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1. A physical therapist compiles a table, which identifies joint position at the hip, knee, ankle, and
metatarsophalangeal joints for each subunit of the stance phase of gait. Which of the following
is not accurate in describing normal joint position at the end of terminal stance?
1. 15 degrees of hip hyperextension
2. 0 degrees of knee extension
3. 0 degrees of ankle dorsiflexion
4. 10 degrees of metatarsophalangeal hyperextension
2. A physical therapist instructs a patient diagnosed with C6 tetraplegia in functional activities.
Which of the following activities would be least appropriate?
1. independent raises for skin protection
2. manual wheelchair propulsion
3. assisted to independent transfers with a sliding board
4. independent self-range of motion of the lower extremities
3. A physical therapist participates in a research study to determine the effect of noise level on the
ability to perform a physical skill. In the study, noise is the
1. independent variable
2. dependent variable
3. criterion variable
4. extraneous variable
4. A physical therapist uses paraffin as a means of superficial heat for a patient with a hand injury. When
using the dip and wrap method, the most appropriate number of times to dip the hand would be
1. 1-3
2. 2-4
3. 4-6
4. 6-10
5. A physical therapist interviews a patient recently involved in a motor vehicle accident. The
patient sustained multiple lower extremity injuries as a result of the accident and appears to be
very depressed. In an attempt to encourage active dialogue the therapist asks open-ended
questions. Which of the following would not be considered an open-ended question?
1. How does your knee feel today?
2. What are your goals for physical therapy?
3. Do you have trouble sleeping at night?
4. Tell me about your present condition?
6. A group of physical therapists employed in an acute care hospital is responsible for developing
departmental guidelines for electrical equipment care and safety. What is the minimum required testing
interval for electrical equipment?
1. 3 months
2. 6 months
3. 9 months
4. 12 months
7. A physical therapist positions a patient as shown in order to assess their claim of complete paresis of the
right lower extremity. The therapist then instructs the patient to perform a rapid straight leg raise with
their left lower extremity. Which finding would best dispute the patient’s claim?
1. The patient is unable to lift their left heel from the therapist’s hand
2. The patient experiences radiating pain into the right lower extremity
3. The patient exerts a downward force into the therapist’s hand with their right heel.
4. The patient experiences radiating pain into their left lower extremity
8. A patient rehabilitating from a lower extremity injury has been non-weight bearing for three weeks. A
recent physician entry in the medical record indicates the patient is cleared for weight bearing up to 25
pounds. The most appropriate device to use when instructing the patient on her new weight bearing
status is
1. an inclinometer
2. a scale
3. an anthropometer
4. a tape measure
5. crutches

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9. A patient is referred to physical therapy for instruction in an exercise program. Which of the
following conditions is not an absolute contraindication to exercise training?
1. acute myocarditis
2. acute infection
3. hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
4. deep venous thrombosis
10. A physical therapist observes a patient complete hip abduction and adduction exercises in
standing. Which axis of movement is utilized with these particular motions?
1. coronal
2. vertical
3. anterior-posterior
4. longitudinal
11. A physical therapist treats a 56-year-old male status post transfemoral amputation with a hip
flexion contracture. As part of the treatment regimen the therapist performs passive stretching
exercises to the involved hip. The most appropriate form of passive stretching is
1. moderate tension over a prolonged period of time
2. moderate tension over a brief period of time
3. maximal tension over a prolonged period of time
4. maximal tension over a brief period of time
12. A patient is treated using pulsed wave ultrasound at 1.2 W/cm2 for seven minutes. The specific
parameters of the pulsed wave are 2 msec on time and 8 msec off time for one pulse period.
The duty cycle should be recorded as
1. 10%
2. 20%
3. 25%
4. 50%
13. A physical therapist instructs a patient with a unilateral amputation to ascend and descend
stairs. Which amputation level would you expect to have the most difficulty performing the
described task?
