscillating screen
a. first statement is true
b. seconds statement is true 33.It is sum of the weight of collected
c. both statement are correct shelled kernels and all the shelling
d. both statement are incorrect losses
a. total losses
28.It refers to the ratio of the weight of b. total kernel input
unshelled corn fed into the sheller c. primemover
per unit of time d. oscillating screen
a. None of the above
b. corrected capacity 34.What is the minimum of test trials?
c. foreign matter a. 3
d. feed rate b. 4
29.Actual capacity of the sheller c. 2
corrected at ___ kernel moisture d. None of the Above.
content (wet basis), and 100%
purity 35.Which of the following is formula
a. 20% used to kernel ear corn ratio?
b. 22%
c. 19% A.
d. 10%
B.
30.All of the following are general
conditions for Test and Inspection. C.
Which one is not?
a. Role of the representative of the D.
manufacturer
b. Extension of test
c. Test site conditions 36.Which of the following is formula
d. Role of manufacturer used to fuel consumption?

31.All of the following are the Test

Preparation in Running-in and
preliminary adjustment. Which one
is TRUE?
a. After the start of the test, the
sheller should have undergone a
break-in period.
b. The proctor shall be operated at 37.Which of the following is formula
the test site by the official used to actual capacity?
representative of the
manufacturer for sufficient
duration with and without load.
c. Before the running-in period, the
various adjustments of the sheller
shall be made according to the
recommendation of the
manufacturer.
d. No other adjustments shall be 38.Which of the following is formula
permitted while the test is on— used to purity?
going

32.Which of the following refers as sum

of blower, separation, unshelled and

Postharvest Machinery|12
 44.Representative test samples shall be
collected from the test lot to
determine its dimensions and shall
be manually shelled for the
determination of kernel-ear corn
ratio, moisture content and control
for corn kernel quality.
39.Which of the following is formula a. True
used to get the amount of blower b. False
loss of all losses? c. Partially True
d. Partially False

45.Which of the following is formula in

shelling efficiency?

40.Which of the following is formula

used to get the percentage of
blower loss of all losses?

46.Which of the following is formula in

shelling recovery?

41.It is the weight of unshelled corn fed

into the sheller per unit of time,
known as:
47.Which of the following is formula in
a. feed rate
mechanically damaged kernel?
b. Foreign matter
c. Output capacity
d. Primemover

42.Which of the following is TRUE

definition of Primemover?
a. electric motor, a gasoline or diesel
fed engine used to run the sheller
b. wire mesh or perforated sheet
metal used to separate large
and/or small particles
c. weight of shelled kernel collected
per unit of time 48.Which of the following is formula in
d. all matters other than corn kernels cracked kernel?
such as sand, gravel, dirt, pebbles,
stones, lumps of earth,clay and
mud, weed seeds and other crop
seeds

43.The specifications claimed by the

manufacturer and the physical 49.The air velocity generated by the
details given in Annex C shall be fan, with or without load, shall be
verified by the official testing taken using an air velocity meter
agency. A stable and level surface measured in m/s.
shall be used as reference plane for a. False
verification of dimensional machine b. True
specifications. c. Partially False
a. True d. None of the above.
b. False
c. Partially True 50.Record sheet for all data and
d. None of the above. information during the test is given
in Annex F.

Postharvest Machinery|13
 a. True
b. False
c. Partially True
d. Partially False

ANSWER KEY (PAES 208:2000 – PAES

209:2000)
1. B
2. A
3. B
4. C
5. B
6. B
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. A
12. B
13. C
14. D
15. A
16. A
17. D
18. C
19. D
20. B
21. C
22. C
23. A
24. A
25. A
26. B
27. C
28. D
29. A
30. B
31. D
32. A
33. B
34. C
35. A
36. B
37. A
38. B
39. B
40. C
41. A
42. A
43. A
44. A
45. C
46. A
47. A
48. A
49. B
50. B

Postharvest Machinery|14
 PAES 214:2004
1. What is the purpose of PAES 214:
2004 standard?
a) To specify the requirements for
rubber rolls in rice mills.
b) Establish guidelines for rubber
roll.
c) Defines the physical properties
of rubber rolls.
d) To determine the size of rubber
rolls.
e) To regulate the use of rubber
rolls in rice mills.

2. What is a metal drum core?

a) A cylinder where rubber is
bonded.
b) A component of rice mill made
of rubber.
c) The depth of rubber bonded on
the metal drum core.
d) The longitudinal dimension of a
roll.
e) The specific gravity of rubber.

3. What is a rubber roll?

a) A cylinder where rubber is
bonded.
b) A component of rice mill made
PAES 214-215:2004 of rubber.
Rubber Roll for Rice Mill-Specifications c) The depth of rubber bonded on
and Methods of Test the metal drum core.
d) The longitudinal dimension of a
roll.
e) The specific gravity of rubber.

4. How is the size of a rubber roll

specified?
a) By the width, outside diameter,
and core diameter.
b) By the thickness, hardness, and
tensile stress.
c) By the modulus of elasticity and
specific gravity.
d) By the type of rubber used and
material of construction.
e) By the heating test and
maximum hardness drop.

5. What materials can be used in the

manufacture of rubber rolls?
a) Natural or synthetic rubber
only.
b) Steel or aluminum drum core
only.
c) Cast-iron drum core only.
d) Natural or synthetic rubber with
steel/aluminum or cast-iron
drum core.

Postharvest Machinery|15
 e) Press-cured rubber mixes with 13.What is the minimum thickness of
steel/aluminum or cast-iron the iron sheet for the drum core?
drum core. a) 0.2 mm
b) 0.6 mm
6. What is the minimum thickness of c) 1.0 mm
the rubber? d) AOT
a) 5 mm e) NOT
b) 10 mm
c) 15 mm 14.Which of the following is a
d) 20 mm requirement for the rubber
e) 25 mm thickness?
a) Non-uniform and asymmetrical
7. What is the range of rubber b) Varying thickness
hardness for elastomers? c) Uniform and symmetrical
a) 50 shore to 60 shore d) Thin on one side, thick on the
b) 70 shore to 80 shore other
c) 80 shore to 90 shore e) Uniform Only
d) 90 shore to 100 shore
e) 100 shore to 110 shore 15.How should the rubber be bonded
to the metal drum core?
8. What is the rubber hardness for a) Loosely
press-cured rubber mixes? b) Adhesive-free
a) 70 shore c) Firmly
b) 75 shore d) Partially
c) 80 shore e) Can not be bonded at all
d) 85 shore
e) 90 shore 16.What should be the fit between the
hole diameter of the metal drum core
9. What is the minimum value of and the bolts holding the rubber roll?
hardness when the rubber is a) Tight fit
subjected to a heating test? b) Loose fit
a) 50 shore c) Just Fit
b) 60 shore d) No fit required
c) 70 shore e) Snug Fit
d) 80 shore
e) 90 shore 17.What defects should the rubber roll
10.What is the maximum hardness be free from?
drop allowed during the heating a) Surface roughness and holes
test? b) Smooth surface
a) 5 shore c) Color variations
b) 10 shore d) Excessive thickness
c) 15 shore e) Holes
d) 20 shore
e) 25 shore 18.What balance should the rubber roll
have?
11.What is the specific gravity of the a) Static balance
rubber? b) Unbalanced
a) 0.8 to 0.9 c) No balance required
b) 1.0 to 1.1 d) Dynamic balance
c) 1.1 to 1.2 e) AOT
d) 1.2 to 1.3
e) 1.3 to 1.4 19.What is the minimum hulling
efficiency of rubber roll when tested
12.The rubber roll is classified as: in accordance with PAES 215??
a) Off - centered a) 50%
b) Centered b) 60%
c) On - centered c) 70%
d) AOT d) 80%
e) Both A and B e) 90%

Postharvest Machinery|16
 20.What should be the maximum broken 6. C
brown rice content for the rubber 7. C
roll? 8. D
a) 5% 9. C
b) 7% 10.B
c) 10% 11.D
d) 8% 12.E
e) 7.5% 13.C
14.C
21.How much brown rice should be 15.C
processed for every 2 g reduction in 16.E
weight of the rubber roll? 17.A
a) 40 kg 18.D
b) 50 kg 19.D
c) 60 kg 20.B
d) 70 kg 21.C
e) 80 kg 22.B
22.What standard should be followed 23.D
for testing the sampled rubber 24.E
rolls? 25.A
a) PAES 103
b) PAES 215 PAES 215:2004
c) PAES 106 1. Dehulled palay (husk/hull
d) PAES 214 removed) with the bran layer still
e) PAES 102 intact.
a) Regular milled rice
23.What information should be b) Overmilled rice
marked on the packaging of c) Undermilled rice
rebonded rubber rolls? d) Brown rice
a) Name and Address of the e) NOT
Company
b) Date Rebonded 2. Grains that break in the process of
c) No markings required dehulling which have a size of less
d) Both A and B than eight-tenth (8/10) of the
e) NOT average length of whole grain.
a) Broken brown rice
24.What should be marked on the b) Overmilled rice
rubber roll if it is originally c) Undermilled rice
manufactured? d) Brewers rice
a) Registered Trademark of the e) Whole brown rice
manufacturer
b) Serial Number 3. Grain which show signs of fissures
c) Size or fractures or splinters.
d) Type a) Broken grains
e) AOT b) Immature grain
c) Cracked grain
25.What marking should be used if d) Mechanically damaged grain
the rubber roll is manufactured in e) Damaged grain
the Philippines?
a) "Made in the Philippines" 4. Outermost rough covering of the
b) "Imported from the Philippines" palay grain (palea and lemma)
c) No marking required. consisting of the empty glumes,
d) "In the Philippines" floral glumes, and awn.
e) AOT a) Bran
b) Endosperm
ANSWER KEY (PAES 214:2004) c) Husk
1. A d) Germ
2. A e) NOT
3. B
4. A 5. Measure of the ability of the
5. D machine to remove the hulls.

Postharvest Machinery|17
 a) Coefficient of hulling percentage of the total weight of
b) Coefficient of wholeness the sample.
c) Coefficient head rice a) Broken grains
d) Coefficient undermilled b) Immature grain
e) Coefficient of Brown Rice c) Purity
6. Measure the ability of the huller to d) Damaged grain
remove the hull without breaking e) Cracked grain
the grain.
a) Coefficient of hulling 13.Grain or a fraction of grain with its
b) Coefficient of wholeness length equal to or greater than
c) Coefficient head rice eighth-tenth (8/10) of the average
d) Coefficient undermilled length of the whole grain
e) Coefficient of Brown Rice a) Broken brown rice
b) Overmilled rice
7. Quantity of paddy that the huller c) Undermilled rice
can dehulled per total hulling d) Brewers rice
time, expressed in kilogram per e) Whole brown rice
hour.
a) Moisture Content 14.Rubber roll on test shall be
b) Hulling Efficiency sampled in accordance with PAES
c) Hulling Capacity 103. True or False
d) AOT a) True
e) NOT b) False
c) in accordance with PAES 215
8. Product of the coefficient of d) AOT
hulling and coefficient of e) NOT
wholeness, expressed in
percentage. 15.Paddy whose average length of
a) Moisture Content the full brown rice grain is above
b) Hulling Efficiency 6.5 millimeters.
c) Hulling Capacity a) Short grains
d) AOT b) Slender grains
e) NOT c) Medium grains
d) Whole grains
9. Amount of moisture in the grain e) Long grains
expressed as percentage of the
total weight of the sample, wet 16.Paddy with whole milled rice grain
basis. having length/width ratio over 3.0.
a) Moisture content wet basis a) Short grains
b) Moisture content dry basis b) Slender grains
c) Moisture content c) Medium grains
d) AOT d) Whole grains
e) NOT e) Long grains

10.What is the scientific name of 17.What should the test engineer do

paddy. if during the test run, the rubber
a) Oryza sativa roll fails due to manufacturing
b) Triticum aestivum defects such as loosely bonded
c) Avenue sativa rubber, flaking of the rubber,
d) Zea mays vibration due to the imbalance of
e) AOT the rubber roll.
11.Paddy which are light green and a) Continue the test.
chalky with soft texture b) Rest for an hour then continue
a) Broken grains the test.
b) Immature grain c) Terminate the Test
c) Cracked grain d) No test needed.
d) Mechanically damaged grain e) NOT
e) Damaged grain
18.Three test trials shall be
12.Amount of rice grains free of conducted with minimum duration
foreign matter expressed as of how many hours per trial?
Postharvest Machinery|18
 a) 5 hours per trial and hulling efficiency of the
b) 4 hours per trial huller?
c) 3 hours per trial a) 0.905
d) 2 hours per trial b) 0.505
e) 1 hour per trial c) 0.605
d) 0.805
19.This test shall be conducted using e) 0.405
a Durometer Hardness Tester or
any similar testing instrument. 24.What is the wholeness coefficient
a) Dynamic Test in problem 23?
b) Heating Test a) 0.90
c) Static test b) 0.80
d) Hardness Test c) 0.70
e) Performance Test d) 0.60
e) 0.50
20.This is carried out to obtain actual
data on rubber roll performance, 25.What is the hulling efficiency of
operating accuracy, work quality, the huller in problem 23?
and adaptability to various paddy a) 74.45%
varieties for at least 2 h of b) 73.45%
continuous operation or until there c) 72.45%
is a 50 % reduction in the d) 71.45%
thickness of the rubber roll on e) 70.45%
test.
a) Dynamic Test
b) Heating Test ANSWER KEY (PAES 215:2004)
c) Static test 1. D
d) Hardness Test 2. A
e) Performance Test 3. C
4. C
21.If 20 kg of water is to be removed 5. A
from 110kg of paddy, what is the 6. B
percentage moisture content of 7. C
paddy in wet basis? 8. B
a) 1.8% 9. C
b) 18% 10.A
c) 2.2% 11.B
d) 22% 12.C
e) NOT 13.E
14.A
22.A product expressed in dry basis 15.E
has a percentage moisture 16.B
content of 25%, what is the 17.C
percentage moisture content of 18.E
the product in wet basis? 19.D
a) 20% 20.E
b) 23% 21.B
c) 26% 22.A
d) 24% 23.D
e) 21% 24.A
25.C
23.A rubber-roll husker was tested to PROBLEM SOLVING SOLUTIONS:
determine its performance. The
husker ran for 2 hours at a rate at 21. If 20 kg of water is to be removed
1000 kg of input paddy. The from 110kg of paddy, what is the
weight of brown rice obtained percentage moisture content of paddy in
after passing the husker was 805 wet basis?
kg. The weight of whole brown rice
obtain per kg of sample was 900 GIVEN: Mass Weight of water removed
grams. What is the hulling (Wm) = 20 kg
coefficient, wholeness coefficient, Initial Weight (Wi) = 110 kg

Postharvest Machinery|19
 GIVEN:
REQUIRED:%Moisture Content Wet Basis Weight of paddy = 1000 kg
(%MCw) Operating Time = 2 hrs.
Weight Brown Rice = 805 kg
SOLUTION: Weight of whole brown rice = 900
W i−W f 20 g per kg of brown rice
%MCw = × 100 = × 100
Wi 110
REQUIRED:Wholeness Coefficient
=18%
SOLUTION:
W wbr × W br
22. A product expressed in dry basis has Cw =
W br
a percentage moisture content of 25%,
what is the percentage moisture content
of the product in wet basis?
= (900 g × 1000
1 kg
g)
×805 kg
GIVEN: 805 kg
%Moisture Content Dry Basis
(%MCD) = 0.90
REQUIRED: %Moisture Content Wet Basis
(%MCw) 24. What is the wholeness coefficient in
problem 23?
SOLUTION:
%MC D × 100 GIVEN:
25× 100 Weight of paddy = 1000 kg
%MCw = =
%MC D +100 25+100 Operating Time = 2 hrs.
=20% Weight Brown Rice = 805 kg
Weight of whole brown rice = 900
23. A rubber-roll husker was tested to
g per kg of brown rice
determine its performance. The husker
ran for 2 hours at a rate at 1000 kg of
REQUIRED: Wholeness Coefficient
input paddy. The weight of brown rice
obtained after passing the husker was
SOLUTION:
805 kg. The weight of whole brown rice
Hulling Efficiency = Ch ×Cw ×100 =
obtain per kg of sample was 900 grams.
(0.805×90) ×100
What is the hulling coefficient, wholeness
coefficient, and hulling efficiency of the
huller? Hulling Efficiency = 72.45 %

GIVEN:
Weight of paddy = 1000 kg
Operating Time = 2 hrs.
Weight Brown Rice = 805 kg
Weight of whole brown rice = 900
g per kg of brown rice

REQUIRED:
Hulling Coefficient

SOLUTION:
W br
Ch =
Wp

805 kg
=
1000 kg

= 0.805

24. What is the wholeness coefficient in

problem 23?

Postharvest Machinery|20
 PAES 216-217:2004
1. This standard specifies the
requirements for construction
and performance of hammer
mill used for milling grains and
other agricultural products.
a. PAES 115:2005
b. PAES 116:2004
c. PAES 117:2008
d. PAES 118:2006
e. PAES 119:2004

2. This standard has been

technically prepared in
accordance with – Rules for the
Structure and Drafting of
International Standards.
a. BPS Directives Part 2:2003
b. BPS Directives Part 3:2004
c. BPS Directives Part 3:2003
d. BPS Directives Part 2:2004
e. All of the above

3. A device used for grinding which

is a result of the impact between
the particles and hammers,
which are mounted on a shaft
rotating along a horizontal axis.
a. Grinding mechanism
b. Grinding
PAES 216-217:2004 c. Hammer mill
Hammer Mill-Specifications and d. None of the above
Methods of Test 4. Hubs and spacing collars shall
and
faces to afford a tight fit and to
eliminate the formation of
shoulders.
a. not have matching
diameters
b. have matching diameters
c. neither have matching
diameters
d. not specified
e. none of the above
5. Refer as a classification system
that indicates the uniformity of
grind in the resultant product
and is defined as the sum of
the weight fractions retained
above each sieve divided by
100
a. fineness modulus
b. modulus
c. hammer modulus
d. hammer mill modulus
e. none of the above
6. Fineness modulus for
classifying ground feeds for Ear
corn in medium grind
a. 4.80
b. 1.80
c. 2.40
d. 3.60
e. all of the above

Postharvest Machinery|21
7. Hammers and perforated screen c. Swinging -Fixed type
shall d. All of the above
a. be accessible e. none of the above
b. be replaceable 13. distance between the horizontal
c. be accessible and supporting surface and the
replaceable horizontal plane touching the
d. be durable uppermost part of the hammer
e. None of the above mill.

8. there shall be provision to a. Fixed type

prevent _________ material from b. Swinging type
entering the milling chamber. c. Swinging -Fixed type
a. Steel d. All of the above
b. Carbon e. none of the above
c. Metallic
d. Plastic 14. Hammers shall be made of .
e. AOTA a. AISI 1008 to AISI 1805
9. ratio of the average size of input b. AISI 1800 to AISI 1805
to the average size of the c. AISI 1080 to AISI 1850
product d. AISI 1080 to AISI 1085
a. reduction ratio e. AISI 1800 to AISI 1085
b. hammer mill ratio
c. modulud ratio 15. The hammer mill should be used
d. motor ratio for the desired product having a
e. none of the above reduction ratio of
10. The noise emitted by the a. at least 52:1
hammer mill shall not be b. at least 51:1
a. more than 92 db c. at least 53:1
b. more than 96 db d. at least 50:1
c. less than 92 db e. all of the above
d. less than 96 db 16. Warranty against defective
e. all of the above materials and workmanship shall
11. the hammer mill shall be be provided for parts and
sampled for testing in services except for normal wear
accordance with _________. and tear of consumable
a. PAES 101 maintenance parts such as belts
b. PAES 102 within _______ from the purchase
c. PAES 103 of the hammer mill.
d. PAES 104 a. six months
e. AOTA b. three months
12. Classification as what type of c. one year
d. eight months
e. all of the above

17. An operator’s manual, which

conforms to, shall be provided.
a. PAES 101
b. PAES 102
c. PAES 103
d. PAES 104
hammer mill is shown below. e. PAES 105
18. What is the publication year of
a. Fixed type PAES 216?
b. Swinging type a. 2001
b. 2008
c. 2010
d. 2004
e. 2006

Postharvest Machinery|22
19. What organization initiated the manufacturer, brand,
formulation of Hammer Mill – model, Holding capacity,
Specifications?. Materials of construction,
a. Department of Agriculture Power requirement,
b. Agricultural Machinery Name and address of the
Testing and Evaluation manufacturer, Name and
Center (AMTEC) address of the importer,
c. Department of Science Country of manufacture
and Technology (DOST)
d. Philippine Council for Safety/precautionary
Agriculture, Forestry and markings
Natural Resources c. trademark of the
Research and manufacturer, brand,
Development (PCARRD) model, Input capacity,
e. All of the above Materials of construction,
Power requirement,
20. Bolts and screws to be used Name and address of the
shall conform with the manufacturer, Name and
requirements of address of the
a. PAES 131 and PAES 313 importer,
b. PAES 311 and PAES 133 Safety/precautionary
c. PAES 113 and PAES 331 markings
d. PAES 311 and PAES 313

21. The hammer mill when tested d. trademark of the

in accordance with __________ manufacturer, brand,
a. PAES 216 model, Serial number,
b. PAES 217
Input capacity, Power
c. PAES 218 requirement, Name and
d. PAES 219 address of the
e. PAES 220 manufacturer, Name and
22. The construction shall be rigid address of the importer,
and durable without Country of
breakdown of its major manufacture,
components (i.e. milling Safety/precautionary
assembly, etc) for from markings
purchase by the first buyer. e. all of the above
a. at least six months
24. The markings shall be weather
b. at least three months resistant and under normal
c. at least one year cleaning procedures, it
shall
d. at least nine months
e. All of the above
23. Each hammer mill shall be a. fade, discolor, crack or
marked in English with the blister and shall remain
following information using a legible.
stencil or by directly punching b. not fade, discolor, crack
or blister and shall remain
it in a plate and shall be
legible.
positioned at the most
conspicuous place: c. not fade, discolor, crack
a. trademark of the but blister and shall
manufacturer, brand, remain legible.
model, Holding capacity, d. fade, discolor, neither
Materials of construction, crack or blister and shall
Power requirement, remain legible.
Name and address of the e. all of the above
manufacturer, Name and 25. Allowable noise level for
address of the
importer, based on Occupational Safety
Safety/precautionary and Health Standards, Ministry
markings of Labor, Philippines. 1983.
b. trademark of the a. Six (6) hours of continuous

Postharvest Machinery|23
 exposure d. input capacity
b. two (2) hours of e. holding capacity
continuous exposure
c. four (4) hours of 32. distance between the
continuous exposure horizontal supporting surface
and the horizontal plane
d. one (1) hour of continuous
exposure touching the uppermost part
e. e. None of the above of the hammer mill.
26. The quantity of input materials a. overall length
that the hammer mill can b. output capacity
process to produce milled c. overall height
materials per unit of time, d. holding capacity
expressed in kilogram per hour e. milling capacity
a. overall length 33. electric motor, or internal
b. output capacity combustion engine used to run
c. overall height the hammer mill.
a. hammer mill shaker
d. milling capacity
b. grindometer
e. holding capacity c. laboratory sieve shaker
27. This standard specifies the d. prime mover
methods of test for hammer mill e. all of the above
a. PAES 115:2005 34. amount of input materials free
b. PAES 116:2007 of foreign matter expressed as
c. PAES 117:2004 percentage of the total weight
d. PAES 118:2006 of the sample
e. PAES 114:2004 a. compost
28. All matters other than input b. purities
c. discharge
materials such as sand, gravel, d. Products
dirt, pebbles, stones, metal e. All of the above
fillings, lumps of earth, clay, 35. preliminary operation of the
mud, chaff, straw, weed seeds machine to make various
and other crop seeds adjustments prior to the
a. Compost
b. impurities
conduct of test until the
c. discharge operation is stable
d. Products a. running-in period
e. All of the above b. running-out period
29. Is the weight of the milled c. running-both period
materials collected, expressed d. all of the above
in kilogram per hour e. none of the above
a. overall length
36. The amount of test material to
be supplied shall be
b. output capacity
of input capacity of the
c. overall height hammer mill
d. milling capacity a. Greater than 75 %
e. holding capacity b. Not be at least 75 %
30. refers to theequipment with c. at least 75 %
definite shaking motion used
d. all of the above
to sort size of the milled e. none of the above
materials using standard 37. How many test trials, each
screen sieves
a. hammer mill shaker
lasting at least 15 minutes,
b. grindometer does PAES 217:2004
c. laboratory sieve shaker recommend?
d. prime mover a. one
e. all of the above
b. two
31. Is the weight of input materials
c. three
per unit loading time into the
hopper/intake pit, expressed in d. four

kilogram per hour . e. five

a. overall length 38. Dry the sample in the oven

a. 𝟏𝟎𝟑℃ ± 𝟏℃ 𝒇𝒐𝒓 𝟕𝟐
b. output capacity with temperature of
𝒉𝒐𝒖𝒓𝒔
b. 102℃ ± 1℃ 𝑓𝑜𝑟 72
c. overall height

ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠

Postharvest Machinery|24
 103℃ ± 2℃ 𝑓𝑜𝑟 72
ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠
The speed of the rotating
d. 102℃ ± 2℃ 𝑓𝑜𝑟 72
c. 44.

ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠
shafts of the major components

e. 101℃ ± 2℃ 𝑓𝑜𝑟 72
of the hammer mill shall be
ℎ𝑜𝑢𝑟𝑠
taken using a .
a. Anemometer
39. What formula is used to calculate
b. Speedometer
the milling capacity based on
c. Tachometer
PAES 217:2004
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
45. What formula is used to
calculate the Fineness Modulus

a. 𝑭𝑴 =
based on PAES 𝜮𝑵217:2004?

