F U L L T E S T-4

CHEMISTRY , PHYSICS, BIOLOGY

Time : - 3 Hours Max. Marks:- 720 Date : .................

INSTRUCTIONS :

1. The test is of 3 hours duration.

2. The Test Booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
3. There are three parts in the question paper A, B, C consisting of Chemistry, Physics having 45 questions each and Biology
having 90 questions of equal weightage. Each question is allotted 4 (four) marks for each correct response. ¼ (one fourth) marks
will be deducted for indicating incorrect response of each question. No deduction from the total score will be made if no
response is indicated for an item in the answer sheet.
4. There is only one correct response for each question. Filling up more than one response in each question will be treated as wrong
response and marks for wrong response will be deducted accordingly.

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 PART A – CHEMISTRY C O O C 2H 5 Cl C O O C 2H 5
Q.1 Which is wrong with respect to our I II
responsibility as a human being to protect our
environment ?
O2N C O O C 2H 5 C H3 O C O O C 2H 5
(1) Avoiding the use of floodlighted facilities. III IV
(2) Restricting the use of vehicles. (1) IV > II > III > I (2) III > II > I > IV
(3) Using plastic bags. (3) III > II > IV > I (4) II > III > I > IV
(4) Setting up compost tin in gardens. Q.6 The correct order of the spin-only magnetic
Q.2 The major product of the following reaction is moment of metal ions in the following low spin
complexes, [V(CN)6]4–, [Fe(CN)6]4–,
[Ru (NH3)6]3+, and [Cr(NH3)6]2+, is :
(1) V2+ > Cr2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+
(2) V2+ > Ru3+ > Cr2+ > Fe2+
(3) Cr2+ > V2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+
(1) (2) (4) Cr2+ > Ru3+ > Fe2+ > V2+
Q.7 The IUPAC symbol for the element with
atomic number 119 would be :
(1) unh (2) uun
(3) (4) (3) une (4) uue
Q.8 If Ksp of Ag2CO3 is 8×10–12, the molar
solubility of Ag2CO3 in 0.1M AgNO3 is :
Q.3 Two pi and half sigma bonds are present in:
(1) N2+ (2) N2 (1) 8 × 10–12 M (2) 8 × 10–10 M
(3) 8 × 10–11 M (4) 8 × 10–13 M
(3) O2+ (4) O2 Q.9 The correct statement(s) among I to III with
Q.4 Poly--hydroxybutyrate-co--hydroxyvalerate respect to potassium ions that are abundant
(PHBV) is a copolymer of ___. within the cell fluids is/are :
(1) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid I. They activate many enzymes.
and II. They participate in the oxidation of glucose
4-hydroxypentanoic acid to produce ATP.
(2) 2-hydroxybutanoic acid III.Along with sodium ions, they are
and responsible for the transmission of nerve
3-hydroxypentanoic acid signals.
(3) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid (1) I, II and III (2) I and III only
and (3) III only (4) I and II only
2-hydroxypentanoic acid Q.10 Which of the following compounds will show
(4) 3-hydroxybutanoic acid the maximum enol content?
and (1) CH3COCH2COCH3
3-hydroxypentanoic acid (2) CH3COCH3
Q.5 The decreasing order of ease of alkaline
hydrolysis for the following esters is : (3) CH3COCH2CONH2
(4) CH3COCH2COOC2H5
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Q.11 The correct statements among I to III are : K .E . o f K .E . of
(I) Valence bond theory cannot explain the e–s e– s
colour exhibited by transition metal
complexes.
0 0
(II) Valence bond theory can predict F re q u e n c y o f en e rg y o f
lig h t ligh t
quantitatively the magnetic properties of
transition metal complexes. (3) (4)
(III) Valence bond theory cannot distinguish Q.14 Given the equilibrium constant :
ligands as weak and strong field ones. KC of the reaction :
(1) (I) and (II) only (2) (I), (II) and (III) Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq)  Cu2+(aq) + 2Ag(s) is
(3) (I) and (III) only (4) (II) and (III) only 10 × 1015, calculate the E°cell of this reaction at
Q.12 The major product of the following reaction is:
OH 298 K [2.303 at 298 K = 0.059 V]
C H2 O H (1) 0.04736 V (2) 0.4736 V
H 2S O4 (cat.)
(3) 0.4736 mV (4) 0.04736 mV
CO2Et C H C l3 Q.15 Which primitive unit cell has unequal edge
OH lengths (a  b  c) and all axial angles
O different from 90° ?
(1) Tetragonal (2) Hexagonal
O Et
(3) Monoclinic (4) Triclinic
Q.16 The oxoacid of sulphur that does not contain
O CO OH bond between sulphur atoms is :
(1) (2) (1) H2S4O6 (2) H2S2O7
OH
O (3) H2S2O3 (4) H2S2O4
Q.17 Hinsberg's reagent is :
(1) C6H5SO2Cl (2) C6H5COCl
O
(3) SOCl2 (4) (COCl)2
O CO 2Et Q.18 For the equilibrium, 2H2O  H3O+ + OH–,
(3) (4)
the value of Gº at 298 K is approximately :
Q.13 Which of the graphs shown below does not
represent the relationship between incident (1) –80 kJ mol–1 (2) –100 kJ mol–1
light and the electron ejected form metal (3) 100 kJ mol–1 (4) 80 kJ mol–1
surface ? Q.19 The Mond process is used for the
K .E . o f
(1) extraction of Mo
num ber
o f e–s e–s (2) Purification of Ni
(3) Purification of Zr and Ti
(4) Extraction of Zn
0 0 Q.20 The synonym for water gas when used in the
F re q u en c y o f In te n sity o f
lig h t lig h t production of methanol is :-
(1) (2) (1) natural gas (2) laughing gas
(3) syn gas (4) fuel gas
Q.21 The major product of the following reaction is:
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 O Test Inference
N aB H 4 (a) Dil. HCl Insoluble
E tO H (b) NaOH solution Soluble
(c) Br2/water Decolourization
OH OH O OH OH NH2