1. transmetatarsal
2. transtibial
3. transfemoral
4. Symes
14. A physical therapist examines the output from a single lead electrocardiogram of a patient with
first-degree atrioventricular heart block. The defining characteristics of this condition is
1. heightened T wave
2. prolonged PR interval
3. bizarre QRS complex
4. shortened ST segment
15. A physical therapist obtains a complete medical history prior to administering cryotherapy.
Which condition would not be considered a contraindication to cryotherapy?
1. Raynaud’s phenomenon
2. cryoglobulinemia
3. cancer
4. cold urticaria
16. A patient rehabilitating from a trimalleolar fracture is cleared for 20 pounds of weight bearing.
During a scheduled therapy session, the patient admits he has not used crutches during the past
week. The most appropriate physical therapist action is
1. instruct the patient to ask the physician to modify his weight bearing status
2. inform the patient of the potential consequence of placing too much weight on the
involved leg
3. contact the patient’s insurance provider
4. discharge the patient from physical therapy due to noncompliance

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17. A 26-year-old male rehabilitating from a fractured tibia sustained in a skiing accident is
referred to physical therapy for instruction and fitting of an assistive device. The most
appropriate number of patient visits to accomplish the stated objective is
1. 1
2. 3
3. 5
4. 7
18. A child with a unilateral hip disarticulation works on advanced gait training activities. Which
of the following activities would be the most difficult for the patient?
1. rising from a wheelchair
2. ascending stairs with a handrail
3. descending stairs with a handrail
4. ascending a curb
19. A patient with a C6 spinal cord injury is examined in physical therapy. Which objective
finding would be the strongest indication the spinal cord injury is not complete?
1. intact sensation on the lateral portion of the shoulder
2. absent triceps reflex
3. diminished sensation over the hypothenar eminence
4. weakness of the biceps muscle
20. A physical therapist monitors a patient’s vital signs while completing 20 minutes of jogging at
5 mph on a treadmill. As the session approaches its conclusion the therapist incorporates a cool
down period. The anticipated blood pressure response during the post-exercise period is
1. a progressive increase in systolic blood pressure
2. a progressive decrease in systolic blood pressure
3. a progressive increase in diastolic blood pressure
4. a progressive decrease in diastolic blood pressure
21. A patient diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis exhibits forward stooped posture. As part of
the patient’s care plan the physical therapist selects a number of active exercises that promote
improved posture. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation pattern would be the most
appropriate to achieve the therapist’s objective?
1. D1 extension
2. D1 flexion
3. D2 extension
4. D2 flexion
22. A patient rehabilitating from a CVA exhibits a flexor synergy pattern in the upper extremity.
The strongest component of the pattern is
1. shoulder lateral rotation
2. forearm supination
3. elbow flexion
4. scapular elevation
23. A manager develops a policy on physical therapy utilization of continuing education resources.
Which of the following would be the most appropriate action to enhance the quality of patient
care?
1. offer continuing education resources to senior therapists in relation to their years of
experience
2. divide the continuing education resources evenly among therapy staff
3. establish a committee to review requests for continuing education resources
4. prioritize requests for continuing education resources based on established patient care
standards
24. A physical therapist familiarizes him with potential sources of negligence in physical therapy.
Which activity is most frequently cited as the basis for a malpractice claim?
1. sexual misconduct
2. failure to follow physician’s orders
3. failure to monitor the condition of the patient
4. improper utilization of universal precautions

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25. A physical therapist examines the gait of a patient with a transtibial amputation. The patient
exhibits delayed and limited knee flexion after heel strike on the prosthetic side. The most
likely cause of the deviation is
1. foot positioned in plantarflexion
2. heel wedge is too soft
3. socket positioned posteriorly
4. socket is too large
26. A physical therapist examines a patient status post CVA. The patient has severe difficulty in
verbal expression and mild difficulty in understanding complex syntax. This type of
communication disorder is best termed
1. Broca’s aphasia
2. conduction aphasia
3. global aphasia
4. Wernicke’s aphasia
27. A physical therapist completing a balance assessment positions a patient in standing prior to
administering the Romberg test. When administering the Romberg test it would be most
important for the therapist to determine
1. the width of the base of support necessary in order to maintain standing
2. the amount of time the patient is able to maintain the test position
3. the amount of sway present during the testing period
4. the complexity of tasks the patient is able to perform with eyes open and eyes closed
28. A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a patient diagnosed with peripheral vascular
disease prior to initiating treatment. Which objective finding would most severely limit the
patient’s ability to participate in an ambulation exercise program?