��
�
���
b. 𝐹𝑀
40. Is distance between the
𝛴𝑀
horizontal supporting surface =
and the horizontal plane
c. 𝐹𝑀
touching the uppermost part of 100
the hammer mill 𝛴𝐹
=
a. overall length
100
b. output capacity d. All of the above
c. overall height e. None of the above
d. input capacity 46. What formula is used to
e. overall height calculate the Particle Size
is distance between the vertical Diameter of ground product

a. 𝐷 = 0.0042(2
41.
based on PAES 217:2004?
𝐹.𝑀

b. 𝐷 = 0.0042(1
planes parallel to the median
𝐹.𝑀
)
c. 𝐷 = 0.00041(2
plane of the hammer mill, each
𝐹.𝑀
)
d. 𝑫 = 𝟎. 𝟎𝟎𝟒𝟏(𝟐
𝑭.𝑴
plane touching the outermost )
point of the hammer mill on its )
e. All of the abpve
respective side 47. What is the role of
a. overall width
manufacturer/dealer?
b. output capacity
a. shall submit specifications
c. overall height
b. Shall submit other
d. input capacity
e. overall height
relevant information
about the hammer mill
c. shall abide with the
terms and conditions set
forth by an official
42. According to PAES 217:2004, testing agency.
d. none of the above
the maximum moisture
e. all of the above
content shall be
a. 12 % 48. According to PAES 217:2004,
b. 14 % the Purity content shall be
c. 20 % minimum.
d. 25 % a. 96 %
e. 32 % b. 98%
c. 95 %
43. The noise emitted by the
d. 100 %
machine shall be measured
e. 94%
using a noise level meter at the
location of the operators and 49. What formula is used to
baggers. The noise level shall calculate the Product Recovery
be measured approximately based on PAES 217:2004?
away from the ear level of the
operators and baggers.
a. 45 mm
b. 30 mm
c. 55 mm
d. 50 mm
50. This inspection is carried out
e. 35 mm
to verify the mechanism,
Postharvest Machinery|25
 dimensions, materials and 48.B
accessories of the hammer 49.C
mill in comparison with the list 50.A
of manufacturer’s technical
data and information.
a. true
b. partly true
c. false
d. no correct response
e. none of the above

ANSWER KEY (PAES 216-217:2004)

1. B
2. C
3. C
4. B
5. A
6. D
7. C
8. C
9. A
10.B
11.C
12.B
13.A
14.D
15.D
16.A
17.B
18.D
19.B
20.D
21.B
22.A
23.D
24.B
25.C
26.D
27.C
28.B
29.B
30.C
31.D
32.A
33.D
34.B
35.A
36.C
37.C
38.A
39.C
40.E
41.A
42.B
43.D
44.C
45.A
46.D
47.E

Postharvest Machinery|26
 PAES 218-219:2004
1. Sampled forage chopper shall be
tested in accordance with what
PAES?
a. PAES 220
b. PAES 217
c. PAES 219
d. PAES 216
e. PAES 218
2. Type of forage chopper where the
chopped materials are blown up
through the blow-up pipe.
a. blow-up type
b. blow-down type
c. blown-up type
d. blown-down type
e. blow-type
3. Devices intended to cut the crop
into short lengths with reasonable
consistency within a range.
a. rotor
b. cut rotor
c. cropperhead
d. cutterhead
e. cutter
4. Knives on cylindrical mountings
such that the cutting edges of the
knives are essentially parallel to
the axis of rotation.
PAES 218-219:2004 a. cylindrical cutter
Forage Chopper -Specifications and b. cylinder cutterhead
Methods of Test c. cylinderhead
d. cylinder
e. cutter
5. Knives mounted essentially
radially with the cutting edges
describing a plane perpendicular
to the axis of rotation.
a. fylwheel cutterhead
b. cylinder cutterhead
c. flywheelhead
d. cylinder
e. cutter
6. Cylindrical roll generally with
protrusions or flutes, used to
gather, compress and advance the
crop into the cutterhead.
a. feedroll
b. cylinder cutterhead
c. cylinderhead
d. cylinder
e. cutter
7. Machine used to cut the crop into
short parallel lengths.
a. feedroll
b. cylinder cutterhead
c. forage chopper
d. cylinder
e. cutter

Postharvest Machinery|27
8. Type of forage chopper where the d. semi-random-cut forage
chopped materials are dropped chopper
down to the bottom of machine. e. cut forage chopper
a. downfall type 13.This type of forage chopper
b. let-fall type usually produces the longest
c. drop type mean particle lengths, and the
d. fall type least uniformly cut particles.
e. dropped-down type a. random-cut forage
9. Forage chopper which uses a chopper
feeding mechanism consisting of b. precision-cut forage
four or more feed rolls to partially chopper
orient and advance the crop at a c. semi-precision-cut forage
consistent rate into the cutting chopper
mechanism. d. semi-random-cut forage
a. random-cut forage chopper
chopper e. cut forage chopper
b. precision-cut forage 14.Fixed plate providing a stationary
chopper edge against which the cutterhead
c. semi-precision-cut forage knives shear the crop.
chopper a. cutter
d. semi-random-cut forage b. static plate
chopper c. cutterhead knife
e. cut forage chopper d. static knife
10.Forage chopper without a distinct e. stationary knife
feeding mechanism, usually 15.Type of forage chopper where the
employing flails to impact-cut and chopped materials are thrown
chop crop directly into shorter away to the front area of the
pieces. machine.
a. random-cut forage a. throw-away type
chopper b. thrown-away type
b. precision-cut forage c. throw type
chopper d. thrown type
c. semi-precision-cut forage e. away type
chopper 16.Knives shall be made of ______ to
d. semi-random-cut forage _______ or its ISO equivalent.
chopper a. AISI 1060 to AISI 1065
e. cut forage chopper b. AISI 1070 to AISI 1075
11.Forage chopper which uses a c. AISI 1080 to AISI 1085
feeding mechanism consisting of d. AISI 1090 to AISI 1095
two feed rolls, or other means e. AISI 1100 to AISI 1105
such as an auger, to advance the 17.Precision-cut and semi-precision
crop to the cutting mechanism. cut forage chopper shall be able to
a. random-cut forage cut at least three different length
chopper settings with ___ maximum
b. precision-cut forage variation of cut.
chopper a. 2%
c. semi-precision-cut forage b. 3%
chopper c. 4%
d. semi-random-cut forage d. 5%
chopper e. 6%
e. cut forage chopper 18.The noise emitted by the forage
12.This type of forage chopper is chopper shall not be more than
capable of producing the shortest ____.
and most uniformly cut particles. a. 92 db
a. random-cut forage b. 94 db
chopper c. 96 db
b. precision-cut forage d. 97 db
chopper e. 98 db
c. semi-precision-cut forage 19.The forage chopper shall be
chopper sampled for testing in accordance
with PAES?
Postharvest Machinery|28
 a. PAES 101 b. chopping efficiency
b. PAES 102 c. fresh chopping efficiency
c. PAES 103 d. chopped efficiency
d. PAES 104 e. chopping materials
e. PAES 105 efficiency
20.Each forage chopper shall be 27.This shall be taken using oven-dry
marked in _______ with the method.
following information using a a. pressure
stencil or by directly punching it in b. humidity
a plate and shall be positioned at c. moisture content
the most conspicuous place. d. temperature
a. English e. drying
b. Filipino 28.Electric motor or internal
c. Latin combustion engine used to run
d. Greek the forage chopper
e. English and Filipino a. prime mover
21.Marking shall be stated in b. prime remover
____________ and shall be printed in c. sparkplug
red color with a white background. d. piston
a. English e. crank
b. Filipino 29.Preliminary operation of the
c. Latin machine to make various
d. Greek adjustments prior to the conduct
e. Engish and Filipino of test until the operation is
22.The unit used for power stable.
requirement of forage chopper. a. running period
a. kg-m/s b. running -in period
b. Joules c. running -out period
c. kW d. run period
d. Watts e. operation period
e. hp 30.Distance between the vertical
23.An operator’s manual, which planes parallel to the median
conforms to ______, shall be plane of the machine, each plane
provided. touching the outermost point of
a. PAES 101 the forage chopper on its
b. PAES 102 respective side.
c. PAES 103 a. overall length
d. PAES 104 b. overall height
e. PAES 105 c. overall base
24.For random fed forage chopper, d. overall width
the length of the feeding table e. overall area
shall not be ______ the arm length. 31.Distance between the vertical
a. less than planes at the right angles to the
b. more than median plane of the forage
c. equal to chopper and touching its front and
d. twice rear extremities.
e. thrice a. overall length
25.Bolts and screws to be used shall b. overall height
conform with the requirements of c. overall base
PAES 311 and PAES 313. d. overall width
a. PAES 311 and PAES 313 e. overall area
b. PAES 313 and PAES 315 32.Distance between the horizontal
c. PAES 315 and PAES 317 supporting surface and the
d. PAES 317 and PAES 319 horizontal plane touching the
e. PAES 319 and PAES 321 uppermost part of the forage
26.Ratio of the weight of the fresh chopper.
chopped materials collected at all a. overall length
outlets, to the total fresh weight of b. overall height
the input of the chopper, c. overall base
expressed in percent. d. overall width
a. chopper efficiency e. overall area
Postharvest Machinery|29
33.Weight of processed material b. 45 mm
collected per unit time, expressed c. 50 mm
in kilogram per hour. d. 55 mm
a. input capacity e. 60 mm
b. output capacity 41.What device is used in
c. material capacity determining the speed of the
d. processing capacity rotating shafts of the major
e. capacity components of the forage
34.Part of the forage chopper where chopper?
the forage to be chopped are a. speedometer
loaded. b. tachometer
a. forage c. rotameter
b. roller d. chopper meter
c. top cover e. shaftmeter
d. feeding table 42.The conditions of the test
e. feedroll materials such as length of forage
35.Any crop used as silage, soilage or crop shall be measured by
animal feed, usually mixed with randomly taking ___
fermenting agents. “representative samples” which
a. forage represents the different conditions
b. roller of test materials in the bulk.
c. top cover a. 10
d. feeding table b. 15
e. feedroll c. 20
36.Forage chopper submitted for test d. 25
shall be sampled in accordance e. 30
with ________. 43.In the quality of products, how
a. PAES 103 many grams of each test trial are
b. PAES 104 sampled?
c. PAES 105 a. 100 grams
d. PAES 106 b. 150 grams
e. PAES 107 c. 200 grams
37.The amount of test material to be d. 250 grams
supplied shall be at least ____ of e. 300 grams
input capacity of forage chopper. 44.Before the start of each test trial,
a. 71 % the fuel tank shall be filled to its
b. 72 % capacity. After each test trial the
c. 73 % tank shall be refilled using
d. 74 % ___________.
e. 75 % a. graduated cylinder
38.This is carried out to obtain actual b. tank container
data on overall machine c. tank filter
performance. d. fuel container
a. machine checking e. container
b. test and inspection 45.When filling up the tank, the
c. performace test orientation of the tank should be
d. quality checking __________ so it would not to leave
e. operation test empty space in the tank.
39.In the test trial, a minimum of ____ a. vertical
test trials, with duration of at least b. horizontal
15 minutes per trial is done. c. inclined
a. three d. parallel
b. four e. perpendicular
c. two 46.In case an electric motor is used
d. five primemover, what device is used
e. four or five to measure electric energy
40.The noise level shall be measured consumption?
approximately _____ away from a. electric meter
the ear level of the feeder and b. power meter
collector of the chopped materials. c. energy meter
a. 40 mm d. motor meter
Postharvest Machinery|30
 e. meter
47.It is made to determine moisture
content, accuracy and precision of
cut of the chopper ANSWER KEY (PAES 218-219:2004)
a. critical test 1. C
b. laboratory test 2. A
c. critical analysis 3. D
d. laboratory analysis 4. B
e. testing and analysis 5. A
48.After removing the samples from 6. A
the oven, the moisture can with 7. C
the sample should be placed in a 8. B
_______ and allowed to cool to the 9. B
ambient temperature. 10.A
a. deciccator 11.C
b. diseccator 12.B
c. desiccator 13.A
d. diceccator 14.E
e. dessicator 15.A
49.The manufacturer shall submit 16.C
specifications and other relevant 17.D
information about the forage 18.C
chopper and shall abide with the 19.C
terms and conditions set forth by 20.A
an official testing agency. 21.E
a. Role of manufacturer 22.C
b. Role of dealer 23.B
c. Role of 24.A
manufacturer/dealer 25.A
d. Role of the 26.B
representative of the 27.C
manufacturer/dealer 28.A
e. Role of the 29.B
representative 30.D
50.An officially designated 31.A
representative of the 32.B
manufacturer shall operate, 33.B
adjust, repair, and 34.D
shall decide on matters related to 35.A
the operation of the machine. 36.A
a. Role of manufacturer 37.E
b. Role of dealer 38.C
c. Role of 39.A
manufacturer/dealer 40.C
d. Role of the 41.B
representative of the 42.C
manufacturer/dealer 43.D
e. Role of the 44.A
representative 45.B
46.B
47.D
48.C
49.C
50.D

Postharvest Machinery|31
 PAES 220-221:2004
Peanut Sheller -Specifications and
Methods of Test

Postharvest Machinery|32
PAES 220-221:2004 d. Ratio of kernels that come out
1. A machine used to remove kernels of the shelling cylinder with the
from the shell by breaking/ splitting shell to total input.
the pods. e. Ratio of unshelled kernels to
a. Power-operated Corn Sheller shelled kernels.
b. Corn Combine Harvester 7. Defined as the unbroken shell with
c. Peanut Sheller kernel inside.
d. Biomass Shredder a. Purity
e. NOT b. Pod
2. Which component of the peanut c. Kernel
sheller specifically refers to the outlet d. Damaged Kernel
where the shelled kernels move out e. Shell
of the machine? 8. Wholly or partially broken and insect-
a. Blower Loss damaged kernel.
b. Damaged Kernel a. Pod
c. Kernel b. Damaged Kernel
d. Main Kernel Outlet c. Kernel
e. Peanut Sheller d. Shell
3. This standard specifies the e. Purity
requirements for construction and 9. Define shelling recovery in peanut
performance of power-operated shelling.
peanut sheller. a. Ratio of clean kernel collected
a. PNS/BAFS PAES 220: 2003 from blower loss to total input.
b. PNS/BAFS PAES 221: 2003 b. Ratio of shelled kernels
c. PNS/BAFS PAES 220: 2004 received at all outlets to total
d. PNS/BAFS PAES 221: 2004 input.
e. PNS/BAFS PAES 221: 2002 c. Ratio of kernels that come out
4. This standard specifies the methods of the shelling cylinder with the
of test and inspection for power- shell to total input.
operated peanut shellers. d. Ratio of shelled kernels
a. PNS/BAFS PAES 221: 2004 received at the main kernel
b. PNS/BAFS PAES 221: 2003 outlet to total input.
c. PNS/BAFS PAES 220: 2003 e. Ratio of shelled kernels
d. PNS/BAFS PAES 220: 2004 received at all outlets to total
e. PNS/BAFS PAES 103: 2000 input.
5. What is the recommended noise
emitted by the peanut sheller 10.Ratio of the weight of kernels that
measured 50 mm away from the remained in the pods collected from
operator’s ear level? all outlets to the weight of the total
a. Shall be lesser than 92 db (A) kernel input of the sheller, expressed
b. Shall not be more than 92 db in percent.
(A) a. Shelling efficiency
c. Shall more than 92 db (A) b. Scattering Loss
d. Shall be exactly 92 db (A) c. Unshelled Loss
e. NOT d. Blower Loss
6. How is separation loss defined in e. NOT
peanut shelling? 11.Ratio of the weight of the shelled
a. Ratio of the weight of kernels kernel collected at all outlets to the
that remain in the shell after total kernel input of the sheller.
feeding. a. Shelling efficiency
b. Ratio of clean kernels collected b. Scattering Loss
from the blower loss to total c. Unshelled Loss
input. d. Blower Loss
c. Ratio of shelled kernels e. NOT
received at all outlets to total
input.

Postharvest Machinery|33
12.Ratio of the weight of kernels blown c. Markings should be weather-
by the sheller fan to the weight of the resistant but can fade under
total kernel input of the sheller. normal cleaning.
a. Shelling efficiency d. Markings must be in English
b. Scattering Loss and Filipino, printed in red with
c. Unshelled Loss a white background.
d. Blower Loss e. Markings must be printed in
e. NOT any color with a durable bond.
13.Ratio of the weight of kernels that fell 17.Minimum required shelling efficiency
out from the machine during shelling percentage according to performance
operation to the weight of the total criteria for a peanut sheller.
kernel input of the sheller. a. 85%
a. Shelling efficiency b. 93%
b. Scattering Loss c. 95%
c. Unshelled Loss d. 98%
d. Blower Loss e. 100%
e. NOT
14.What is an essential consideration for 18.Maximum acceptable percentage for
metallic surfaces in the design of a separation loss in a peanut sheller
peanut sheller, according to the based on the provided criteria.
guidelines provided? a. 0.5%
a. Surfaces should be left b. 1.0%
untreated to maintain friction. c. 3.5%
b. Surfaces should be covered d. 5.0%
with rust for better grip. e. 8.0%
c. Proper painting to prevent rust 19.According to the warranty guidelines,
on uncoated metallic surfaces. within what timeframe should the
d. Surfaces should have major components of a peanut
deliberate sharp edges for sheller, such as transmission
efficiency. systems, remain free from breakdown
e. Surfaces must have non- after the purchase by the first buyer?
metallic coatings for safety. a. 1 month
15.What warranty duration is stipulated b. 3 months
for defective materials and c. 6 months
workmanship in the provided d. 9 months
guidelines for a peanut sheller? e. 12 months
a. Two years for all parts and 20.What is the minimum required purity
services. of output percentage for a peanut
b. One year for parts and sheller when using both sieve and
services. blower?
c. One year for parts excluding a. 85%
consumable maintenance parts b. 93%
and one year for services. c. 95%
d. Six months for parts excluding d. 98%
normal wear and tear and one e. 100%
year for services. 21.The peanut sheller shall be sampled
e. Six months for parts excluding for testing in accordance with _____.
belts and one year for services. a. PNS/BAFS PAES 102: 2000
16.What requirements must safety/ b. PNS/BAFS PAES 103: 2000
precautionary markings meet c. PNS/BAFS PAES 220: 2004
according to the guidelines for a d. PNS/BAFS PAES 221: 2004
peanut sheller? e. PNS/BAFS PAES 221: 2002
a. Markings must be in red color 22.What is the minimum required purity
with a black background. of output percentage for a peanut
b. Markings must be printed in sheller when using sieve only?
English and Chinese. a. 85%

Postharvest Machinery|34
 b. 93% e. 8.0%
c. 95% 29.Which aspect is NOT a requirement
d. 98% for design and workmanship in a
e. 100% peanut sheller?
23.In the materials of construction for a. Rotating parts should be
peanut sheller, shelling elements dynamically balanced.
shall be made of what steel. b. Screen replaceability for
a. Alloy Steel different peanut sizes.
b. Carbon Steel c. Immediate disagreement
c. Stainless Steel mechanism for power
d. Tool Steel transmission.
e. AOT d. Provision for lubrication of
24.Maximum percentage for sealed bearings.
mechanically damaged kernel in a e. Absence of sharp edges or
peanut sheller based on the provided surfaces that may cause harm.
criteria. 30.Preliminary operation of the machine
a. 0.5% to make various adjustments prior to
b. 1.0% the conduct of test until the operation
c. 3.5% is stable.
d. 5.0% a. Input Capacity
e. 8.0% b. Output Capacity
25.An operator’s manual provided for c. Total Kernel Input
maintenance and operation of the d. Partially shelled Pod
peanut sheller shall conform to_____. e. Running-in Period
31.Pod being left with kernels in it after
a. PNS/BAFS PAES 102: 2000 shelling.
b. PNS/BAFS PAES 103: 2000 a. Pod
c. PNS/BAFS PAES 220: 2004 b. Purity
d. PNS/BAFS PAES 221: 2004 c. Partially shelled Pod
e. PNS/BAFS PAES 221: 2002 d. Kernel
26.Which of the following does not e. Cracked Kernel
belong to the classification according 32.Distance between the vertical planes
to Cleaning Component of a Peanut at the right angles to the median
Sheller? plane of the shelling unit and
a. Sheller with no separating touching its front and rear
device extremities.
b. Sheller with blower(s) only a. Overall Length
c. Sheller with sieve(s) only b. Overall Height
d. Sheller with blower(s) and c. Overall Width
sieve(s) d. Net Cracked Kernel
e. NOT e. NOT
27.Which specific information should be 33.Distance between the horizontal
visibly marked on a peanut sheller, as supporting surface and the horizontal
per the guidelines? plane touching the uppermost part of
a. Voltage capacity the shelling unit.
b. Kernel Size a. Overall Length
c. Manufacturer’s contact email b. Overall Height
d. Model Year c. Overall Width
e. Shelling Capacity d. Net Cracked Kernel
28.Maximum acceptable percentage for e. NOT
unshelled loss in a peanut sheller 34.Outlet at which shells come out of the
based on the provided criteria. machine in case of the machine with
a. 0.5% blowers.
b. 1.0% a. Shell Outlet
c. 3.5% b. Main Kernel Outlet
d. 5.0% c. Output Capacity

Postharvest Machinery|35
 c. 80% of input capacity
d. Blower Loss d. 85% of input capacity
e. Main Shell Outlet e. 90% of input capacity
35.The percent of moisture content of 41.What is the purpose of placing the
test materials for peanut sheller. moisture can in a desiccator after
a. 8%-10%, wet basis removing the samples from the oven?
b. 8%-10%, dry basis a. To weight the moisture can
c. 12%-14%, wet basis b. To cool the samples to ambient
d. 12%-14%, dry basis temperature
e. 12%-16%, wet basis c. To dry the sample further
36.How is the speed of the rotating shaft d. To prevent gaining of moisture
of the major components of a peanut in the samples
sheller measured? e. To increase the moisture
a. Using a thermometer content of the samples
b. Through manual observation 42.When should the final weight of the
c. Using a speedometer dried samples be recorded for
d. By using a tachometer measuring moisture content?
e. With a barometer a. Before placing the moisture
37.Peanut sheller air velocity meter can in the desiccator
ranges from ____. b. Immediately after removing
samples from the oven
a. 0-30 mps c. After cooling the moisture can
b. 5-30 mps to room temperature
c. 10-30 mps d. After 24 hours of cooling in the
d. 15-30 mps desiccator
e. 20-30 mps e. Before oven drying the
38.What method is used to collect samples
samples from the fan outlet during 43.Whose responsibility is it to operate,
the test and inspection of a peanut adjust, and make decisions regarding
sheller? the operation of the peanut sheller?
a. Using a vacuum suction tool a. Manufacturer’s Representative
b. Collecting samples manually b. Testing Agency Personnel
with bare hands c. Independent Engineers
c. Utilizing a conveyor belt d. Local Government Officials
system e. Machine Operators
d. Employing a nylon net held by 44.Which of the following conditions is
two persons mandatory for installing a peanut
e. Utilizing a robotic arm for sheller?
collection
39.Under what circumstances should a a. Installed in an elevated area
test run of a peanut sheller be b. Stable, level ground
terminated? c. Proximity to water sources
a. Minor operational interruptions d. Near an electrical power grid
b. Routine maintenance check e. Positioning for maximum wind
c. Breakdown or malfunction of exposure
major components 45.What is the specific requirement for
d. Change in ambient the test site to ensure clean kernel
temperature separation from impurities?
e. Slight deviation in shelling a. Positioning in an area with high
efficiency wind calculation
40.What is the minimum quantity of test b. Installation on an inclined
material to be supplied concerning surface
the input capacity of a peanut c. Near a dusty environment
sheller? d. Sufficient working space for
a. 65% of input capacity large machinery
b. 75% of input capacity

Postharvest Machinery|36
 e. Shielding the sheller from wind 8. B
exposure 9. D
46.Which section of the test report 10. C
includes information about the 11. A
performance test data? 12. D
a. Title 13. B
14. C
b. Summary 15. E
c. Purpose and Scope of Test 16. D
d. Description of the Machine 17. C
e. Result of Test 18. B
47.What is the specific capacity of the 19. C
nylon catch bag required for the 20. D
testing of a peanut sheller? 21. B
a. 4m x 6m 22. A
b. 0.5m x 0.5m x 1.5m 23. B
c. 1.5m x 1.0m 24. C
d. 500 mL 25. A
e. 100 kg 26. E
48.During a test run of a peanut sheller, 27. E
50 kilograms of shelled kernels were 28. D
obtained over a 2-hour operation. 29. D
Calculate the actual shelling capacity. 30. E
a. 22 kg/h 31. C
b. 25 kg/h 32. A
c. 35 kg/h 33. B
d. 38 kg/h 34. A
e. 40 kg/h 35. C
49.A peanut sheller is expected to shell 36. D
200 kilograms of kernels. If the actual 37. A
shelling capacity of the machine is 40 38. D
kilograms per hour, how many hours 39. C
will it take to shell the desired 40. B
amount? 41. B
a. 3 hours 42. C
b. 4 hours 43. A
c. 5 hours 44. B
d. 8 hours 45. E
e. 9 hours 46. E
50.During the test operation of a peanut 47. C
sheller, 20 liters of fuel were 48. B
consumed over a period of 5 hours. 49. C
Calculate the fuel consumption. 50. B
a. 2 L/h
ITEM NO. 48
b. 4 L/h
c. 6 L/h Given:
d. 8 L/h Weight if Shelled Kernel (WC) = 50 kg
e. 10 L/h Duration of Operation (TO) = 2 hours
ANSWER KEY (PAES 220-221:2004)
Required:
1. C
Actual Shelling Capacity (Ca)
2. D
3. C
Solution:
4. A
Using the equation for Actual Shelling
5. B
Capacity:
6. D
7. B

Postharvest Machinery|37
 Wc
C a=
To
50 kg
C a=
2 hr
C a=25 kg /h
ITEM NO. 49
Given:
Desired Shelled Kernel Weight (WC) =
200 kg
Actual Shelling Capacity (Ca) = 40 kg/h

Required:
Duration of Operation (To)

Solution:
Using the equation for time calculation:
Wc
T o=
Ca
200 kg
T o=
40 kg /h
T o=5 hours
ITEM NO. 50 PAES 222:2005-223:2004
Given: Chipping Machine -Specifications and
Amount of Fuel Consumed (F1) = 20 Methods of Test
liters
Time of Operation (To) = 5 houra

Required:
Fuel Consumption Rate (Fc)

Solution:
Using the equation for fuel consumption:
F1
F c=
To
20 L
F c=
5h
F c =4 L /h

Postharvest Machinery|38
PAES 222:2005 b. To prevent access to cutting
1. What is the primary purpose of PAES elements
222:2005? c. To adjust chipping capacity
a. To establish safety guidelines for d. To balance the machine
agricultural machinery e. To lubricate bearings
b. To specify methods of testing for
chipping machines 7. In Table 1, what is the safety
c. To provide funding for the distance for a feed opening size
Department of Agriculture greater than 50 mm but less than
d. To draft international standards 250 mm (round shape)?
for agricultural engineering a. > 850 mm
e. To define the structure of b. > 200 mm
agricultural equipment c. > 120 mm
d. > 40 mm
2. Which organization initiated the e. < 50 mm
formulation of PAES 222:2005?
a. Department of Agriculture 8. What does the term "flywheel type"
b. ISO (International Organization refer to in the context of chipping
for Standardization) machines?
c. AMTEC (Agricultural Machinery a. Type of safety guard
Testing and Evaluation Center) b. Type of cutting mechanism
d. BPS (Bureau of Philippine c. Type of chipping capacity
Standards) d. Type of noise emission
e. Ministry of Labor, Philippines e. Type of material construction
9. Which type of bearings should be
3. What does the word "shall" indicate used for protection against dust?
in the context of this standard? a. Sealed type
a. Strong recommendation b. Dynamic type
b. Optional suggestion c. Rotating type
c. Mandatory requirement with no d. Belt type
deviation e. Open type
d. Preferred course of action
e. Safety precaution 10. What is the allowable noise level for
a chipping machine, according to
4. According to PAES 222:2005, what is PAES 222:2005?
the purpose of a chipping machine? a. 80 dB (A)
a. To harvest crops b. 92 dB (A)
b. To grind roots into powder c. 100 dB (A)
c. To cut or slice root crops into d. 120 dB (A)
small thin pieces e. 85 dB (A)
d. To peel bananas
e. To plant seeds 11. According to Section 8, what is the
duration of the warranty against
5. Which document is referenced for defective materials and
the content and presentation of an workmanship?
operator's manual? a. 3 months
a. PAES 222:2005 b. 6 months
b. ISO 11448:1997(E) c. 1 year
c. PAES 103:2000 d. 2 years
d. PAES 221 e. No warranty
e. PAES 102:2000
12. What tool should each chipping
6. What is the purpose of a discharge machine unit be provided with for
chute in a chipping machine? maintenance?
a. To collect chips a. Screwdriver
b. Hammer

Postharvest Machinery|39
 c. Manufacturer's standard tools e. Manufacturer's tools
d. Wrench
e. Pliers 19. According to Section 5, what
materials should generally be used in
13. What must the construction of the the manufacture of chipping machine
chipping machine be without within components?
six months from the date of a. Plastic and rubber
purchase? b. Aluminum and glass
a. Wear and tear c. Steel bars and metal sheet or
b. Breakdown of major components plate
c. Sharp edges d. Wood and paper
d. Noise emission e. Concrete and ceramic
e. Manufacturing defects
20. Which type of chipping machine has
14. What is the purpose of sampling a knives mounted radially with the
chipping machine according to PAES cutting edges describing a plane
103? perpendicular to the axis of rotation?
a. To check the noise level a. Flywheel type
b. To test the chipping capacity b. Drum type
c. To evaluate the construction c. Power-operated type
d. To assess maintenance tools d. Manually-operated type
e. To ensure safety distances e. Safety guard type

15. Which standard should be followed 21. What is the purpose of a guard in a
for testing a sampled chipping chipping machine?
machine? a. To collect chips
a. PAES 102 b. To protect the operator from
b. PAES 103 injury
c. PAES 221 c. To adjust chipping capacity
d. PAES 223 d. To balance the machine
e. ISO 11448:1997(E) e. To lubricate bearings

16. What information should be marked 22. Which type of chipping machine has
on each chipping machine according knives on cylindrical mountings with
to Section 12? cutting edges essentially parallel to
a. Date of manufacture the axis of rotation?
b. Noise level a. Flywheel type
c. Manufacturer's favorite color b. Drum type
d. Serial number c. Power-operated type
e. Operator's manual content d. Manually-operated type
e. Safety guard type
17. What language should
safety/precautionary markings be 23. According to Section 7, what should
stated in, according to Section 12? rotating parts be?
a. English only a. Colorful
b. Filipino only b. Sealed
c. Red color c. Dynamic
d. English and Filipino d. Balanced
e. White background e. Lubricated

18. What does the term "normative 24. What must be provided for
documents" refer to in Section 2? immediate disengagement of power
a. Safety guidelines transmission?
b. Reference materials a. Safety distances
c. Noise levels b. Sealed type bearings
d. Construction standards c. Mechanism

Postharvest Machinery|40
 d. Belt tightening international standards, according to
e. Operator's manual PAES 223:2004?
a. ISO 9001:2000
25. What should be provided for b. BPS Directives Part 3:2003
lubrication of non-sealed type c. PAES 222:2005
bearings and bushings, according to d. Technical Series No. 12:1983
Section 7? e. PAES 103:2000
a. Oil can
b. Manufacturer's standard tools 3. In PAES 223:2004, what does the
c. Belt tightening term "shall" indicate?
d. Safety distances a. Optional recommendation
e. Sealed type bearings b. Suggested guideline
c. Mandatory requirement
ANSWER KEY (PAES 222:2005) d. Preferred but not required
1. B e. General information
2. C
3. C 4. What is the main purpose of PAES
4. C 223:2004?
5. E a. To regulate agricultural
6. A machinery sales
7. B b. To establish international trade
8. B standards
9. A c. To specify methods of test and
10.B inspection for chipping machines
11.B d. To provide guidelines for crop
12.C cultivation
13.B e. To analyze agricultural product
14.C markets
15.C
16.D 5. What is the chipping capacity
17.D defined as in PAES 223:2004?
18.B a. Weight of the chips collected at
19.C all outlets
20.A b. Amount of material that can be
21.B processed per unit time
22.B c. Ratio of the weight of the chips
23.D to the total weight of the input
24.C d. Distance between the horizontal
25.A supporting surface and the
horizontal plane
e. Angle of the cutting edge of the
PAES 223:2005
blade
1. What organization initiated the
formulation of PAES 223:2004?
6. What is the primary function of the
a. Department of Agriculture
cutting disc in a chipping machine?
b. Agricultural Machinery Testing
a. Hold the chipping plate in place
and Evaluation Center (AMTEC)
b. Rotate the chipping machine
c. Regional Network for Agricultural
c. Maintain overall machine balance
Machinery (RNAM)
d. Support the chipping blades
d. Bureau of Product Standards
e. Hold the cutting knives
(BPS)
e. International Standards
7. What does the term "chipping
Organization (ISO)
recovery" refer to?
a. Ratio of the weight of the chips
2. What document provides rules for
to the total weight of the input
the structure and drafting of

Postharvest Machinery|41
 b. Ratio of the weight of the chips a. Banana
collected at the main outlet to b. Potato
the total input weight c. Carrot
c. Amount of material that can be d. Sugarcane
processed per unit time e. Beetroot
d. Distance between the horizontal
supporting surface and the 13. How is the chipping efficiency
horizontal plane calculated in PAES 223:2004?
e. Angle of the cutting edge of the a. Ratio of the weight of the chips
blade to the total weight of the input
b. Ratio of the weight of the chips
8. Which instrument is used to measure collected at all outlets to the
the noise emitted by a power- total input weight
operated chipping machine? c. Ratio of the weight of the chips
a. Tachometer collected at the main outlet to
b. Digital timer the total input weight
c. Tape measure d. Ratio of the weight of the chips
d. Noise level meter to the weight of the input
e. Weighing scale material
e. Ratio of the weight of the
9. How is the noise level measured for a crushed chips to the total weight
power-operated chipping machine in of the input
PAES 223:2004?
a. 50 mm away from the ear level 14. What does the term "rake angle"
of the operators and baggers refer to in PAES 223:2004?**
b. At the location of the operators a. Angle of the cutting edge of the
and baggers blade
c. 1 meter away from the machine b. Angle of inclination of the blade
d. 100 mm above the chipping plate with respect to the chipping plate
e. Using a decibel scale c. Angle of orientation of the
chipping plate with respect to the
10. What is the overall purpose of the horizontal plane
laboratory analysis in PAES d. Angle of inclination of the
223:2004? chipping plate
a. Determine the manufacturer's e. Angle of the rotating shafts of the
technical data major components
b. Verify the mechanism of the
chipping machine 15. What is the overall height defined as
c. Analyze the chipped product for in PAES 223:2004?**
work quality and precision a. Distance between the horizontal
d. Evaluate the ease of handling supporting surface and the
e. Determine the overall width of horizontal plane
the chipping machine b. Distance between the vertical
planes parallel to the median
11. What is the method used to plane
determine moisture content in PAES c. Distance between the vertical
223:2004? planes at right angles to the
a. Air-drying method median plane
b. Sun-drying method d. Distance between the bottom of
c. Desiccator method the machine and the ground
d. Oven-dry method e. Distance between the uppermost
e. Infrared method part of the chipping machine and
the ground
12. What material is suggested for
testing in PAES 223:2004, preferably 16. What is the primary function of the
for the running-in period?** running-in period in PAES 223:2004?

