1.

The following test is used to differentiate Streptococcus from Staphylococcus:

A. Coagulase test B. Catalase test C. Phosphatase D. Indole test

2. Staphylococcus bacteria secrete all, EXCEPT:

A. Lipase B. Cellulase C. Coagulase D. Lecithinase

3. Gram negative cocci is:

A. Staphylococcus B. Streptococcus C. Neisseria D. Salmonella

4. All of the following are acid fast bacteria EXCEPT:

A. Cryptosporidium B. Mycoplasma C. Mycobacterium D. Nocardia

5. All of the following methods are used for serological diagnosis, EXCEPT:

A. CFT B. PCR C. SRH D. Western blot

6. Which of the following virus is not associated with respiratory infections?

A. Rotavirus B. Adenovirus C. Influenza virus D. RSV

7. HCV belongs to genus:

A. Togavirus B. Flavivirus C. Filovirus D. Retrovirus

8. Aflatoxin is produced by:

A. Candida B. Penicillium C. Aspergillus flavus D. Clostridium

9. Which one is an essential part of life cycle of Toxoplasma gondii is spread by:

A. Dog B. Cat C. Human D. Sheep

10. Cell mediated immunity is mainly carried out by:

A. T cells B. B cells C. Macrophages D. Monocytes

11. Vaccination is based on the principle of:

A. Agglutination B. Phagocytosis C. Immunological memory D. Clonal deletion

12. Reaction of soluble antigen with antibody is _______.

A. Agglutination B. Precipitation C. Flocculation D. CFT

13. Preliminary screening can be done by:

A. restriction enzyme B. dyes C. antibiotics D. radiation

14. All of these are antigen presenting cells EXCEPT:

A. T cells B. B cells C. Dendritic cells D. Langerhans cells

15. Which of the following is not included in intrinsic determinants of a disease?

A. Specie B. Environment C. Genetics D. Both “A” and “B”

16. Latent infection is seen in viral infections EXCEPT:

A. HIV B. EBV C. Rotavirus D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)

17. Endotoxin for Gram-negative organism is:

A. Polysaccharide B. Glycoprotein C. Lipoprotein D. Lipopolysaccharide

18. Which of the following is obligate anaerobe?

A. Clostridium B. Bacillus C. Staphylococcus D. Klebsiella

19. Fungi that possess a capsule is:

A. Candida B. Aspergillus C. Cryptococcus D. Mucor

20. All are used in Gram’s staining, EXCEPT:

A. Methylene blue B. Iodine C. Safranin D. Crystal violet

21. Viruses do not contain:

A. DNA B. RNA C. Enzyme D. Cell wall

22. _______ is chain forming, & round shaped bacteria.

A. Pneumococcus B. Streptococcus C. Staphylococcus D. Diplococcus

23. Which one of the following is NOT included in innate immune response?

A. phagocytosis B. complement activation C. antibodies production D. NK cells

activation

24. Viruses are:

A. Obligate intracellular parasites B. Have their own metabolism C. Divide by binary

fission D. Have both DNA and RNA
25. Reagent is used to precipitate DNA.