1. signs of resting claudication
2. decreased peripheral pulses
3. cool skin
4. blood pressure of 165/90 mmHg
29. A patient with limited elbow and forearm range of motion is referred to physical therapy.
When mobilizing the humeroradial articulation, the treatment plane is considered to be
1. in the concave radial head, parallel to the long axis of the radius
2. in the concave radial head, perpendicular to the long axis of the radius
3. in the convex radial head, parallel to the long axis of the radius
4. in the convex radial head, perpendicular to the long axis of the radius
30. A physical therapist treats a patient diagnosed with spinal stenosis. As part of the treatment
program the patient lies prone on a treatment plinth with a hot pack draped over the low back.
The most effective method to monitor the patient while using the hot pack is
1. check on the patient at least every ten minutes
2. supply the patient with a belt to ring if the hot pack becomes too hot
3. instruct the patient to remove the hot pack if it becomes too hot
4. select an alternate superficial heating modality
31. A physical therapist asks a patient to complete a pain questionnaire. The questionnaire utilizes
an ascending numeric scale ranging from “0” equaling no pain to “10” equaling excruciating
pain. This type of measurement scale is best described as
1. nominal
2. ordinal
3. interval
4. ratio
32. A patient with T10 paraplegia is discharged from a rehabilitation hospital following 12 weeks
of intense rehabilitation. Which of the following pieces of equipment would be the most
essential to assist the patient with functional mobility?
1. ambulation with Lofstrand crutches
2. ambulation with Lofstrand crutches and ankle-foot orthoses
3. ambulation with Lofstrand crutches and knee-ankle-foot orthoses
4. wheelchair

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33. A physical therapist conducts an inservice on exercise guidelines for a group of senior citizens. As part
of the inservice the therapist discusses the benefits of improving cardiovascular status through a low
intensity activity such as a walking program. What frequency of exercise would be the most desirable to
achieve the stated objective?
1. twice per day
2. one time per week
3. three times per week
4. five times per week
34. A physical therapist identifies the pisiform after palpating along the proximal row of carpals.
Which carpal bone articulates with the pisiform?
1. trapezium
2. trapezoid
3. lunate
4. triquetrum
35. A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital reviews the medical record of a patient
diagnosed with congestive heart failure. The therapist would like to implement a formal
exercise program, but is concerned about the patient’s exercise tolerance. Which condition is
most responsible for the patient’s limited exercise tolerance?
1. diminished lung volumes
2. atrial oxygen desaturation
3. insufficient stroke volume during ventricular systole
4. excessive rise in blood pressure
36. A physical therapist measures a patient for a wheelchair. When measuring back height, which
method is most accurate?
1. measure from the seat of the chair to the base of the axilla and subtract two inches
2. measure from the seat of the chair to the base of the axilla and subtract four inches
3. measure from the seat of the chair to the acromion process and subtract two inches
4. measure from the seat of the chair to the acromion process and subtract four inches
37. A patient diagnosed with infrapatellar tendonitis completes a series of functional activities. After
completing the activities the physical therapist instructs the patient to use ice massage over the anterior
surface of the knee. The most appropriate treatment time is
1. 3-5 minutes
2. 5-10 minutes
3. 10-15 minutes
4. 15-20 minutes
38. A patient sustains a deep partial thickness burn to the anterior surface of the right upper
extremity and a superficial partial thickness burn to the anterior surface of the trunk. According
to the rule of nines, the patient has burns over
1. 18.5 % of the body
2. 22.5% of the body
3. 27 % of the body
4. 36 % of the body
39. A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a patient scheduled for debridement. The record
indicates that the patient sustained a chemical burn eight days ago in an industrial accident. The burn
area was measured as 13 cm by 33 cm. This measurement most closely corresponds to
1. 2 inches by 7 inches
2. 3 inches by 11 inches
3. 5 inches by 13 inches
4. 6 inches by 21 inches
40. A physical therapist examines a patient’s scapulohumeral rhythm as the arm is actively abducted to 30
degrees. Which description best summarizes the action of the scapula and clavicle during this
movement?