OEt
(1) (2) (3) (4) (1) (2)
Q.22 The number of water molecule(s) not NH2 OH
coordinated to copper ion directly in
CuSO4.5H2O, is :
(1) 4 (2) 3 (3) (4)
(3) 1 (4) 2 Q.26 The increasing order of reactivity of the
Q.23 The aldehydes which will not form Grignard following compounds towards reaction with
product with one equivalent Grignard reagents alkyl halides directly is :
are : O O CN
CHO CHO N H2 N H2
N H2 NH
HO2C (a)
(b)
O (c) (d)
(a) (b)
CHO CHO (1) (b) < (a) < (d) < (c)
(2) (b) < (a) < (c) < (d)
H3CO HOH2C (3) (a) < (c) < (d) < (b)
(c) (d) (4) (a) < (b) < (c) < (d)
(1) b, c, d (2) b, d Q.27 The given plots represent the variation of the
(3) b, c (4) c, d concentration of a reactant R with time for two
Q.24 Adsorption of a gas follows Freundlich different reactions (i) and (ii). The respective
adsorption isotherm x is the mass of the gas orders of the reactions are :
adsorbed on mass m of the adsorbent. The plot (i) (ii)
of log (x/m) versus log p is shown in the given ln [R ] [R ]
graph. is proportional to :
Tim e Tim e
(1) 1, 0 (2) 1, 1
x (3) 0, 1 (4) 0, 2
lo g 2
Q.28 In the Hall-Heroult process, aluminium is
m
3 formed at the cathode. The cathode is made out
of :
(1) Platinum (2) Carbon
lo g p
(3) Pure aluminium (4) Copper
(1) p3/2 (2) p3 Q.29 The major product of the following reaction is :
(3) p2/3 (4) p2 CH3CH = CHCO2CH3
Q.25 The organic compound that gives following
qualitative analysis is : (1) CH3CH2CH2CHO

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 (2) CH3CH = CHCH2OH (4) rotation around C2-C3 linkage
(3) CH3CH2CH2CO2CH3 Q.35 Why glucose is called gluco-pyranose?
(4) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH (1) glucose is aldohexose.
(2) glucose is a cyclic
Q.30 The effect of lanthanoid contraction in the
compound containing five carbon atoms
lanthanoid series of elements by and large
and one oxygen atom.
means :
(3) glucose is ketohexose.
(1) decrease in both atomic
(4) glucose is a cyclic
and ionic radii.
compound containing six carbon atoms.
(2) increase in atomic radii
and decrease in ionic radii. Q.36 For a vander Waal’s gas, the term
(3) increase in both atomic
and ionic radii. represents some
(4) decrease in atomic radii (1) Pressure (2) Energy
and increase in ionic radii. (3) Critical density (4) Molar mass
Q.31 Which of the following compounds reacts with Q.37 At S.T.P. the volume of 7.5 g of a gas is 5.6 L.
ethylmagnesium bromide and also decolourizes The gas is
bromine water solution : (1) NO (2) N2O
CN O CN (3) CO (4) CO2
C H 2 –C O 2C H 3
Q.38 In the equilibrium H2 + I2  2HI, if at a given
temperature the concentrations of the reactants
(1) (2) are increased, the value of the equilibrium
OCH3 OH constant, KC, will
CH (1) Increase
CH2 (2) Decrease
(3) Remain the same
(3) (4) (4) Cannot be predicted with certainty
Q.32 The peptide that gives positive ceric Q.39 The melting points of (i) BeCl2 (ii) CaCl2 and
ammonium nitrate and carbylamine tests is :
(1) Lys-Asp (2) Ser-Lys (iii) HgCl2 follows the order
(3) Gln-Asp (4) Asp-Gln (1) i < ii < iii (2) iii < i < ii
Q.33 In the Bayer's process, the leaching of alumina (3) i < iii < ii (4) ii < i < iii
is done by using Q.40 Benzoyl chloride + Sodium benzoate _
(1) Na2CO3 (2) NaOH (1) Benzaldehyde (2) Benzyl alcohol
(3) SiO2 (4) CaO (3) Benzyl benzoate (4) Benzoic anhydride
Q.34 The conformations of n-butane, commonly Q.41 In which of the following pair of oxyacid of
known as eclipsed, gauche and anti- phosphorous, oxidation states of P are not the
conformations can be interconverted by same
(1) rotation around C-H bond of a methyl group (1) H3PO4 and H4P2O7 (2) H3PO4 and
(2) rotation around C-H bond of a methylene H5P3O10
group (3) H4P2O7 and H5P3O10(4) H4P2O7 & H3PO3
(3) rotation around C1-C2 linkage.

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Q.42 Which of the following mixtures will have the (1) 2 cm (2) 1 cm
lowest pH at 298 K ? (3) 3.1 cm (4) 4.0 cm
(1)10ml 0.05NCH3COOH+ 5 ml 0.1 NNH4OH Q.48 A particle undergoing simple harmonic motion
(2) 5 ml 0.2 NH4Cl + 5 ml 0.2 N NH4OH has time dependent displacement given by
(3) 5 ml 0.1N CH3COOH x (t) = A sin . The ratio of kinetic to
+ 10 ml 0.05 N CH3COONa
potential energy of this particle at t = 210 s will
(4) 5 ml 0.1N CH3COOH + 5 ml 0.1 N NaOH be :
Q.43 A copper coin was electroplated with Zn and (1) 1/2 (2) 1/9
then heated at high temperature until there is a (3) 1/3 (4) 1
change in colour. What will be the resulting Q.49 The force of interaction between two atoms is
colour?
(1) White (2) Black given by : F = exp , where x is
(3) Silver (4) Golden
Q.44 If molality of a solution is 0.05 and elevation in the distance, k is the Boltzmann constant and t
boiling point is 0.16 K then, what is the molal is temperature and  and  are two constants.
elevation constant of the solvent? The dimension of  is :
(1) 3.2 (2) 1.6 (1) M2L2T–2 (2) M2LT–4
(3) 2.2 (4) 2.3 (3) M0L2T–4 (4) MLT–2
Q.45 Consider the radioactive disintegration Q.50 A small speaker delivers 2W of audio output.
210  B  C  D206
82A 82 At what distance from the speaker will one
The sequence of emission can be detect 120dB intensity sound ? [Given
(1) , ,  (2) , ,  reference intensity of sound as 10–12 W/m2]
(3) , ,  (4) , ,  (1) 10 cm (2) 30 cm
(3) 40 cm (4) 20 cm
PART B – PHYSICS Q.51 A wire of resistance R is bent to form a square
Q.46 To get output '1' at R, for the given logic gate ABCD as shown in the figure. The effective
circuit the input values must be : resistance between E and C is :
X (E is mid-point of arm CD)
A B
P R
Y
Q