A. Isopropanol B. SDS C. Phenol D. Chloroform

26. Making routine observations on health, productivity & environment is called as:

A. GIS B. Monitoring C. Surveillance D. Cohort studies

27. The coagulase test is used to differentiate between Staphylococcus aureus from:

A. Streptococci B. Micrococci C. Enterococci D. other staphylococci

28. Which one is NOT protective mechanism of body:

A. Fever B. Necrosis C. Phagocytosis D. Inflammation

29. Bioterrorism microbial agents are classified based upon:

A. Pathogenicity B. Spread C. Availability D. Both “A” and “B”

30. Antibiotic penicillin was introduced by:

A. Louise Pasteur B. Alexander Fleming C. Jenner D. Lister

31. Prokaryotic cell lacks:

A. DNA B. Ribosomes C. Mitochondria D. Plasma membrane

32. Immunity against yellow fever in newborn is an example of:

A. Active naturally acquired B. passive artificially acquired C. passive naturally

acquired D. artificial immunity

33. All structures are external to cell wall EXCEPT:

A. Glycocalyx B. Flagella C. Pilli D. Spores

34. A typical bacterial cell has only _____ volume of a typical eukaryotic cell.

A. 1/10 B. 1/100 C. 1/1000 D. 1/10000

35. PCR reaction includes all, EXCEPT:

A. DNA ligase B. four DNTPs C. DNA template D. DNA polymerase

36. All of the following bacteria are members of family Enterobacteriaceae EXCEPT:

A. E. coli B. Shigella C. Staphylococcus D. Salmonella

37. They are facultative anaerobes, fermenting sugars to produce lactic acid
A. Enterobacteriaceae B.

38. A library of DNA fragments results from the use of:

A. Viruses B. Restriction endonucleases C. DNA ligases D. Plasmids

39. O157:H7 is pathogenic type of :

A. Salmonella typhi B. E. coli C. S. aureus D. Streptococcus

40. All of the following bacteria are non-spore forming bacteria EXCEPT:

A. E. coli B. Clostridium C. Streptococcus D. Leptospira

41. The ability of Microscope to distinguish two objects into two separate objects, is called:

A. Magnification power B. Wavelength C. Resolving power D. None of

these

42. Serum is collected from____________ blood.

A. Heparinized B. Unclotted C. Clotted D. All of these

43. GET buffer in plasmid isolation of bacteria contains:

A. Glucose B. EDTA C. Tris D. All of these

44. Majority of the antigens are:

A. Protein B. Nucleic acid C. Lipids D. Carbohydrates

45. RNAi’ stands for which of the following:

A. RNA inducer B. RNA insertion C. RNA interference D. RNA intron

46. The botulism intoxication occurs due to:

A. An enterotoxin B. A neurotoxin C. A mycotoxin D. All of these

47. An animal that only acts as short-term transmitter:

A. Passive carrier B. Mechanical carrier C. Biological carrier D. Asymptomatic carrier

48. Swarming growth is the characteristic of Gram negative bacteria known as:

A. Clostridium B. Proteus C. Pasteurella D. Pseudomonas

49. Mesophilic bacteria CANNOT grow at temperature:

A. 16oC B. 25oC C. 35oC D. 38oC

50. Facultative anaerobic bacteria grow in presence of:

A. only O2 B. O2 and also CO2 C. only CO2 D. N2

51. Mannitol salt agar is an example of:

A. Selective medium B. Differential medium C. Both “A” and “B” D. Enrichment

medium

52. Translation occurs in:

A. Nucleus B. Cytoplasm C. Ribosomes D. Both “A” and “B”

53. An intron is found in: A. DNA B. RNA C. mRNA D. tRNA

54. Signal responsible for the end of transcription is:

A. Stop codon B. RNA polymerase run out C. End of DNA chain D. Terminato

55. Plasmids are inserted in bacterial cell from environment:

A. Transformation B. DNA ligase C. Transfection D. Transduction

56. Which of following could NOT be a portal of entry?

A. Meninges B. Skin C. Placenta D. Small intestine

57. Highly communicable pathogen, especially via direct contact is known as:

A. Zoonotic B. Contagious C. Nosocomial D. Communicable

58. Motility of the bacteria can be observed by:

A. Hanging drop method B. Soft agar method C. Both “A” and “B” D. Pour plate method

59. Adenine and guanine are example of which class of nitrogen base:

A. Large B. Pyrimidines C. Small D. Purines

60. Which of the following is not a function of capsule?

A. Attachment B. Motility C. Biofilm D. Used as nutrition

61. Whiff test is used for the diagnosis of:

A. Entamoeba B. Giardia C. E. coli D. Trichomonas

62. _____is Gram positive rod & spore forming bacteria.

A. Pseudomonas B. Staphylococcus C. Salmonella D. Bacillus

63. Which of the following vaccine is recommended for pregnant women?

A. Tetanus B. Tuberculosis C. AIDS D. Poliomyelitis

63. Natural competence was first time described in:

A. E. coli B. Streptococcus C. Staphylococcus D. Bacillus

64. In genomic DNA isolation, TE buffer functions as:

A. Block endonucleases B. Maintain pH C. Denature protein D. Both “A” and “B”

65. An example of non-communicable disease is:

A. Measles B. Tuberculosis C. Leprosy D. Tetanus

66. E. coli O157:H7 produces ______.

A. Colon toxin B. Neurotoxin C. Exotoxin D. Shiga toxin

67. Lyophilization means:

A. Sterilization B. Burning to ashes C. Exposure to formation D. Freeze-drying

68. ____ is NOT an example of inflammation?

A. Pain B. Sweating C. Heat D. Swelling

69. Clostridium bacillus is:

A. Facultative anaerobe B. Facultative aerobe C. Obligate anaerobe D. Obligate

aerobe

70. α-hemolytic streptococci are also known as_______.

A. Streptococcus pyogenes B. Virulence group C. Viridans group D. CoNS

71. __________ is/are used to determine glucose fermentation by bacteria?

A. Methyl red test B. TSI test C. Urease test D. MR test and TSI test

72. Bacteria are more sensitive to antibiotics at which phase of growth curve?

A. Decline phase B. Lag phase C. Log phase D. Stationary phase

73. Syphilis is a bacterial STD, caused by________.

A. Trichomonas vaginalis B. Treponema pallidum C. Leptospira D. Neisseria

gonorrhoea
74. Staining material of Gram-negative bacteria is

A. Crystal violet B. Safranin C. Carbol fuchsin D. Methylene blue

75. The bacterium that is most commonly used in genetic engineering is:

A. Staphylococcus B. Klebsiella C. Proteus D. Escherichia

76. In autoclave, the principle involved is:

A. Dry heat B. Moist heat C. Steam under pressure D. Moist heat and steam under
pressure

77. ____ is NOT an example of immuno-diagnostic test.