Postharvest Machinery|42
 a. Conduct performance tests d. Angle of inclination of the
b. Make various adjustments prior chipping plate
to the test e. Angle of the rotating shafts of the
c. Terminate the test run major components
d. Measure the noise level
e. Calibrate the instruments 22. What is the overall height defined as
in PAES 223:2004?
17. How many test trials are a. Distance between the horizontal
recommended in PAES 223:2004? supporting surface and the
a. One horizontal plane
b. Two b. Distance between the vertical
c. Three planes parallel to the median
d. Four plane
e. Five c. Distance between the vertical
planes at right angles to the
18. What is the minimum duration median plane
recommended for each test trial in d. Distance between the bottom of
PAES 223:2004? the machine and the ground
a. 5 minutes e. Distance between the uppermost
b. 10 minutes part of the chipping machine and
c. 15 minutes the ground
d. 20 minutes
e. 30 minutes 23. What is the primary function of the
running-in period in PAES 223:2004?
19. What instrument is used to measure a. Conduct performance tests
the speed of the rotating shafts of b. Make various adjustments prior
the major components in PAES to the test
223:2004? c. Terminate the test run
a. Digital timer d. Measure the noise level
b. Tape measure e. Calibrate the instruments
c. Noise level meter
d. Tachometer 24. How many test trials are
e. Thermometer recommended in PAES 223:2004?
a. One
20. What is the main purpose of the b. Two
laboratory analysis in PAES c. Three
223:2004? d. Four
a. Determine the manufacturer's e. Five
technical data
b. Verify the mechanism of the 25. What is the minimum duration
chipping machine recommended for each test trial in
c. Analyze the chipped product for PAES 223:2004?
work quality and precision a. 5 minutes
d. Evaluate the ease of handling b. 10 minutes
e. Determine the overall width of c. 15 minutes
the chipping machine d. 20 minutes
e. 30 minutes
21. What does the term "rake angle"
refer to in PAES 223:2004? 26. What instrument is used to measure
a. Angle of the cutting edge of the the speed of the rotating shafts of
blade the major components in PAES
b. Angle of inclination of the blade 223:2004?
with respect to the chipping plate a. Digital timer
c. Angle of orientation of the b. Tape measure
chipping plate with respect to the c. Noise level meter
horizontal plane d. Tachometer

Postharvest Machinery|43
 e. Thermometer

27. What is the main purpose of the

laboratory analysis in PAES
223:2004?
a. Determine the manufacturer's
technical data
b. Verify the mechanism of the
chipping machine
c. Analyze the chipped product for
work quality and precision
d. Evaluate the ease of handling
e. Determine the overall width of
the chipping machine

ANSWER KEY (PAES 223:2004)

1. B
2. B
3. C
4. C
5. B
6. E
7. B
8. D
9. A
10. C
11. D
12. B PAES 226-227:2005
13. A Micromill -Specifications and Methods
14. B of Test
15. A
16. B
17. C
18. C
19. D
20. C
21. B
22. A
23. B
24. C
25. C
26. D
27. C

Postharvest Machinery|44
PAES 226-227:2005 b. Primary operation
1. The extent or degree by which the c. Operation adjustments
bran layer and germ have been d. Secondary operation
removed. e. NOTA
a. Milling Degree 9. Weight of palay per unit loading time
b. Bran and Germ Degree into the hopper, kg/h
c. Layer Extent a. Input capacity
d. Bran Layer Degree b. Output capacity
e. Removing Degree c. Weight capacity
2. This standard specifies the methods d. Unit capacity
of test for Agricultural Machinery- e. AOTA
micromill. 10. Outmost rough covering of the palay
a. PNS/BAFS PAES 227:2008 grain (palea and lemma) consisting of
b. PNS/BAFS PAES 226:2018 the empty glumes, floral glumes and
c. PNS/BAFS PAES 227:2005 awn.
d. PNS/BAFS PAES 205:2018 a. Glumes
e. PNS/BAFS PAES 208:2006 b. Paddy
3. Rice grain from which the hull, the c. Ground rice
germ and the bran layers have been d. Rice Hull
completely removed. e. Glumes Husk
a. Running in period 11. Type of micromill with input capacity
b. Overall width of 100-250 kg/h.
c. Overmilled rice a. Micromill Model
d. Undermilled rice b. Farm Model
e. Output Capacity c. Village Model
4. Longitudinal bran layers remaining in d. Industrial Model
the dorsal grooves after milling. e. Small Scale Model
a. Bran streaks 12. Outer layer of the brown rice
b. Streak Layers consisting of the aleurone cells
c. Bran Dorsal covering the endosperm of the rice
d. Dorsal Layers grain.
e. Remaining Bran a. Husk
5. Small pieces or particles of grains b. bran
that pass through a sieve with round c. rice hull
perforations of 1.4 mm in diameter. d. Paddy skin
a. Head rice
e. NOTA
b. Brewer’s rice
c. Whole Grain 13. What is the minimum performance
d. Brewer’s Grain criteria for micromill under milling
e. Round rice recovery?
6. Weight of milled rice per unit of a. 60%
milling time, kg/h b. 61%
a. Milled capacity c. 62%
b. Overall capacity d. 63%
c. Milling capacity
d. Input capacity e. 65%
e. Output capacity 14. What is the minimum performance
7. Distance between the horizontal criteria for micromill under head rice?
supporting surface and horizontal
plane touching the uppermost part of a. 50%
the micromill. b. 51%
a. hopper c. 52%
b. overall length d. 53%
c. overall height
d. discharge mechanism e. 54%
e. overall width
8. Preliminary operation of the machine
15. What is the maximum performance
to make various adjustments prior to criteria for micromill under broken
the conduct of the test until the grains?
operation is stable. a. 48%
a. Running-in period b. 49%

Postharvest Machinery|45
 c. 47% have been removed, but part of the
d. 50% lengthwise streaks of the bran layers
e. 46% may still be present on less than 15%
16. What is the maximum performance of the sample grains.
criteria for micromill under bran? a. Milled Rice
a. 7% b. Well-milled Rice
b. 10% c. Head Rice
c. 9% d. Brewer’s rice
d. 8% e. NOTA
e. 6% 23. It is known as unhulled grain of Oryza
17. What is the maximum performance sativa.
criteria for micromill noise level? a. Corn
b. rice
a. 91 db c. legumes
b. 90 db d. paddy
c. 92 db e. head rice
d. 96 db 24. Rice grain from which the hull, the
e. NOTA germ, the outer bran layers, and the
greater part of the inner bran layer
18. What is the performance criteria for have been removed, but part of the
micromill under Milling Degree? lengthwise streaks of the bran layers
may still be present on more than
a. Well milled 40% of the sample grains.
b. Over well-milled a. Well-milled rice
c. Regular rice milled b. Milled Rice
d. Exact milled c. Regular milled rice
e. AOTA d. Undermilled rice
19. Ratio of the weight of grains that do e. Head rice
not break in the process of milling 25. Rice grain from which the hull, the
and with the size of 8/10 or more that germ, the outer bran layers and the
the whole grain of the total weight of greater part of the inner bran layer
the milled rice, percent. have been removed, but part of the
a. Total Head Rice lengthwise streaks of the bran layers
b. Well Milled rice may still be present on 15% to 40%
c. Percent Head Rice of the sample grains
d. AOTA a. Regular milled rice
e. NOTA b. Undermilled rice
20. According to PNS/BAFS PAES c. Well milled rice
226:2005, it is a friction type d. Milled rice
rice mill performing e. head rice
simultaneous hulling and 26. Is a single-pass rice mill which
whitening operations and consists of the following
having a milling capacity of components: hopper, milling
50-250 kg/h. unit, and an aspirating fan.
a. Macro milling machine a. Micromill
b. Micromill b. Macromill
c. Rice Milling operator c. Multi-miller
d. Multi-miller machine d. Milling Machine
e. NOTA e. Single pass Miller
21. According to PAES 226:2005,
Type of micromill with milling
capacity of 50 kg/h to less 27. The portion of the solid steel cylinder
than 100 kg/h. at the milling chamber is provided
a. Household model with _____________ protrusions and
b. Farm model screen housing.
c. Village model a. Cylindrical
d. Industrial model b. Rectangular
e. NOTA c. Circle
22. Rice grain from which the hull, the d. Trapezoidal
germ, the outer bran layers and the e. NOTA
greater part of the inner bran layer
Postharvest Machinery|46
28. The hull and subsequently the bran of c. Aspiring Fan
the paddy fed between the concentric d. Feed Regulator
cylinders are removed through the e. Intake Hopper
abrasive action among the paddy 34. Looking at the Illustration in number
grains and the friction action between 31, what do you call a part of
the ________ cylinder and the grains. micromill that is labeled number 4.
a. Vertical a. Bran Outlet
b. Horizontal b. Outlet spout from huller
c. Rotating c. Aspiring Fan
d. Trapezoidal d. Feed Regulator
e. NOTA e. Intake Hopper
29. The _______ is discharged from the 35. Looking at the Illustration in number
milling chamber through the slots in 31, what do you call a part of
the mill screen while milled rice is micromill that is labeled number 5.
discharged through an outlet chute a. Bran Outlet
with screen for removing brewer’s b. Outlet spout from huller
rice. c. Aspiring Fan
a. husk d. Feed Regulator
b. hull e. Intake Hopper
c. bran 36. Looking at the Illustration in number
d. dusk 31, what do you call a part of
e. NOTA micromill that is labeled number 6.
30. The rate of feeding is controlled by a a. Bran Outlet
_______ feed gate. b. Outlet spout from huller
a. Vertical c. Aspiring Fan
b. Horizontal d. Feed Regulator
c. Rotating e. Intake Hopper
d. Trapezoidal 37. Looking at the Illustration in number
e. Sliding 31, what do you call a part of
31. Looking at the Illustration below, micromill that is labeled number 7.
what do you call a part of micromill a. Adjustable grain discharge
that is labeled number 1. valve
b. Screen
c. Milled Rice Outlet
d. Main frame
e. Steel huller pulley
38. Looking at the Illustration in number
31, what do you call a part of
micromill that is labeled number 8.
a. Adjustable grain discharge
valve
b. Screen
a. Brewers Rice Outlet c. Milled Rice Outlet
b. Brewer’s rice inlet d. Main frame
c. Grain Inlet e. Steel huller pulley
d. Grain Outlet 39. Looking at the Illustration in number
e. NOTA 31, what do you call a part of
32. Looking at the Illustration in number micromill that is labeled number 9.
31, what do you call a part of a. Adjustable grain discharge
micromill that is labeled number 2. valve
a. Bran Outlet b. Screen
b. Outlet spout from huller c. Milled Rice Outlet
c. Aspiring Fan d. Main frame
d. Feed Regulator e. Steel huller pulley
e. Intake Hopper 40. Looking at the Illustration in number
31, what do you call a part of
33. Looking at the Illustration in number micromill that is labeled number 10.
31, what do you call a part of a. Adjustable grain discharge
micromill that is labeled number 3. valve
a. Bran Outlet b. Screen
b. Outlet spout from huller c. Milled Rice Outlet
Postharvest Machinery|47
 d. Main frame b. Well Milled rice
e. Steel huller pulley c. Percent Head Rice
41. Looking at the Illustration in number d. AOTA
31, what do you call a part of e. NOTA
micromill that is labeled number 10. 48. What is the minimum performance
a. Adjustable grain discharge criteria for micromill under head rice?
valve
b. Screen a. 50%
c. Milled Rice Outlet b. 51%
d. Main frame c. 52%
e. Steel huller pulley d. 53%
42. Looking at the Illustration in number
31, what do you call a part of e. 54%
micromill that is labeled number 11. 49. What is the maximum performance
a. Adjustable grain discharge criteria for micromill under broken
valve grains?
b. Screen a. 48%
c. Electric motor b. 49%
d. Electric motor pulley c. 47%
e. Steel huller assembly d. 50%
e. 46%
43. Looking at the Illustration in number 50. Preliminary operation of the machine
31, what do you call a part of to make various adjustments prior to
micromill that is labeled number 12. the conduct of the test until the
a. Adjustable grain discharge operation is stable.
valve a. Running-in period
b. Screen b. Primary operation
c. Electric motor c. Operation adjustments
d. Electric motor pulley d. Secondary operation
e. Steel huller assembly e. NOTA
44. Looking at the Illustration in number
31, what do you call a part of ANSWER KEY (PAES 226-227:2005)
micromill that is labeled number 13. 1. A
a. Adjustable grain discharge 2. C
valve 3. C
b. Screen
4. A
c. Electric motor
5. B
d. Electric motor pulley
e. Steel huller assembly 6. E
7. C
45. It is known as unhulled grain of Oryza 8. A
sativa. 9. A
a. Corn 10.D
b. rice 11.C
c. legumes 12.B
d. paddy 13.C
e. head rice 14.A
46. What is the performance criteria for 15.D
micromill under Milling Degree? 16.B
17.C
a. Well milled
b. Over well-milled 18.A
c. Regular rice milled 19.C
d. Exact milled 20.B
e. AOTA 21.A
47. Ratio of the weight of grains that do 22.B
not break in the process of milling 23.D
and with the size of 8/10 or more that 24.D
the whole grain of the total weight of 25.A
the milled rice, percent. 26.E
a. Total Head Rice 27.B
Postharvest Machinery|48
28.C
29.C
30.E
31.A
32.A
33.B
34.C
35.D
36.E
37.A
38.B
39.C
40.D
41.E
42.C
43.D
44.E
45.D
46.A
47.C
48.A
49.D
50.A

Postharvest Machinery|49
 PAES 228-229:2005
1. This standard specifies the
construction and performance
requirements for decorticators used
for fiber plants such as abaca,
maguey, pineapple, banana, ramie,
and sisal.
a. PAES 228:2015
b. PAES 229:2015
c. PAES 228:2005
d. PAES 229:2005
e. PAES 218:2005
2. This standard specifies the methods
of test and inspection for fiber
decorticator used for fiber plants such
as abaca, maguey, pineapple,
banana, ramie, and sisal.
a. PAES 228:2015
b. PAES 229:2015
c. PAES 228:2005
d. PAES 229:2005
e. PAES 218:2005
3. It is a slender and greatly elongated
natural filament of fiber plant.
a. Abaca
b. Maguey
c. Fiber
PAES 228-229:2005 d. Ramie
Fiber Decorticator– Specifications and e. Sisal
Methods of Test 4. It is a mechanical device used for
extracting fibers by crushing, beating,
and scraping actions effected by the
rotating cylinder with equally spaced
blades and breaker or scraper block.
a. Fiber
b. Fiber Decorticator
c. Fiber Remover
d. Fiber Extractor
e. Fiber Cleaner
5. It is part of the decorticator where
raw materials are beaten up and
crushed.
a. Blades
b. Decorticating shaft
c. Scraper block
d. Decorticating drum
e. Input chute
6. It is another term for the scraper
block.
a. Decorticating shaft
b. Scraper block
c. Decorticating drum
d. Input chute
e. NOTA

Postharvest Machinery|50
7. It is the equivalent linear speed of the c. Fiber recovery
cylinder tip when running at normal d. Grade
operating speed. e. Labor requirement
a. Cylinder theoretical speed 14. It indicates the quality or the
b. Cylinder effective speed characteristics of the physical
c. Cylinder peripheral speed property of a fiber.
d. Cylinder vertical speed a. Extraction loss
e. Cylinder horizontal speed b. Fiber quality
8. It is the distance between the scraper c. Fiber recovery
block/breaker block and blades to d. Grade
separate the fiber elements from the e. Labor requirement
non-fiber elements of the plant. 15. It is the number of persons needed in
a. Theoretical allowance the operation of the fiber
b. Effective allowance decorticator.
c. Effective cylinder diameter a. Extraction loss
d. Theoretical cylinder diameter b. Fiber quality
e. Effective cylinder radius c. Fiber recovery
9. It is the outside diameter generated d. Grade
by the outermost point of the cylinder e. Labor requirement
decorticating elements. 16. It is the properties of the fiber which
a. Theoretical allowance deal with its anatomical
b. Effective allowance characteristics such as length,
c. Effective cylinder diameter diameter, lumen, and wall thickness.
d. Theoretical cylinder diameter a. Physical properties
e. Effective cylinder radius b. Morphological properties
10. It is the difference between the total c. Chemical properties
amount of fiber content and amount d. Fiber quality
of fiber extracted on a dry basis. e. Fiber recovery
a. Extraction loss 17. It is the inherent strength and
b. Extraction efficiency behavior of fibers under applied force
c. Fiber quality which determines the mechanical
d. Fiber recovery serviceability or usefulness in
e. Grade commerce such as tensile strength,
11. It is the ratio of the amount of cleaning, and color.
between the total weight of the fiber a. Physical properties
extracted to the total amount of fiber b. Morphological properties
content on a dry basis. c. Chemical properties
a. Extraction loss d. Fiber quality
b. Extraction efficiency e. Fiber recovery
c. Fiber quality 18. It is the weight of the raw materials
d. Fiber recovery (fresh stalks/leaves) fed to the
e. Grade machine per unit time, kg/h.
12. It refers to the physical, chemical, a. Input capacity
and morphological properties of fibers b. Output capacity
extracted. c. Total decorticating input
a. Extraction loss d. Total decorticating output
b. Fiber quality e. Moisture content
c. Fiber recovery 19. It is the dry weight of the fiber at 13-
d. Grade 14% moisture content extracted per
e. Labor requirement unit time.
13. It is the ratio of the dry weight of the a. Input capacity
fiber extracted and total fresh weight b. Output capacity
of stalks/leaves, expressed in c. Total decorticating input
percent. d. Total decorticating output
a. Extraction loss e. Moisture content
b. Fiber quality

Postharvest Machinery|51
20. It is the distance between the c. Plasticity
horizontal supporting surface and the d. Elongation
horizontal plane touching the e. Elasticity
uppermost part of the machine. 27. It is an electric motor or internal
a. Total decorticating input combustion engine used to run the
b. Total decorticating output decorticating machine.
c. Overall length a. AC Machine
d. Overall width b. DC Machine
e. Overall height c. Tractor
21. It is the distance between the vertical d. Primemover
planes parallel to the median plane of e. Carabao
the machine, each plane touching the 28. It is the preliminary operation of the
outermost point of the machine on its machine to make various
respective side. adjustments prior to the conduct of
a. Total decorticating input test until the operation is stable.
b. Total decorticating output a. Start-up rotor
c. Overall length b. Zero rotor
d. Overall width c. Running-in period
e. Overall height d. Start-up period
22. It is the distance between the vertical e. NOTA
planes at the right angles to the 29. The amount of test materials to be
median plane of machine touching its supplied shall be at least ____ percent
front and rear extremities. of input capacity (kg/h) of
a. Total decorticating input decorticator.
b. Total decorticating output a. 60
c. Overall length b. 65
d. Overall width c. 70
e. Overall height d. 75
23. It is the sum of the weights of e. 80
collected decorticated fiber and all 30. For abaca, the minimum fiber
losses. recovery is?
a. Total decorticating input a. 0.59%
b. Total decorticating output b. 3.37%
c. Overall length c. 5.00%
d. Overall width d. 3.52%
e. Overall height e. 3.75%
24. It is the method of or extent of 31. For Ramie, the minimum fiber
extracting (by retting or recovery is?
decorticating) the fiber from the a. 0.59%
leaves. b. 3.37%
a. Extraction c. 5.00%
b. Decortication d. 3.52%
c. Cleaning e. 3.75%
d. Polishing 32. For Banana, the minimum fiber
e. Retting recovery is?
25. It is the principal factor which a. 0.59%
determines the grade of a fiber. b. 3.37%
a. Color c. 5.00%
b. Fiber quality d. 3.52%
c. Fiber recovery e. 3.75%
d. Fiber Quantity 33. For Sisal, the minimum fiber recovery
e. Grade is?
26. It is the elasticity or stretch of a fiber a. 0.59%
before rupture. b. 3.37%
a. Ductility c. 5.00%
b. Malleability d. 3.52%

Postharvest Machinery|52
 e. 3.75% e. SR-1-SISAL SPECIAL
34. For Maguey, the minimum fiber 40. Fiber washed simultaneously or
recovery is? immediately after decortications with
a. 0.59% fresh water. It’s completely free from
b. 3.37% bark, sticks (broken stems) or foreign
c. 5.00% matters. The color ranges from light
d. 3.52% straw or light greenish to light
e. 3.75% yellowish ivory or creamy and the
35. For Pineapple, the minimum fiber cleaning is good.
recovery is? a. AD-1-ABACA DECORTICATED
a. 1.42% SUPERIOR
b. 3.37% b. PID-1-PIÑA DECORTICATED
c. 5.00% ONE
d. 3.52% c. MR-1-MAGUEY ONE
e. NOTA d. RD-A-RAMIE SPECIAL
36. The maximum noise level for a Fiber e. SR-1-SISAL SPECIAL
Decorticator. 41. Produced when the fiber is properly
a. 80 dB decorticated and dried. The fiber is
b. 85 dB almost free from scales, epidermal
c. 90 dB layers, and pulps. The cleaning is
d. 95 dB good, and the color varies from ivory
e. NOTA white to almost white.
37. The allowable noise level for a Fiber a. AD-1-ABACA DECORTICATED
Decorticator for four (4) hours of SUPERIOR
continuous exposure based on b. PID-1-PIÑA DECORTICATED
Occupational Health and Safety ONE
Standards. c. MR-1-MAGUEY ONE
a. 80 dB d. RD-A-RAMIE SPECIAL
b. 85 dB e. SR-1-SISAL SPECIAL
c. 90 dB 42. Sampled decorticator shall be tested
d. 95 dB in accordance with PAES ___?
e. NOTA a. 100:2000
38. In all fiber of this grade the cleaning b. 229:2005
process has been properly and c. 228:2005
carefully carried out. There are d. 103:2000
practically no scales in the fiber. The e. 200:2002
cleaning is good, and the color is dull 43. Markings shall be printed in ____ color
white. with a white background.
a. AD-1-ABACA DECORTICATED a. Yellow
SUPERIOR b. Green
b. PID-1-PIÑA DECORTICATED c. Red
ONE d. Silver
c. MR-1-MAGUEY ONE e. Blue
d. RD-A-RAMIE SPECIAL 44. The warranty against defective
e. SR-1-SISAL SPECIAL materials and workmanship is within
39. Fiber of this grade is of good cleaning _______ from the purchase of the
and its color ranges from ivory white decorticator.
to light ochre. This grade shall be free a. 6 months
from any shade of purple, red and b. 1 year
greenish streaks. c. 1 year and 6 months
a. AD-1-ABACA DECORTICATED d. 2 years
SUPERIOR e. 3 years
b. PID-1-PIÑA DECORTICATED
ONE
c. MR-1-MAGUEY ONE
d. RD-A-RAMIE SPECIAL

Postharvest Machinery|53
 d. PID-4
e. PID-R
50. For a Pineapple, what grade is it when
the fibers are too low to be included
in the other grades. It includes
therefore the fibers which are
discolored, very short partly spoiled,
and weak in strength.
a. PID-1
b. PID-2
c. PID-3
d. PID-4
45. What do you call the part of the e. PID-R
decorticator pointed by the red arrow
in the above figure? ANSWER KEY (PAES 228-229:2005)
a. Primemover 1. C
b. Transport Wheel 2. D
c. Decorticating Chamber 3. C
d. Input Chute 4. B
e. Decorticating Drum 5. C
46. When measuring the noise emitted 6. E
by the decorticator, the noise level 7. C
shall be measured approximately 8. B
_____ mm away from the ear. 9. C
a. 10 10.A
b. 20 11.B
c. 30 12.B
d. 40 13.C
e. 50 14.D
47. What moisture content of the 15.E
extracted fiber should be to record its 16.B
weight? 17.A
a. 12-14% 18.B
b. 20-25% 19.A
c. 13-14% 20.E
d. 22-24% 21.D
e. NOTA 22.C
48. At what temperature should be the 23.A
samples be dried in the oven? 24.C
a. 100 ℃ 25.A
b. 103 ℃ 26.D
c. 122 ℉ 27.D
d. 373 K 28.C
e. AOTA 29.D
49. For a Pineapple, what grade is it if it 30.B
is produced when the cleaning 31.C
process has not been thoroughly 32.A
carried out, hence the presence of 33.D
scales and some epidermal layers in 34.E
the fiber. The cleaning is fair, the 35.A
color is ivory white to light ochre to 36.D
dull brown towards the tip and the 37.D
texture is medium soft. 38.C
a. PID-1 39.A
b. PID-2 40.D
c. PID-3 41.B
42.D
Postharvest Machinery|54
43.C
44.A
45.C
46.E
47.C
48.B
49.B
50.E

PAES 230-231:2005
Coconut Oil Expeller– Specifications
and Methods of Test

Postharvest Machinery|55
PAES 230:2005 d) Minimum input capacity
1. Which standard specifies the e) Both a and b
specification for the Coconut Oil 8. Electric motor, or internal
Expeller? combustion engine used to run
a) PAES 230-2005 the oil expeller
b) PAES 231-2005 a) Oil expeller
c) ISO 9001-2008 b) Extraction chamber
d) ANSI/ASME B31.1-2016 c) Expeller barrel
e) Both A and B d) Prime mover
2. It is a freshly extracted coconut oil e) Both a and c
containing moisture, fiber, resins, 9. A motor-driven extrusion type
colors, etc. from copra machine capable of extracting
a) Choke crude oil from copra for use in
b) Copra meal cooking, soapmaking, or as
c) Crude oil ingredient in other foods such as
d) Copra baked or fried goods.
e) All of the above a) Oil expeller
3. It is a residue collected after b) Extraction chamber
extracting oil from milled copra c) Expeller barrel
a) Choke d) Prime mover
b) Copra meal e) Both a and c
c) Crude oil 10.A kind of a screw which has the
d) Copra double task of conveying the raw
e) All of the above material through the pressure
4. A dried coconut meat from which chamber formed by the barrel,
oil is extracted and at the same time of exerting a
a) Choke pressure on it
b) Copra meal a) Prime mover
c) Crude oil b) Worm shaft
d) Copra c) Cam shaft
e) All of the above d) Shaft barrel
5. Permit a final adjustment of e) Both b and c
pressure and capacity in order to 11.The expeller barrel shall be made
correct variations in the raw of_________?
material and to secure the lowest a) Steel
possible oil content of the copra b) Aluminum
meal residue c) Tool steel
a) Choke d) Alloy
b) Copra meal e) All of the above
c) Crude oil 12.What is the maximum
d) Copra temperature measured from the
e) All of the above expeller barrel?
6. Part of the oil expeller where the a) 50ºC.
extraction process occurs b) 68ºC.
a) Oil expeller c) 75ºC.
b) Extraction chamber d) 71ºC.
c) Expeller barrel e) 72 ºC.
d) Prime mover 13.What is the minimum noise
e) All of the above emitted by the oil expeller that is
7. It is the weight of input test measured 50 mm away from the
material per unit loading time into operator’s ear?
the hopper/intake pit, expressed a) 90 dB
in kilogram per hour. b) Less than 90 dB
a) Input capacity c) 85 dB
b) Output capacity d) 96 dB
c) Maximum input capacity e) 75 dB

Postharvest Machinery|56
14.What is the minimum percent of d) 5 months
the crude oil recovery of oil e) 4 months
expeller? 21.The minimum percent crude oil
a) 60% recovery of oil expeller shall be
b) 75% 60%.
c) 80% a) True
d) 65% b) False
e) 75% c) All of the above
15.What is the required distance of d) None of the above
the operator’s ear in operating e) I do not know
coconut oil expeller? 22.The noise emitted by the oil
a) 50 mm expeller measured 50 cm away
b) 5 cm from the operator’s ear level shall
c) 0.5 m not be more than 96 db.
d) All of the above a) True
16.Required grade of steel that is b) False
generally used in manufacturing c) All of the above
different component of the oil d) None of the above
expeller e) It depends
a) High-grade 23.The maximum temperature
b) Medium grade measured from the expeller barrel
c) Average grade shall be equal to 71ºC.
d) All of the above a) True
e) None of the above b) False
17.All component of the coconut oil c) All of the above
expeller shall be dynamically d) None of the above
balanced for stable running with e) It depends
______. 24.High-grade steel shall be generally
a) High noise level used for the manufacture of the
b) Medium noise level different components of the oil
c) Average noise level expeller.
d) Low noise level a) True
e) None of the above b) False
18.The __________ shall be free from c) All of the above
manufacturing defects that may d) None of the above
be detrimental to its operation. e) It depends
a) Extraction chamber 25.The expeller barrel shall be made
b) Oil expeller of tool steel.
c) Worm shaft a) True
d) Prime mover b) False
19.There shall be provision to prevent c) All of the above
metallic materials from entering d) None of the above
the _______. e) It depends
a) Extraction chamber
b) Oil expeller
ANSWER KEY (PAES 230:2005)
c) Worm shaft
1. A
d) Prime mover
2. C
e) None of the above
3. B
20.The construction shall be rigid and
4. D
durable without breakdown of its
5. A
major components for at least how
6. B
many months from original
7. A
purchase?
8. D
a) 8 months
9. A
b) 7 months
10.B
c) 6 months
11.C

Postharvest Machinery|57
 12.D a) Overall width
13.D b) Over all area
14.A c) Overall length
15.D d) Overall height
16.A e) Both a and c
17.D 5) Amount of input test material free
18.B of foreign matter expressed as
19.A percentage of the total weight of
20.C the sample.
21.A a) Running-in period
22.B b) Purity
23.B c) Running-out period
24.A d) None of the above
25.A e) All of the above
6) Preliminary operation of the
machine to make various
adjustments prior to the conduct
of test until the operation is
stable.
a) Running-in period
b) Purity
c) Running-out period
d) None of the above
PAES 231:2005 e) All of the above
7) Copra residue that pass through
1) A container where oven-dried the expeller barrel together with
samples are cooled without the crude oil but is filtered by the
affecting its moisture content. perforated screen placed at the
a) Whitener entrance of the crude oil chute.
b) Destoner a) Wet copra
c) Desiccator b) Dry copra
d) None of the above c) Wet copra meal
e) All of the above d) Dry copra meal
2) Quantity of crude oil that the 8) Which standard specifies the
expeller can extract per unit of specification for the Coconut Oil
time, expressed in kilogram per Expeller?
hour. a) PAES 230-2005
a) Crude oil production rate b) PAES 231-2005
b) Crude oil rate c) PAES 213-2008
c) Rate of desiccation d) PAES 212-2008
d) All of the above e) PAES 231-2008
e) None of the above 9) What is the maximum amount of
3) Distance between the horizontal moisture content of the copra?
supporting surface and the a) 11%
horizontal plane touching the b) 10%
uppermost part of the oil expeller. c) 9%
a) Overall width d) 8%
b) Overall area e) 7%
c) Overall length 10) What is the minimum purity of
d) Over all height copra?
e) Both a and c a) 98%
4) Distance between the vertical b) 97%
planes parallel to the median c) 96%
plane of the oil expeller, each d) 95%
plane touching the outermost e) 94%
point of the oil expeller on its 11) What is the exact variety of the
respective side. copra to be test?