D E C
(1) X = 0, Y = 1 (2) X =1 , Y = 1 (1) R (2) (1/16) R
(3) X = 0, Y = 0 (4) X = 1, Y = 0 (3) (7/64) R (4) (3/4) R
Q.47 The eye can be regarded as a single refracting Q.52 In a radioactive decay chain, the initial nucleus
surface. The radius of curvature of this surface is . At the end there are 6 -particles and
is equal to that of cornea (7.8 mm). This
surface separates two media of refractive 4 -particles which are emitted. If the end
indices 1 and 1.34. Calculate the distance from nucleus, is , A and Z are given by :
the refracting surface at which a parallel beam (1) A = 208; Z = 80 (2) A = 202; Z = 80
of light will come to focus. (3) A = 200; Z = 81 (4) A = 208; Z = 82
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Q.53 An electric field of 1000 V/m is applied to an change in the base current of the amplifier. The
electric dipole at angle of 45°. The value of input resistance and voltage gain are :
electric dipole moment is 10–29 C.m. What is (1) 0.33 k, 1.5 (2) 0.67 k, 200
the potential energy of the electric dipole ? (3) 0.33 k, 300 (4) 0.67 k, 300
(1) – 9 × 10–20 J (2) – 7 × 10–27 J Q.58 In the figure shown, a circuit contains two
(3) – 10 × 10–29 J (4) – 20 × 10–18 J identical resistors with resistance R = 5 and
an inductance with L = 2mH. An ideal battery
Q.54 A particle moves from the point of 15 V is connected in the circuit. What will
be the current through the battery long after the
at t = 0, with an initial velocity
switch is closed?
It is acted upon by a
S L
constant force which produces a constant
acceleration What is the 15 V R
distance of the particle from the origin at time R
2s ?
(1) (2) (1) 6A (2) 7.5A
(3) 5 m (4) 15 m (3) 5.5A (4) 3A
Q.55 In a Young's double slit experiment, the path Q.59 The resistance of the meter bridge AB is given
different, at a certain point on the screen, figure is 4. With a cell of emf  = 0.5 V and
between two interfering waves is (1/8) th of rheostat resistance Rh = 2 the null point is
wavelength. The ratio of the intensity at this obtained at some point J.

point to that at the centre of a bright fringe is
close to :
(1) 0.94 (2) 0.74
(3) 0.86 (4) 0.80 A
J
B
Q.56 A nucleus A, with a finite de-broglie
wavelength A, undergoes spontaneous fission
into two nuclei B and C of equal mass. B flies 6V Rh
in the same direction as that of A, while C flies When the cell is replaced by another one of
in the opposite direction with a velocity equal emf  = 2 the same null point J is found for
to half of that of B. The de-Broglie Rh = 6. The emf 2 is
wavelengths B and C of B and C are (1) 0.6 V (2) 0.5 V
respectively :- (3) 0.3 V (4) 0.4 V
(1) 2A, A (2) A, 2A Q.60 Three Carnot engines operate in series between
(3) A, A/2 (4) A/2, A a heat source at a temperature T 1 and a heat
Q.57 An NPN transistor is used in common emitter sink at temperature T4 (see figure). There are
configuration as an amplifier with 1 k load two other reservoirs at temperature T2, and T3,
resistance. Signal voltage of 10 mV is applied as shown, with T1 > T2 > T3 > T4 . The three
across the base-emitter. This produces a 3 mA
engines are equally efficient if:
change in the collector current and 15µA

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 T 1 cm, the Reynolds number for the flow is of the
order of : (density of water = 1000 kg/m 3,
1
coefficient of viscosity of water = 1mPas)
T 2 (1) 106 (2) 103
2 (3) 104 (4) 102
Q.65 Two stars of masses 3 × 10 31 kg each, and at
T 3
distance 2 × 1011 m rotate in a plane about their
3 common centre of mass O. A meteorite passes
T4 through O moving perpendicular to the star's
rotation plane. In order to escape from the
(1) T2 = (T1 T4) ; T3 = (T1T42)1/3
2 1/3
gravitational field of this double star, the
(2) T2 = (T1T42)1/3 ; T3 = (T12T4)1/3 minimum speed that meteorite should have at
(3) T2 = (T13T4)1/4 ; T3 = (T1T43)1/4 O is :
(Take Gravitational constant
(4) T2 = (T1T4)1/2 ; T3 = (T12T4)1/3 G = 6.67 ×10–11 Nm2 kg–2)
Q.61 Equation of travelling wave on a stretched (1) 1.4 ×105 m/s (2) 24 ×104 m/s
string of linear density 5 g/m is y = 0.03 sin (3) 3.8 ×104 m/s (4) 2.8 ×105 m/s
(450t – 9x) where distance and time are Q.66 A circuit connected to an ac source of emf
measured is SI units. The tension in the string e = e0sin (100t) with t in seconds, gives a phase
is :
(1) 10 N (2) 12.5 N difference of /4 between the emf e and current
(3) 7.5 N (4) 5 N i. Which of the following circuits will exhibit
Q.62 Two coaxial discs, having moments of inertia this ?
I1 and I1/2, are rotating with respective angular (1) RC circuit with R = 1 k and C = 1µF
(2) RL circuit with R = 1k and L = 1mH
velocities 1 and 1/2, about their common (3) RL circuit with R = 1 k and L = 10 mH
axis. They are brought in contact with each (4) RC circuit with R = 1k and C = 10 µF
other and thereafter they rotate with a common Q.67 A rigid square loop of side 'a' and carrying
angular velocity. If Ef and Ei are the final and current I2 is lying on a horizontal surface near a
initial total energies, then (Ef – Ei ) is : long current I1 carrying wire in the same plane
as shown in figure. The net force on the loop
(1) (2) due to wire will be :
I1 I2 B
(3) (4)
a
Q.63 A paramagnetic material has 1028 atoms/m3.
Its
magnetic susceptibility at temperature 350 K is a
2.8 ×10–4. Its susceptibility at 300 K is :
(1) Attractive and equal to
(1) 3.672 × 10–4 (2) 3.726 × 10–4
(3) 3.267 × 10–4 (4) 2.672 × 10–4
Q.64 Water from a pipe is coming at a rate of 100 (2) Repulsive and equal to
litres per minute. If the radius of the pipe is 5