A. PCR B. Serum plate agglutination test C. ELISA D. FAT

78. Staph-110 used for the isolation of Staphylococcus, is an example of ___________ medium.

A. Selective B. Enrichment C. Differential D. General purpose

79. Production of RNA from DNA is called:

A. Translation B. Transcription C. RNA splicing D. Replication

80. Example of anaerobic medium is:

A. Nutrient agar B. Selenite F broth C. Robertson cooked-meat medium D.

MacConkey agar

81. All of following are waterborne diseases EXCEPT:

A. Cholera B. Scabies C. Giardiasis D. Salmonellosis

82. Mycotoxins are produced by: A. Bacteria B. Viruses C. Fungi D. Protozoa

83. In polymerase chain reaction, extension step is done at temperature:

A. 50-60oC B. 95oC C. 37 o C D. 72oC

84. Enzymes are chemically:

A. Lipids B. Proteins C. Carbohydrates D. Lipoproteins

85. Which of the following has optimum growth temperature greater than 45oC?

A. Mesophilic B. Psychrophiles C. Psychrophilic D. Thermophiles

86. The enzyme ____________ unzips and unwinds the DNA.

A. DNA polymerase B. Helicase C. Primase D. Reverse transcriptase

87. Helicobacter pylori possesses __________ that helps to neutralize stomach acid (HCl).

A. Coagulase B. Urease C. Hyaluronidase D. Catalase

88. Capnophiles bacteria grow at optimum in:

A. Small percentage of CO2 B. Excess CO2 C. Excess of O2 D. Absence of

O2

89. First line of body defense is:

A. Antibody molecules B. Antigen molecules C. Phagocytic cells D. Unbroken skin

90. ‘Toxic shock syndrome’ is caused by the toxin of:

A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Vibrio cholerae D. Proteus

vulgaris

91._________ reagent is used to precipitate DNA. A. SDS B. Isopropanol C. Phenol D.

EDTA

92. Virus family causing mumps is also responsible for:

A. Hepatitis B. Rabies C. Measles D. Smallpox

93. Carcinoma refers to

A. Malignant tumors of the connective tissue B. Malignant tumors of the colon C. Malignant
tumors of skin or mucus membrane D. Malignant tumors of the lungs

94. Batch fermentation is also called:

A. Open system B. Closed system C. Sub-merger system D. Continuous

system

95. Live bacterial cells can be examined:

A. In dark field microscope B. After Gram staining C. After special staining D. Acid-fast
staining

96. Formation of nitrate from ammonia is called:

A. Ammonification B. Denitrification C. Nitrogen fixation D. Nitrification

97. Bacterial cells are at their metabolic peak during:

A. Lag phase B. Log phase C. Stationary Phase D. Decline Phase

98. The antibiotic acting on cell was is:

A. Chloramphenicol B. Rifampin C. Polymyxins D. Penicillin

99. Which of the following is a motile bacterium?

A. Klebsiella pneumoniae B. Bacillus anthracis C. Proteus vulgaris D. Shigella

flexneri

100. __ is the killing of all microorganisms both in vegetative and sporing states.

A. Disinfection B. Pasteurization C. Sterilization D. Antisepsis

101. ______________ technique requires previously diluted samples carpeted over agar plate.

A. Streak plate B. Spread plate C. Pour plate D. Stab tube

102. ______ is Gram positive spherical & chain forming.

A. Streptococcus B. Staphylococcus C. Bacillus D. Diplococcus

103. The organisms which grow best in the presence of a low concentration of oxygen:

A. Microaerophilic B. Anaerobic C. Facultative anaerobic D. Obligate aerobes

104. Temperature of autoclave at 15 psi will be_____. A. 110oC B. 115oC C. 121oC D. 125oC

105. Which one the following blood cells primarily functions as phagocytic cells?

A. B-lymphocytes B. T-lymphocytes C. Eosinophils D. Neutrophils

106. Acquired immunity is: A. Natural B. Artificial C. Active D. All of these

107. ___ is a culture medium having liquid consistency.

A. Broth B. Agar C. Soft agar D. All of these

108. Which of the following is an example general purpose medium is ________?

A. Selenite F broth B. Mannitol salt agar C. MacConkey agar D. Nutrient agar

109. Which of the following is an example acid-fast bacterium?

A. Vibrio B. Staphylococcus C. Mycobacterium D. Leptospira

109. _______ is a pigment giving golden color to colonies.