Postharvest Machinery|58
 a) Internationally grown Determination of oil content of
b) Locally grown copra.
c) Commercial
d) All of the above 18) How many samples of 500 g to
e) None of the above determine the purity
12) The amount of test material to be a) 1
supplied shall be at least how b) 2
many percent of input capacity c) 3
(kg/h) of the oil expeller. d) 4
a) 55% e) 5
b) 65% 19) How long is the copra sample
c) 75% extracted with petroleum ether?
d) 85% a) 3 hours
e) 60% b) 10-15 mins
13) An officially designated c) 5 hours
representative of the d) 30 mins
manufacturer shall operate, e) 45 mins
adjust, repair, and shall decide on 20) How long is the sample air-dried
matters related to the operation of in the oven?
the machine. a) 3 hours
a) True b) 10-15 mins
b) False c) 5 hours
c) Partially true d) 30 mins
d) Partially false e) 45 mins
e) Maybe 21) What is the recommended
14) The oil expeller shall be tested as temperature for oven-drying the
installed for normal operation. sample?
a) True a) 100 ºC
b) False b) 110 ºC
c) Somewhat true c) 105 ºC
d) Maybe d) 120 ºC
e) I do not know e) 115 ºC
15) The site should have ample 22) How long should the sample be
provisions for material handling, oven-dried for?
temporary storage and workspace. a) 5-10 mins
a) True b) 20-25 mins
b) False c) 10-15 mins
c) Somewhat true d) 30-35 mins
d) Maybe e) 15-20 mins
e) I do not know 23) How long to cool the sample in
16) Laboratory analysis shall be made the desiccators?
to determine the purity, moisture a) 3 hours
content and oil content of the b) 10-15 mins
input and output materials. c) 5 hours
a) True d) 30 mins
b) False e) 45 mins
c) Somewhat true 24) What is the approximate weight
d) Maybe of the copra sample being
e) I do not know weighed in determining its oil
17) Place the moisture can in the content?
oven and dry at ____ºC-_____ºC for a) 2 grams
four hours. b) 5 grams
a) 90-100 c) 10 grams
b) 100-105 d) 15 grams
c) 105-110 e) 20 grams
d) 85-90
e) 90-95

Postharvest Machinery|59
 25) What is the purpose of weighing
the copra sample in the previously
dried filter paper?
a) To determine the oil
content of the copra sample
b) To measure the volume of
the copra sample
c) To assess the color of the
copra sample
d) To calculate the acidity of
the copra sample
e) Both a and b
ANSWER KEY (PAES 231:2005)

1) C
2) A
3) C
4) A
5) B
6) A
7) C
8) B
9) D
10) A
11) B
12) C
13) A
14) A
15) A
16) A
17) B
18) C
19) C
20) A
21) C
22) C
23) D
24) B
25) A

Postharvest Machinery|60
 PAES 232-233:2008
1. Machine that peels outer skin, or
cleans and removes undesirable
debris of ginger rhizomes, sweet
potato, potato, arrow root, radish
and carrot.

a. Multicrop washer-peeler
b. Crop washer
c. Mechanical peeler
d. Multicrop peeler

2. Horizontally elongated subterranean

stem, which forms roots on the lower
side and shoots on the upper side of
the nodes.

a. Rhizome
b. Node
c. Bud
d. Shoots
3. A cylindrical container that holds the
water and washing drum assembly.

a. Rotating container
b. Washing cage
c. Water tank
d. Water container
PAES 232-233:2008 4. The amount of washed and peeled
Multicrop Washer-Peeler – crops per unit time during the actual
Specifications and Methods of Test washing-peeling operation time,
expressed in kilogram per hour
(kg/h).

a. Effective capacity
b. Washing-peeling capacity
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
5. A cylinder encased in a water
container and rotating in a horizontal
axis where crops are being loaded
for the washing and peeling
operation.

a. Washing drum assembly

b. Washing cage
c. Rotating container
d. Water container
6. Which of the following is NOT part of
the multicrop washer-peeler?

a. Transmission assembly
b. Hopper
c. Stand/Frame
d. Screen/Discharge chute
7. Which of the following is NOT part of
the washing drum assembly?

Postharvest Machinery|61
 a. Nylon brush
a. Washing drum b. Wire brush
b. Brush c. Polypropylene
c. Agitator d. Rubber
d. Main shaft
15.The discharge chute shall be made of
8. Multicrop washer-peeler that has an non-corrosive material with ___ mm
effective capacity of up to 15 kg/h. perforations and shall be inclined of
not less than ___ with respect to the
a. Small-scale horizontal axis.
b. Medium-scale
c. Large-scale a. 8 mm, 60˚
d. None of the above b. 12 mm, 60˚
9. Multicrop washer-peeler that has an c. 8 mm, 45˚
effective capacity of more than 15 d. 12 mm, 45˚
kg/h up to 40kg/h.
16.The minimum machine efficiency of
a. Small-scale the multicrop washer-peeler shall be
b. Medium-scale ___.
c. Large-scale
d. None of the above a. 95%
b. 80%
10.Multicrop washer-peeler that has an c. 90%
effective capacity of more than 40 d. 85%
kg/h.
17.The water requirement shall not be
a. Small-scale more than _______ of water for every
b. Medium-scale kilogram of crop.
c. Large-scale
d. None of the above a. 3 liters
b. 6 liters
11._______ materials shall be used for
c. 5 liters
parts in direct contact of the crop
d. 2 liters
being processed.
18.The noise emitted by the multicrop
a. Radioactive
washer-peeler measured 50 mm away
b. Non-corrosive
from the operator’s ear level at actual
c. High quality
working position shall not be more
d. Food grade
than _____.
12.The water container, washing drum,
and discharge chute shall be made of a. 96 dB
_______ materials. b. 92 dB
c. 100 dB
a. Corrosive d. 85 dB
b. Non-corrosive
c. High quality 19.Warranty against defective materials
d. Steel and workmanship shall be provided for
parts and services except for normal
13.Washing drum shall be made of non- wear and tear of consumable
corrosive and does not react maintenance parts such as?
unfavorably with the product material
with ____ perforations. a. Belts
b. Frame
a. 4 mm c. Main shaft
b. 8 mm d. Discharge chute
c. 12 mm
d. 16 mm 20.Warranty against defective materials
and workmanship shall be provided
14.The brush shall be made of special within _______ from purchase.
wear-resistant and food grade quality a. 3 years
________. b. 6 months

Postharvest Machinery|62
 c. 2 years 28.Distance between the horizontal
d. 1 year supporting surface and the horizontal
plane touching the uppermost part of
21.Crop condition stored not more than 2 the multicrop washer-peeler.
days after harvest.
a. Overall height
a. Post-harvest ripening b. Overall length
b. Freshly harvested c. Overall width
c. Stored harvest d. None of the above
d. Good item
22.Quantitative efficiency of the machine
in cleaning and peeling crops, 29.Overall length is the distance between
expressed in percent (%). the vertical planes _______ to the
a. Washing efficiency median plane touching its front and
b. Peeling efficiency rear extremities. While overall width is
c. Machine efficiency the vertical planes _______ to the
d. None of the above median plane touching the respective
sides.
23.Weight of input test material per
batch, expressed in kilogram per a. Perpendicular, parallel
batch? b. Parallel, perpendicular
c. Perpendicular, perpendicular
a. Holding capacity d. Parallel, parallel
b. Input capacity 30.Test materials to be used shall be any
c. Peeling capacity of the following crops;
d. Crop capacity
a. Ginger
24.Length of time measured from the b. Arrow roots
time the prime mover was started c. Sweet potato
until it was turned off. d. Potato
e. Radish
a. Operating time f. Carrot
b. Operating capacity g. All of the above
c. Peeling duration
d. None of the above 31.Test materials to be used shall have
25.Number of persons needed to operate the following characteristics EXCEPT;
the multicrop washer-peeler. a. Locally grown
b. Freshly harvested
a. Human resources c. Amount of test is four times
b. Workforce the holding capacity
c. Labor requirement d. All of the above
d. Manpower e. None of the above
26.Materials that are damaged (i.e.
bruises/scratched, broken, sliced, etc.) 32.Before the start of the test trials,
as a result of washing and peeling randomly take approximately ____
operation, expressed in percent (%). sample for determination of input
material condition.
a. Damaged crops
b. Mechanically damaged a. 1 kg
materials b. 2 kg
c. Broken materials c. 5 kg
d. Material losses d. 3 kg
27.Preliminary operation of the machine 33.Randomly take approximately ____ of
to make final adjustments prior to the sample from the discharge chute in
conduct of test. each test trial to be analyzed in the
laboratory for output material
a. Runtime condition.
b. Pre-run period
c. Preliminary adjustment a. 1 kg
d. Running-in period b. 2 kg
Postharvest Machinery|63
 c. 1.5 kg divided by the initial weight of input
d. 2.5 kg sample (Wii, g).

34.Determination of INPUT condition of a. Soil-impurities removed from

test material includes the following the samples (Mr, %)
steps. Arrange it in order. b. Soil impurities present in the
output samples (Ma, %)
I. Let the sample dry and weigh c. Soil impurities present in the
II. Calculate the percent soil- samples (Mb, %)
impurities in the samples d. None of the above
III. Manually wash the sample
IV. Compute & record the weight of 39.Initial weight of output sample (Woi,
the soil-impurities present g) minus final weight of output sample
after manual washing (Wof, g), then
a. III, I, IV, II divided by the initial weight of output
b. IV, III, II, I sample (Woi, g).
c. III, I, II, IV a. Soil-impurities removed from
d. I, II, III, IV the samples (Mr, %)
b. Soil impurities present in the
35.Determination of OUTPUT condition output samples (Ma, %)
of test material includes the c. Soil impurities present in the
following steps. Arrange it in order. samples (Mb, %)
d. None of the above
I. Weigh the damaged samples
II. Inspect & separate the damaged 40.Power consumed (Pc, kW) times the
samples time of operation (To, h), divided by
III. Calculate the percent total weight of test material (Wo, kg)
mechanically damaged
IV. Calculate the net damaged a. Energy per mass
samples b. Specific internal energy (u,
kJ/kg)
a. IV, II, I, III c. Electrical energy consumption
b. III, IV, I, II (Ec, kW-h/kg)
c. I, II, III, IV d. None of the above
d. II, I, IV, III
ANSWER KEY (PAES 232-233:2008)
36.Soil-impurities removed from the
samples (Mr, %) over the soil 1) A
impurities present in the samples 2) A
(Mb, %). 3) D
4) C
a. Losses (%)
b. Machine efficiency (%) 5) A
c. Washing efficiency (%) 6) B
d. Impurity ratio 7) C
8) A
37.Soil impurities present in the 9) B
samples (Mb, %) minus soil- 10) C
impurities present in the output 11) D
sample (Ma, %). 12) B
13) C
a. Soil-impurities removed from
14) A
the samples (Mr, %)
15) D
b. Soil impurities added to the
samples (Mf, %) 16) C
c. Total soil impurities (Mt, %) 17) A
d. None of the above 18) A
19) A
38.Initial weight of input sample (Wii, g) 20) D
minus final weight of input sample 21) B
after manual washing (Wif, g), then 22) C
23) A
Postharvest Machinery|64
24) A
25) C
26) B
27) D
28) A
29) A
30) G
31) E
32) D
33) C
34) A
35) D
36) B
37) A
38) C
39) B
40) C

Postharvest Machinery|65
 PAES 234-235:2008
1. This standard specifies the fabrication
and performance requirements for
multicrop juice extractor used for
mechanical extraction of juice from
ginger, coconut, carrots, onion, lemon
grass, pandan leaves, arrow root,
cassava, sweet potato, garlic, herbal
plants and vegetables leaves.
a. PAES 222:2005
b. PAES 218:2004
c. PAES 234:2008
d. PAES 238:2008
e. PAES 236:2008
2. What machine is capable of
extracting the juice of different crops.
a. Multicrop Grater
b. Multicrop Juice Extractor
c. Multicrop Pulverizer
d. Multicrop Micromill
e. Feed Mixer
3. A part of the multicrop juice extractor
where juice extraction takes place.
a. hopper
b. extracting chamber
c. juice outlet
d. meal outlet
e. stand/frame
4. An aqueous liquid expressed or

PAES 234-235:2008 extracted from crops cells or tissues.

Multicrop Juice Extractor – a. waste
Specifications and Methods of Test b. water
c. meal
d. juice
e. extract
5. Ratio between the total moisture
extracted by the machine to the total
initial moisture content of the crop.
a. extraction recovery
b. extraction efficiency
c. extraction capacity
d. input capacity
e. output capacity
6. Total amount of extracted juice
collected based on the extraction
losses, expressed in percentage
a. extraction recovery
b. extraction efficiency
c. extraction capacity
d. input capacity
e. output capacity
7. What do you call the residues of the
crop after juice extraction?
a. juice
b. field residues
c. meal
d. agricultural liquid waste
e. agricultural solid waste
8. Refers to weight of water in a crop
usually expressed in percentage by
weight on the wet basis
Postharvest Machinery|66
 a. moisture content a. Roller press type
b. moisture content dry basis b. Piston press type
c. moisture content wet basis c. Screw press type
d. AOT d. Rubber roll type
e. NOT e. NOT
9. Machines that extract juice by 16. Based on PAES 234:2008 Multicrop
passing the crops in between rolling Juice Extractor: It is a multicrop juice
plates/disc extractor that has an input capacity
a. Roller press type of more than 40 kg/h?
b. Screw press type
c. Piston press type
d. Friction type a. Province scale
e. Rubber roll type b. Commercial/Large scale
10. Machines that extract juice by c. Household scale
squeezing or compressing. Crops are d. Small scale
placed between two surfaces and e. Medium scale
subjected to pressure 17. Based on PAES 234:2008 Multicrop
a. Roller press type Juice Extractor: It is a multicrop juice
b. Screw press type extractor that has an input capacity
c. Piston press type of 15 kg/h to 40 kg/h?
d. Friction type a. Commercial scale
e. Rubber roll type b. Province scale
11. According to PAES 234:2008 c. Medium scale
Multicrop Juice Extractor: The d. Household/small scale
minimum juice extraction recovery e. Large scale
shall be _____ of the juice extracted 18. Based on PAES 234:2008 Multicrop
a. 90% Juice Extractor: It is a multicrop juice
b. 65% extractor that has an input capacity
c. 75 % of up to 15 kg/h?
d. 100% a. Household/Small scale
12. According to PAES 234:2008 b. Commercial scale
Multicrop Juice Extractor: The noise c. Province scale
emitted by the multicrop juice d. Medium scale
extractor measured 50 mm away e. Large scale
from the operator’s ear level shall not 19. According to PAES 234:2008
be more than ____ Multicrop Juice Extractor: The
a. 98 db (A) minimum juice extraction efficiency
b. 96 db (A) shall be ______ of the initial moisture
c. 95 db (A) content of the crop
d. 97 db (A) a. 90%
e. 93 db (A) b. 65%
13. The multicrop juice extractor shall be c. 75 %
sampled for testing in accordance d. 80%
with ______. e. 100%
a. PAES 101 20. The fabrication of multicrop juice
b. PAES 102 extractor shall be rigid and should
c. PAES 103 endure normal use without
d. PAES 105 breakdown of its major components
e. PAES 106 (i.e. extracting chamber, etc.) for at
14. Multicrop juice extractor shall be least ___ year from the date of
tested in accordance with ______. original purchase.
a. PAES 235
b. PAES 236 a. 1
c. PAES 250 b. 2
d. PAES 251 c. 3
e. PAES 252 d. 4
15. Machines that extract juice through a e. NOT
tapered, rotating screw that moves
and compresses the crops. Extraction 21. All of these are parts of a multicrop
takes place by shearing and pressing juice extractor, EXCEPT
actions
Postharvest Machinery|67
 a. agitator 28.It is the initial moisture content of the
b. hopper crop
a. extracted juice
c. extracting chamber
b. extraction rate
d. juice and meal outlet c. potential juice content
e. transmission assembly and d. juice content
stand/frame e. NOT
22. According to PAES 234: 2008, which 29.It is the properties of the test material
agricultural machinery does it which deal with its anatomical
specifically address? characteristics such as length, width
and thickness.
a. Tractors a. Mechanical properties
b. Harvesters b. physical properties
c. Multicrop Juice Extractors c. chemical properties
d. Plows d. morphological properties
e. Coconut coir decorticator e. physical properties
23. What is the publication year of PAES 30.Ratio of the extracted juice and the
234? total weight of the input crop,
a. 2005 expressed in percent
b. 2008 a. extraction loss
c. 2010 b. meal
d. 2015 c. juice quality
e. 2016 d. juice loss
24. What organization initiated the
e. juice recovery
31.According to PAES 235:2008
formulation of PAES 234: 2008? Multicrop Juice Extractor: A minimum
a. Department of Agriculture of 3 test trials, with duration of at
b. Agricultural Machinery least __ minutes per trial, shall be
adopted.
Testing and Evaluation a. 10
Center (AMTEC) b. 15
c. Department of Science and c. 5
Technology (DOST) d. 20
d. Philippine Council for e. 25
Agriculture, Forestry and 32.According to PAES 235:2008
Natural Resources Research Multicrop Juice Extractor: Sampling
and Development (PCARRD) procedure for test materials- Before
the start of the test trials, randomly
25. This standard specifies the methods take approximately ___ kilograms
of test and inspection for multicrop sample for determination of input
juice extractor used for mechanical material condition.
extraction of juice from ginger, a. 2
coconut, carrots, onion, lemon grass, b. 3
pandan leaves, arrow root, cassava, c. 4
sweet potato, garlic, herbal plants d. 5
and vegetables leaves. e. 6
33.Based to PAES 235:2008 Multicrop
a. PAES 222:2005 Juice Extractor: The noise emitted by
b. PAES 218:2004 the machine shall be measured using
c. PAES 235:2008 a noise level meter at the location of
d. PAES 238:2008 the operator and collector. The noise
level shall be measured
e. PAES 236:2008 approximately __ mm away from the
26. Difference between the total amount ear level of the operator and
of potential juice content collector.
and total amount of juice recovered. a. 50
a. extraction loss b. 55
b. extraction efficiency c. 60
c. extraction rate d. 70
d. extraction recovery e. 80
e. NOT
27.Quantity of juice that the extractor 34.The speed of the rotating shafts of
can obtain per unit of time, the major components of the
expressed in kilogram per hour. multicrop juice extractor shall be
a. extraction loss taken using ______.
b. extraction efficiency a. Anemometer
c. extraction rate b. speedometer
d. extraction recovery c. tachometer
e. NOT
Postharvest Machinery|68
 d. AOT c. Relying on visual inspection
e. NOT d. Estimating based on the crop
35.What is the primary purpose of PAES type
235:2008, the Agricultural Machinery– e. None of the above
Multicrop Juice Extractor–Methods of
Test standard? 42.What formula is used to calculate
electrical energy consumption in
a. Verify manufacturing processes PAES 235:2008?
b. Evaluate juice extractor Pc To
performance a. Ec =
c. Determine product Wi
marketability F1
b. F c=
d. Assess environmental impact To
e. None of the above Wi
36.How does PAES 235:2008 c. Ci=
recommend handling major Ti
breakdowns during testing?
a. Continue testing despite Wf
d. R o= x 100
breakdowns Wi
b. Extend the test duration e. None of the above
c. Terminate the test 43.According to PAES 235:2008, where
d. Reduce the load on the should the noise level be measured
during testing?
machine
a. Close to the power source
e. None of the above
37.What is the recommended condition b. At the location of the
for the test material (e.g., ginger, operator and collector
coconut) in PAES 235:2008? c. Far away from the testing site
a. Freshly harvested d. Near the material handling
b. Shredded if necessary area
c. Pre-dried e. None of the above
d. Soaked in water 44.What is the purpose of the laboratory
e. None of the above analysis according to PAES 235:2008?
38.How many test trials, each lasting at a. Determine the color of the
least 15 minutes, does PAES extracted juice
235:2008 recommend for the b. Assess the physical properties
multicrop juice extractor?
a. One of the machine
b. Two c. Evaluate morphological
c. Three properties and moisture
d. Four content
e. Five d. Analyze the machine's power
39.According to PAES 235:2008, what consumption
should the test site conditions e. None of the above
include? 45.According to PAES 235:2008, an
a. Material handling officially designated operator shall be
b. Temporary storage _____ and shall demonstrate, operate,
adjust,
c. Sufficient workspace
repair as the case maybe, related to the
d. Normal working conditions
operation of the machine.
e. All of the above
40.How does PAES 235:2008
recommend sampling the multicrop a. Novice
juice extractor for testing? b. Skilled
a. Randomly select samples from c. Semi-skilled
a retail store d. Any person available
b. Collect samples only from the e. None of the above
manufacturer 46.How is the extraction loss (EL)
calculated according to PAES
c. Sample based on the date of 235:2008?
manufacture WL
d. Follow the sampling a. EL= x 100
method in PAES 103 W TJ
e. None of the above Wf
41.In PAES 235:2008, how is moisture b. EL= x 100
content determined for the test Wi
materials? Wm
a. Using a moisture meter c. EL= x 100
Wi
b. Applying the wet basis
oven-dry method

Postharvest Machinery|69
 W TJ 6. A
d. EL= x 100 7. C
Wf + WL
e. None of the above 8. A
47.How is the extraction rate (Er) 9. A
calculated according to PAES 10.C
235:2008?
11.A
Wf
a. Er= 12.B
Tt 13.C
Wi 14.A
b. Er=
Ti 15.C
Tt 16.B
c. Er= 17.C
Wf
18.A
Tt 19.C
d. Er=
Wi 20.A
e. None of the above 21.A
48.According to PAES 235:2008, what 22.C
are the two types of prime movers
mentioned for the multicrop juice 23.B
extractor? 24.B
a. Electric motor and gasoline 25.C
engine 26.A
b. Diesel engine and wind turbine
27.C
c. Solar panel and biomass burner
28.C
d. Human-powered and steam
engine 29.D
e. None of the above 30.E
49.How is the potential juice content 31.B
(PJC) calculated in PAES 235:2008? 32.B
MCi 33.A
a. PJC= x Wi
100 34.C
Wf 35.B
b. PJC=
Tt 36.C
Wi 37.B
c. PJC= 38.C
Tt
39.E
Tt 40.D
d. PJC=
Wf 41.B
e. None of the above 42.A
50.How is the Fuel consumption 43.B
calculated in PAES 235:2008?
44.C
F1
a. F c= 45.B
To 46.A
Wf 47.A
b. F c=
Tt 48.A
Wi 49.A
c. F c= 50.A
Tt
Tt
d. F c=
Wf
e. None of the above

ANSWER KEY (PAES 234-235: 2008)

1. C
2. B
3. B
4. D
5. B

Postharvest Machinery|70
 PAES 236-237:2008
Crystallizer – Specifications and
Methods of Test

Postharvest Machinery|71
PAES 236-237:2008 e. Cooling System
1. It is a component of the crystallizer 9. Machine that cooks ginger juice to
that is used in stirring to attain the produce ginger tea.
desired consistency of the mixture a. Infuser
to produce ginger tea. b. Evaporator
a. Cooling system c. Extractor
b. Agitator/Mixer d. Crystallizer
c. Paddle e. All of these
d. Filtration system 10. The burner shall provide the required
e. Crystallization Seeds heat for the operation of _______ and
2. It is the crystallized form of ginger shall be provided with an enclosure to
from its juice. minimize dissipation of heat.
a. Ginger Extract a. 75°C-145°C
b. Ginger Tea b. 80°C-150°C
c. Ginger Syrup c. 85°C-155°C
d. Ginger Crystals d. 90°C-160°C
e. Ginger Infusion e. 95°C-165°C
3. What does “LPG” stands for? 11. The minimum cooking recovery of
a. Liquefied Petroleum Gas crystallizer shall be ___
b. Low Pressure Gas a. 90%
c. Liquid Propane Gas b. 88%
d. Light Pressurized Gas c. 75%
e. Liquid Petroleum Gas d. 80%
4. Type of fuel used in cooking ginger e. 95%
juice.
a. Low Pressure Gas
b. Liquid Petroleum Gas
c. Low Pressure Gas
d. Liquefied Petroleum Gas
e. Liquid Propane Gas
5. The other term for ginger tea is? 12. Crystallizer shall be provided with a
a. Instant “Salabat” _____ that can withstand its load, e.g.
b. Peppermint Tisane angle bars or channel bars.
c. Salabat a. Support Structure
d. Chamomile Infusion b. Stirring Mechanism
e. Masala Chai c. Cooling System
6. Main source of heat used in cooking d. Filtration Unit
ginger juice. e. frame/stand
a. Microwave
13. The _______ shall be made of non-
b. Burner
corrosive and food grade materials,
c. Solar Energy
e.g. stainless steel (Grade 316 or
d. Stovetop Flame
higher).
e. Induction Cooktop
a. Heating Element
7. The ratio between the total weight of
b. Filtration System
recovered ginger tea and the weight
c. Mixer
of sugar added to the input ginger
Burner
juice.
d. Stirrer Shaft and Paddle
a. Dilution Ratio e
b. Extraction Index
14. The operation of a crystallizer shall
c. Cooking Recovery
conform to GMP requirements. What
d. Crystallization Yield
does “GMP” stands for?
e. Sugar Efficiency
a. General Machine Protocol
8. Refers to a part of crystallizer that
b. Good Manufacturing Principles
shall be made of non-corrosive, food
c. Good Manufacturing Practice
grade and oxidation resistant
d. Global Manufacturing Practices
materials, e.g. stainless steel (Grade
e. General Management
316 or higher).
Procedure
a. Filtration System
15. The final product, ginger tea should
b. Cooking Basin
have an average particle size
c. Agitator
diameter of ____ mm.
d. Crystallization Vessel
Postharvest Machinery|72
 a. 0.315 b. Paddle
b. 0.310 c. Prime mover
c. 0.410 d. Transmission assembly
d. 0.415 e. None of these
e. None of these 23. According to PAES 236:2008, all
16. The Crystallizer’s stirring speed shall welded parts shall conform to _______.
be _____ rpm. a. AWS D1.1:2000
a. 30 to 40 b. AWS D1.2:2000
b. 25 to 35 c. AWS D1.1:2001
c. 50 to 60 d. AWS D1.2:2001
d. 45 to 55 e. None of these
e. 40 to 50 24. The following statements are correct
17. The noise emitted by the crystallizer except;
measured 50 mm away from the a. The crystallizer shall be free
operator’s ear level at actual working from manufacturing defects
position shall not be more than ___ that may significantly affect its
db. design capacity and
a. 90 performance.
b. 97 b. The crystallizer shall be free
c. 93 from sharp edges and surfaces
d. 85 that may injure the operator.
e. 96 c. All machine surfaces not in
18. The power requirement shall be ___ contact with the material shall
kW (½ hp) for six (6) kilogram be coated with a suitable paint
capacity material.
a. 0.37 d. Enclosure of the burner shall
b. 0.36 be provided with insulation.
c. 0.38 e. Protective covers shall be
d. 0.40 provided for all rotating
e. None of these components and transmission
19. This standard specifies the fabrication assembly.
and performance requirements for 25. Each crystallizer shall be marked in
crystallizer used in the production of English with the following information
ginger tea (instant “salabat”). using a stencil. Which of the following
a. PAES 237:2008 does not belong to the group?
b. PAES 236:2008 a. Brand
c. PAES 236:2009 b. Model
d. PAES 237:2018 c. Output product
e. None of these d. Weight of the product
20. In the Crystallizer, what materials e. Name and Address of the
shall be used for parts in direct Importer
contact of the material being 26. This standard specifies the methods
processed. of test and inspection for crystallizer
a. Fragile and Non-corrosive used for the production of ginger tea
materials (instant “salabat”).
b. Commercially available a. PAES 236:2008
materials b. PAES 237:2018
c. Corrosive and Reactive c. PAES 237:2008
materials d. PAES 236:2009
d. Non-corrosive materials e. None of these
e. Food grade materials 27. Electric motor or internal combustion
21. An operator’s manual, which engine used to drive the crystallizer.
conforms to PAES 102, shall be a. Hydraulic System
provided by the ______. b. Pneumatic Mechanism
a. Operator c. Propulsion System
b. Equipment Supplier d. Prime Mover
c. Regulatory Authority e. None of these
d. Quality Control Officer 28. It refers to the physical and chemical
e. Manufacturer properties of the product, instant
22. Which does not belong to the group? “salabat”.
a. Burner a. Ginger tea quality
Postharvest Machinery|73
 b. Quality standards 36. According to PAES 237:2008, a
c. Product Specifications minimum of ____ test trials shall be
d. Composition Properties adopted.
e. None of these a. 2
29. The principal factor which indicates b. 1
the uniformity of ginger tea (instant c. 3
“salabat”). d. 5
a. Color consistency e. 4
b. Fineness modulus 37. It refers to the duration of each test
c. Particle size distribution trial shall start from loading to
d. Packaging material unloading of test materials.
e. Flavor intensity a. Experimental phase
30. Length of time measured from the b. Operation cycle
time the burner is turned on until it is c. Duration of test
turned off. d. Test interval
a. Combustion period e. Trial period
b. Ignition duration
c. Operation cycle 38. In the sampling procedure for instant
d. Burner interval “salabat”. After cooking, how many
e. Operating time grams of sample should you
31. Quantity of juice that the crystallizer randomly take in each test trial to be
can cook per unit of time, expressed analyzed in the laboratory?
in kilogram per hour. a. 250
a. Cooking efficiency b. 300
b. Juice throughput c. 270
c. Cooking rate d. 245
d. Crystallization rate e. None of these
e. None of these 39. All samples shall be placed in
32. It is a type of fuel from living appropriate containers, properly
organisms such as plants, animals labeled and sealed.
and their by-products. a. Secure packing protocol
a. Fossil fuel b. Sample preservation procedure
b. Renewable energy c. Labeling and sealing standard
c. Nuclear energy d. Handling of samples
d. Biomass fuel e. None of these
e. None of these 40. It is the noise emitted by the machine
33. The total percent of ginger tea shall be measured using a noise level
(instant “salabat”) loss based on the meter at the location of the operator.
recovered product. a. Noise abatement assessment
a. Loss percentage b. Noise level
b. Crystallization yield c. Operator’s environment
c. Product recovery rate analysis
d. Cooking losses d. Machine noise evaluation
e. None of these e. None of these
34. The following are General Conditions 41. The speed of the rotating shafts of
for Test and Inspection, except; the major components of the
a. Selection of Crystallizer to be crystallizer shall be taken using
tested ______.
b. Role of manufacturer/dealer a. Rotation gauge
c. Role of the operator b. Velocity sensor
d. Test site conditions c. Revolving meter
e. Test instruments d. Speedometer
35. This is carried out to determine e. Tachometer
overall machine performance. 42. The noise level shall be measured
a. Quality control approximately ___ mm away from the
b. Machine calibration ear level of the operator
c. Performance test a. 60
d. Routine maintenance b. 55
e. Performance evaluation c. 45
d. 65
e. 50