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 Q.73 The ratio of mass densities of nuclei of 40Ca
(3) Repulsive and equal to
and 16O is close to :
(4) Zero (1) 1 (2) 2
Q.68 A current of 5 A passes through a copper (3) 0.1 (4) 5
conductor (resistivity = 1.7 × 10–8 Wm) of Q.74 A steel wire having a radius of 2.0 mm,
radius of cross-section 5 mm. Find the mobility carrying a load of 4 kg, is hanging from a
of the charges if their drift velocity is 1.1× 10 –3 ceiling. Given that
m/s. g = 3.1  ms–2, what will be the tensile stress
(1) 1.3 m2/Vs (2) 1.5 m2/Vs that would be developed in the wire ?
(3) 1.8 m2/Vs (4) 1.0 m2/Vs (1) 4.8 × 106 Nm–2 (2) 5.2 × 106 Nm–2
Q.69 Diameter of the objective lens of a telescope is (3) 6.2 × 106 Nm–2 (4) 3.1 × 106 Nm–2
250cm. For light of wavelength 600nm coming Q.75 What will be the molar specific heat at constant
from a distant object, the limit of resolution of volume of an ideal gas consisting of rigid
the telescope is close to : diatomic molecules?
(1) 1.5 × 10–7 rad (2) 2.0 × 10–7 rad (1) (3/2) R (2) (5/2) R
(3) 3.0 × 10–7 rad (4) 4.5 × 10–7 rad (3) R (4) 3R
Q.70 In a photoelectric experiment, the wavelength Q.76 We have two spheres, one of which is hollow
of the light incident on a metal is changed from shell and the other solid. They have identical
300nm to 400 nm. The decrease in the stopping masses and moment of inertia about their
respective diameters. The ratio of their radius is
potential is close to : given by:-
(1) 5 : 7 (2) 3 : 5
(1) 0.5 V (2) 1.0 V (3) (4)
(3) 2.0 V (4) 1.5 V Q.77 A particle of mass m is projected with a
Q.71 Four equal point charges Q each are placed in velocity u making an angle  with the
the xy plane at (0, 2), (4, 2), (4, –2) and (0, –2). horizontal. The magnitude of angular
The work required to put a fifth charge Q at the momentum of projectile about the point of
origin of the coordinate system will be : projection, when the particle is at its maximum
height H is :-
(1) (2)
(1) mu H (2) mu H cos 
(3) mu H sin  (4) mu H tan 
(3) (4) Q.78 A body of mass m moving with velocity v
collides head on with another body of mass 2 m
Q.72 A 27 mW laser beam has a cross-sectional area which is initially at rest. The ratio of K.E. of
of 10 mm2. The magnitude of the maximum the colliding body before and after collision
electric field in this electromagnetic wave is will be :-
given by [Given permittivity of space (1) 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 1
0 = 9 × 10–12 SI units, (3) 4 : 1 (4) 9 : 1
Q.79 The ratio of thermal conductivity of two rods of
Speed of light c = 3 × 108 m/s] different materials is 5 : 4. The two rods of
(1) 1 kV/m (2) 2 kV/m same area and same thermal resistance will
(3) 1.4 kV/m (4) 0.7 kV/m have lengths is the ratio :
(1) 5 : 4 (2) 1 : 9
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 (3) 9 : 1 (4) 4 : 5 (3) :2 (4) 2 : 3
Q.80 A circular disc of radius R has a uniform Q.85 An uniform thick string of length 8 m is resting
thickness. A circular hole of diameter equal to on a horizontal frictionless surface. It is pulled
the radius of disc has been cut out as shown. by a horizontal force of 8 N from one end. The
Distance of centre of mass of the remaining tension in the string at 3 m from the force
disc from point O is :- applied is -
(1) zero (2) 5 N
R (3) 4 N (4) 1 N
O

(1) R/14 (2) R/12 Q.86 In the circuit , the potential difference between
(3) R/8 (4) R/6 A and B is :
1 1V
Q.81 Find the maximum force for which both the M
block will move with same acceleration.
5 1 2V 10
4kg
µ =0.4 A D C B
8kg F 1 3V
N
sm ooth (1) 6 V (2) 1 V
(1) 16 N (2) 32 N (3) 3 V (4) 2 V
(3) 48 N (4) 8 N Q.87 A conducting bar is pulled with a constant
Q.82 When the frequency of the light used is speed v on a smooth conducting rail. The
changed from 4 × 1014 s–1 to 5 × 1014 s–1, then region has a steady magnetic field of induction
angular width of the principal (central) B as shown in the figure. If the speed of the bar
maximum in a single slit Fraunhoffer is doubled then the rate of heat dissipation will
diffraction pattern changes by 0.6 radian. What
is the width of the slit (assume that the
experiment is performed in vacuum)? B v
(1) 1.5 × 10–7 m (2) 3 × 10–7 m
(3) 5 × 10–7 m (4) 6 × 10–7 m
Q.83 A road is 10 m wide. Its radius of curvature is
50m. The outer edge is above the lower edge (1) Remain constant
by a distance of 1.5 m. this road is most suited (2) Become quarter of the initial value
for the velocity :- (3) Become four fold
(1) 2.5 m/s (2) 4.5 m/s (4) Get doubled
(3) 6.5 m/s (4) 8.5 m/s Q.88 When two sound sources of the same amplitude
Q.84 Two balls are projected from the same point but of slightly different frequencies 1 and 2
simultaneously. First ball is projected vertically are sounded simultaneously, the sound one
upwards and the second ball at an angle of hears has a frequency equal to :
projection 60° to the ground level. Both the
(1) | 1 – 2 | (2)
balls reach the ground simultaneously. The
ratio of their velocities are :
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 2 (3) (4) [1 + 2]