A. Catalase B. Staphyloxanthin C. Coagulase D. Hemolysin

110. Streptolysin O is inactivated by __________.

A. CO2 B. Nitrogen C. Oxygen D. Serum

111. MacConkey agar, it differentiates b/w __________ fermenting and non-fermenting bacteria.

A. glucose B. lactose C. mannitol D. sucrose

112. BCG vaccine is used for the prevention of ____.

A. Botulism B. Tuberculosis C. Cholera D. Anthrax

113. What is the reservoir for Treponema pallidum?

A. Humans B. Wild rodents C. Soil D. Domestic Animals

114. All protozoan pathogens have a ______ phase?

A. Cyst B. Sexual C. Trophozoite D. latent

115. All are correct for Giardia lamblia EXCEPT?

A. It has only trophozoite stage. B. It is transmitted by the fecal oral route. C. It can
be diagnosed by the string test D. It is a heart shape protozoan.

116. Cholera toxin is a form of _____.

A. Exotoxin B. Endotoxin C. Neurotoxin D. Hemolytic toxin

117. Trichomoniasis can be diagnosed by ________.

A. Demonstration of cysts by fecal examination B. Acidic vaginal pH C. Whiff test

D. Demonstration of oocysts by fecal examination

118. All Gram-Negative bacilli have _______? A. Capsule B. Exotoxin C. Endotoxin

D. DNase

119. _____ can cause food INTOXICATION?

A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. E. coli D.

Salmonella

120. Enhancement of size using ocular and objective lens is called ________.

A. Magnification B. Resolution C . Contrast D. All of these

121. __________contains substances favoring the growth of organism being sought.

A. Selective B. Enrichment C. Differential D. General purpose

122. _____ is an endospore forming AEROBIC bacteria.

A. Bacillus anthracis B. Clostridium botulinum C. Bacillus and Clostridium D. Staphylococcus

aureus

123. Sporulation is a process of ______________.

A. Reproduction B. Preservation C. Replication D. None of these

124. A culture containing a single kind of microorganisms is known as ______.

A. Colony culture B. Liquid culture C. Mixed culture D. Pure culture

125. Thickest layer of spore envelope is __________.

A. Core B. Spore wall C. Cortex D. Spore coat

126. 100X objective lens is also known as ________.

A. Dry lens B. High dry lens C. Scanning lens D. Oil immersion lens

127. Rod shaped bacteria are known as________.

A. Cocci B. Bacilli C. Vibrio D. Coco-bacilli

128. T-cells are produced from:

A. Bone marrow B. Thymus C. Spleen D. Thyroid gland

129. Mordant used in Gram’s staining is ___________.

A. Acid alcohol B. Safranin C. Gram’s iodine D. Crystal violet

130. _____________ is an instrument effectively used to sterilize metals, glassware, powders, oils, and
waxes.

A. Autoclave B. Hot air oven C. Water bath D. Seitz filter

131. Immunological memory is provided by:

A. B lymphocytes B. T lymphocytes C. B cells and T cells D. Phagocytes

132. Bacteria that can only be grown in the absence of oxygen, are commonly cultivated in _________.
A. Deep agar tube B. Anaerobic jar C. Both “A” and “B” D. Broth culture

133. Visible growth of bacteria on solid medium is ____.

A. colony B. turbidity C. sediment D. None of these

134. Immune individuals will not harbor it thus reducing occurrence of pathogens is concept of ___.

A. Innate immunity B. Herd immunity C. cell mediated immunity D.

Autoimmunity

135. Vaccine used against viral infection is:

A. Mumps vaccine B. Cholera vaccine C. Sub-cellular vaccine D. Typhoid vaccine

FOOD CHEM QUESTIONS:

1. The water that can be frozen at very low temperature i.e. below freezing point of
water is called _________
a) Free water
b) Deionized water
c) Ionized water
d) Bound water
2. Which is not a characteristic of bound water?
a) It is not free to act as solvent for salts and sugars
b) It exhibits no vapour pressure
c) Can be easily extracted from food by squeezing
d) Its density is greater than that of free water
3. Bound water can act as a solvent.
a) True
b) False

4. Why is the density of ground water greater than that of free water?
a) The molecules are more closely packed
b) The molecules are loosely packed
c) High boiling point
d) Ice is less dense than water

5. What is the freezing point of bound water?

a) 100°C
b) 4°C
c) -1°C
d) -20°C

6. What is the % of unfreezable water in fruits and vegetables?

a) More than 10%
b) Less than 10%
c) Less than 6%
d) More than 6%

7. Which type of water can act as a dispersing agent and solvent?

a) Free water
b) Bound water
c) Oxidane
d) Ice

8. What is the proportion of crystalline protein in bound water?

a) 70% b) 63% c) 30% d) 90%

9. In food science which type of water is practically un available for microbiological activity?
a) Free water
b) Bound water
c) Oxidane
d) Ice