1. scapula 20 degrees rotation, clavicle 25-35 degrees elevation
2. scapula 10 degrees rotation, clavicle 15-25 degrees elevation
3. scapula minimal movement, clavicle 0-5 degrees elevation
4. scapula 30 degrees rotation, clavicle 5 degrees elevation

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41. A physical therapist uses functional electrical stimulation as part of a treatment regiment
designed to improve quadriceps strength. Which on/off time ratio would result in the most
rapid onset of muscle fatigue?
1. 3:1
2. 1:4
3. 5:1
4. 1:6
42. A national health care corporation agrees to provide physical therapy services for a group of
25,000 autoworkers. The corporation is prepaid for services on a per member per month basis.
The arrangement is best described as
1. credentialing
2. fee-for-service
3. accrual
4. capitation
43. A physical therapist employed in an outpatient clinic observes a patient complete a series of
exercises. During the treatment session the patient mentions to the therapist that he is
experiencing angina. After resting for 20 minutes the patient’s condition is unchanged,
however, he insists it is something that he can work through. The most appropriate therapist
action is
1. allow the patient to resume exercises and continue to monitor the patient’s condition
2. reduce the intensity of the exercise and continue to monitor the patient’s condition
3. discontinue the treatment session and encourage the patient to make an appointment with
his physician
4. discontinue the treatment session and call an ambulance
44. A 55-year-old male status post myocardial infarction is referred to physical therapy. The
patient has a history of cardiac disease and is moderately obese. The patient’s age-predicted
maximal heart rate should be recorded as
1. 190
2. 185
3. 165
4. 155
45. A physical therapist transports a patient in a wheelchair to the parallel bars in preparation for
ambulation activities. The patient is status post abdominal surgery and has not ambulated in
over two weeks. The most appropriate action to facilitate ambulation is
1. assist the patient to standing
2. monitor the patient’s vital signs
3. demonstrate ambulation in the parallel bars
4. secure an additional staff member to offer assistance
46. A physical therapist prepares to transfer a patient from a wheelchair to a treatment table. The
patient cannot stand independently but is able to bear some weight through the lower
extremities. The most appropriate transfer technique is
1. sliding board transfer
2. hydraulic lift
3. dependent standing pivot
4. two-person lift
47. A risk management committee composed of various members of the rehabilitation team is
charged with identifying methods to prevent employee exposure to blood and body fluids. The
most appropriate initial action is
1. provide follow-up to staff if exposed to blood and body fluids
2. provide free hepatitis B immunizations to staff
3. develop an infection control policy that conforms to OSHA guidelines
4. educate staff about the policies

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48. A physical therapist attempts to classify the amount of assistance a patient requires to complete
a sit to stand transfer. After completing the transfer, the therapist estimates that he was required
to exert approximately 20% of the physical work in order to ensure the transfer was completed
safely. The most appropriate classification of the level of assistance would be
1. independent
2. standby assistance
3. minimal assistance
4. moderate assistance
49. A physical therapist examines a patient with an injury to the thoracodorsal nerve. Which
finding would be consistent with this injury?
1. shoulder medial rotation weakness
2. shoulder extension weakness
3. paralysis of the rhomboids
4. forward displacement of the lateral end of the clavicle
50. A patient explains to her therapist that she was instructed to bear up to five pounds of weight on
her involved extremity. The patient’s weight bearing status would be best described as
1. non-weight bearing
2. toe touch weight bearing
3. partial weight bearing
4. weight bearing as tolerated
51. A physical therapist completing a lower quarter screening examination attempts to palpate the
tendon of the anterior tibialis. The most appropriate therapist action to facilitate palpation is
1. ask the patient to actively move the foot into dorsiflexion and eversion
2. ask the patient to actively move the foot into dorsiflexion and inversion
3. passively move the patient’s foot into dorsiflexion and eversion
4. passively move the patient’s foot into dorsiflexion and inversion
52. A physical therapist uses transcutaneous electrical neuromuscular stimulation unit to generate sensory
level stimulation. Which stimulation characteristic is not accurate when describing this technique?