Postharvest Machinery|74
 49. It means that the crystallizer shall be
operated at the recommended
settings of the manufacturer.
a. Flexible operation guidelines
b. Adjustable process parameters
43. In case an electric motor is used as c. Operation of the crystallizer
the prime mover, a _________ shall be d. Optional operational
used to measure electric energy configurations
consumption. e. None of these
a. Power meter 50. This inspection is carried out to verify
b. Volt meter the mechanism, dimensions,
c. Ammeter materials and accessories of the
d. Energy gauge crystallizer in comparison with the list
e. None of these of manufacturer’s technical data and
44. Under the Analysis of Ginger Tea information.
(Instant “Salabat”). For each test a. Quality control assessment
trial, place the samples in a testing b. Technical data comparison
sieve shaker with a series of sieves c. Manufacturer’s specifications
screen. Shake the samples for at check
least ____ minutes. d. Verification of the
a. 7 manufacturer’s technical data
b. 8 and information
c. 5 e. None of these
d. 6
e. None of these
45. The test report shall include the
following information, except;
a. Methods of Test
b. Purpose and Scope of Test
c. Results and Discussions
d. Title
e. Abstract
46. It shall be used to determine the
quality of the ginger tea (instant
“salabat”).
a. Machine inspection report
b. Laboratory analysis
c. Sensory evaluation
d. Chemical analysis kit
e. None of these
47. It refers to the speed of the rotating ANSWER KEY (PAES 236-237: 2008)
shafts of the major components of 1. C
the crystallizer. 2. B
a. Speed of components 3. A
b. Shaft speed 4. D
c. Component rotation 5. A
d. Revolving rate
6. B
e. None of these
7. C
48. Why is it important to operate the
crystallizer at the recommended 8. B
settings of the manufacturer? 9. D
a. To increase energy 10.B
consumption 11.A
b. To ensure optimal performance 12.E
and efficiency 13.E
c. To intentionally promote 14.C
crystallization flaws 15.B
d. To disregard manufacturer 16.E
guidelines for flexibility 17.E
e. None of these 18.A

Postharvest Machinery|75
19.B
20.E
21.E
22.E
23.A
24.E
25.D
26.C
27.D
28.A
29.B
30.E
31.C
32.D
33.D
34.E
35.C
36.A
37.C
38.A
39.D
40.B
41.E
42.E
43.A
44.C
45.E
46.B
47.A
48.B
49.C
50.D

Postharvest Machinery|76
 PAES 238-239:2008
1. What is the purpose of PAES
238:2008?
a. Structural welding
standards
b. Agricultural machinery
operator’s manual
c. Multicrop micromill
specifications
d. Food seasoning guidelines
2. What is the primary purpose of
a multicrop micromill, as
mentioned in the standard?
a. Structural grinding
b. Food seasoning or flour
production
c. Welding code compliance
d. Sampling agricultural
products
3. What is the function of the
collecting bin in a multicrop
micromill?
a. Grinding/milling chamber
b. Material separation
c. Input capacity
measurement
d. Prime mover control
4. Which type of mill consists of
PAES 238-239:2008 rollers with or without serrated
Multicrop Micromill- Specifications and surfaces?
Methods of Test a. Hammer mill
b. Attrition mill
c. Roller mill
d. Cyclone mill
5. What material should the
hopper of a multicrop micromill
be made of?
a. Corrosive and non-food
grade
b. Stainless steel (Grade 304
or higher)
c. Aluminum
d. Cheesecloth
6. In which part of the multicrop
micromill does milling/grinding
take place?
a. Cyclone
b. Collecting bin
c. Hopper
d. Milling chamber
7. What does the term "milling
efficiency" refer to?
a. Input capacity
b. Noise level
c. Ratio of acceptable product
to total recovery
d. Prime mover power

Postharvest Machinery|77
8. What is the recommended b. Cover normal wear and tear.
screen size for the ground/milled c. Extend the manufacturer's
product in a multicrop micromill? profit.
a. 30 mesh d. Guarantee against defects.
b. 50 mesh 16. What is the primary consideration
c. 80 mesh for marking a multicrop micromill
d. 100 mesh according to Section 12?
9. Which part of the multicrop a. Color coordination
micromill should be made of b. Size of the markings
Grade #50 cheesecloth? c. Language and information
a. Cyclone d. Position on the frame
b. Hopper 17. Which information is NOT required
c. Collecting bin for marking a multicrop micromill?
d. Milling chamber a. Serial number
10. What is the minimum milling b. Power requirement, kW
recovery required for a multicrop c. Weight of the multicrop
micromill? micromill
a. 80% d. Country of manufacture
b. 90% 18. What should the
c. 95% safety/precautionary markings be
d. 100% printed in according to Section 12?
11. According to PAES 238:2008, a. Blue color
what type of balance should all b. Red color with a white
components of the multicrop background
micromill have? c. Black color
a. Static balance d. Green color
b. Dynamic balance 19. Which section of the standard
c. Corrosive balance discusses the requirements for
d. Shearing balance maintenance and operation?
12. How long should the a. Section 5
fabrication of a multicrop b. Section 9
micromill endure normal use c. Section 11
without major breakdown? d. Section 12
a. 6 months 20. What is the primary purpose of
b. 1 year sampling a multicrop micromill
c. 2 years according to Section 10?
d. 5 years
a. Determine the manufacturing
13.What is the recommended defects.
maximum noise level emitted by b. Testing in accordance with
the multicrop micromill, PAES 239
measured 50 mm away from the c. Verify the warranty.
operator's ear? d. Assess the noise level.

a. 80 dB 21. Which document outlines the

b. 90 dB methods of testing for a multicrop
c. 96 dB micromill?
d. 100 dB a. PAES 102:2000
b. PAES 103:2000
14. Which section of the standard c. PAES 238:2008
discusses the requirements for d. PAES 239:2008
safety, workmanship, and finish? 22. What should be provided for each
a. Section 5 multicrop micromill unit for
b. Section 7 maintenance according to Section 9?
c. Section 8 a. Set of manufacturer's standard
d. Section 10 tools
15. What is the purpose of the b. PAES 239:2008 document
warranty provided for fabrication and c. Operator's manual
durability of a multicrop micromill? d. Safety gear
a. Ensure proper assembly.
Postharvest Machinery|78
23. What does the term "input a. Weight of input test material
capacity" refer to in the context of a per unit time
multicrop micromill? b. Moisture content of the ground
a. Power requirement material
b. Weight of material per unit c. Duration of the running-in
loading time into the hopper period
c. Noise level d. Total amount of material milled
d. Milling recovery over the total time.
24. What is the specific requirement
31. Which type of mill uses a beater in
for the material of the main shaft of a
the milling chamber, as specified in
multicrop micromill?
PAES 239:2008?
a. Corrosive and food grade
a. Hammer mill
b. Stainless steel
c. Cheesecloth b. Attrition mill
d. Aluminum c. Roller mill
25. What is the minimum milling d. Cyclone mill
efficiency for multicrop micromill? 32. What is the primary consideration

a. 80% for selecting the multicrop micromill

b. 90% to be tested, as per Section 4.1 of
c. 95% PAES 239:2008?
d. 100% a. Machine weight
26. What is the primary purpose of b. Manufacturer's location
PAES 239:2008? c. Crop used in the test.
a. Structural welding standards d. Compliance with PAES 103
b. Agricultural machinery 33. What role does the operator play
operator’s manual in the testing process, according to
c. Multicrop micromill Section 4.3 of PAES 239:2008?
specifications a. Calibration of instruments
d. Food seasoning guidelines
b. Conducting laboratory analysis
c. Providing specifications
27.Which document outlines the
d. Skilled operation and
methods of testing for a multicrop
demonstration
micromill?
34. What is the purpose of the
a. PAES 102:2000
b. PAES 103:2000 running-in period, as mentioned in
c. PAES 238:2008 PAES 239:2008?
d. PAES 239:2008 a. Initial machine assembly
b. Final adjustments prior to
28. What is the purpose of testing
determining the performance of the c. Calibration of instruments
multicrop micromill according to PAES d. Cleaning parts after each test
239:2008? trial
a. Ensure proper assembly 35. Which equipment is NOT listed in
b. Cover normal wear and tear Annex A as part of the minimum list
c. Verify the warranty of field and laboratory test equipment
d. Evaluate machine functionality for multicrop micromill testing?
29. What does the term "fineness" a. Tachometer
refer to in the context of PAES b. Vernier Caliper
239:2008? c. pH Meter
a. Uniformity of grind in the d. Sieve Shaker
resultant product 36. What is the primary consideration
b. Moisture content of the test for selecting the test material for
material multicrop micromill testing, as per
c. Speed of the rotating shafts Section 5.2 of PAES 239:2008?
d. Noise level emitted by the a. Color of the material
machine. b. Moisture content
30. What is the definition of "input c. Country of origin
capacity" in PAES 239:2008? d. Manufacturer's preference

Postharvest Machinery|79
37. What is the recommended c. Section 6
moisture content of the test material, d. Section 7
as per Section 5.2.1.3 of PAES 44. What is the primary role of the
239:2008? manufacturer/dealer in the testing
a. 5 - 7% process, according to Section 4.2 of
b. 10 - 12% PAES 239:2008?
c. 12 - 14% a. Calibration of instruments
d. 15 - 18% b. Submission of specifications
38. What does the term "vibration" and relevant information
refer to in the performance test c. Skilled operation and
observations, as per Section C.3.7 of demonstration
PAES 239:2008? d. Cleaning parts after each test
a. Moisture content trial
b. Machine movement or shaking 45. Which section of PAES 239:2008
c. Input capacity provides the formula for calculating
d. Milling recovery milling recovery (MR)?
39. Which section of PAES 239:2008 a. Section 5
provides information on the minimum b. Section 7
list of field and laboratory test c. Section 8
equipment and materials? d. Annex E
a. Section 4 46. What is the primary role of the
b. Section 5 officially designated operator,
c. Annex A according to Section 4.3 of PAES
d. Annex B 239:2008?
40. What is the primary purpose of the a. Calibration of instruments
laboratory analysis in PAES b. Submission of specifications
239:2008? and relevant information
a. Verify manufacturer's c. Skilled operation and
specifications demonstration
b. Determine moisture content d. Cleaning parts after each test
and fineness of test material trial
c. Evaluate ease of handling and 47. Which item is NOT part of the
safety features information recorded in Annex B for
d. Calculate milling efficiency the specifications of the multicrop
41. Which formula is used to calculate micromill?
milling capacity (CM) in PAES a. Overall dimensions
239:2008? b. Weight of the operator
a. CM=Wo/To c. Type of pulley
b. CM=Wi⋅Ti/1000 d. Dimensions of the milling
c. CM=Wo⋅1000/To chamber
d. CM=Wi⋅To/1000 48. What is the purpose of the sieve

42. What does the term "sealed" shaker testing, as per Section 8.2 of
mean in the context of PAES PAES 239:2008?
239:2008, as per Section 3.12? a. Determine moisture content
a. Closed tightly to prevent b. Evaluate ease of handling
moisture entry c. Analyze the ground/milled
b. Free of openings allowing entry product
or passage of moisture d. Calculate milling efficiency
c. Filled with a sealant material 49. What role does the sealed

d. Covered with a protective seal environment play in moisture content

43. Which section of PAES 239:2008 determination, according to Section
discusses the termination of the test 8.1.1 of PAES 239:2008?
in case of major component a. Prevents alterations of test
breakdown or malfunctions? material conditions
a. Section 4 b. Facilitates cooling of samples
b. Section 5 c. Accelerates drying in the oven

Postharvest Machinery|80
 d. Ensures proper calibration of 45. D
the oven 46. C
50. What information is included in 47. B
the Test Report as per Section 10 of 48. C
PAES 239:2008? 49. A
a. Name of the manufacturer 50. D
b. Summary, purpose, and scope
of the test
c. Methods of test
d. All of the above

ANSWER KEY (PAES 238-239:2008)

1. C
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. B
6. D
7. C
8. B
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. C
14. B
15. D
16. C
17. C
18. B
19. B
20. B
21. D
22. A
23. B
24. B
25. C
26. C
27. D
28. D
29. A
30. A
31. A
32. C
33. D
34. B
35. C
36. B
37. C
38. B
39. C
40. B
41. A
42. B
43. C
44. B

Postharvest Machinery|81
 PAES 240-241:2010
1. Asymmetry between the top and
the bottom curves of an airfoil in
cross-section.
a. rotor
b. camber
c. cross-section
d. airfoil
e. NOT
2. device for moving air which
utilizes a power-driven rotating
impeller
a. fan blower
b. propeller fan
c. rotor
d. cross-flow blower
e. NOT
3. ratio between the lift force and the
drag force on fan/blower blades
during operation
a. hub-tip ratio
b. drag ratio
c. Lift drag ratio
d. both a and c
e. AOT
4. side of the fan/blower blade where
PAES 240-241:2010 the air comes in contact with at
Fans and Blowers- Specifications and
entry
Methods of Test
a. trailing edge
b. trailing side
c. leading edge
d. leading side
e. upper camber
5. side of the fan/blower blade that
is usually pointed and where the
deflection of air occurs
a. trailing edge
b. trailing side
c. leading edge
d. leading side
e. upper camber
6. ratio between the hub diameter
and the fan/blower wheel
diameter
a. hub-tip ratio
b. Drag ratio
c. Lift drag ratio
d. Both a and c
e. AOT
7. rotating device with blades
projecting from a hub
a. blade
b. Fan blade

Postharvest Machinery|82
 c. fan wheel It has a streamline cross-sectional
d. Rotor shape.
e. fan a. Asymmetrical airfoil blade
b. Cross-sectional Shape of Blade
c. Single-Thickness Sheet Metal
8. The following are the different Blade
types of coupling used in direct- d. Centrifugal Fans with Airfoil
drive fan/blower except Blades
a. Rigid coupling e. Backward-Inclined Blades
b. Flexible coupling 14. Fans that are commonly used for
c. Direct-drive fan/blower supplying cool air to certain
d. AOT processes and exhausting hot or
e. NOT contaminated air and corrosive
9. Type of coupling that is used gases in buildings.
when the shafts are virtually a. Tube-axial fan
collinear and when they remain in b. Propeller fan
fixed angular relation with respect c. Vane-axial fan
to each other (except for angular d. Axial-centrifugal fan
deflection) e. NOT
a. flexible coupling 15. Fan that consists of an axial-flow
b. Rigid coupling wheel within a cylinder and
c. Direct-drive fan/ blower includes driving-mechanism
d. gear coupling supports either for belt drive or
e. Direct coupling direct connection.
10. Type of coupling that is designed a. Tube-axial fan
to connect shafts which are b. Propeller fan
misaligned either laterally or c. Vane-axial fan
angularly. A secondary benefit is d. Axial-centrifugal fan
the absorption of impacts due to e. NOT
fluctuations in shaft torque or 16. Fan that consists of an axial-flow
angular speed wheel within a cylinder, a set of
a. flexible coupling guides located either before or
b. Rigid coupling after the wheel, and including
c. Direct-drive coupling driving-mechanism supports for
d. Gear coupling either belt drive or direct
e. Direct coupling connection.
11. The following are the Parts of a. Tube-axial fan
belt-driven propeller fan/blower b. Propeller fan
except c. Vane-axial fan
a. fan assembly d. Axial-centrifugal fan
b. Motor and bearing base e. NOT
c. Motor pulley 17. This type of fan is also known as
d. Fan pulley tubular centrifugal fan, in-line
e. NOT centrifugal fan or mixed flow fan
12. Part/s of direct-drive propeller a. tube-axial fan
fan/blower b. Propeller fan
a. fan assembly c. Vane-axial fan
b. Prime mover d. Axial-centrifugal fan
c. fan pulley e. NOT
d. motor pulley 18. Number of blades of centrifugal
e. both a and b fans with airfoil blade
13. Blade that has a blunt leading a. 10 to 12
edge and a pointed trailing edge. b. 8 to 11

Postharvest Machinery|83
 c. 9 to 12 d. AOT
d. 7 to 12 e. NOT
e. 8 to 12 25.Fan guard shall be provided at the
19. What is the hub-tip ratio of item exposed fan inlets and/or outlets
no.? when the fan is being installed
a. 50 to 65 ___________ from the ground to
b. 65 to 80 avoid accidents
c. 65 to 75 a. less than 1.5 m
d. 75 to 85 b. Greater than 2.5 m
e. 75 to 95 c. less than 2.13 m
d. greater than 1.8 m
20. In this type of fan, the air stream e. NOT
has to make two 45 degrees turns 26. A device used for measuring
before exiting the fan housing pressure.
a. Fan wheel with conical back a. Barometer
plate b. Tachometer
b. Fan Wheel with Flat Back Plate c. Manometer
c. propeller fan d. Psychrometer
d. Vane-axial fan e. AOT
e. Axial-centrifugal fan 27.Is part of the energy per unit time
21. Types of fan have up blast, down that is imparted by the fan to the
flow and radial discharge of air. air by increasing its total pressure
This is mainly use for exhausting from the inlet to the outlet
and supplying air from and into a. Air Force
the building. b. Air Pressure
a. Cross-Flow Blowers c. Air Energy
b. Fan wheel with flat back plate d. Air Power
c. Roof ventilators e. Air flow
d. Tube-axial fan 28.The angle measured between the
e. Vane-axial fan air inlet and the lower Camber of
22. This type of fan, the airflow the fan/blower.
passes twice through a fan wheel a. Angle of Fan/Blower
with forward-curved blades. This b. Angle of Attack
type is mainly used as air curtains, c. Angle of Air
long and narrow heating or cooling d. Angle of Wind
coils and dry blowers. e. NOT
a. cross-flow blowers 29.A tube that is being connected to
b. Fan wheel with flat back plate a manometer and is being used to
c. Roof ventilators measure the static and total force
d. Tube-axial fan of air in the testing duct of
e. Vane-axial fan fan/blower.
23. The black plate shall be made of a. Air Tube
a. aluminum b. U-Tube
b. Steel c. Pipe Tube
c. Cast iron d. Pitot Tube
d. Both b and c e. Exhaust tube
e. Both a and b 30.A device for moving air which
24. The fan housing/casing shall be utilizes a power-driven rotating
made of steel or cast aluminum. It impeller.
shall be _________ shaped. a. Fan
a. cylindrical b. Wheel
b. Square c. Vacuum
c. Barrel d. Air Mover

Postharvest Machinery|84
 e. Blade 37.The pressure along the line of the
31.It is when the air flow/movement flow that result from the air
produces by fan/blower starts to flowing through the duct.
reverse direction. a. static air power
a. Blow-Flow b. Total pressure
b. Reverse-Flow c. Static pressure
c. Rotate-Flow d. Velocity pressure
d. Back-Flow e. Total air pressure
e. axial flow 38.part of the energy per unit time
32.The ratio between the lift force that is imparted by the fan/blower
and the drag force on fan/blower to the air in overcoming static
blades during operation. pressure from the inlet to the
a. Lift-Drag Ratio outlet
b. Front-Back Ratio a. static air power
c. Hub-Tip Ratio b. Total pressure
d. Fan-Blade Ratio c. Static pressure
e. NOT d. Velocity pressure
33.The ratio between the hub e. Total air pressure
diameter and the fan/blower 39.It is the sum of the static and
wheel diameter. velocity pressure
a. Lift-Drag Ratio a. static air pressure
b. Front-Back Ratio b. Total pressure
c. Hub-Tip Ratio c. Static pressure
d. Fan-Blade Ratio d. Velocity pressure
e. NOT e. Total air pressure
34.It is the point in the duct at which 40.formula in getting the angle of
measurement using pitot tube attack
shall be done. a. α = cos-1 (b/c)
a. Pitot Point b. α = cos-1 (b*c)
b. Measure Point c. α = cos-1 (b/c)^2
c. Duct Point d. α = cos-1 (b/c+1)
d. Traverse Point e. NOT
e. Outlet point 41.How many different conditions of
35.A conical structure or orifice rings the area of the duct opening shall
that are being used at the end of be computed using the minimum
testing duct of fan/blower to and maximum static pressure.?
enable variation in air volumetric a. 6
flow rate. b. 2
a. Throttling Device c. 3
b. Measuring Device d. 4
c. Pitot Device e. 5
d. Air Device 42.What is the minimum number of
e. NOT test trials that must be
36.It is the potential energy put into conducted?
the system by the fan/blower and a. 2 trials
is given up to friction in the ducts b. 4 trials
and at the duct inlet as it is c. 5 trials
converted to velocity pressure. d. 3 trials
a. Static Air Power e. 6 trials
b. Total Pressure 43.What is the formula used for the
c. Static Pressure Power input (for electric motor)?
d. Velocity Pressure a. Pi = E x I x cos -1
e. Total ait pressure b. Pi = E x I x cos -1 ө

Postharvest Machinery|85
 c. Pi = E x I x cos ө the air produces by the fan/blower
d. Pi = E x I x sin ө starts to back flow shall be
e. Pi = E x I x measured using
44.It was approved for adoption as a. manometer
Philippine National Standard by b. barometer
the Bureau of Product Standards c. Tachometer
upon the recommendation of the d. Psychrometer
Agricultural Machinery Testing and e. NOT
Evaluation Center (AMTEC) and 48.Manometer when measuring shall
the Philippine Council for be aligned to the
Agriculture, Forestry and Natural a. air force
Resources Research and b. flow of air
Development of the Department c. Air power
of Science and Technology d. Air energy
(PCARRD-DOST). e. NOT
a. PAES 240:2010 – Agricultural 49.Throttling device such as
Machinery-Fans and Blowers- ____________________ shall be
Specifications provided to vary the air volume
b. PAES 241:2010 – Agricultural and static pressure of the test
Machinery-Fans and Blowers- fan/blower.
Methods of Test a. conical structure
c. PAES 240:2010 – Agricultural b. Orifice ring
Machinery-Fans and Blowers c. Both a and b
d. PAES 241:2011 - Agricultural d. A only
Machinery-Fans and Blowers- e. NOT
Method og Test 50.This standard specifies the
e. NOT methods of test and inspection for
fans and blowers. Specifically, it
shall be used to:
45.What role does the a. verify the mechanism,
manufacturer/dealer play in the dimensions, materials,
testing process of the fan/blower? accessories of the fans and
a. shall submit list of blowers and the list of
specifications and other specifications submitted by the
relevant information about the manufacturer
fan/blower b. determine the performance of
b. shall abide with the terms and the machine
conditions set forth by an c. evaluate the ease of handling
official testing agency. and safety features
c. Both a and b d. report the results of the tests.
d. A only e. AOT
e. NOT
46.An officially designated operator
shall be skilled and shall; ANSWER KEY (PAES 240-241:2010)
a. demonstrate
1. B
b. operate
2. A
c. adjust
3. C
d. arepair as the case maybe,
4. C
related to the operation of the
5. A
machine.
6. A
e. AOT
7. D
47.Static pressure at fully open
8. E
condition and at condition in which
9. B
Postharvest Machinery|86
10.A
11.E
12.E
13.A
14.B
15.A
16.C
17.D
18.C
19.B
20.A
21.C
22.A
23.D
24.D
25.C
26.C
27.D
28.B
29.D
30.A
31.D
32.A
33.C
34.D
35.A
36.C
37.D
38.A
39.B
40.A
41.E
42.D
43.C
44.B
45.C
46.E
47.A
48.B
49.C
50.E

Postharvest Machinery|87
 PAES 242-243:2010
1. It is an enclosed structure
for intense heating by fire
using biomass like
woodchips, corncobs and
rice hull as fuel.
a. Biomass
b. Biomass furnace
c. Grate
d. Workload
e. Hearth
2. What do you call the
materials to be processed
using biomass furnaced?
a. Grate
b. Workload
c. Biomass furnace
d. None of the above
e. Hearth
3. It is a kind of castable
refractory mortar with a
consistency that makes it
easy to trowel into place.
a. Plastic refractory
b. B. castable refractory
c. Patching refractory
d. Gunning refractory
e. Trowelable refractory

PAES 242-243:2010 4. What classification of

Biomass Furnace- Specifications and direct-fired biomass

Methods of Test furnace are shown in the
figure?

a.