10. Which type of drying is done to remove bound water?

a) Primary
b) Secondary
c) Tertiary
d) Quaternary

11. What is the amount of water present in fruits like strawberries, tomatoes, etc.?
a) 20-30%
b) 60-70%
c) 80-85%
d) 90-95%

12. Name the type of solution for carbonated beverages.

a) Gas-in-water solution
b) Gas-in-oil solution
c) Oil-in-water solution
d) Water-in-oil solution

13. Which one is a liquid-in-water solution?

a) Carbonated beverages
b) Alcoholic beverages
c) Water
d) Fruit juices

14. What is the PH of water?

a) 5.5
b) 8
c) 9.3
d) 7

15. Name the factor, which is not affected by pH of food.

a) Flavor
b) Colour
c) Texture
d) Viscosity

16. What is the water content of conventionally dried fruits?

a) 15% b) 5% c) 38% d) 40%

17. What is the water content of osmotically dried fruits?

a) 5% -15% b) 20%-25% c) 27%- 38% d) 40%-45%

18. From the below options, name the food which has long shelf life.
a) Dry foods b) Raw fruits c) Raw vegetables d) Raw milk

19.What is the name of water that is trapped in a crystal?

a) Absorbed water
b) Adsorbed water
c) Free water
d) Bound water

20. What is the water called, that is literally sequenced out of food?
a) Free water
b) Adsorbed water
c) Absorbed water
d) Bound water

21. Name the water that contains hydrated protein.

a) Bound water
b) Adsorbed water
c) Absorbed water
d) Free water

1. The measure of the availability of water molecule to enter into microbial, enzymatic or
chemical reaction is called what?
a) Dipole moment
b) Ionic interaction
c) Hydration
d) Water activity
What happens when the % of bound water in food increases?
a) aw increases
b) No change
c) aw decreases
d) Ionic interaction increases

Name the instrument used to measure vapour pressure.

a) Barometer
b) Manometer
c) Thermometer
d) Seismograph

. What is the water activity of pure water?

a) 1
b) 8
c) 5
d) 3

How much % of moisture present in stable potato starch?

a) 50%
b) 20%
c) 60%
d) 80%

What happens when water activity of food decreases?

a) Improving shelf life of food
b) Spoilage of food
c) Faster spoilage of food
d) More contamination by pathogens

. Which of the following is not a macronutrient?

a) Proteins
b) Carbohydrates
c) Fats
d) Vitamins

Which of the following is a monosaccharide?

a) Lactose
b) Glucose
c) Maltose
d) Sucrose

Which of the following vitamins is fat-soluble?

a) Vitamin A
b) Vitamin B6
c) Vitamin B12
d) Vitamin C

Which enzyme is responsible for breaking down proteins into peptides and amino acids in
the stomach?
a) Lipase
b) Amylase
c) Lactase
d) Protease

Which one of the following is a best method of food preservation?

a) Freezing
b) Adding chemicals
c) Keeping at room temperature
d) Keeping at high temperature

Which one of the following is a defect of freezing method?

a) The foods loose its shape
b) Ice formation in food
c) The food gets spoiled
d) Change in texture of food

Which are the two types of food imulsion?

a) Water-in-fat and water-in-oil
b) Oil-in-water and water-in-oil
c) Oil-in-fat and water-in-oil
d) Water-in-water and oil-in-water

What is the bond angle of a water molecule?

a) 32.56°
b) 96.32°
c) 104.5°
d) 102.36°

Which gel is also known as ‘Smart Gels’ or ‘Intelligent Gels’?

a) Polyionic polymers
b) Xerogels
c) Hydrogels
d) Organogels

What occurs when there is an attractive force between the droplets, so they form flocs, like
bunches of grapes?
a) Ostwald ripening
b) Coalescence
c) Creaming
d) Flocculation

Which is a substance formed by trapping pockets of gas in a liquid or solid?

a) Gel
b) Emulsion
c) Foam
d) Crystals

Which is not a characteristic of bound water?

a) Can be easily extracted from food by squeezing
b) Its density is greater than that of free water
c) It is not free to act as solvent for salts and sugars
d) It exhibits no vapour pressure

Which of the following is the most basic unit of carbohydrates?

a) Trisaccharide
b) Table sugar
c) Disaccharide
d) Monosaccharide

The graph of a water loss of a fresh product is called what?

a) Adsorption
b) Hysterysis
c) Desorption curve
d) Absorption curve

The most important monosaccharide is what type of monosaccharide?

a) Triose
b) Hexose
c) Heptose
d) Pentose

Which is the general formula of monosaccharides?

a) CnH2n+2On
b) CnH2nOn-2
c) CnH2nOn
d) C2nH2nOn

Which of the following is another name for glucose?

a) Dextrose
b) Levulose
c) Galactose
d) Disaccharide

Which of the following is another name for fructose?

a) Dextrose
b) Levulose
c) Galactose
d) Disaccharide

D-Alanine and L-Alanine are technically known as what?