1. duration of treatment: 20-30 minutes
2. amplitude: perceptible tingling
3. phase duration: 150-200 microseconds
4. frequency: 50-150 Hz
53. A 67-year-old female status post total knee arthroplasty due to severe degenerative joint disease is
referred to physical therapy. During the examination the patient reports to the therapist that she has
significant difficulty negotiating stairs. How much knee range of motion would be required to perform
this activity?
1. approximately 0-60 degrees of knee flexion
2. approximately 0-90 degrees of knee flexion
3. approximately 0-110 degrees of knee flexion
4. approximately 0-125 degrees of knee flexion
54. A physical therapist completes a balance assessment on a patient recently admitted to a skilled nursing
facility. The therapist concludes that the patient is able to maintain their balance without support in
standing, however, cannot maintain balance during weight shifting or with any form of external
perturbation. The most appropriate balance grade would be
1. normal
2. good
3. fair
4. poor
55. A patient rehabilitating from a CVA requires an orthosis due to occasional dragging of the toe
during swing phase. The patient presents with weakness of the dorsiflexors and has good
medial/lateral stability at the ankle. The most appropriate option for the patient is
1. solid ankle-foot orthosis
2. tone reducing foot orthosis
3. posterior leaf spring orthosis
4. custom articulating ankle-foot orthosis with anterior trim lines

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56. A physical therapist completes a standing flexion test to identify possible innominate distortion
in a patient referred to physical therapy with chronic back pain. The most appropriate structure
to palpate while completing the test is
1. spinous process of L5
2. anterior superior iliac spines
3. posterior superior iliac spines
4. pubic tubercles
57. A physical therapist completes a respiratory assessment on a patient with T2 paraplegia. As a
component of the assessment, the therapist measures the amount of chest excursion during
inspiration. The most appropriate patient position to conduct the measurement is
1. sitting
2. supine
3. prone
4. sidelying
58. A physical therapist prescribes a wheelchair for a patient with bilateral lower extremity
amputation. The most important feature of a wheelchair designed for the patient should be
1. friction surface handrims
2. the drive wheels are set behind the vertical back supports
3. reclining back with elevating legrests
4. removable armrests
59. A physical therapist examines a 26-year-old female whose subjective complaints include
morning stiffness of her hands and visible swelling. The patient indicates that the stiffness
seems to diminish with activity. This description best describes
1. carpal tunnel syndrome
2. osteoporosis
3. rheumatoid arthritis
4. osteoarthritis
60. A physical therapist working in an outpatient physical therapy clinic guards a patient
descending a curb with axillary crutches. Based on the photograph the most likely patient
scenario is
1. partial weight bearing secondary to a left lateral ankle sprain
2. partial weight bearing secondary to a right lateral ankle sprain
3. toe touch weight bearing secondary to a left lateral ankle sprain
4. toe touch weight bearing secondary to a right lateral ankle sprain
61. A physical therapist reviews a patient’s medical history before initiating soft tissue massage.
Which condition would not be considered a contraindication for this intervention?
1. osteomyelitis
2. tendinitis
3. septic arthritis
4. psoriasis
62. A physical therapist prepares a patient recovering from a total hip replacement for discharge
from the hospital. The patient is 65-years old and resides alone. Assuming an uncomplicated
recovery, which of the following pieces of adaptive equipment would not be necessary for
home use?
1. long handled shoehorn
2. raised toilet seat
3. sliding board
4. tub bench
63. A patient with increased sympathetic output is examined in physical therapy. Which treatment
technique would not be beneficial in decreasing the level of sympathetic activity?
1. connective tissue massage
2. rotating the lower trunk in hooklying
3. slow reversal hold of the quadriceps and hamstrings
4. gentle manual pressure to the abdomen

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64. A physical therapist records the end-feel associated with forearm supination as firm in the
medical record. Which of the following is not consistent with an end-feel categorized as firm?