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Q.89 In which of the following the final image is Q.95 Difference between systolic and diastolic
erect? pressure is :
(1) Simple microscope (1) Blood pressure (2) Pulse pressure
(2) Compound microscope (3) Cardiac output (4) Pulse
(3) Astronomical telescope Q.96 In which of the following male heterogamety
(4) none of the above occurs in :-
(1) Birds (2) Human
(3) Moths (4) Honey bee
Q.97 Which one of the following is not the function
of placenta ?
(1) Secretion of oxytocin
Q.90 For a rolling body, the velocity of P1 and P2 are during parturition.
and respectively : (2) Facilitates supply of
oxygen and nutrient to embryo
P1
P2 A
(3) Secretion of oestrogen.
(4) Facilitates removal of
CO2 & waste material from embryo.
Q.98 The 20 different amino acid have different :-
(1) (2) (1) R-group (2) Carboxylic group
(3) (4) None of these (3) Peptide bond (4) Amino group
Q.99 The region of the eye where optic nerve leave
the eye is called :-
PART C – BIOLOGY (1) Fovea (2) Blind spot
Q.91 What is common between platypus, Kangaroo, (3) Iris (4) Optic chiasma
and whale ? Q.100 Which is main replicating enzyme in E.coli ?
(1) Aquatic habitat (2) Oviparity (1) DNA polymerase-III (2) DNA ligase
(3) Viviparity (4) Mammary glands (3) Topoisomerase (4) Primase
Q.92 Clover leaf model of RNA represents :- Q.101 Which of the following pairs are correctly
(1) Structure of r-RNA matched
(2) Secondary structure of t-RNA I. S-phase DNA replication
(3) Three dimensional structure of t-RNA II. Zygotene Synapsis
(4) Structure of m-RNA III. Pachytene Crossing over
Q.93 In which phylum, the coelom is formed by the IV. Meiosis Both haploid and diploid cells
splitting of a mesodermal mass ? V. G2-phase Quiscent state
(1) Platyhelminthes (2) Aschelminthes
(1) I, II & III (2) III & IV
(3) Mollusca (4) Echinodermata
(3) III & V (4) I, III & V
Q.94 Which of the following hormones are related to
Q.102 Read the given statements
osteoporosis ?
(a) CO affects the lungs activity
(1) Progesterone and Aldosterone
(b) CO affects the diaphragm and inter-costal
(2) Estrogen and Aldosterone
muscles
(3) Estrogen and parathormone
(c) CO affinity to Hb is equal to oxygen
(4) Parathormone and prolactin
(d) CO combines with Hb and its product
cannot be dissociated
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 Select appropriate answer (d) During a cardiac cycle,
(1) a-True, b-True, c-False, d-False both ventricle pumps out approximately 5 L
(2) a-True, b-False, c-True, d-False of blood.
(3) a-False, b-False, c-True, d-True How many statements are correct ?
(4) a-False, b-False, c-False, d-True (1) One (2) Two
Q.103 Light and non-sticky pollen grains are (3) Three (4) Four
favourable for :- Q.107 How many of these hormones help in
(1) Insect pollinated plants increasing RBC count :-
(2) Bird pollinated plants Renin, erythropoietin, growth hormone,
(3) Bat pollinated plants cortisol, thyroxine, estrogen, epinephrine.
(4) Wind pollinated plants (1) Three (2) Four
Q.104 Which of the following is showing adaptive (3) Two (4) Five
radiation Q.108 Which of the following statement incorrect
(1) Lemur - sugar glider about satellite DNA ?
(2) Wombat - bandicoot (1) Satellite DNA shows high degree of
(3) Kangaroo - Koala polymorphism
(4) (2) & (3) both (2) Highly repetitive DNA
Q.105 Read the following four statements (a-d) (3) Satellite DNA is non-coding
carefully: (4) Satellite DNA codes for specific proteins
(a) In five kingdom classification, bacteria are Q.109 In potato, genotype aabbccdd produces 50g
included in kingdom protista. potatoes and AABBCCDD produces 90 gm.
(b) Bacteria may be potatoes what is the production of potatoes in
autotrophic or heterotrophic in their mode plant with genotype AAbbccdD :-
of nutrition. (1) 35g (2) 65g
(c) Members of kingdom fungi show a great (3) 82.5 g (4) 75 g
diversity in structure and habitat. Q.110 Match the following column I with column II:-
(d) The kingdom plantae Column I Column II
includes all multicellular eukaryotic a. Chromatin i.Secondary constriction
chlorophyll containing organisms. b. Nucleolus ii. Primary constriction
How many of the above statement are not c. Centromere iii. Nucleoprotein fibre
correct? d. NOR iv. Active r-RNA
(1) 3 (2) 4 synthesis site
(3) 2 (4) 1 (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (2) a-iii, b-iv, c-ii, d-i
Q.106 Read the following statement :- (3) a-iv, b-iii, c-i, d-ii (4) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
(a) The hepatic portal vein carries blood from Q.111 Which of the following statement is false ?
intestine to the liver. (1) Multipolor neuron found in the cerebral
(b) Heart failure means the cortex
state of heart when it is not pumping blood (2) unipolar neuron found usually in embryonic
effectively enough to meet the need of the stage.
body part. (3) Bipolar neuron found in Retina
(c) Adrenal medullary hormones can also (4) The Axons transmit nerve impulses towards
decrease the cardiac output. the cell body.