a) Enantiomers
b) Epimers
c) Polymer
d) Anomers

Monosaccharides having chemical Cx(H2O)y, where x is equal to what?

a) x = 5
b) x = 10
c) x ≥ 3
d) x = 0

Monosaccharides with eight or more carbons are rarely observed.

a) True
b) False

Monosaccharides with four or more carbons have more than two stereoisomers.
a) True
b) False

Which one of the following is not an amino sugar?

a) Galactosamine
b) Glucosamine
c) Sialic acid
d) Sulfoquinovose

Which Biomolecules simply refers as “Staff of life” in the given macromolecules?

a) Protein
b) Lipids
c) Carbohydrate
d) Vitamins

In carbohydrates which are the main functional groups are present?

a) Alcohol & Carboxyl groups
b) Aldehyde & Ketone groups
c) Hydroxyl groups & Hydrogen groups
d) Carboxyl groups & Others

Majority of the monosaccharides found in the human body are of which type stereoisomer?
a) L-type
b) D-type
c) neutral
d) racemic mixture

Which is the simplest carbohydrate?

a) Dihydroxy acetone
b) Glyceraldehyde -C3H6O3
c) Glucose
d) Gulose

Which of the following is the examples of Epimers?

a) Glucose & Galactose
b) Glucose & Ribose
c) Mannose & Glucose
d) fructose and glucose

Which of the following is true about Turanose?

a) Reducing disaccharides of glucose and fructose
b) Non-reducing disaccharide
c) 7-methyl sugar
d) a deoxy sugar

Which of the following is not a disaccharide?

a) Sucrose
b) Maltose
c) Lactose
d) Galactose

. Which sugars are present in Sucrose?

a) Fructose and glucose
b) Glucose and glucose
c) Glucose and galatose
d) Fructose and galatose

Which of the following carbohydrate do not have any essential nutritional value?
a) Sucrose
b) Cellulose
c) Dextrin
d) Glycogen
Which of the following will not be reactive towards seliwanoff reagent?
a) Maltose
b) Inulin
c) Fructose
d) Sucrose

Lipids

1. This molecule acts as molecular chaperones to assist the folding of proteins

(a) Vitamins
(b) Carbohydrates
(c) Amides
(d) Lipids
2.Which of these is not a lipid?
(a) Fats
(b) Oils
(c) Proteins
(d) Waxes
3.The abundantly distributed enzyme in germinating seeds and adipocytes is
(a) Lipase
(b) Proteases
(c) Cellulase
(d) Nuclease
4. Beta-oxidation of fatty acids occurs in
(a) Peroxisome
(b) Peroxisome and Mitochondria
(c) Mitochondria
(d) Peroxisome, Mitochindria and ER
5. an example of ____________ is Carnauba wax
(a) Soft wax
(b) Liquid wax
(c) Hard wax
(d) Archaebacterial wax
6. In fats, the number of OH groups can be expressed as
(a) Reichert-Meissil number
(b) Polenske number
(c) Iodine number
(d) Acetyl number
7. Rancidity of lipids of lipid-rich foodstuff is because of
(a) Reduction of fatty acids
(b) Hydrogenation of unsaturated fatty acids
(c) Dehydrogenation of saturated fatty acids
(d) Oxidation of fatty acids
8. This is an example of derived lipids
(a) Terpenes
(b) Steroids
(c) Carotenoids
(d) All of the above
9. The degree of unsaturation of lipids can be measured as
(a) Iodine number
(b) Saponification number
(c) Reichert Meissel number
(d) Polenske number
10. The specific gravity of lipid is
(a) 1.5
(b) 1.0
(c) 0.8
(d) 0.2
1. What is the solubility of lipids in water?
a) Soluble
b) Partially soluble
c) Insoluble
d) Partially insoluble
3. Find the INCORRECT statement about the biological functions of lipids.
a) Storage form of metabolic fuel
b) Have a protective function in bacteria, plant, and insects
c) The structural component of membranes
d) Exhibit increased catalytic activity
4. Which of the following is an example of unsaturated fatty acids?
a) Lauric or Dodecanoic
b) Linoleic or octadecatrienoic
c) Palmitic or hexadecanoic
d) Myristic or tetradecanoic
5. Name the two essential fatty acids?
a) Linoleate and linolenate
b) Oleic and linoleic
c) Lauric and myristic
d) Arachidonic and oleic

6. The melting point of fatty acids depends upon chain length and _________
a) The shape of the fatty acids
b) The position of the double bond
c) Charge on the carbon
d) Degree of unsaturation
Which of the following form of lipids are also referred as neutral lipids?
a) Triacylglycerol
b) Steroid
c) Phospholipids
d) Wax
8. Name the reagent which is used in Saponification?
a) Ammonia
b) Acetic acid
c) NaOH/KOH
d) Butanone
Which of the following is not a component of a phospholipid?
a) Phosphate
b) Alcohol
c) Glycerol
d) Protein