1. muscular stretch
2. capsular stretch
3. soft tissue approximation
4. ligamentous stretch
65. A physical therapist examines several superficial reflexes on a patient diagnosed with an upper
motor neuron lesion. When assessing the cremasteric reflex the most appropriate stimulus is
1. stroke the skin of the lower abdominal quadrant
2. stroke the skin of the upper and inner thigh
3. prick the skin of the perianal region
4. prick the skin of the glans penis
66. A 35-year-old male diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis is referred to physical therapy for
instruction in a home exercise program. Which general treatment objective would be the most
beneficial for the patient?
1. strengthening of the rectus abdominis
2. strengthening of the internal and external obliques
3. strengthening of the quadratus lumborum
4. strengthening of the back extensors
67. A 73-year-old male patient receiving outpatient physical therapy begins to experience acute
angina. The patient indicates he uses nitroglycerin to alleviate the angina. The most
appropriate mode of administration is
1. oral
2. buccal
3. sublingual
4. topical
68. A physical therapist attempts to assess the motor component of the axillary nerve by conducting
a resistive test. Which muscle would be the most appropriate to utilize?
1. teres minor
2. teres major
3. subscapularis
4. supraspinatus

69. A physical therapist performs a dorsal glide to the distal radioulnar joint on a patient 12 weeks
status post fracture. This technique is best used to increase
1. wrist flexion
2. wrist extension
3. forearm supination
4. forearm pronation
70. A physical therapist prepares to conduct a manual muscle test of the hip flexors. Assuming a
grade of poor, the most appropriate testing position is
1. prone
2. sidelying
3. supine
4. standing
71. A physical therapist administers the Functional Reach Test to a patient rehabilitating from a
neurological disorder. Which bony landmark would be the most appropriate to utilize when
formally measuring the distance the patient reached during each trial?
1. distal tip of the third digit
2. third metacarpal
3. radial styloid process
4. ulnar styloid process

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72. A physical therapist applies a bandage to secure a dressing on the forearm. Which of the
following would indicate that the bandage was applied too loosely?
1. the distal segment appears to be pale
2. edema develops in the distal segment
3. the bandage changes position with active movement
4. the patient complains of pain in the segment distal to the bandage
73. A physical therapist measures elbow flexion while a patient grasps the handgrip of a walker in
standing. The therapist records elbow flexion as 35 degrees. Which statement best describes
the height of the walker?
1. the walker height is too low for the patient
2. the walker height is too high for the patient
3. the walker height is appropriate for the patient
4. not enough information is given to assess walker height
74. A patient with bilateral transtibial amputations works on ambulation activities prior to being
discharged from a rehabilitation hospital. Which type of assistive device would be the most
appropriate to utilize during the training session?
1. cane
2. two canes
3. two forearm crutches
4. walker
75. A physical therapist continually makes errors when completing daily documentation. Which of
the following statements would be the most appropriate advice to the therapist when an error
occurs?
1. use correction fluid as needed on your documentation
2. place a single line through the error, write “error”, date and initial it
3. use pencil when completing your documentation
4. use erasable ink when completing your documentation
76. A 22-year-old male rehabilitating from a motor vehicle accident is referred to physical therapy for gait
training. The patient sustained multiple injuries including a fractured tibia and a traction injury to the
brachial plexus. The patient is partial weight bearing and has good upper extremity strength. The most
appropriate assistive device is
1. axillary crutches
2. Lofstrand crutches
3. walker with platform attachment
4. cane
77. A physical therapist asks a patient to complete a visual analog scale designed to assess pain intensity.
The scale consists of a 10 cm line with descriptive labels at each end. Which terminology would be the
most appropriate for the first label?
1. no pain
2. mild pain
3. weak pain
4. faint pain
78. A physical therapist working on a medical-surgical rotation attends an inservice on HIV transmission.
Which general precaution would be the most effective to prevent the transmission of HIV?