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Q.112 Both erythrocytes and leucocytes are formed in Q.119 Habitat togethers with function of species
:- constitute its :
(1) Lymph nodes (2) Bone marrow (1) Trophic level (2) Boundary
(3) Thymus (4) Arterial wall (3) Topography (4) Niche
Q.113 Identify structure A, B and C ? Q.120 Identify the correct match from the column-I, II
COOH COOH COOH and III.
C o lum n-I C o lum n -II C o lu m n-III
H –C –N H 2 H –C –N H 2 H –C –N H 2
(I) W he at (a) H om o (i) M o noco tyled onae
H CH3 CH2OH (II) M an (b) M usca (ii) D ic oty le donae
(A ) (B ) (C ) (III) M an go (c) M an gifera (iii) Insecta
Option : (IV ) H o us efly (d) Triticum (iv ) M a m m alia
(1) A-Alanine, B-Serine, C-Glycine
(2) A-Glycine, B-Serine, C-Alanine (1) I-d-i, II-a-iv, III-c-ii, IV-b-iii
(3) A-Glycine, B-Alanine, C-Serine (2) I-c-ii, II-b-iii, III-d-ii, IV-a-iv
(4) A-Glycine, B-Alanine, C-Valine (3) I-b-iii, II-c-ii, III-a-iv, IV-d-i
Q.114 Oral contraceptive pills have : (4) I-a-iv, II-d-i, III-b-iii, IV-c-ii
(1) Progestogens alone Q.121 Which of the following epithelial tissue is
(2) Estrogen alone present in fallopian tube ?
(3) Progestogen-estrogen combination (1) Ciliated cuboidal epithelium
(4) Either (1) or (3) (2) Ciliated columnar epithelium
Q.115 Arrange the following plant groups in (3) Steriociliated columnar epithelium
ascending order with respect to the gradual (4) Brush bordered columnar epithelium
reduction of gametophytic stage : Q.122 Which one is wrongly matched ?
a. Bryophyta b. Pteridophytes (1) 1st step of PCR – Denaturation
c. Angiosperm d. Gymnosperm (2) 1st clinical gene therapy – AIDS
(1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c, d, a (3) Recognition sequence of EcoRI
(3) a, b, d, c (4) b, d, c, a –5'GAATTC3', 3'CTTAAG 5'
Q.116 Water transport system is characteristic feature (4) Secondary treatment of STP
of which phylum ? – Reduce BOD of effluent
(1) Annelida (2) Porifera Q.123 Primary structure of a protein relates to ?
(3) Coelenterata (4) Mollusca (1) -helical folding of a polypeptide
Q.117 The exocrine portion of pancreas secretes : (2) Association of two polypeptides
(1) Insulin and Glucagon (3) The sequence of amino acid
(2) Trypsinogen and nucleases (4) -pleated sheet folding of a polypeptide
(3) Nucleosides Q.124 Which of the following is the correct match of
(4) Pepsin & Chymotrypsin salivary gland with its location ?
Q.118 Which of the following species has adaptation (1) Parotid-below tongue
of meeting all its water requirements by (2) Sub-maxillary-below ear
internal fat oxidation ? (3) Sub-mandibular-lower jaw
(1) Kangaroo rat (2) Snail (4) Sub lingual-cheek
(3) Cactus (4) Humming bird Q.125 70-80% of electrolyte and water reabsorbed in
which part of nephron :-
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 (1) PCT (2) DCT
C ro p V a rie ty In sect p ests
(3) Henle's loop (4) Collecting duct
Q.126 How many plants in the list given below are 1
R ap eseed
P u sa G au rav A ph id
members of Liliaceae family? m u stard
Tulip, Gloriosa, Petunia, Brinjal, Asparagus, Jassid , A p h id s
Colchicine, sesbania, Trifolium, Lupin, Aloe, 2 F lat bean P u sa sem -2 & 3
an d F ruit b orer
Sun-Flower, Grass, Onion, Sun-hemp.
(1) Six (2) Five S h o o t an d fru it
3 O k ra P usa saw an i
(3) Seven (4) Eight bo rer
Q.127 Parts A, B, C and D of Nephron are shown in 4 M aize P u sa sn o w ball K -1 L eaf b eetle
the diagram select the option which is incorrect
with it's function Q.130 Match the column.
A C Column-I Column-II
A. Sulphur i. Chlorophyll
Cortex B. Zinc ii. Nitrogenase
C. Magnesium iii. Methionine
D. Molybdenum iv. Auxin
B (1) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv
(2) A-iii; B-iv; C-i; D-ii
(3) A-ii; B-iv; C-i; D-iii
Medulla (4) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i
D Q.131 One of the synthetic auxin :-
(1) IAA (2) ABA
(1) A – 70-80% water (3) 2, 4–D (4) GA
reabsorption Q.132 Which one of the following pairs of plants are
(2) B – permeable to salts not seed producers?
(3) C – Selective secretion (1) Ficus and Sphagnum
of H+ and K+ ions and maintain pH (2) Pinus and Azolla
(4) D– allows passage of (3) Fern and Funaria
small amount of urea into the medullary (4) Funaria and Ficus
interstitium and help to produce Q.133 Which of the following drug is a narcotic
concentrated urine analgesic?
Q.128 Identify the Mis-Match : (1) Diclofenac sodium (2) Paracetamol
(1) Joseph Priestley – Bell Jar experiment (3) Barbiturates (4) Diacetyl morphine
(2) Jan Ingenhousz – O2 Release from green Q.134 Match the following :
part of plant (I) Interval between mitosis (a) Synthesis
(3) T.W. Engelmann – Action spectrum of and initiation of DNA phase
photosynthesis replication
(4) Van Neil – Light reaction (II) Complete separation of (b) Telophase
Q.129 Which of the following is incorrectly matched daughter chromatids
in the given table ? (III) Doubling of amount of (c) G2 phase
DNA
(IV) Chromosome lost their (d) Anaphase
identity as discrete (e) Metaphase
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 elements (f) G1 phase D-pyloric part
(1) I–a, II–b, III–d, IV–e (4) A-fundic part, B-body,
(2) I–f, II–d, III–a, IV–b C-cardiac part,
(3) I–c, II–e, III–d, IV–b D-pyloric part
(4) I–b, II–a, III–e, IV–d Q.139 The Abingdon tortoise in Galapagos island
Q.135 Fermentation is represented by the equation : become extinct within decade after goats were
(1) C6H12O6  6CO2 + 6H2O + 673 Kcal introduced on the island is an example of :
(1) Competitive release
(2) C6H12O6  2C2H5OH + 6CO2 + 18 Kcal
(2) Resource partitioning
(3) 6CO2 + 12H2O (3) Competition direct
C6H12O6 + 6H2O + 6CO2 (4) Competitive exclusion
Q.140 Mitochondrial matrix contains the enzymes
(4) 6CO2 + 6H2O  C6H12O6 + 6CO2
for:-
(1) Photosynthesis
Q.136 If stomach does not produce HCl the which
(2) Glycolysis and TCA cycle
enzyme will work for longer time period than
(3) TCA cycle
its usual time
(4) TCA cycle and electron transport
(1) Amylopsin (2) Rennin
Q.141 Arrange the following events of life cycle of
(3) Ptyalin (4) Gastric lipase
Bryophyte in correct sequence :
Q.137 Which of the following is not the
I. Germination of spore
characteristics of species susceptible to
II. Gametes formation
extinction :
III. Formation of Gametophyte
(1) Large body size
IV. Fertilization
(2) High reproductive rate
V. Embryo formation
(3) Feeding at top consumer level
(1) I, III, IV, V, II (2) II, IV, I, V, III
(4) Fixed habitat
(3) III, II, IV, V, I (4) V, I, II, III, IV
Q.138 Label the following diagramme correctly :
Oesophagus Q.142 In the given diagram S is ?
B C
B
A R
A Q
Superior portion P
of duodenum S
C .
(1) Seral Community (2) Sere
(3) Pioneer Community (4) Climax Community
D
Q.143 Calculate the frequency of LN alleles :
.
B lo o d g ro u p G e n oty p e N o . o f in d iv id u al
(1) A-fundic part, B-cardiac
part, C-body, M L ML M 1 7 87
D-pyloric part MN L ML N 3089
(2) A-cardiac part, B-fundic
part, C-body, N L NL N 1303
D-pyloric part (1) 54% (2) 64%
(3) A-body, B-fundic part, (3) 46% (4) 36%
C-cardiac part, Q.144 Which of the following is correctly match :-
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 (1) Iron – Plant obtain in the form of Fe+2
(2) Potassium – Involve in protein synthesis
(3) Sulphur – Activates enzyme carboxylase
(4) Molybdenum – Splitting of water during
photosynthesis
Q.145 The method in which alien DNA is directly
injected into the nucleus of an animal cell is (1) (2)
known as :
(1) Biolistic (2) Micro-injection
(3) Electroporation (4) Heat-shock treatment
Q.146 Ecosystems need a constant supply of energy to
synthesise the molecules they require to
(1) Increase the photosynthetic efficiency.
(2) Reduce respiratory loss.
(3) Counteract the universal tendency toward
increasing disorderliness. (3) (4)
(4) Control the worst impacts of predation. Q.150 Plants of coastal biome have special structure
Q.147 Consider the following statements and select for breathing, that is modified ____ in ____.
the correct ones. (1) Tap root, Pandanus
a. The most obvious and technically (2) Adventitious root, Avicennia
complicated features are metabolism and (3) Tap root, Rhizophora
consciousness. (4) Fibrous root, Sonneratia
b. Growth and reproduction are mutually Q.151 What type of ecological succession would
inclusive events for euglenoids and operate often a volcanic eruption and forest
chrysophytes. fire?
c. Generally, families and orders are identified (1) Primary succession
on the basis of aggregates of vegetative (2) Primary and secondary succession
characters only. respectively
d. Herbarium serves as quick referral system (3) Secondary succession
in taxonomical studies. (4) Secondary & primary succession
(1) b, c & d (2) a, c & d respectively
(3) b & d (4) a, b, c & d Q.152 Chargaff'a rule is applicable's to :
Q.148 If father is affected with defective enamel of (1) Single stranded RNA
teeth and mother is normal then :- (2) Double standed DNA
(1) All children will be affected. (3) Single stranded DNA
(2) Only male child will be affected. (4) Single stranded DNA and RNA
(3) Only female child will be affected. Q.153 Hydroponics is a system of growing plants in:-
(4) One male and all female children will be (1) Soil less culture of solution culture
affected (2) Acidic soil
Q.149 Presence of lamellae is the characteristic (3) Soil less culture with alkaline pH
feature of (4) Soil less culture with acidic pH
Q.154 Which of the following plant is found in
Mangroove forest ?