Cyclonic
b. Gravity
c. Step-grate
d. None of the above
e. All of the above
5. Single layer heat resisting
lining of the combustion
chamber and walls shall be
able to withstand the
operating temperature of
at most
.
a. 1500- degree
Fahrenheit
b. 770- degree Celsius
Postharvest Machinery|88
 c. 760- degree Celsius
d. 1400- degree
Fahrenheit
e. C or D
6. It is a heat resisting lining
of the furnace using
aggregates and bonding
agent(s).
a. Ceramic fiber lining
b. Brick lining
c. Castable lining
d. Monolithic lining
e. None of the above
7. Biomass furnace that is
operating with
temperature than
760 °C (1400 °F) shall
have a multi-layer wall of
hearth.
a. Higher
b. Lower
c. Decrease
d. None of the above
e. Poor

Postharvest Machinery|89
 8. What do you call the distance of the heat
figures below? exchanger tubes installed
shall be more than
times the tubes outside
diameter.
a. 1.30
b. 1.22
a. Steel Shell c. 1.25
b. Monolithic lining d. 2.0
c. Different shapes of e. 2.5
refractory anchors 15. Total cross-sectional area of
d. None of the above heat exchanger used in
e. Bricks biomass furnace shall be to
9. Insulation shall be made of the cross-sectional area of
fireproof materials; by how the duct connected to the
many percent of manganese plenum used in grain dryer.
are needed a. Greater
a. 90%
b. Lesser
b. 85%
c. Equal
c. 100%
d. Lower
d. 65%
e. Higher
e. 50%
16. In designing rice hull
10. What is the angle of repose biomass furnace, the
for corncob?
following shall be
a. 30°-36°
considered:
b. 32°-39°
a. Ash of rice hull is abrasive
c. 45°-50°
and acidic
d. 32°-35°
b. During operation ash
e. 25°-30°
temperature is low.
11. What is the angle of repose c. Ash content of rice hull is
for rice hull?
approximately 20%.
a. 35°-50°
d. A and c only
b. 30°-36°
e. All of the above
c. 32°-60°
d. 25°-30°
e. 45°-50°
17. Heating system efficiency of
12. For indirect-fired biomass
the furnace shall be at least
furnace, what heat
for direct-fired and for
exchanger shall be used in a
indirect- fired.
wet type furnace? a. 50%; 65%
a. Fire tube b. 70%; 50%
b. Parallel flow heat c. 55%; 70%
exchanger d. 65%; 70%
c. Counter flow heat e. 65%; 50%
exchanger
d. Boiler tube
18. Burning efficiency of the
e. None of the above
biomass furnace shall be
13. For indirect-fired biomass at least .
furnace, what heat
exchanger shall be used in a
a. 99%
dry type furnace?
a. Parallel flow heat
b. 98.5%
exchanger c. 97%
b. Fire tube d. 96%
c. Boiler tube e. 95%
d. Counter flow heat 19. Furnace efficiency shall be
exchanger at least .
e. None of the above a. 65%
14. The center to center b. 70%

Postharvest Machinery|90
 c. 75% furnace
d. 80% b. Indirect-fired biomass

e. 85% furnace
20. Biomass furnace shall be c. Direct-fired biomass

tested in accordance with furnace

d. Wet type biomass
.
a. PAES 242
furnace
e. None of the above
b. PAES 243
c. PAES 244
26. What do you call the
d. PAES 245
distance between the
e. PAES 246
horizontal supporting plane
21. It has course and fine surface and the horizontal
plane touching the
refractory grains and
uppermost part of the
bonding agents, suitable
biomass furnace?
for installation with a
a. Overall length
gunning machine.
a. Injection refractory b. Overall distance

b. Vibratable refractory c. Overall height

c. Gunning refractory d. Overall width

d. Coating refractory e. None of the above

e. Refractory mortars 27. It is the heat absorbed or

22. What do you call the heat evolved by a substance
resisting lining of the during a change of
furnace that uses ceramic temperature that is not
materials? accompanied by a change
a. Monolithic lining of state.
b. Ceramic fiber lining a. Sensible heat

c. Brick lining b. Sensible latent

d. None of the above c. Latent heat of

e. All of the above vaporization

23. It uses hot fluid as medium d. None of the above

of heat transfer. 28. What do you call the

a. Dry type biomass distance between the
furnace vertical planes at the right
b. Indirect-fired biomass angles to the median
furnace plane of the biomass
c. Direct-fired biomass furnace and touching its
furnace front and rear extremities?
d. Wet type biomass a. Overall length
furnace b. Overall distance
e. None of the above c. Overall height
24. It uses ambient air to be d. Overall width
heated inside or outside e. None of the above
the heat exchanger and 29. It is identified as the ratio
be used as drying air. of the actual and the
a. Dry type biomass theoretical heating value
furnace
of fuel and it is expresses
b. Indirect-fired biomass
in percent.
furnace a. Furnace efficiency
c. Direct-fired biomass
b. Heating system
furnace efficiency
d. Wet type biomass
c. Height efficiency
furnace d. Burning efficiency
e. None of the above e. Thermal efficiency
25. This biomass furnace 30. What do you call the
should preferably have distance between the
control panel for vertical planes parallel to
temperature monitoring. the median of the
a. Dry type biomass

Postharvest Machinery|91
 machine, each plane efficient burning for corn
touching the outermost cobs?
point of the biomass a. 10% (maximum)
furnace on its respective b. 10%(minimum)

side? c. 7%(maximum)

a. Overall length d. 7%(minimum)

b. Overall distance e. None of the above

c. Overall height 36. What is the required

d. Overall width moisture content for
e. None of the above efficient burning for rice
31. It is identified as the ratio hulls?
a. 10% (maximum)
of the heat transferred
b. 10%(minimum)
and heat available in
c. 7%(maximum)
biomass furnace and it is
d. 7%(minimum)
expressed in percent.
e. None of the above
a. Furnace efficiency
b. Heating system
37. In sampling for biomass
efficiency fuel, -
c. Height efficiency 50 g samples of biomass
d. Burning efficiency fuel shall be randomly
e. Thermal efficiency collected to be analyzed
32. It is identified as the ratio in the laboratory.
of actual and theoretical a. Five

heat supplied by the fuel b. Four

c. Three
to the furnace and it is
d. Two
expressed in percent.
a. Furnace efficiency e. One
b. Heating system 38. In relation to item 37,
efficiency of the 50g
c. Height efficiency sample shall use for
d. Burning efficiency laboratory analysis and
e. Thermal efficiency the other
33. It is the heat absorbed by shall be used for
a unit mass of a material reference purposes or for
at its boiling point in order validation.
to convert the material a. one-fourth; three-fourth

into a gas without b. one-third; two-third

temperature change. c. half; half

d. none of the above
a. Sensible heat
e. all of the above
b. Sensible latent
c. Latent heat of
vaporization 39. In laboratory
d. None of the above analysis, the samples
e. All of the above should be totally burned
34. The amount of biomass using electric furnace for
fuel to be supplied shall _____ hours at 1000°C
be sufficient for hours a. 1

of continuous operation. b. 2

a. 6 c. 3

b. 5 d. 4

c. 4 e. 5

d. 3 40. What is the heating value

e. 2 in kJ/kg of corn cobs (at
10% MC)?
a. 13, 927
b. 21, 587

35. What is the required c. 9, 300

moisture content for d. 6,000

Postharvest Machinery|92
 e. 20,100 b. Annex B
41. What is the heating value c. Annex C
in kJ/kg of rice hulls (at 7% d. Annex D
MC)? e. None of the above
a. 13, 927 46. In the verification of the
b. 21, 587 technical data and
c. 9, 300 information of the
d. 6,000 manufacturer, the items to
e. 20,100 be inspected and verified
42. What is the heating value shall be recorded in
in BTU/lb of wood chips .
(at 36%-58% MC)?
a. 20, 100 a. Annex A
b. 13, 927 b. Annex B

c. 6,000 c. Annex C

d. 8,650 d. Annex D

e. 9,300 e. None of the above

43. A natural gas furnace is 47. An officially designated

clocked and its noted that operator shall be skilled
it takes 80 seconds for the and shall?
2 cubic foot test dial to a. Demonstrate
b. Operate
make one complete
c. Adjust
revolution. The pressure at
d. Repair
the meter is 2 psi. The fan
e. All of the above
is set to move 1500 CFM
48. Biomass fuel shall meet the
and the temperature
required ________
difference between the
a. Moisture content
return air and the supply
b. Fuel
air to the house is 50-
c. Biomass
degree Fahrenheit. What is
d. None of the above
the efficiency of the
e. All of the above
appliance?
49. The formula to be used
a. 60.5%
during calculations and
b. 71.5%
testing are given in .
c. 79.2% a. Annex A
d. 83% b. Annex B
e. None of the above c. Annex C
44. A diesel power plant d. Annex D
consumed 1 cubic meter e. Annex E
of fuel with 30 degrees API 50. What comes second to
at 27-degree Celsius in 24 include in the test
hrs. Calculate the fuel report?
rate in kg/hr. a. Title
a. 36.21
b. Summary
b. 26.25
c. Purpose and scope of
c. 29.34
test
d. 39.42
d. Methods of test
e. None of the above
e. Results and discussions

45. In data recording and

observations, visual
inspection test shall be
made on welded parts of
the biomass furnace and
shall be recorded in
.
a. Annex A

Postharvest Machinery|93
ANSWER KEY (PAES 242-
243:2010)
1. B
2. B
3. E
4. A
5. E
6. D
7. A
8. C
9. B
10. A
11. A
12. E
13. B
14. C
15. C
16. D
17. E
18. E
19. A
20. B
21. C
22. B
23. D
24. A
25. B
26. C
27. A
28. A
29. D
30. D
31. A
32. B
33. C
34. E
35. A
36. C
37. C
38. C
39. E
40. B
41. A
42. D
43. C
44. A
45. C
46. B
47. E
48. A
49. E
50. B

Postharvest Machinery|94
 PAES 244-245:2010
1. This standard specifies the methods
of test and inspection for biomass
shredder and for shredding part only
if with chipping section.
a. PAES 241:2010
b. PAES 242:2010
c. PAES 243:2010
d. PAES 244:2010
e. PAES 245:2010
2. organic materials used as renewable
source of energy and other
agricultural applications.
a. Biomass
b. Fertilizer
c. Animal waste
d. AOT
e. NOT
3. distance between the horizontal
supporting plane surface and the
horizontal p lane touching the upper
most part of the biomass shredder.
a. Overall length
b. Overall height
c. Overall width
d. AOT
e. NOT
4. distance between the vertical planes
at the right angles to the median
PAES 244-245:2010 plane of the biomass shredder and
Biomass Shredder- Specifications and touching its front and rear
Methods of Test extremities.
a. Overall length
b. Overall height
c. Overall width
d. AOT
e. NOT
5. distance between the vertical planes
parallel to the median p lane of the
machine, each plane touching the
outermost point of the biomass
shredder on its respective side.
a. Overall length
b. Overall height
c. Overall width
d. AOT
e. NOT
6. preliminary operation of the machine
to make various adjustments prior to
the conduct of the test until the
operation is stable.
a. Running-in period
b. Running-out period
c. Running-off period
d. AOT
e. NOT
7. biomass material that is not totally
cut into strips.
a. Uncut
b. Unchipped
c. Unshredded
Postharvest Machinery|95
 d. Unsliced e. NOT
e. NOT 15. The maximum acceptable noise level
8. Biomass shredder submitted for test emitted by a biomass shredder during
shall be sampled in accordance to: operation, as per the standard, is:
a. PAES 100 a. 86 dB(A)
b. PAES 101 b. 92 dB(A)
c. PAES 102 c. 96 dB(A)
d. PAES 103 d. 100 dB(A)
e. PAES 104 e. 89 dB(A)
9. An officially designated ______ shall 16. To ensure efficient processing of
be skilled and shall demonstrate, materials, the minimum
operate, adjust, and repair as the recommended shredding efficiency
case Inay be, related to the operation for a biomass shredder is:
of the biomass shredder. a. 70%
a. Manufacturer/distributor b. 75%
b. Operator c. 80%
c. Driver d. 85%
d. Seller e. 90%
e. NOT 17. Clearance between rotating blades
10. The amount of test material to be and counter blades of the shredding
supp lied shall be at least 75% of chamber shall be at-least?
input capacity of biomass shredder. a. 2 mm
a. 75% b. 4 mm
b. 80% c. 6 mm
c. 85% d. 8 mm
d. 90% e. 10 mm
e. 95% 18. weight of biomass material fed into
the shredder, expressed in kilogram
11. The noise level of biomass shredder per hour?
shall be measured ____ mm away a. input capacity
from the ear level of the feeder and b. output capacity
bagger. c. input efficiency
a. 90 d. output efficiency
b. 80 e. NOT
c. 70 19. Knives or cutting mechanisms of
d. 60 biomass shredder shall be made of:
e. 50 a. high stainless steel and/or tool
12. In PAES 244:2010, what does the steel
term "biomass" primarily refer to? b. high carbon steel and/or tool
a. Animal byproducts steel
b. Organic waste material c. high cast iron and/or tool steel
c. Agricultural fertilizers d. high non-metal and/or tool
d. non-biodegradable waste steel
e. AOT e. high non-ferrous metal and/or
13. The angle of inclination of the axis for tool steel
blades or cutting mechanism, as per 20. This standard specifies the
the standard, should be in the range manufacturing and performance
of: requirements for biomass shredder
a. 5° to 10° including biomass shredder with
b. 10° to 15° chipping section.
c. 15° to 20° a. PAES 241:2010
d. 20° to 25° b. PAES 242:2010
e. 25° to 30° c. PAES 243:201
14. All bolts and screws used in the d. PAES 244:2010
construction of a biomass shredder e. PAES 245:2010
must comply with the specifications 21. ratio of the weight of the input
of: biomass materials less un-shredded
a. PAES 242:2010 biomass materials, to the total weight
b. PAES 244:2010 of the input biomass materials to the
c. PAES 311 and 313 shredder, expressed in percent.
d. ISO 4014 a. Shredding efficiency
Postharvest Machinery|96
 b. Hauling efficiency b. Trailer type
c. Drying efficiency c. Cart type
d. Peeling efficiency d. AOT
e. De-podding efficiency e. NOT
22. Biomass shredder that is commonly 29. part of the biomass shredder where
hitched to transport vehicle to the biomass materials to be cut are
facilitate mobility. loaded.
a. Stationary type a. Inlet
b. Trailer type b. Outlet
c. Cart type c. Hopper
d. AOT d. Belt conveyor
e. NOT e. Bucket elevator
23. Machine that is composed of 30. The blades and shaft assembly of
shredding chamber and chipping Biomass shredder rotates with
section. respect to the vertical axis.
a. Chipping and shredding a. Vertical
b. Cracking and chipping b. Horizontal
c. Peeling and shredding c. Diagonal
d. Hauling and drying d. AOT
e. NOT e. NOT
24. Biomass shredder that is being 31. Cover for the shredding blades shall
manually pushed and/or pulled by a be made of at least ______ MS plate
person to facilitate mobility. and/or BI plate or its equivalent
a. Stationary type material to provide safety for the
b. Trailer type operator during shredding operation.
c. Cart type a. 2.5mm
d. AOT b. 2.5 cm
e. NOT c. 2.5 m
25. electric motor or internal combustion d. AOT
engine used to drive the biomass e. NOT
shredder. 32. Biomass shredder shall be provided
a. Battery with _______.
b. AC motor a. Inlet chute
c. DC motor b. Outlet chute
d. Prime mover c. Shredder chute
e. NOT d. AOT
26. part of a shredding machine which is e. NOT
used to cut or sliced twigs or small 33. Biomass shredder machine that is
branches of trees into small and composed of shredding chamber
uniform sizes called chips? only.
a. Chipping section a. Chipping and shredding
b. Shredding chamber b. Shredding only
c. Hopper c. Chipping only
d. Prime mover d. AOT
e. Material outlet e. NOT
27. machine used to cut biomass 34. The blades and shaft assembly of
materials into strips. Biomass shredder rotates with
a. Corn shredder respect to the horizontal axis.
b. Rice shredder a. Vertical
c. Wheat shredder b. Horizontal
d. Barley shredder c. Diagonal
e. Biomass shredder d. AOT
28. Biomass shredder that is installed e. NOT
permanently and commonly provided 35. Blades are connected and arranged
with adjustable anchors to level up to an open cylinder main shaft.
the machine during operation. a. Open cylinder
a. Stationary type
Postharvest Machinery|97
 b. Semi open cylinder b. 2
c. Closed cylinder c. 3
d. Semi closed cylinder d. 4
e. NOT e. 5
36. Blades are connected and arranged 43. A _____ shall be used to measure
to a closed cylinder main shaft. electric energy consumption.
a. Open cylinder a. Power meter
b. Semi open cylinder b. Electric meter
c. Closed cylinder c. Tachometer
d. Semi closed cylinder d. AOT
e. NOT e. NOT
37. Biomass shredder shall be tested in 44. The markings shall be all weather
accordance with resistant and under normal cleaning
a. PAES 241 procedures, it shall _______ and shall
b. PAES 242 remain legible.
c. PAES 243 a. Fade
d. PAES 244 b. Discolor
e. PAES 245 c. Crack
38. The construction shall be rigid and d. Blister
durable without breakdown of its e. AOT
major components for at least 45. The marking for biomass shredder
______from the date of purchase. shall be printed in _______with a white
a. Five months background.
b. Six months a. White color with red
c. Seven months background
d. eight months b. Red color with white
e. nine months background
39. Welded joints shall not be less than c. white color with green
____ (1/8 inch) side fillet welded. background
Undercut shall not exceed ____ (1/16 d. green color with white
inch) for any length of weld. background
a. 4mm, 1mm e. NOT
b. 4mm, 2mm 46. If during testing, the biomass
c. 4mm, 3mm shredder has a major component
d. 4mm, 4mm breakdown or malfunctions, the test
e. NOT engineer from the official testing
40. All surfaces of biomass shredder shall agency shall _____ the test.
be free from ______ and shall be a. Continue
coated with a suitable paint material. b. Postpone
a. Rust c. Terminate
b. Dust d. AOT
c. Scratch e. NOT
d. AOT 47. The biomass shredder shall be tested
e. NOT as installed for _____ operation.
41. The cutting mechanism of biomass a. Normal
shredder shall be. b. Extreme
a. Adjustable c. Moderate
b. Replaceable d. AOT
c. Can be sharpened e. NOT
d. AOT 48. The manufacturer/distributor shall
e. NOT submit specifications and other
relevant information about the
biomass shredder and shall abide
42. There shall be a minimum of _____ with the terms and conditions set
test trials for biomass shredder. forth by an official testing agency.
a. 1 a. Manufacturer/distributor

Postharvest Machinery|98
 b. Operator
c. Seller
d. Company
e. NOT
49. Before the start of the test, the
shredder should have undergone
_____ wherein various adjustments of
the shredder shall be made according
to the recommendation of the
manufacturer.
a. Running-in period
b. Running-out period
c. Running-off period
d. AOT
e. NOT
50. The noise emitted by the machine
shall be measured using a noise level
meter at the location of the operators
and baggers.
a. Tachometer
b. Power meter
c. Noise level meter
d. AOT
e. NOT

Postharvest Machinery|99
ANSWER KEY (PAES 244-245: 2010)
1. E
2. A
3. B
4. A
5. C
6. A
7. C
8. D
9. B
10.A
11.E
12.B
13.C
14.C
15.C
16.E
17.C
18.A
19.B
20.D
21.A
22.B
23.A
24.C
25.D
26.A
27.E
28.A
29.C
30.A
31.A
32.B
33.B
34.B
35.A
36.C
37.E
38.B
39.B
40.A
41.C
42.C
43.A
44.E
45.B
46.C
47.A
48.A
49.A
50.C

Postharvest Machinery|100
 PAES 246:2010
1. It is a device used for removing
excess moisture from the ear of corn
without husk, generally by forced or
natural convection with or without
addition of heat.
a. Moisture Gradient
b. Dehusked corn dryer
c. Fan blower
d. Plenum
e. NOTA
2. Mechanical dryer wherein the corn in
fixed volume is held in the drying
chamber in batches until it reaches
the desired moisture content.
a. Dehusked corn dryer
b. Indirect
c. Direct
d. Batch type
e. NOTA
3. What is the minimum heating system
efficiency of Petroleum based fuel
when it is indirect-fired?
a. 90%
b. 65%
c. 75%
d. 50%
e. NOTA
4. What is the minimum heating system

PAES 246-247:2010 efficiency of Biomass fuel when it is

Dehusked Corn Dryer - Specifications direct-fired?
and Methods of Test a. 50%
b. 75%
c. 90%
d. 65%
e. NOTA
5. What is the minimum heating system
efficiency of Petroleum based fuel
when it is direct-fired?
a. 90%
b. 65%
c. 75%
d. 50%
e. NOTA
6. What is the minimum heating system
efficiency of Biomass fuel when it is
indirect-fired?
a. 90%
b. 65%
c. 75%
d. 50%
e. NOTA
7. The moisture content reduction rate
shall be at what percent per hour?
a. 0.25%
b. 0.22%
c. 0.20%
d. 0.30%
e. NOTA

Postharvest Machinery|101
8. Difference between the maximum b. Dehusked corn dryer
and the minimum moisture content c. Fan blower
randomly sampled after drying. d. Plenum
a. Plenum e. NOTA
b. Moisture gradient
c. Fan blower 15. Air moving device that is used to
d. Batch type force heated air through the mass of
e. NOTA materials to be dried at the desired
9. Dryer in which the products of
air flow rate and pressure
combustion do not come in contact a. Moisture Gradient
with the products being dried. This b. Dehusked corn dryer
type enables the use of heat c. Fan blower
exchanger. d. Plenum
a. Direct e. NOTA
16. If the initial moisture content of
b. Indirect
c. Conventional dehusked corn is 20%, what is its
d. Non-conventional capacity?
e. NOTA a. 25.1 kg/m 2 -h
10. Source of energy which includes b. 17.2 kg/m 2 -h
petroleum-based fuels such as c. 35.2 kg/m 2 -h
kerosene, gasoline, Diesel oil and d. 20.3 kg/m 2 -h
bunker fuel oil. e. NOTA
a. Direct 17. If the initial moisture content of
b. Indirect dehusked corn is 30%, what is its
c. Conventional capacity?
d. Non-conventional a. 25.1 kg/m 2 -h
e. NOTA
b. 17.2 kg/m 2 -h
11. Dryer in which the products of
combustion come into direct contact c. 35.2 kg/m 2 -h
with the product being dried. d. 20.3 kg/m 2 -h
a. Direct e. NOTA
b. Indirect 18. If the initial moisture content of
c. Conventional dehusked corn is 25%, what is its
d. Non-conventional capacity?
e. NOTA a. 25.1 kg/m 2 -h
12. Flooring of the dryer shall be rigid of b. 17.2 kg/m 2 -h
sufficient thickness to be able to c. 35.2 kg/m 2 -h
support the maximum weight of
dehusked corns to be dried. It shall d. 20.3 kg/m 2 -h
have ________ perforations. e. NOTA
19. If the initial moisture content of
a. 5 mm
b. 0.5 cm dehusked corn is 35%, what is its
c. 0.005 m capacity?
d. AOTA a. 25.1 kg/m 2 -h
e. NOTA b. 17.2 kg/m 2 -h
c. 35.2 kg/m 2 -h
13. Airflow rate of drying air for
dehusked corn dryer shall be __ to __ d. 20.3 kg/m 2 -h
m3/min per cubic meter of e. NOTA
dehusked corn. 20. This standard specifies the
manufacturing and performance
a. 15 to 35 requirements for batch type
b. 20 to 45 dehusked corn dryer only.
c. 15 to 40 a. PAES 247:2010
d. 25 to 50 b. PAES 246:2018
e. NOTA c. PAES 247:2018
d. PAES 246:2010
14. Chamber wherein air pressure is
e. NOTA
developed for uniform distribution of
21. This standard specifies the methods
the heated air through the material to
of test and inspection for dehusked
be dried
corn dryer.
a. Moisture Gradient

Postharvest Machinery|102
 a. PAES 247:2010 21.A.
b. PAES 246:2018 22.C.
c. PAES 247:2018 23.A.
d. PAES 246:2010 24.B.
e. NOTA 25.A.
22. The drying bed or floor shall have
PAES 247:2010
angle of inclination depending on the
1. Corn kernels which are heat
angle of repose of dehusked corn
damaged, weather damaged,
(19°-22°) for ease of discharging.
sprouted or distinctly damaged by
a. Partially true
insects, water, fungi and/or any
b. Partially false
other means.
c. True
a. Airflow rate
d. False
b. Drying capacity
e. NOTA
c. Damaged kernels
23. Welded joints shall not be less than
d. Heating system efficiency
_______ side fillet welded. Undercut
e. NOTA
shall not exceed 2 mm (1/16 inch) for
2. Weight of dehusked corn required to
any length of weld.
fill the dryer at the input moisture
a. 4 mm (1/8 inch)
content.
b. 5 mm (3/16 inch)
a. Holding capacity
c. 2 mm (1/16 inch)
b. Load capacity
d. 3 mm (3/32 inch)
c. Drying capacity
e. NOTA
d. Both a and b
24. It is known as the ear corn.
e. NOTA
a. Husk
3. Pressure build-up in the plenum
b. Dehusked corn
chamber to maintain uniform
c. Corn cob
dustribution of air flow through the
d. Kernel
dehusked corn mass, expressed in
e. NOTA
mmH2O.
25. Refers to the leafy outer/protective
a. Static pressure
covering of an ear of corn as it
b. Moisture reduction rate
grows on the plant.
c. Drying air temperature
a. Husk
d. Heating system efficiency
b. Dehusked corn
e. NOTA
c. Corn cob
4. Mean temperature of the air to be
d. Kernel
used for drying the dehusked corn,
e. NOTA
measured at a number of points
practicably as close to its entry to the
ANSWER KEY (PAES 246: 2010)
drying bed.
1. B. a. Static pressure
2. D. b. Moisture reduction rate
3. C. c. Drying air temperature
4. D. d. Heating system efficiency
5. A. e. NOTA
6. D. 5. Maximum capacity that the dehusked
7. A. corn dryer can dry to meet the
8. B. desired moisture content.
9. B. a. Airflow rate
10.C. b. Drying capacity
11.A. c. Damaged kernels
d. Heating system efficiency
12.D.
e. NOTA
13.C.
6. Total amount of fuel consumed
14.D. divided by the total drying time,
15.C. expressed in kg/h.
16.C. a. Heating system efficiency
17.D. b. Fuel consumption
18.A. c. Load capacity
19.B. d. Drying capacity
20.D. e. NOTA

Postharvest Machinery|103
7. Product of combustion efficiency and from the initial to the final moisture
burner/furnace efficiency; the ratio of content.
heat supplied to the dryer and the
heat available from the fuel used, a. True
expressed in percent. b. False
a. Holding capacity c. Partially true
b. Load capacity d. Partially false
c. Both a and b e. NOTA
d. AOTA 14. What is the unit of drying capacity?
e. NOTA a. Kj/kg
8. Volume of air in cubic meters b. Kg/hr
delivered to the mass of dehusked c. Kg/h
corn per minute. d. Kj/h
a. Airflow rate e. NOTA
b. Drying capacity
c. Damaged kernels 15. What is the unit of heating system
d. Heating system efficiency efficiency?
e. NOTA a. kg/m 2 -h
9. Ratio of the average percent moisture b. %h
content removed from the dehusked c. %
corn to drying time, expressed in d. Both a and b
percent per hour. e. NOTA
a. Static pressure 16. What is the unit of moisture reduction
b. Moisture reduction rate rate?
c. Drying air temperature a. kg/m 2 -h
d. Heating system efficiency b. %h
e. NOTA c. %
10. The dehusked corn to be used shall d. Both a and b
be single variety and the moisture e. NOTA
content shall be the lowest available 17. This shall be measured at air duct?
moisture content to be used in the a. Static pressure
test. b. Temperature
a. True c. Sound level
b. False d. Air velocity
c. Partially true e. NOTA
d. Partially false 18. If the initial moisture content of
e. NOTA dehusked corn is 25%, what is its
11. This shall be taken at the depth?
plenum/transition duct (between a. 2.3 m
blower and the dryer). b. 2.9 m
a. Moisture content c. 3.6 m
b. Sound level d. 3.3 m
c. Temperature e. NOTA
d. Static pressure 19. If the initial moisture content of
e. NOTA dehusked corn is 35%, what is its
12. This shall be measured with the dryer depth?
full of dehusked corn, operating at a. 2.3 m
recommended settings of different b. 2.9 m
components, with burner on. (The c. 3.6 m
station of the operator will be d. 3.3 m
considered to be within one meter of e. NOTA
the controls). 20. The noise emitted by the blower of
a. Sound level the dryer shall not exceed.
b. Temperature a. 93 dB
c. Moisture content b. 94 dB
d. Static pressure c. 92 dB
e. NOTA d. 91 dB
13. The duration for each drying cycle e. NOTA
21. Dehusked corn dryer shall have stairs
shall be such that one full capacity
of dehusked corn has been dried with railings for automatic loading

Postharvest Machinery|104
 and/or belt conveyor for mechanical 4. C.
loading. 5. B.
a. True 6. B.
b. False 7. E.
c. Partially true 8. B.
d. Partially false 9. D.
e. NOTA
10.B.
22.The dried corn shall have no 11.D.
additional discoloration due to drying, 12.A.
no traces of unburned fuel or ashes 13.A.
on its surface and no fermented or 14.C.
musty smell. 15.C.
a. Partially true 16.B.
b. Partially false 17.D.
c. True
18.D.
d. False
19.B.
e. NOTA
23. A local farmer wants to dry a batch
20.C.
of corn with an initial weight (Wi) of 21.B.
6,000 kg. The corn has an initial 22.C.
moisture content of 24%. The 23.D.
farmer plans to use a drying system 24.A.
with the following specifications: 25.C.
Average ambient air temperature: SOLUTION:
30°C. Relative humidity: 80%. 23. GIVEN: Initial weight = 6000 kg
Average drying. Temperature: 60°C.
Fan’s casing: 2 ft. Average air Drying time = 8 hrs
velocity: 2,000 ft/min. Corn husk Initial moisture content = 24%
Final moisture content = 14%
heating value (Hv): 12,000 kJ/kg.
REQUIRED: Drying capacity=?
Fuel consumption: 30 kg/hr. Drying
Wi 6000 kg
time: 8 hr. Final moisture content: Dc= ¿ = 750 kg/hr
Td 8 hrs
14%. Compute for drying capacity.
24.Refer to the problem above,
a. 755 kg/hr
compute for moisture reduction per
b. 756 kg/hr
hour.
c. 758 kg/hr
GIVEN: Initial weight = 6000 kg
d. 750 kg/hr
Drying time = 8 hrs
e. NOTA
24. Refer to the problem above, compute
Initial moisture content = 24%
for moisture reduction per hour. Final moisture content = 14%
a. 87.21 kg/hr REQUIRED:Moisture content
b. 88.22 kg/hr reduction per hour=?
c. 87.21 kg/hr Before computing the moisture
d. 88.21 kg/hr content reduction, get the final
e. NOTA weight.
25. Samples for moisture determination
shall be taken at the bottom, middle  Final Weight = Initial Weight
and top layer of the (100 – MCi) / (100 – MCf)
dehusked corn being dried.
a. Partially true
= 6000 kg (100 – 24%) / (100 –
b. Partially false
14%)
c. True
d. False = 6000 kg (76/86)
e. NOTA = 5 ,302.32 kg

ANSWER KEY (PAES 247: 2010)