10. Which of the following phospholipid is considered as a major constituent of nervous

tissue?
a) Glycerophospholipid
b) Plasmalogen
c) Inositol
d) Sphingomyelin
11. Which of the following sterol is present in the cell membrane of fungi?
a) Ergosterol
b) Stigmasterol
c) Sitosterol
d) Campesterol
11. Identify the lowest density lipoprotein among the following?
a) HDL
b) LDL
c) VLDL
d) Chylomicrons

* Most spoilage bacteria grow at

A. acidic pH

B. alkaline pH

C. neutral pH

D. any of the pH
2. The microbiological examination of coliform bacteria in
foods preferably use

A. MacConkey broth

B. violet Red Bile agar

C. eosine Methylene blue agar

D. all of these

3. Which of the following acid will have higher bacteriostatic

effect at a given pH?

A. Acetic acid

B. Tartaric acid

C. Citric acid

D. Maleic acid

4. Which of the following is not true for the thermal

resistance of the bacterial cells?

A. Cocci are usually more resistant than rods

B. Higher the optimal and maximal temperatures for growth, higher the
resistance

C. Bacteria that clump considerably or form capsules are difficult to kill

D. Cells low in lipid content are harder to kill than other cells

5. Water activity can act as

A. an intrinsic factor determining the likelihood of microbial proliferation

B. a processing factor
C. an extrinsic factor

D. all of the above

Answer: D

6. Enumeration of microorganism refers to

A. either spiral plating, pour plate or spread plate of a food suspension on to

a suitable selective agar, or non-selective plate, depending on the test

B. either spiral plating, pour plate or spread plate of a food suspension on to

a suitable selective agar

C. non-selective plating, depending on the test

D. none of the above

Answer: A

7. The different ACC’s between food categories reflect the

A. expected level of contamination of the raw material

B. potential for microbial growth during storage

C. potential shelf life

D. all of the above

Answer: D
8. Examination of the presence / absence of organisms
refers to

A. incubation of a food suspension in an enrichment medium followed by

inoculation on to a suitable selective medium.

B. incubation of a food suspension in an enrichment medium followed by

inoculation on to a non-selective medium.

C. incubation of a food suspension in an enrichment medium

D. none of the above

Answer: A

9. Plate count of bacteria in foods generally use the plating

medium consisting of

A. peptone, yeast extract, glucose, sodium chloride, agar and distilled water

B. yeast extract, glucose, sodium chloride, agar and distilled water

C. peptone, glucose, sodium chloride, agar and distilled water

D. peptone, yeast extract, glucose, sodium chloride and distilled water

Answer: A

10. What are the intrinsic factors for the microbial growth?

A. pH

B. Moisture

C. Oxidation-Reduction Potential
D. All of these

Answer: D

11. Yeast and mould count determination requires-

A. nutrient agar

B. acidified potato glucose agar

C. MacConkey agar

D. violet Red Bile agar

Answer: B

12. The time temperature combination for HTST

paterurization of 71.1°C for 15 sec is selected on the basis of

A. Coxiella Burnetii

B. E. coli

C. B. subtilis

D. C. botulinum

Answer: A

13. Aerobic Colony Count (ACC), is also known as

A. Total viable count (TVC)

B. Aerobic plate count (APC)

C. Standard plate count (SPC)

D. All of these

Answer: D

14. Which of the following is true about ISO 2002 method for
Salmonella detection?

A. Selenite cystine (SC) broth is replaced by Muller Kauffmann tetrathionate

novobiocin broth (MKTTn)