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 (1) Shorea robusta (2) Rhizophora Q.161 'Pomato' has been produced as the result of :-
(3) Tectona grandis (4) Pinus (1) Interspecific hybridisation between potato
Q.155 A very effective sedative and painkiller which and
is useful for patients who have undergone tomato.
surgery is (2) Somatic hybridisation.
(1) Opium in raw form (2) Morphine (3) Mutation breeding.
(3) Diacetylmorphine (4) Barbiturates (4) Recombinant DNA technique.
Q.156 Find out the correct developmental sequence in Q.162 Forelimbs of cat, lizard used in walking;
embryogeny for the following structures: forelimbs of whale used in swimming and
a. Heart shaped stage b. Two-celled stage forelimbs of bats used in flying are an example
c. Globular stage d. Mature embryo of :
(1) b, a, c, d (2) c, b, a, d (1) Analogous organs (2) Vestigial organ
(3) b, c, d, a (4) b, c, a, d (3) Homologous organs (4) Convergent
Q.157 Parasitic worm which is dioecious and have evolution
internal fertilization is Q.163 Choose the incorrectly matched pair:
(1) Hirudinaria (2) Ascaris (1) Syncarpous pistil – Hibiscus
(3) Taenia (4) Nereis (2) Apocarpous pistil – Michelia
Q.158 DNA fingerprinting involves identifying (3) Monosporic embryo sac – Polygonum
differences in some specific regions in DNA (4) Cleistogamous flower – Mirabilis
sequences called as : Q.164 Removal of RNA polymerase -II from
(1) Repetitive DNA (2) Non-repetitive DNA nucleoplasm will affect the synthesis of :
(3) Satellite DNA (4) (1) & (3) both (1) tRNA (2) 5s rRNA
Q.159 Select recombinant progenies from F2- (3) hnRNA (4) 28s rRNA
generation of dihybrid cross performed by Q.165 Which one of the following option gives the
Morgan in fruitfly. correct categorisation of three examples
according to the type of species (A, B, C) they
give out ?
A B C
K ey ston e C ritical lin k E nd e m ic
sp ecies sp ecies sp ecies
(1) M eta sequoia in lion in forest M yco rrhizal
china valley fungi
(2) K a ngaroo in F ig tree in P o llinator insect
Australia trop ical forest
(3) K a ngaroo R at M yco rrhizal M eta seq uoia in
in Des ert fungi china valley
(4) Lion in forest K angaroo in P o llinator Insect
Australia
Q.166 The immunity responsible for graft rejection is
(1) B, D, F, H (2) A, C, E, G (1) Humoral immunity
(3) B, C, F, G (4) A, D, F, G (2) Antibody mediated immunity
Q.160 Which of the following is a viral disease :- (3) Cell mediated immunity
(1) Malaria (2) Typhoid (4) Both (2) & (3)
(3) Hepatitis B (4) Plague
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Q.167 The redox equivalents as two hydrogen atoms Q.171 An antibiotic resistance gene of plasmid vector
are released from 5–C substrate in aerobic which get inactivated due to insertion of alien
respiration by the activity of enzyme DNA, helps in the selection of–
(1) Pyruvate dehydrogenase (1) Transformants (2) Recombinants
(2) Phosphoglyceraldehyde dehydrogenase (3) Non-Transformants (4) 2 & 3 both
(3) -Ketoglutarate dehydrogenase Q.172 Which of the following set of products are
(4) Malate dehydrogenase produced by bacteria?
Q.168 Temperature variation in Pacific ocean in a. Curd b. Penicillin
present time is called : c. Acetic acid d. Streptokinase
(1) Cyclone effect (2) ElNino effect (1) b, c and d (2) a, c and d
(3) Green house effect (4) Gaudikov's (3) a, b and c (4) a, b and d
effect Q.173 Himgiri is a variety of wheat. It is resistant for :
Q.169 Common cold differs from pneumonia in that – (1) White rust (2) Leaf rust
(1) Pneumonia is caused by (3) Black rot (4) Leaf curl
a virus while the common cold is caused by Q.174 Mosses have –
the bacterium Haemophilus influenzae. (1) Dependent gametophyte
(2) Pneumonia pathogen possessing spore forming stage.
infects alveoli whereas the common cold (2) Elaborate mechanism of
affects nose and respiratory passage but not spores dispersal.
the lungs. (3) Unicellular rhizoids
(3) Pneumonia is a (4) Mitospores producing
communicable disease whereas the structure known as capsule.
common cold is a nutritional deficiency
disease Q.175 Consider the following statements and select
(4) Pneumonia can be the correct ones.
prevented by a live attenuated bacterial a. Total number of N-glycosidic linkages in
vaccine whereas the common cold has no bacteriophage  ×174 is 5386.
effective vaccine. b. Two nucleotides are linked through 5'–3'
Q.170 Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. ringworm phosphodiester bond.
infection in humans. c. The pitch of the DNA helix is 3.4 Å.
(1) Ringworm infections d. Stability of the DNA helical structure is
thrive in body parts having high moisture conferred by H-bonds and the plane of one
and high temperature conditions. base pair stacks over the other.
(2) Ringworms in groin e. The average rate of polymerisation of DNA
area is called Tinea cruris polymerase III is 2000 bp per second.
(3) Ringworm disease is (1) a, b & c (2) a, d & e only
caused by nematode parasites or round (3) a, b, d & e (4) a, c, d & e
worms which have circular bodies in cross Q.176 The continued formation and accumulation of
section. secondary xylem leads to
(4) Ringworms spread (1) Obliteration of primary xylem.
through direct contact or by sharing clothes (2) Gradual crushing of primary phloem only.
and towels with infected individuals. (3) Crushing of primary and secondary phloem
gradually.