1. C. MCi−MCf
MCr =
2. D. Td
3. A.

Postharvest Machinery|105
 6000 kg−5302.32 kg
¿
8 hrs
= 87.21 kg/hr

PAES 248-249:2010
Fruit Dryer- Specifications and
Methods of Test

Postharvest Machinery|106
PAES 248-249:2010 c. By reverse refrigeration
1. What is a "fan" definition according to d. Using a fuel combustion process
the standard PAES 248:2010? inside the heating chamber.
e. By solar energy conversion
a. A person who enjoys fruits
b. An air-moving device for drying 6. In the context of PAES 248:2010, what
materials. is the purpose of a top plastic cover for a
c. A rotating component in a fruit dryer tunnel fruit dryer?
d. A device for removing excess
a. To protect the fruits from direct
moisture from fruits.
sunlight.
e. A chamber for air pressure
b. To provide insulation for the drying
development
chamber.
2. What does the term "moisture c. To secure the plastic cover during
gradient" refer to in PAES 248:2010? operation.
d. To cover the heat collector and
a. The difference between sweet and
drying chamber.
savory fruits
e. To enhance the aesthetic
b. The ratio of the vapor pressure of
appearance of the dryer.
water in the product
c. The difference between maximum 7. What is the main component used for
and minimum moisture content after manufacturing the different parts of the
drying. fruit dryer?
d. The thickness of the drying trays
a. Aluminum
e. The level of water activity in the fruit
b. Plastic
3. According to PAES 248:2010, what is c. Stainless steel
the purpose of a safety device in a fruit d. Wood
dryer? e. Copper
a. To enhance fruit flavor. 8. What is the purpose of turning vanes
b. To avoid human accidents and in a fruit dryer?
prevent damage during operation.
a. To rotate the drying trays.
c. To control water activity in the
b. To ensure uniform flow of drying air
product
and reduce pressure drop.
d. To regulate air flow in the drying
c. To control water activity in the
chamber.
product
e. To measure the moisture content of
d. To measure the moisture content of
fruits.
fruits.
4. What is the classification criterion for e. To enhance the flavor of dried fruits.
a "Batch/Tunnel type" fruit dryer?
9. What should be the minimum air
a. It dries fruits in a continuous velocity inside the drying chamber of a
process. fruit dryer?
b. Sliced fruits are held in fixed volume
a. 0.1 m/s
batches until desired moisture
b. 0.2 m/s
content is reached.
c. 0.5 m/s
c. It uses a direct fuel burning method.
d. 1.0 m/s
d. It is only suitable for small-scale
e. 2.0 m/s
production.
e. It relies on solar energy for heating. 10. What is the recommended final
moisture content (wet basis) of the dried
5. How is the heating of the drying air
fruit?
achieved in a "Fuel burning" type fruit
dryer? a. 10%
b. 15%
a. By using a heat pump.
c. 20%
b. Through direct contact with the
d. 25%
product being dried.
e. 30%
Postharvest Machinery|107
11. What does the water activity of dried b. To provide insulation for the drying
fruits represent? chamber.
c. To secure the plastic cover during
a. The ratio of vapor pressure of water
operation.
in the product
d. To enhance the aesthetic
b. The maximum moisture content of
appearance of the dryer.
the fruit
e. To cover the dryer trays.
c. The availability of water for
microorganism growth 17. What is the purpose of turning vanes
d. The temperature at which the fruit in a fruit dryer?
was dried.
a. To enhance the flavor of dried fruits.
e. The type of fruit being dried.
b. To rotate the drying trays.
12. What factor determines the drying c. To measure the moisture content of
temperature and sliced thickness for a fruits.
specific type of fruit, according to Table d. To ensure uniform flow of drying air
1 in PAES 248:2010? and reduce pressure drop.
e. To control water activity in the
a. Water activity
product
b. Manufacturer's preference
c. Type of fuel used. 18. What is the primary criterion for
d. Type of heating system classifying a fruit dryer as "Tray/Cabinet
e. Type of fruit being dried. type”?
13. According to PAES 248:2010, what is a. It uses a heat pump for heating.
the minimum drying efficiency for a fruit b. Fixed volume of sliced fruits is
dryer? placed on perforated trays.
c. It is suitable for large-scale
a. 50%
production.
b. 60%
d. Sliced fruits are held in batches until
c. 70%
desired moisture content is reached.
d. 80%
e. It relies on solar energy for drying.
e. 90%
19. What materials are generally used
14. What is the purpose of a warranty, as
for manufacturing different components
mentioned in PAES 248:2010?
of a fruit dryer?
a. To ensure the fruit dryer's color
a. Concrete and glass
remains stable.
b. Stainless steel, steel bars, heavy-
b. To guarantee the durability of the
duty mild steel, industrial plastics,
drying trays.
and hard wood
c. To protect foreign matters in the
c. Copper and aluminum
dried fruit.
d. Rubber and plastic
d. To cover defective materials and
e. Aluminum and glass
workmanship for a specified period.
e. To regulate the air velocity inside 20. What is the role of the safety device
the drying chamber. in a fruit dryer, according to PAES
248:2010?
15. What should the noise level emitted
by the dryer be limited to? a. To enhance fruit flavor.
b. To measure the moisture content of
a. 80 dB(A)
fruits.
b. 85 dB(A)
c. To avoid human accidents and
c. 90 dB(A)
prevent damage during operation.
d. 95 dB(A)
d. To regulate airflow in the drying
e. 100 dB(A)
chamber.
16. What is the purpose of having a top e. NOTA
plastic cover for a tunnel fruit dryer?
21. What is the purpose of the air-type
a. To protect fruits from insects. solar collector in a solar fruit dryer?

Postharvest Machinery|108
 a. To rotate the drying trays. 26. What is the primary purpose of the
b. To provide insulation for the drying standard PAES 249:2010?
chamber.
a. Define fruit varieties.
c. To heat the drying air and duct it to
b. Specify testing methods for fruit
the drying chamber.
dryers.
d. To enhance the aesthetic
c. Establish safety guidelines for fruit
appearance of the dryer.
drying.
e. To control the water activity in the
d. Set standards for fruit packaging
product.
e. None of the above
22. What is the recommended maximum
27. According to PAES 249:2010, what is
drying air temperature for a heat pump
the airflow rate defined as?
fruit dryer?
a. The volume of air in cubic meters
a. 50°C to 60°C
delivered to the mass of fruits per
b. 60°C to 70°C
minute.
c. 70°C to 80°C
b. The speed of air flow inside the
d. 80°C to 90°C
drying chamber
e. 90°C to 100°C
c. The rate at which fruits are exposed
23. What is the primary criterion for to air.
classifying a fruit dryer as "Indirect fire"? d. The amount of air required for fuel
combustion.
a. The products of combustion come
e. None of the above
into direct contact with the product
being dried. 28. What does the term "drying rate"
b. The products of combustion do not represent in the context of PAES
encounter the products being dried. 249:2010?
c. It relies on solar energy for heating.
a. The rate at which fruits are sliced.
d. It uses a heat pump for heating.
b. The amount of water removed per
e. It uses fuel combustion inside the
unit of time.
heating chamber.
c. The speed of the drying process
24. What is the role of the evaporators d. The efficiency of the heating system
and condensers in a heat pump fruit e. None of the above
dryer?
29. What is the role of the
a. To rotate the drying trays. manufacturer/distributor in the testing
b. To monitor the temperature using process?
thermostats.
a. Operate the fruit dryer during
c. To circulate air inside the dryer
testing.
using blowers.
b. Provide specifications and relevant
d. To discharge condensed moisture
information about the fruit dryer.
from the sliced fruits.
c. Calibrate testing instruments.
e. To measure the moisture content of
d. Design the testing methodology
fruits.
e. None of the above
25. What is the purpose of the UV
30. What is the significance of the
stabilized polyethylene plastic sheets in
holding capacity in a fruit dryer?
a tunnel fruit dryer?
a. It determines the weight of fruits
a. To enhance the flavor of dried fruits.
required to fill the dryer.
b. To protect the fruits from direct
b. It indicates the capacity for heat
sunlight.
utilization.
c. To cover the dryer trays.
c. It measures the moisture content of
d. To provide insulation for the drying
the drying air.
chamber.
d. It determines the size of the drying
e. To secure the plastic cover during
chamber.
operation.
e. None of the above

Postharvest Machinery|109
31. How is the drying efficiency defined 36. What is the purpose of the welding
in PAES 249:2010? acceptance test in Annex C?
a. The ratio of total heat utilized to a. To check the welding speed.
vaporize moisture to the amount of b. To inspect the welding quality of the
heat added to the drying air. fruit dryer.
b. The speed at which fruits are dried. c. To measure the temperature of the
c. The moisture reduction rate per unit welding process.
of time d. To calculate the fuel consumption
d. The rate of airflow inside the drying during welding.
chamber e. None of the above
e. None of the above
37. How is the moisture content
32. What is the purpose of the plenum in determined in the laboratory analysis
the air distribution system of a fruit (Annex D)?
dryer?
a. Using a moisture meter.
a. To control the ambient temperature. b. Through a sensory test
b. To maintain uniform distribution of c. Using the water activity meter.
airflow through sliced fruits. d. Using the oven-dry method.
c. To measure static pressure. e. None of the above
d. To store dried fruits temporarily.
38. What is the significance of the
e. None of the above
performance factor of the Carnot cycle
f. 33. How is the heating system
(Annex E)?
efficiency calculated in PAES
249:2010? a. It measures the effectiveness of the
a. By dividing the heat utilized for drying process.
drying by the heat available in the b. It indicates the efficiency of the
fuel. heating system.
b. By measuring the temperature of c. It evaluates the performance of the
the dry air. fuel combustion process.
c. By calculating the airflow rate. d. It measures the moisture content of
d. By determining the moisture content the drying air.
of fruits. e. None of the above
e. None of the above
39. According to PAES 249:2010, what
34. What does the term "suggested list does the term "static pressure"
of minimum test instruments" refer to in represent?
Annex A?
a. The pressure build-up in the plenum
a. A list of instruments required for chamber
routine operation of the fruit dryer. b. The pressure inside the drying
b. A list of instruments needed for chamber
laboratory analysis. c. The pressure of the drying air
c. A list of instruments and materials d. The pressure at which fruits are
recommended for carrying out the sliced.
fruit dryer test. e. None of the above
d. A list of instruments provided by the
manufacturer. 40. What is the primary purpose of the
e. None of the above laboratory analysis in Annex D?

35. In the performance test data sheet a. To evaluate the efficiency of the
(Annex C), what does "FCR" stand for? heating system.
b. To determine the fruit variety used
a. Fuel Consumption Rate in testing.
b. Fan Control Ratio c. To have a physical analysis on the
c. Fruit Condition Rating samples before and after drying
d. Final Cooling Rate operation.
e. None of the above d. To measure the airflow rate.

Postharvest Machinery|110
 e. None of the above a. By dividing the final moisture
content by the initial moisture
41. What is the significance of the
content.
plenum temperature (TH)?
b. By measuring the airflow rate.
a. It measures the temperature of the c. By calculating the heat utilization.
drying air. d. By dividing the average percent
b. It indicates the ambient moisture content removed from the
temperature. fruits by drying time.
c. It is used in the calculation of the e. None of the above
performance factor.
46. What is the primary purpose of the
d. It measures the temperature of the
test site conditions, as outlined in section
exhaust air.
4.4 of PAES 249:2010?
e. None of the above
a. To determine the type of fuel used
in the dryer.
b. To assess the ambient temperature
of the testing environment.
42. How is the drying system efficiency
c. To ensure the availability of
calculated in Annex E?
manuals and brochures.
a. By dividing the heat supplied to the d. To inspect the physical quality of
dryer by the heat available in the the fruits.
fuel. e. None of the above
b. By calculating the airflow rate.
47. According to PAES 249:2010, what is
c. By measuring the temperature of
the recommended minimum test
the dry air.
instrument for measuring airflow rate?
d. By dividing the heat utilization by
the fuel feed rate. a. Digital timers
e. None of the above b. Pitot tube
c. Weighing scale
43. What is the significance of the fuel
d. Vernier caliper
consumption rate (FCR) in the
e. Air velocity meter
performance test data sheet?
48. In Annex B, what information is
a. It measures the airflow rate.
included under the "General Information"
b. It indicates the quality of fuel used.
section of the specifications for a fruit
c. It calculates the efficiency of the
dryer?
heating system.
d. It measures the amount of fuel a. Detailed manufacturing process
consumed during the test. b. Serial number of the testing agency
e. None of the above c. Brand and model of the fruit dryer
d. Weather conditions during testing
44. What does the term "performance
e. None of the above
factor" represent?
49. How is the variety of the fruit
a. It evaluates the overall performance
determined during the laboratory
of the fruit dryer.
analysis, as per Annex D?
b. It measures the speed of the drying
process. a. Through a sensory test
c. It calculates the temperature of the b. Using a water activity meter.
drying air. c. By measuring the airflow rate.
d. It indicates the airflow rate in the d. Using the oven-dry method.
drying chamber. e. None of the above
e. None of the above
45. How is the moisture reduction rate
calculated in Annex E?

Postharvest Machinery|111
50. According to PAES 249:2010, what 46.B
does the term "hardness" refer to in the 47.B
laboratory analysis? 48.C
49.A
a. The firmness of the dried fruits
50.A
b. The strength of the fuel combustion
c. The durability of the drying racks
d. The rigidity of the plenum chamber
e. None of the above

ANSWER KEY (PAES 248-249:2010)

1. C
2. A
3. B
4. D
5. A
6. B
7. C
8. A
9. B
10.D
11.B
12.C
13.B
14.A
15.A
16.C
17.A
18.B
19.A
20.B
21.C
22.B
23.B
24.C
25.B
26.B
27.A
28.B
29.B
30.B
31.A
32.B
33.A
34.C
35.A
36.B
37.D
38.B
39.C
40.C
41.C
42.D
43.D
44.A
45.D

Postharvest Machinery|112
 PAES 250-251:2011
1. What is the definition of coconut
husk in the context of PAES
250:2011 Agricultural Machinery –
Coconut Coir Decorticator?
a. 30% parenchymatous cells and
70% fiber
b. Fine and powder-like particles
c. Slender and elongated fibrous
materials
d. Crushed matured coconut husk
e. None of these
2. How is coconut coir defined in the
article (PAES 250:2011
Agricultural Machinery – Coconut
Coir Decorticator)?
a. Crushed matured coconut husk
b. Fine and powder-like particles
c. Fibrous covering of a coconut
fruit
d. Extracted from coconut husk
e. None of these
3. What does the term "decorticating
efficiency" refer to?
a. Ratio of weight of coconut husk
to total weight of the input
b. Ratio of fiber to
PAES 250-251:2011 parenchymatous cells
Coconut Coir Decorticator - c. Ratio of undecorticated coconut
Specifications and Methods of Test husk to total weight of the input
d. Ratio of mechanical feeding to
manual feeding
e. None of these
4. How is "coir quality" defined in the
context of PAES 250:2011
Agricultural Machinery – Coconut
Coir Decorticator?
a. Tensile strength, maturity,
color, fiber length, and cleanliness
b) Fine and powder-like particles
c. Ratio of coconut husk weight to
decorticator weight
d. Ratio of undecorticated coconut
husk to total weight
e. None of these
5. What does "input capacity" refer
to in the (PAES 250:2011
Agricultural Machinery – Coconut
Coir Decorticator?
a. Weight of coconut husk fed into
the decorticator in kilogram per
hour
b. Ratio of coconut husk to
decorticator weight
c. Fiber quality of the extracted
coir

Postharvest Machinery|113
 d. Ratio of undecorticated coconut c. Not more than 96 dB(A)
husk to total weight d. Not more than 100 dB(A)
e. None of these e. None of these
6. How is the classification of 13.What is the minimum fiber
coconut coir decorticator based on grade/fiber quality required for the
the method of feeding? coconut coir decorticator outlet?
a. Stationary and mobile a. CH-1 class
b. Manual and mechanical b. CH-2 class
c. Attached and detached c. CH-3 class or mixed fiber
d. Radial and spiral d. CH-4 class
e. None of these e. None of these
7. What is the mode of installation 14.What is the primary function of a
for a stationary coconut coir coconut coir decorticator?
decorticator? a. Extract coconut oil
a. With pneumatic tires b. Crush coconut shells
b. With maintenance windows c. Separate coconut fibers and
c. Without transport mechanism peat from the husk
d. With a conveyor d. Grind coconut meat
e. None of these e. None of these
8. How are decorticating blades 15.Which material makes up the
attached in the "attached to open majority of coconut husk?
cylinder" mode? a. Fiber
a. Bolted to small circular plates b. Parenchymatous cells
b. Bolted to rectangular plates c. Coconut oil
c. Attached to an open cylinder d. Water
d. Attached to large circular plates e. None of these
e. None of these 16.What is the main characteristic of
9. What is the arrangement of blades coconut coir according to the
in the "radial arrangement" mode? standard?
a) Symmetrically around a shaft or a. Extracted from coconut husk
to an open cylinder b. Fine and powder-like particles
b. Spirally along the axis of the c. Crushed coconut shells
shaft d. Slender and elongated fibers
c. Attached to small circular plates e. None of these
d. Bolted to rectangular plates 17.How is "decorticating efficiency"
e. None of these defined in PAES 250:2011
10.What materials are generally used Agricultural Machinery – Coconut
for different components of the Coir Decorticator?
coconut coir decorticator? a. Ratio of fiber to
a. Mild steel and coconut husk parenchymatous cells
b. Metal sheet and pneumatic tires b. Ratio of undecorticated coconut
c. Heavy-duty mild steel and husk to total weight of the input
coconut husk c. Ratio of coconut husk to
d. Steel bars, metal sheet, or decorticator weight
plate, and heavy-duty mild steel d. Ratio of mechanical feeding to
e. None of these manual feeding
11.What is the maximum inclination e. None of these
allowed for the pitch of blades in 18.What properties does "coir
the coconut coir decorticator? quality" encompass according to
a. 5° b. 10° the PAES 250-251?
c. 15° d. 20° e. AOT a. Color and taste
12.What is the requirement for the b. Tensile strength, maturity,
noise emitted by the coconut coir color, fiber length, and cleanliness
decorticator? c. Weight and size
a. Not more than 80 dB(A) d. Nutritional content
b. Not more than 90 dB(A) e. None of these

Postharvest Machinery|114
19.How is the classification of e. None of these
coconut coir decorticator based on ANSWER KEY (PAES 250-251)
the method of feeding?
1. a) 30% parenchymatous cells and
a. Radial and spiral
70% fiber
b. Manual and mechanical
2. d) Extracted from coconut husk
c. Attached and detached 3. c) Ratio of undecorticated coconut
d. Stationary and mobile husk to the total weight of the
e. None of these input
20.In which mode of installation does 4. a) Tensile strength, maturity,
a coconut coir decorticator have color, fiber length, and cleanliness
pneumatic tires? 5. a) Weight of coconut husk fed into
a. Stationary type the decorticator in kilogram per
b. Mobile type hour
c. Mechanical feeding 6. b) Manual and mechanical
d. Manual feeding 7. c) Without transport mechanism
e. None of these 8. c) Attached to an open cylinder
9. a) Symmetrically around a shaft or
21.How are decorticating blades
to an open cylinder
attached in the "attached to open
10.d) Steel bars, metal sheet, or
cylinder" mode? plate, and heavy-duty mild steel
a. Attached to small circular plates 11.a) 5°
b. Bolted to rectangular plates 12.c) Not more than 96 dB(A)
c. Attached to an open cylinder 13.c) CH-3 class or mixed fiber
d. Bolted to large circular plates 14.c) Separate coconut fibers and
e. None of these peat from the husk
22.What is the arrangement of blades 15.a) Fiber
in the "radial arrangement" mode? 16.d) Slender and elongated fibers
a. Symmetrically around a shaft or 17.b) Ratio of undecorticated coconut
to an open cylinder husk to total weight of the input
b. Spirally along the axis of the 18.b) Tensile strength, maturity,
color, fiber length, and cleanliness
shaft
19.b) Manual and mechanical
c. Attached to small circular plates
20.b) Mobile type
d. Bolted to rectangular plates 21.c) Attached to an open cylinder
e. None of these 22.a) Symmetrically around a shaft or
23.What materials are generally used to an open cylinder
for different components of the 23.c) Heavy-duty mild steel and
coconut coir decorticator? coconut husk
a. Mild steel and coconut husk 24.a) 5°
b. Metal sheet and pneumatic tires 25.c) Not more than 96 dB(A)
c. Heavy-duty mild steel and
coconut husk
d. Steel bars, metal sheet, or
plate, and heavy-duty mild steel
e. None of these
24.What is the maximum inclination
allowed for the pitch of blades in
the coconut coir decorticator?
a. 5° b. 10°
c. 15° d. 20° e. None of these
25.What is the requirement for the
noise emitted by the coconut coir
decorticator according to the
standard?
a. Not more than 80 dB(A)
b. Not more than 90 dB(A)
c. Not more than 96 dB(A)
d. Not more than 100 dB(A)

Postharvest Machinery|115
 PAES 252-253:2011
1. In Coffee Pulper Marking which is not
belong to the group.
a. Brand
b. Model
c. Serial Number
d. AOT
e. NOT
2. Welded joints shall not be less than
______ side fillet welded.
a. 4 mm
b. 1/8 inch
c. 4 cm
d. Both A and B
e. Both B and C
3. How many hours was the allowable
noise level of continuous exposure
based on Occupational Safety and
Health Standards, Ministry of Labor
Philippines 1983.
a. 6
b. 5
c. 7
d. 3
e. 8
4. It is the maximum speed for shaft of
manual coffee pulper?
a. 50 rpm
b. 40 rpm
PAES 252-253:2011 c. 60 rpm
Coffee Pulper - Specifications and d. 120 rpm
Methods of Test e. 150 rpm
5. It is the maximum speed of the
shaft of the mechanized coffee
pulper?
a. 100 rpm
b. 120 rpm
c. 150 rpm
d. 200 rpm
e. 250 rpm
6. All of the following are parts of
coffee cherry EXCEPT.
a. Skin
b. Parchment
c. Bean
d. Flute
e. NOT
7. It is known as the ripened fruits of
coffee shrubs?
a. Coffee cherry
b. Coffee bean
c. Coffee pulper
d. Coffee nuts
e. Coffee stalk
8. It is the process of removing and
separating the skin and pulp of
coffee cherry.
a. Parchment
b. Flute
c. Pulping
d. Mucilage
Postharvest Machinery|116
 e. Pulp d. Chop rail
9. It is a red or green thin fleshy outer e. Disc bulbs
layer of the coffee cherry? 17. The parts of machine where pulps
a. Skin are collected.
b. Pulp a. Pulp recovery
c. Stalk b. Pulp parchment
d. Bean c. Pulp outlet
e. Silver skin d. Pulp inlet
10. A slimy layer found between the e. NOT
pulp and adhering to the 18. Which is not belong to the group?
parchment. a. Separation loss
a. Parchment b. Un-pulped loss
b. Stalk c. Scattering loss
c. Mucilage d. Recovery loss
d. Silver skin e. NOT
e. Bean 19. Ratio of total weight of parchment
11. It is the mode of feeding where coffee collected at all outlets to the
coffee cherry are fed into the total coffee cherry input to the
hopper of the coffee pulper without machine, expressed in percentage.
using water. a. Coffee efficiency
a. Dry feeding b. Pulping efficiency
b. Dry pulper c. Recovery efficiency
c. Dry hopper d. Pulping recovery
d. Dry flute e. Final coffee weight
e. Dry mower 20. What is the maximum unpulped loss
12. Weight of the coffee cherry feed based on the PAES 252:2011 coffee
into the pulper per unit of time it is pulper?
expressed in kilogram per hour. a. 1.5
a. Output capacity b. 1.0
b. Input coffee c. 0.5
c. Output pulp d. 2.5
d. Input pulp e. 5.0
e. Input capacity 21. Pulper that uses rubbing action of
13. A final output product when the disc bulbs and chop rails to remove
coffee cherry has undergone pulp prom the parchment coffee.
pulping process. a. Disc pulper
a. Coffee bean b. Rotating disc
b. Grind coffee c. Rail disc
c. Parchment coffee d. Troughs
d. Coffee hopper e. NOT
e. Coffee flute 22. It is known as the endocarp of
14. This standard species the method of coffee cherry.
coffee pulper specification? a. Skin
a. PNS/PAES 252:2011 b. Mucilage
b. PNS/PAES 253: 2011 c. Parchment
c. PNS/PAES 258:2011 d. Stalk
d. PNS/PAES 256:2011 e. Silver skin
e. PNS/PAES 257:2011 23. Based on PAES 252:2011 coffee
15. All are parts of motor driven coffee pulper. What is the minimum
drum pulper EXCEPT. pulping recovery?
a. Prime mover a. 91.5%
b. Pulping drum b. 93.5%
c. Hopper c. 95.5%
d. Flute d. 97.5%
e. NOT e. 99.9%
16. It is a thread like component of
rotating cylinder of the pulping 24. What is the maximum separation
chamber. loss based on PAES 252:2011 coffee
a. Hopper pulper?
b. Rotating disc a. 1%
c. Flute b. 3%
Postharvest Machinery|117
 c. 5% e. NOT
d. 8% 32. Coffee cherry to be used shall be
e. 10% commonly or locally grown and shall
be soaked in water for about
25. What is the maximum Purity of
_____hours to be able to identify and
coffee Pulper based on PAES
remove the floaters.
252:2011?
a. 12
a. 95%
b. 15
b. 98%
c. 24
c. 91%
d. 48
d. 93%
e. NOT
e. 97%
33. There shall be a maximum _____
26. Weight of parchment coffee
test trials.
collected at coffee outlet per unit
a. 5
time.
b. 7
a. Output capacity
c. 3
b. Input capacity
d. 8
c. Pulping capacity
e. 2
d. AOT
34. For each test trial how many grams
e. NOT
of coffee cherry would be needed?
27. Used shall be calibrated and
a. 100g
checked by the testing agency prior
b. 150g
to the measurement.
c. 200g
a. Test kit
d. 250g
b. Test operator
e. 300g
c. Test instrument
35. It is the distance between the
d. AOT
vertical planes at the right angles to
e. B only
the median plane of the pulper and
28. Ratio of the total weight of
touching its front and rear
parchment coffee to the total
extremities.
weight of sample?
a. Overall width
a. Parchment of coffee
b. Overall length
b. Damage of coffee
c. Overall measurement
c. Mechanical damage
d. AOT
d. Mechanically damaged
e. NOT
parchment coffee
36. Ratio of the total weight of
e. NOT
parchment coffee free of foreign
29. It the preliminary operation of the
matters to the total weight of
machine to make various
samples.
adjustment prior to conduct of the
a. Purify
test until the operation.
b. Purity
a. Running in time
c. Capacity
b. Running in period
d. Efficiency
c. Running in season
e. NOT
d. Running in seconds
37. The speed of the rotating
e. NOT
components leg shaft of pulping
30. The amount of test materials to be
mechanism, prime mover shaft shall
supplied shall be at least _____ of
be taken using a ______.
input capacity of coffee pulper.
a. Manometer
a. 25%
b. Speed reader
b. 60%
c. Tachometer
c. 50%
d. NOT
d. 85%
e. AOT
e. 75%
38. The noise level shall measured
31. It is a test that is carried out to
______ away from the ear level.
obtain actual data on overall coffee
a. 50 cm
pulper.
b. 40 cm
a. Termination test
c. 50 mm
b. Performance test
d. 40 mm
c. Data test
e. 50 m
d. AOT

Postharvest Machinery|118
39. Test trial where in parchment coffee the uppermost part of the pulper
from the canvas sheet shall be machine.
collected and weighted for the a. Overall length
computation of ________. b. Overall height
a. Separation loss c. Overall weight
b. Scattering loss d. Overall plane
c. Unpulped loss e. NOT
d. Purity loss 47. What is the volume of PAES
e. NOT 253:2011?
40. All is included in test reports except: a. Volume 5
a. Title b. Volume 7
b. Methods of test c. Volume 8
c. Summary of results d. Volume 3
d. Observation e. Volume 4
e. NOT 48. PAES 253:2011 is known as the
41. It is the distance between the ______?
vertical planes PARALLEL to the a. Coffee pulper Kinds
median plane of the machine, and b. Coffee Pulper- Specifications
each plane touching the outermost c. Coffee pulper – Methods of Test
point of the pulper on its respective d. Coffee pulper materials
side. e. NOT
a. Overall width 49. The following are kinds of losses in
b. Overall plane coffee pulper EXCEPT:
c. Overall length a. Separation loss
d. Overall measurement b. Recovery loss
e. NOT c. Scattering loss
42. In purity determination how many d. Unpulped loss
grams would be take from the main e. NOT
parchment coffee outlet. 50. In what year did that Agricultural
a. 100g machinery – Coffee Pulper –
b. 200g Methods of Test was Published?
c. 300g a. 2011
d. 500g b. 2018
e. 600g c. 2015
43. Each test trial shall commerce at d. 2010
the start of the pulping operation e. 2000
and ends after last discharge from ANSWER KEY (PAES 252-253: 2011)
the main parchment coffee outlet. 1. E
a. Duration of test 2. D
b. Overall test 3. A
c. Summary test 4. C
d. AOT 5. B
e. NOT
6. D
44. In laboratory analyses what is the
7. A
temperature needed in the oven?
a. 105°C 8. C
b. 103°C 9. B
c. 110°C 10.C
d. 115°C 11.A
e. 150°C 12.E
45. ______ coffee cherry from the 13.C
parchment outlet and pulp outlet be 14.A
separated and weighed. 15.D
a. Unpulped loss 16.C
b. Separation loss 17.C
c. Scattering loss 18.D
d. Several loss
19.B
e. NOT
20.E
46. It is the distance between the
horizontal supporting plane surface 21.A
and the horizontal plane touching 22.C

Postharvest Machinery|119
23.B
24.A
25.B
26.A
27.C
28.D
29.B
30.E
31.B
32.C
33.C
34.A
35.B
36.B
37.C
38.C
39.B
40.E