1. use protective barriers when performing invasive procedures
2. consider all clients as potentially infected
3. wear gloves when touching blood or body fluids
4. frequently wash hands and skin surfaces
79. A physical therapist treats an infant diagnosed with torticollis with marked lateral flexion of the neck to
the right. As part of the infant’s plan of care the therapist performs passive stretching activities to
improve the patient’s range of motion. The most appropriate stretch for the patient is
1. lateral flexion to the right and rotation to the right
2. lateral flexion to the left and rotation to the left
3. lateral flexion to the right and rotation to the left
4. lateral flexion to the left and rotation to the right

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80. A physical therapist instructs a patient to close her eyes and hold out her hand. The therapist
places a series of different weights in the patient’s hand one at a time. The patient is then asked
to identify the comparative weight of the objects. This method of sensory testing is used to
examine
1. barognosis
2. graphesthesia
3. recognition of texture
4. stereognosis
81. A physical therapist assesses the pulse rate of a patient exercising on a treadmill. The therapist
notes that the rhythm of the pulse is often irregular. The most appropriate action to ensure an
accurate measurement of pulse rate is
1. select a different pulse site
2. measure the pulse rate for 60 seconds
3. use a different stethoscope
4. document the irregular pulse rate in the patient’s medical record
82. A physical therapist prepares to treat a patient with paraplegia on a floor mat. The patient has
fair upper extremity strength and trunk control. The most appropriate method to transfer the
patient from a wheelchair to the floor is
1. dependent standing pivot
2. sliding board transfer
3. two-person lift
4. hydraulic lift
83. A physical therapist participates in a community fitness program by conducting anthropometric
measurements designed to determine percent body fat. Which site is not typically utilized
when measuring skinfolds?
1. iliac crest
2. subscapular
3. triceps
4. lateral calf
84. A physical therapist prepares to administer ultrasound to a patient with lateral epicondylitis.
When applying ultrasound the amount of heat absorbed is least dependent upon
1. the intensity
2. the duration of exposure
3. the choice of coupling agent
4. the size of the area sonated
85. A physical therapist employed in a rehabilitation hospital utilizes the services of a physical
therapy aide. Which variable best determines the extent to which physical therapy aides are
involved in patient care activities?
1. the number of years of experience
2. the scope of formal training
3. the discretion of the physical therapist
4. the quantity of continuing education courses
86. The treatment plan for a patient with hemiplegia is based on the theory of reinforcing normal
movement through key points of control and avoiding all reflex movement patterns and
associated reactions. This approach most closely resembles
1. Bobath
2. Kabat
3. Trendelenburg
4. Brunnstrom
87. A physical therapist prepares to treat a patient with cystic fibrosis using postural drainage. The
most appropriate patient position when treating the superior segments of the lower lobes is
1. sitting, leaning over a folded pillow at a 30 degree angle
2. head down on left side, ¼ turn backward
3. supine with two pillows under the knees
4. prone with two pillows under the hips

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88. A patient rehabilitating from a knee injury completes an isokinetic examination. The patient
produces 88 ft/lbs of torque with the hamstring at 120 degrees per second. Assuming normal
quadriceps/hamstrings ratio, which of the following most accurately reflects the predicted
quadriceps value?
1. 67 ft/lbs
2. 109 ft/lbs
3. 136 ft/lbs
4. 183 ft/lbs
89. A physical therapist elects to treat a patient with a second-degree ankle sprain using a contrast
bath. Which temperatures would be the most appropriate when preparing the cool and warm
water?
1. 9 degrees Celsius and 34 degrees Celsius
2. 14 degrees Celsius and 38 degrees Celsius
3. 19 degrees Celsius and 45 degrees Celsius
4. 23 degrees Celsius and 48 degrees Celsius
90. A physical therapist uses a 3.0 MHz ultrasound beam at 1.5 W/cm2 to treat a patient diagnosed
with carpal tunnel syndrome. The majority of ultrasound energy will be absorbed within a
depth of
1. 1-2 cm
2. 2-3 cm
3. 3-4 cm
4. 4-5 cm
91. A physical therapist serves as an accessibility consultant for a local retail store. What is the
minimum width required for a patient using a wheelchair to safely traverse through a doorway?