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 (4) Loss of heartwood and pith. Q.179 The interval between mitosis and synthesis
Q.177 In case of a female who suffers from phase is characterised by
anovulation but has normal physiological (1) Replication of DNA
conditions available for carrying out (2) Synthesis of tubulin proteins
fertilization and embryonic development; the (3) Synthesis of deoxyribonucleotides
preferred ART should be (4) Centrioles duplication
(1) ZIFT (2) GIFT Q.180 Which one of the following is incorrectly
(3) ET (4) ICSI matched?
Q.178 The figure given below shows section view of (1) Turner’s syndrome – AA + XO
ovary which describe development of follicle (2) Intersex Drosophila – AAA + XXY
(A, B, C and D). Select the option with correct (3) Sickle cell anaemia – Transition mutation
identification. (4) Thalassemia – Frameshift mutation
a c

b .

d
.
a b c d
(1 ) S eco n d ary T ertiary G raafian C o rp u s
fo llicle fo llicle fo llicle luteu m
(2 ) P rim ary G raafia n Tertiary C o rp u s
fo llicle fo llicle fo llicle luteu m
(3 ) S eco n d ary G raafia n Tertiary C o rp u s
fo llicle fo llicle fo llicle luteu m
(4 ) P rim ary T ertiary G raafian C o rp u s
fo llicle fo llicle fo llicle luteu m

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