Postharvest Machinery|120
 PAES 254-255:2011
1. This standard specifies the
manufacturing and performance
requirements for abaca stripper.
a. PNS/BAFS PAES 254:2011
b. PNS/BAFS PAES 255:2012
c. PNS/BAFS PAES 255:2011
d. PNS/BAFS PAES 254:2012
e. PNS/BAFS PAES 254:2010
2. It is the ratio of the total dry weight of
the fiber extracted to the potential
fiber content of abaca tuxies.
a. extraction efficiency
b. stripping efficiency
c. extraction loss
d. output capacity
e. input capacity
3. Extracting the fiber from abaca tuxies
using abaca stripper
a. stripping block
b. tuxying
c. tuxy
d. stripping
e. strips
4. abaca stripper with pneumatic tires
a. mobile
b. stationary
c. hagotan
d. both a and b
PAES 254-255:2011 e. all of the above
5. Based from the manufacturing
Abaca Stripper - Specifications and
Methods of Test requirements of abaca stripping
machine, bolts and screws to be used
shall conform to requirements of
____________________.
a. PAES 311 and 313
b. PAES 312 and 313
c. PAES 311 and 312
d. PAES 312 and 314
e. PAES 313 and 314
6. For spindle type stripping machine,
minimum potential recovery shall be
_____ of the weight of the fresh tuxy.
a. 10.1 %
b. 10.2%
c. 10.3 %
d. 10.4 %
e. 10.5 %
7. The abaca stripper shall be free from
sharp edges and ____________
surfaces.
a. smooth
b. concrete
c. rough
d. wood
e. metal
8. Refers to the physical properties such
as tensile strength, length, color and
texture of fibers extracted.
a. Fiber quantity
b. Fiber loss
Postharvest Machinery|121
 c. Fiber characteristics e. Parienchymatous material
d. Fiber extract 16. Abaca fiber is a ____________ natural
e. Fiber quality filament of abaca plant.
9. A metal plate, non-serrated or a. Long and slender
serrated, that provides stripping b. Short and slender
action c. Long and stout
a. stripping block d. Short and stout
b. block e. Either short or long
c. stripping knife 17. A method that uses tuxying knife to
d. knife thrust one side of the leaf sheath
e. both a and c and make a cut between the upper
10. the outer layer of the abaca leaf and the inner portions of the
sheath which contains the primary material to be able to extract the
fiber tuxies.
a. stripping block a. Bacnis method
b. tuxying b. Nilcot method
c. tuxy c. Bachnis method
d. stripping d. Locnit method
e. strips e. None of the above
11. Tuxying refers to separating outer 18. Part of abaca plant which consist of
layer from inner layer of leaf sheath several layers of leaf sheath
which is at most _____ of abaca leaf a. Abaca leaf stalk
sheath by locnit methid or bacnis b. Abaca root
method. c. Abaca stalk
a. 1 mm d. Abaca stem
b. 1.7 mm e. None of the above
c. 1.7 cm 19. ___________ method uses bolo to
d. 1.8 mm partially cut crosswise the middle of
e. 1.8 cm the inner of the sheath to be able to
12. For_______, stripping block shall be extract the tuxies.
made of mild steel. It shall not affect a. Bacnis
the color of the fiber extracted. b. Nilcot
a. Spindle type c. Bachnis
b. Hagotan d. Locnit
c. Mechanical Abaca stripper e. None of the above
d. Mobile spindle stripping 20. Stripping knife/blade shall be
machine a. Accessible, adjustable and
e. Stationary single pedal spindle replaceable
type b. Accessible, non-adjustable and
13. The noise emitted by the abaca replaceable
stripper shall not be ___________. c. Accessible, adjustable and
a. More than 88 dB irreplaceable
b. More than 90 dB d. Accessible, non-adjustable and
c. More than 92 db irreplaceable
d. More than 94 dB e. Accessible and replaceable
e. More than 96 dB 21. Minimum fiber quality extracted by
14. For manually operated stripping the spindle type abaca stripper shall
machine or “Hagotan”, minimum be
potential fiber recovery shall be a. *S-AD
_________ of the weight of fresh tuxy. b. *S-EF
a. 10% c. *S-S2
b. 10.5% d. *S-S3
c. 11% e. All of the above
d. 11.5% 22. Welded joints shall not be less than
e. 12% _________ side fillet welded. Undercut
15. Soft tissue or non-fibrous material shall not exceed ____________ for any
attached to the fiber length of weld.
a. Plarenchymatous materail a. 4mm , 3mm
b. Parenchymatous material b. 3mm , 2mm
c. Parenchiematous material c. 1mm , 2mm
d. Plahenchiematous material d. 4mm, 2mm
Postharvest Machinery|122
 e. 4mm, 1mm 30. difference between the potential fiber
23. Abaca stripper shall be tested in content of abaca tuxies and dry
accordance with ______________. weight of the actual fiber extracted
a. PAES 251 using abaca stripper
b. PAES 252 a. extraction efficiency
c. PAES 253 b. stripping efficiency
d. PAES 254 c. extraction loss
e. PAES 255 d. output capacity
24. Part of the abaca stripper that e. input capacity
provides friction and where raw 31. indicator of the quality of the
materials are being locked in characteristics of the physical
position during fiber extraction property of a fiber
a. stripping block a. grade
b. tuxying b. output capacity
c. stripping knife c. grader
d. tuxy d. both a and b
e. stripping e. none of the above
25. coil spring shall be made of 32. fresh weight of the output fiber
a. high carbon extracted from the abaca stripper per
b. low carbon steel unit time
c. low cast iron a. input capacity
d. high cast iron b. output capacity
e. high carbon steel c. grinding recovery
26. This standard specifies the methods d. grinding capacity
of test and inspection for abaca e. none of the above
stripper. 33. For mechanical abaca stripper, the
a. PNS/BAFS PAES 254:2011 noise emitted by the machine shall
b. PNS/BAFS PAES 255:2012 be measured using a noise level
c. PNS/BAFS PAES 255:2011 meter at the location of the operator.
d. PNS/BAFS PAES 254:2012 The noise level shall be measured
e. PNS/BAFS PAES 254:2010 _________ form the ear level of the
27. distance between the vertical planes operator.
at the right angles to the median a. 35 mm
plane of the abaca stripper and b. 40 mm
touching its front and rear extremities c. 45 mm
a. overall slope d. 50 mm
b. overall length e. 55 mm
c. overall width 34. For mechanical abaca stripper, the
d. overall base speed rotating components shall be
e. overall height taken using ____________.
28. distance between the horizontal a. speedometer
supporting plane surface and the b. radar
horizontal plane touching the c. anemometer
uppermost art of the stripping d. tachometer
machine. e. None of the above
a. overall slope 35. Preliminary operation of the
b. overall length machine to make various
c. overall width adjustments prior to the conduct of
d. overall base test until operation is stable
e. overall height a. Walking-out period
29. distance between the vertical planes b. Walking-in period
parallel to the median plane of the c. Running-out period
machine, each plane touching the d. Running-in period
outermost point of the stripper on its e. None of the above
respective side. 36. Ratio of the total dry weight of the
a. overall slope fiber extracted to the potential fiber
b. overall length content of abaca tuxies
c. overall width a. extraction efficiency
d. overall base b. stripping efficiency
e. overall height c. extraction loss
d. output capacity
Postharvest Machinery|123
 e. input capacity c. Test site conditions
37. ratio of fresh weight extracted and d. Test materials
the total fresh weight of input abaca e. Test and Inspection
tuxies to the abaca stripper 45. This shall commence at the start of
a. extraction efficiency the stripping operation and ends
b. stripping efficiency after feeding of the last batch of
c. extraction loss abaca tuxies and it shall be
d. potential fiber recovery recorded as operating time.
e. input capacity a. Termination test
38. if there is major component b. Performance test
breakdown during testing, the test c. Test site conditions
engineer shall d. Duration of test
a. continue the test e. Test and Inspection
b. restart the test 46. The formula of potential fiber
c. terminate the test recovery is
d. change all the components Fc
e. None of the above a.
Te
39. For testing, how many trials should
W fe
be done? b.
a. Two To
b. Three W ffe
c. Four c. × 100
T tu
d. Minimum of three
W dfe
e. Maximum of five d.
40. Summation of the weight of W pfc
extracted fiber using manual or W i−W f
mechanical abaca stripper and e. × 100
Wi
unextracted fiber manually obtained
47. The quality of the fiber extracted
a. Potential fiber content
shall be evaluated using the existing
b. running out period
grading system of abaca fibers. This
c. fiber quality
test shall be done by FIDA. FIDA
d. grinding recovery
stands for
e. potential fiber recovery
a. Fiber Industry Development
41. Abaca stripper submitted for test
Authority
shall be sampled in accordance to
b. Fiber Industry Development
a. PAES 104
Authorization
b. PPAES 105
c. Fiber Industrial Developed
c. PAES 106
Authority
d. PAES 107
d. Fiber Industrialization
e. None of the above
Developing Authority
42. Test materials: the amount of test
e. Fiber Industry Developing
material to be supplied shall be at
Authorization
least _____ of output capacity of
48. For “spindle type”, three samples
abaca stripper.
should be taken to determine the
a. 55%
possible fiber content. These
b. 65%
samples ought to consist of
c. 75%
a. 5-3 tuxies
d. 85%
b. 5-4 tuxies
e. 95%
c. 5-6 tuxies
43. Inspection is carried out to verify the
d. 5-7 tuxies
__________________ of the stripper.
e. 5-8 tuxies
a. mechanism
49. For “hagotan”, three samples should
b. dimensions
be taken to determine the possible
c. materials
fiber content. These samples ought
d. accessories
to consist of
e. all of the above
a. 1-3 tuxies
44. This is carried out to obtain and
b. 2-3 tuxies
validate data on overall abaca
c. 4-3 tuxies
stripper performance.
d. 5-3 tuxies
a. Termination test
e. 6-3 tuxies
b. Performance test
Postharvest Machinery|124
 50. This is made to determine the
processing efficiency of the abaca
stripper.
a. Laboratory analyses
b. Experiment
c. Laboratory testing
d. Both a and b
e. None of the above

ANSWER KEY (PAES 254-255: 2011)

1. A
2. B
3. D
4. A
5. A
6. E
7. C
8. E
9. C
10.C
11.D
12.B
13.E
14.E
15.B
16.A
17.D
18.C
19.A PAES 256-257:2011
20.A Corn Picker - Specifications and
21.E Methods of Test
22.D
23.E
24.A
25.E
26.C

Postharvest Machinery|125
PAES 256-257:2011 8. Minimum conveyance efficiency
1. Cereal grass belonging to the for corn picker(%)?
Poaceae family. a. 97
a. corn b. 98
b. wheat c. 99
c. rice d. 100
d. mung bean e. None of these
e. None of these 9. Minimum total machine efficiency
2. Machine attached to the side of for corn picker(%)?
tractor designed for picking corn? a) 98.5
a. Corn planter b. 99
b. trail-type c. 99.5
c. self-propelled corn harvester d. 100
d. single-row side-mounted corn e. None of these
picker 10.Maximum noise level, db(A) for
e. None of these corn picker
3. Part of the corn picker that pulls a. 89
the corn stalk downward thereby, b. 90
stripping the corn ear during c. 91
operation? d. 92
a. stalk guide rod e. None of these
b. striper plate 11.All rotating components of corn
c. snapping rolls picker shall be statically and
d. hopper dynamically balanced.
e. None of these There shall be provision for the
4. Direct the stalks of the corn plant safety of the operators for moving
to the snapping rolls. parts.
a. stalk guide rod a. both statements are true
b. striper plate b. both statement are false
c. snapping rolls c. only the first statement is true
d. hopper d. only the second statement is
e. None of these true
5. Part of the corn picker that 12.Seat without safety belt shall be
prevents the corn stalk from provided for the operator.
bending and separate the corn ear Provision for grease points for
from the stalk. mechanical parts and non-sealed
a. stalk guide rod type bearings shall be integrated.
b. striper plate a. both statements are true
c. snapping rolls b. both statement are false
d. hopper c. only the first statement is true
e. None of these d. only the second statement is
6. Minimum field efficiency for corn true
picker(%)? 13.The corn picker shall be free from
a. 64 manufacturing defects.
b. 65 There shall be no provision of belt
c. 66 cover or guard and belt
d. 67 tightening.
e. None of these a. both statements are true
b. both statement are false
7. Minimum picking efficiency for c. only the first statement is true
corn picker(%)? d. only the second statement is
a. 97.5 true
b. 98.5 14.Welded joints shall not be less
c. 99.5 than2mm side fillet welded.
d. 100 Undercut shall not exceed 4mm
e. None of these for any length of weld.

Postharvest Machinery|126
 a. both statements are true 20.All of the information are not
b. both statement are false marked in the corn picker based
c. only the first statement is true on PAES 256 except for one.
d. only the second statement is a. hopper capacity
true b. registered trademark of the
15.All surfaces shall be coated with manufacturer
suitable paint material. c. snapping roll size
All welded parts shall be water- d. structural welding code
tight and smoothly polished. e. None of these
a. both statements are true 21.All of the information are marked
b. both statement are false in the corn picker based on PAES
c. only the first statement is true 256 except for one
d. only the second statement is a. model
true b. serial number
16.The construction shall be rigid and c. oil capacity
durable without breakdown of its d. rated capacity
major components for at least one e. None of these
year. 22.All of the information are marked
Warranty against defective in the corn picker based on PAES
materials and workmanship shall 256 except for one
never be provided. a. hopper size
a. both statements are true b. power requirement
b. both statement are false c. name and address of the dealer
c. only the first statement is true d. name and address of the
d. only the second statement is distributor, if imported
true e. None of these
17.an operator’s manual which 23.Appropriate safety precautions
conform to PAES 112, shall be shall be provided.
provided. Markings shall be stated in English
The corn picker shall be easy to and Filipino and shall be printed in
clean, operate and maintain. blue color with a green
a. both statements are true background
b. both statement are false a. both statements are true
c. only the first statement is true b. both statement are false
d. only the second statement is c. only the first statement is true
true d. only the second statement is
18.each corn picker shall be marked true
in Tagalog with the information 24.The markings shall be all weather
using a stencil or by directly resistant.
punching it on a plate. The markings shall not fade,
The corn picker shall be position in discolor crack if cleaned using
a tight and crowded place. normal cleaning procedures.
a. both statements are true a. both statements are true
b. both statement are false b. both statement are false
c. only the first statement is true c. only the first statement is true
d. only the second statement is d. only the second statement is
true true
19.All of the information are not
marked in the corn picker based 25.The markings shall have a durable
on PAES 256 except for one. bond with the base surface
a. color of the corn picker material.
b. brand a. true
c. oil capacity b. false
d. wheel size c. partly true
e. None of these d. partly false

Postharvest Machinery|127
26.Fruit of the corn plant with husk. 33.Distance between the horizontal
a. stalk supporting plane surface and the
b. root horizontal plane touching the
c. corn ear upper part of the corn picker
d. silk a. overall length
e. None of these b. overall width
27.Measures the ability of the corn c. overall height
picker to deliver the harvested d. overall area
corn ear to the collecting bin? e. None of these
a. field efficiency 34.Preliminary operation of the
b. potential yield machine to make various
c. conveyance efficiency adjustment prior to the conduct of
d. picking efficiency test until operation is stable
e. None of these a) test drive
28.Ratio of the actual field capacity b. running-in period
and theoretical field capacity, c. break-in period
expressed in percent. d. stroll lang
a. field efficiency e. None of these
b. potential yield 35.Corn picker selected for test shall
c. conveyance efficiency be sampled in accordance with
d. picking efficiency PAES 103
e. None of these a. true
29.Maximum yield per unit area b. false
a. field efficiency c. partly true
b. potential yield d. partly false
c. conveyance efficiency 36.The maturity period of the corn
d. picking efficiency plants shall be between 95days to
e. None of these 110 days.
30.Measures the ability of the corn a. true
picker to harvest the corn ear b. false
from the corn stalk . c. partly true
a. field efficiency d. partly false
b. potential yield 37.The range of moisture content of
c. conveyance efficiency corn kernel shall be 25% to 32%
d. picking efficiency a. true
e. None of these b. false
31.Distance between the vertical c. partly true
planes parallel to the medium d. partly false
plane of the machine, each plane 38.Picking operation shall be done in
touching the outermost point of fields of not less than ______square
the corn picker on its respective meters
side. a. 1200
a. overall length b. 1300
b. overall width c. 1400
c. overall height d. 1500
d. overall area e. None of these
e. None of these 39.Noise emitted by the machine
32.Distance between the vertical at shall be measured ______mm away
the right angles to the median from the ear level
plane of the machine and touching a. 45
its front and rear extremities. b. 50
a. overall length c. 55
b. overall width d. 60
c. overall height e. 65
d. overall area 40.How many test trials is the
e. None of these minimum that needs to be done?

Postharvest Machinery|128
 a. 1 a. fuel consumption rate
b. 2 b. moisture content
c. 3 c. total machine efficiency
d. 4 d. all of these
e. 5 e. None of these
41.Method in getting the moisture 49.What is the temperature of the
content of the grain. oven used?
a. vacuum oven-drying a. 103 °C ± 1 °C
b. air oven-drying b. 102 °C ± 1 °C
c. moisture meter c. 101 °C ± 1 °C
d. all of these d. 100 °C ± 1 °C
e. none of these e. none of these
42.How many hours it needs to be 50.How many corn plants within the
dried? test plot are needed before the
a. 72 test run?
b. 62 a. 8
c. 52 b. 9
d. none of these c. 10
43.These are test instruments used in d. 15
the field except one. e. none of these
a. noise level meter
b. digital camera
c. marking pegs
d. graduated cylinder
e. none of these
44.These are test instruments used in
the field except one
a. stadia rod
b. tape measure
c. digital timers
d. steel tape
e. None of these
45.These are test instruments used in
the laboratory except one.
a. moisture meter
b. air oven ANSWER KEY (PAES 256-257)
c. weighing scale
1. A
d. all of these
2. D
e. None of these
3. C
46.These are labeling tags used 4. A
except one. 5. B
a. date of test 6. B
b. variety 7. C
c. sample source 8. C
d. trial number 9. A
e. None of these 10.D
47.Which formula is used during 11.A
calculation and testing? 12.D
a. Actual field capacity 13.C
b. field efficiency 14.B
15.A
c. picking efficiency
16.C
d. all of these
17.D
e. None of these 18.C
48.Which formula is used during 19.B
calculation and testing? 20.B
21.C

Postharvest Machinery|129
22.A
23.C
24.A
25.A
26.C
27.C
28.A
29.B
30.D
31.B
32.A
33.C
34.B
35.A
36.B
37.A
38.D
39.B
40.C
41.B
42.A
43.E
44.A
45.A
46.E
47.D
48.D
49.A
50.A
PAES 258-259:2011
Feed Mixer - Specifications and
Methods of Test

Postharvest Machinery|130
PAES 258-259:2011 f.
1. What term is used to describe the 7. What feed mixer that moves the
statistical representation of the feed ingredients towards the side
precision of the distribution of and from bottom to top of the
feed ingredients? mixer.
a. Standard deviation a. One and Two Auger
b. Coefficient of variations b. Three and Four Auger
c. Mean deviation c. One Auger
d. Dispersion ratio d. Two Auger
e. Variance quotient e. NOTA

2. In feed processing, what 8. What is the primary function of

parameter is used to express the paddles in a Paddle feed mixer?
mixing rate? a. Material transport
a. Volume efficiency b. Ingredient lifting
b. Time dilation c. Radial distribution
c. Mass flux d. Particle size reduction
d. Kilogram per hour e. Mixing feed ingredients
e. Feed velocity index
9. Which standard must bolt, and
3. Which type of feed mixer utilizes a screws used in a feed mixer
tub or a box containing a chain, conform to?
paddles or slat conveyor, and a. ASME B16.5
auger to tumble and mix the feed b. ISO 9001
ingredients? c. PAES 311 and 313
a. Chain, paddle and auger d. ASTM D123
b. Tubular Auger Mixer e. JIS B1180
c. Auger Conveyor Mixer
d. Conveyor Belt Mixer 10.Feed mixer shall compose of
e. Paddle Chain Auger Mixer mixing tank/chamber, mixing
device, discharge chute, prime
4. What is the recommended mover and__________.
rotating speed range for the screw a. Belt
in a vertical feed mixer? b. Container
a. 50 to 100 rpm c. Hopper
b. 75 to 150 rpm d. Pulley
c. 100 to 200 rpm e. NOTA
d. 125 to 250 rpm
e. 150 to 300 rpm 11.What characteristic does a reel
and augers feed mixer utilize for
5. Which feed mixer type is hitched mixing feed ingredients?
to a transport vehicle for a. Circular motion
enhanced mobility? b. Vibrational motion
a. Portable Auger Mixer c. Lifts and Tumbling motion
b. Mobile Feed Processor d. Spiral motion
c. Trailer-type Mixer e. Reciprocal motion
d. Transportable Paddle Blender
e. Movable Ribbon Agitator 12.It is the Type of feed mixer that
have vertical feed mixing device.
6. In a paddle feed mixer, what is the a. Vertical Mixer
recommended linear speed range? b. Feed Mixer
a. 50 m/min to 75 m/min c. Horizontal Feed Mixer
b. 75 m/min to 100 m/min d. Vertical Feed Mixer
c. 100 m/min to 120 m/min e. NOTA
d. 125 m/min to 150 m/min
e. 150 m/min to 175 m/min

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13.What speed variation is 19.Feed mixer that moves the feed
recommended for a ribbon feed ingredients towards the middle, to
mixer? the top, towards the sides and
a. 50 m/min to 75 m/min back down to the auger.
b. 75 m/min to 100 m/min a. One and Two Auger
c. 100 m/min to 120 m/min b. Three and Four Auger
d. 125 m/min to 150 m/min c. One Auger
e. 150 m/min to 175 m/min d. Two Auger
e. NOTA
14.What should be ensured during
the operation of a feed mixer to 20.What is the primary function of
prevent clogging? feeds in animal nutrition?
a. Continuous inspection a. Nutrient extraction
b. Lubrication points b. Energy production
c. Adequate ventilation c. Growth promotion
d. Optimal mixing temperature d. Immune system support
e. No clogging in the mixing e. Metabolic regulation
chamber
21.Feed mixer that uses augers to
15. What is the maximum mix the feed ingredients.
permissible noise level for a feed a. Horizontal feed mixer
mixer? b. Ribbon mixer
a. 80 dB(A) c. Paddle mixer
b. 90 dB(A) d. Auger mixer
c. 96 dB(A) e. Vertical feed mixer
d. 100 dB(A)
e. 110 dB(A) 22.What is the characteristic of a cart
type feed mixer?
16.This is a mixer that moves the a. High capacity
feed ingredients from one end to b. Hitched to a vehicle
the other. c. Manually moved
a. Feed Mixer d. Vertical mixing device
b. Horizonal Feed Mixer e. Spiral mixing motion
c. Vertical Mixer
d. Horizontal Mixer 23.Cart Type Mixer is a
e. NOTA ___________mixer that can be
manually moved
17.What type of mixer utilizes helical a. High Capacity
ribbons for mixing? b. Low
a. Horizontal feed mixer c. Low Capacity
b. Ribbon mixer d. High and Low Capacity
c. Paddle mixer e. NOTA
d. Auger mixer
e. Vertical feed mixer 24.For Ribbon Feed Mixer the speed
shall vary ___________with the
18.How is the mixing chamber of a circumference of the outer ribbon.
tumble mixer designed to a. Inversely
facilitate mixing? b. Directly
a. Spirals and pans on the c. Parallel
interior surface d. Inversely and Directly
b. Chains and paddles on the e. NOTA
exterior surface
c. Linear motion 25.Which statement is true regarding
d. Circular motion the external parts of a feed mixer?
e. Reciprocal motion a. Should be coated with a rough
surface

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b. Must have sharp edges for d. Operator preference
efficiency e. Test agency's discretion
c. Should be free from sharp
edges and rough surfaces 31.What is the minimum percentage
d. Must be painted with bright colors of input capacity of the feed mixer
e. Should have multiple lubrication that should be used as test
point material?
a. 50%
26.What term describes the distance b. 60%
between the horizontal supporting c. 75%
plane surface and the horizontal d. 90%
plane touching the uppermost part e. 100%
of the feed mixer?
a. Overall width 32.How should the noise level
b. Overall height emitted by the machine be
c. Vertical clearance measured during testing?
d. Overall length a. 100 mm away from the ear level
e. Upper extension b. 25 mm away from the ear level
c. 50 mm away from the ear level
27.What term describes the distance d. At the ear level
between the vertical planes at the e. 75 mm away from the ear level
right angles to the median plane
of the feed mixer and touching its 33.How is the moisture content of
front and rear extremities? feed mixer samples determined?
a. Overall height a. Air Oven Method
b. Overall length b. Sun-drying method
c. Vertical clearance c. Freeze-drying method
d. Overall width d. Evaporative method
e. Upper extension e. Microwave drying method

28.What term describes the distance 34.What is the temperature used for
between the vertical planes drying samples in the oven during
parallel to the median plane of the the moisture content
machine, each plane touching the determination?
outermost point of the feed mixer a. 100 °C for 24 hours
on its respective side? b. 105 °C ± 1 °C for 72 hours
a. Overall height c. 110 °C for 64 hours
b. Overall width d. 115 °C for 12 hours
c. Vertical clearance e. 120 °C for 20 hours
d. Overall length
e. Upper extension 35.What role does the manufacturer
or distributor play in the testing
29.What is the running-in period of a process?
feed mixer? a. Operational guidance
a. Duration of a test run b. Providing test samples
b. Period between tests c. Submission of specifications
c. Preliminary operation for and relevant information
adjustments d. Conducting the tests
d. Break-in period for new mixers e. Calibration of instruments
e. Operational cycle duration
36.What skills should an officially
30.How should the selection of a feed designated operator possess for
mixer for testing be conducted? the testing of a feed mixer?
a. Random selection a. Administrative skills
b. In accordance with PAES 103 b. Mechanical skills
c. Manufacturer's recommendation c. Analytical skills

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d. Communication skills 41.How should samples be handled
e. Computer skills when taken to the laboratory?
a. Samples should be thrown into a
37.Under what conditions should a single container without labeling
feed mixer be tested for b. Placing samples in any available
performance? container without proper labeling
a. Simulated conditions c. Discarding samples as they are
b. Extreme conditions unnecessary for laboratory
c. Normal operating conditions analysis
d. Variable conditions d. Placing samples in appropriate
e. Controlled conditions containers with no need for
labeling
38.What pre-testing requirement e. Placing samples in appropriate
should be satisfied for the containers and ensuring they
instruments used in the testing are properly labeled
process?
a. Operator certification 42.Which method is recommended
b. Manufacturer's approval for preparing samples after the
c. Instrument calibration and mixing process for subsequent
checking by the testing analysis of chloride (Cl-) or sodium
agency (Na+) content?
d. Compliance with international a. Directly analyzing samples without
standards any additional preparation
e. Routine maintenance b. Mixing samples with a sugar
solution for better solubility
39.Which method is recommended c. Combining samples with an acidic
for collecting samples in horizontal solution to enhance dissolution
feed mixer after each test trial? d. Preparing a water solution for
a. Hand-picking samples with bare chloride analysis and using
hands Omnion Sodium Analysis for
b. Using a shovel to scoop samples sodium measurement
c. Employing a grain probe e. Ignoring the need for sample
d. Blowing samples with compressed preparation and proceeding to
air analysis directly
e. Ignoring sampling altogether
43.In the event of a major component
40.What is the recommended breakdown during testing, who is
procedure for sampling in a responsible for terminating the
vertical feed mixer after each test test?
trial? a. The equipment manufacturer
a. Collecting samples only from the b. Any personnel present at the
top layer of the mixer testing site
b. Randomly collecting 10 samples c. The test engineer from the
from the outlet over the entire official testing agency
collection period d. The operator of the equipment
c. Obtaining a single sample for the being tested
entire five-second collection e. Ignoring the breakdown and
interval continuing the test
d. Ignoring sampling and proceeding
to the next trial 44.What is the prescribed procedure
e. Randomly collecting 10 for operating the feed mixer
samples, one for every five- during testing, and what steps are
second interval of the required after each test run?
collection period a. Operate the feed mixer at
maximum speed and feed rate;

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 cleaning is not necessary after the d. A three test trials
test run. e. The number of test trials depends
b. Ignore the manufacturer's on the mixer model
recommendations and set a
random speed and feed rate; 48.What is the requirement for the
cleaning is optional. test materials used in the running-
c. Operate the feed mixer at the in and each test trial?
speed and feed rate a. Test materials can vary in
recommended by the characteristics and conditions for
manufacturer; cleaning the each trial
area and the feed mixer after b. Running-in materials must differ
each test run. from those used in test trials
d. Experiment with different speed c. No specific requirements for test
and feed rates to observe materials are mentioned
variations; cleaning is only d. Test materials must be the
required if the test results are same in characteristics and
unfavorable. conditions for both running-in
e. Operate the feed mixer at any and each test trial
convenient speed and feed rate; e. Characteristics of test materials
cleaning is only necessary if there can be modified for better
is a visible spill. performance

45.Which aspect of the feed mixer 49.What is the recommended

should be assessed during practice for data recording and
testing? observations during the test?
a. Temperature of the external a. Data recording is optional and can
surfaces be done after the test
b. Color of the paint on the body b. Observations should be recorded
c. Weight of the feed ingredients verbally
d. Speed of the rotating c. No need for a record sheet; data
components can be remembered
e. Odor emitted during operation d. Record all data and
information on a designated
46.What is the recommended record sheet during the test
sampling procedure for test e. Record data only if there are
materials before the start of each unexpected results
test trial?
a. Collecting samples only after the 50.What is the recommended
test trial is complete percentage of salt, by weight, to
b. Taking a small sample of 100 g for be incorporated with the feed
material condition analysis ingredients?
c. Ignoring sampling as it is a. 1.0%
unnecessary for testing b. 0.2%
d. Obtaining at least 500 g of c. 0.5%
representative samples before d. 0.8%
each test trial e. 0.3%
e. Collecting samples only if there is
ANSWER KEY (PAES 190-191: 2018)
a visible change in material
1. B
conditions
2. D
3. A
47.How many test trials of feed
4. C
mixers are required?
5. C
a. At least five test trials
6. C
b. A maximum of two test trials
7. B
c. No specific number of test trials is
8. E
mentioned
9. C
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10.C
11.C
12.D
13.B
14.E
15.C
16.B
17.B
18.A
19.A
20.C
21.D
22.C
23.C
24.A
25.C
26.B
27.B
28.B
29.C
30.C
31.A
32.B
33.C
34.B
35.C
36.B
37.C
38.C
39.C
40.E
41.E
42.D
43.C
44.C
45.D
46.D
47.A
48.D
49.D
50.C

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