B. Rappaport Vassiliadis (RV) broth has been replaced by Rappaport

Vassiliadis Soya (RVS) broth

C. XLD is the first isolation medium rather than BGA

D. All of these

Answer: D

15. Suspected colonies of Staphylococcus aureus when

grown on Baird-Parker medium shall show

A. coagulase activity

B. protease activity

C. catalase activity

D. none of these

Answer: A
16. A psychrophilic halophile would be a microbe that
prefers

A. cold temperatures and increased amounts of salt

B. warm temperatures and increased amounts of pressure

C. cold temperatures and the absence of oxygen

D. warm temperatures and increased amounts of acid

Answer: A

17. NaCl can act as

A. antagonist at optimal concentrations

B. synergistically if added in excess of optimum level

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

Answer: C

4. Bacterial cell grown on hydrocarbon wastes from the petroleum industry are a source
of _____________
a) carbohydrates
b) proteins
c) vitamins
d) fats
5. Yeast-cell crops harvested from the vats are used to produce which of the following
compounds?
a) alcoholic beverages
b) enzymes
c) antibiotics
d) organic acids
 6. How many tons of protein can be produced by algae grown in pond in a year?
a) 1000
b) 1
c) 50
d) 20
7. . What is the range of protein content in yeast cells?
a) 69%
b) 12-15%
c) 20-40%
d) 40-50%
8. . Which of the following microorganism have high vitamin content?
a) bacteria
b) yeast
c) algae
d) protozoa
9. The principal microorganism for yogurt is ______________________
a) Streptococcus thermophilus
b) Leuconostoc citrovorum
c) Lactobacillus acidophilus
d) Streptococcus lactis
10. Which of the following products have higher acidity and lacks aroma?
a) Cultured buttermilk
b) Cultured sour cream
c) Bulgarian milk
d) Acidophilus milk
11. Shredded cabbage is the starting product for which of the following
fermented food?
a) Sauerkraut
b) Pickles
c) Green olives
d) Sausage
12. Which microorganism(s) among the following perform photosynthesis by
utilizing light?
a) Cyanobacteria, Fungi and Viruses
b) Viruses
c) Cyanobacteria
d) Fungi

numeration of microorganism refers to

A. either spiral plating, pour plate or spread plate of a food

suspension on to a suitable selective agar, or non-selective plate,
depending on the test

B. either spiral plating, pour plate or spread plate of a food suspension on to

a suitable selective agar
C. non-selective plating, depending on the test

D. none of the above

numeration of microorganism refers to

A. either spiral plating, pour plate or spread plate of a food

suspension on to a suitable selective agar, or non-selective plate,
depending on the test

B. either spiral plating, pour plate or spread plate of a food suspension on to

a suitable selective agar

C. non-selective plating, depending on the test

D. none of the above

the different ACC’s between food categories reflect the

A. expected level of contamination of the raw material

B. potential for microbial growth during storage

C. potential shelf life

D. all of the above

Examination of the presence / absence of organisms refers

to

A. incubation of a food suspension in an enrichment medium

followed by inoculation on to a suitable selective medium.

B. incubation of a food suspension in an enrichment medium followed by

inoculation on to a non-selective medium.

C. incubation of a food suspension in an enrichment medium

D. none of the above

9. Plate count of bacteria in foods generally use the plating

medium consisting of

A. peptone, yeast extract, glucose, sodium chloride, agar and

distilled water

B. yeast extract, glucose, sodium chloride, agar and distilled water

C. peptone, glucose, sodium chloride, agar and distilled water

D. peptone, yeast extract, glucose, sodium chloride and distilled water

10. What are the intrinsic factors for the microbial growth?

A. pH

B. Moisture

C. Oxidation-Reduction Potential

D. All of these

Examination of the presence / absence of organisms refers

to

A. incubation of a food suspension in an enrichment medium followed by

inoculation on to a suitable selective medium.

B. incubation of a food suspension in an enrichment medium followed by

inoculation on to a non-selective medium.

C. incubation of a food suspension in an enrichment medium

D. none of the above

. Yeast and mould count determination requires-

A. nutrient agar

B. acidified potato glucose agar

C. MacConkey agar

D. violet Red Bile agar

The time temperature combination for HTST paterurization

of 71.1°C for 15 sec is selected on the basis of

A. Coxiella Burnetii

B. E. coli

C. B. subtilis

D. C. botulinum

Aerobic Colony Count (ACC), is also known as

A. Total viable count (TVC)

B. Aerobic plate count (APC)

C. Standard plate count (SPC)

D. All of these

Which of the following is true about ISO 2002 method for

Salmonella detection?

A. Selenite cystine (SC) broth is replaced by Muller Kauffmann tetrathionate

novobiocin broth (MKTTn)

B. Rappaport Vassiliadis (RV) broth has been replaced by Rappaport

Vassiliadis Soya (RVS) broth

C. XLD is the first isolation medium rather than BGA

D. All of these

5. Suspected colonies of Staphylococcus aureus when grown

on Baird-Parker medium shall show

A. coagulase activity

B. protease activity

C. catalase activity

D. none of these

6. A psychrophilic halophile would be a microbe that prefers

A. cold temperatures and increased amounts of salt

B. warm temperatures and increased amounts of pressure

C. cold temperatures and the absence of oxygen

D. warm temperatures and increased amounts of acid

. antagonist at optimal concentrations

B. synergistically if added in excess of optimum level

C. Both (a) and (b)

D. None of the above

. Specific regions of bacterial genetic material containing virulence genes are called
_________
a) Pathogenicity oceans
b) Pathogenicity islands
c) Etiological oceans
d) Etiological islands

Bacteria possess the property of ___________ for communication.

a) Quorum Sensing
b) Contact Inhibition
c) Mobility
d) Apoptosis

The study of causation is called ___________

a) Bromatology
b) Histology
c) Otology
d) Etiology

____ curve is used to measure the incubation period.

a) Etiologic
b) Progressive
c) Epidemic
d) Discrete

13.