1. 28 inches
2. 30 inches
3. 32 inches
4. 34 inches
92. A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a 52-year-old male status post myocardial
infarction. The patient is currently in the coronary care unit and is schedules to begin cardiac
rehabilitation tomorrow. Which potential complication of a myocardial infarction is the patient
most susceptible to?
1. heart failure
2. arrhythmias
3. thrombus formation
4. heart structural damage
93. A physical therapist discusses numerous aspects of a bladder management program with a
patient diagnosed with spinal cord injury. Which value is most reflective of the patient’s
recommended daily fluid intake?
1. 1000 ml
2. 2000 ml
3. 4000 ml
4. 8000 ml
94. A physical therapist positions a patient in prone on a treatment plinth in preparation for a hot
pack. When preparing the hot pack for the low back, the therapist should utilize
1. 2-4 towel layers
2. 4-6 towel layers
3. 6-8 towel layers
4. 8-10 towel layers

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95. A physical therapist attempts to determine if a wheelchair is the appropriate size for a patient
recently admitted to a rehabilitation program. As part of the assessment, the therapist examines
the distance from the front edge of the seat to the posterior aspect of the lower leg. If the seat
depth is appropriate, how much space should exist between these two landmarks?
1. 2 inches
2. 4 inches
3. 6 inches
4. 8 inches
96. A patient confined to wheelchair arranges for a local contractor to build a ramp that will allow
entry into the patient’s house. What is the maximum recommended grade for the ramp?
1. 6.2 %
2. 8.3 %
3. 9.5 %
4. 10.4 %
97. A physical therapist examines a 23-year-old male diagnosed with a lower brachial plexus injury
sustained four weeks ago. Which of the following mechanisms of injury is the most probable
based on the patient’s diagnosis?
1. high velocity motorcycle accident
2. excessive hyperabduction of the arm caused during a free fall
3. a direct forceful blow to the anterior shoulder complex
4. excessive traction and lateral flexion of the head and neck during the birthing process
98. A 16-year-old female accompanied by her mother receives exercise instructions. During the
treatment session the mother makes several comments to her daughter that appear to be
extremely upsetting and result in the daughter losing concentration. The most appropriate
physical therapist action is
1. document the mother’s comments in the medical record
2. ask the patient if her mother is verbally abusive
3. ask the mother to return to the waiting area
4. discontinue the treatment session
99. A physical therapist working on a medical/surgical rotation returns from a morning inservice
and finds a number of items that require her attention. Which of the following items should be
given the highest priority?
1. a patient requiring preoperative instruction
2. an incomplete exercise flow sheet
3. an unfinished wheelchair order form
4. a written note from a staff dietician
100. A physical therapist employed in a busy outpatient orthopedic clinic attempts to determine a
schedule for calibration and maintenance of an ultrasound unit. The most important factor for
the therapist to consider when determining an appropriate schedule is
1. beam nonuniformity ratio
2. frequency of use
3. cost associated with calibration and maintenance
4. availability of qualified personnel to inspect the unit
101. A case manager discusses placement options for a 78-year-old female rehabilitating from a total
hip replacement. The patient has moderate dementia, however, was living independently prior
to surgery. The patient’s spouse is deceased and she denies having any family or friends in the
area. The most appropriate location for continued therapy services is
1. skilled nursing facility
2. outpatient private practice
3. home physical therapy services
4. outpatient rehabilitation facility

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102. A male patient referred to physical therapy with low back pain attempts to complete an
abdominal strengthening exercise. The patient is unable to complete a curl-up with his arms
across his chest. The most appropriate modification is
1. place the hands behind the head
2. arch the back to lock the spine
3. anteriorly rotate the pelvis
4. place the arms at the side
103. A physical therapist examining a patient rehabilitating from a middle cerebral artery stroke.
Which condition is not typically associated with this type of stroke?
1. urinary incontinence
2. contralateral hemiplegia
3. aphasia
4. homonymous hemianopsia
104. A patient sustains a deep laceration on the anterior surface of the forearm. The physical
therapist attempts to stop the bleeding by direct pressure over the wound, but is unsuccessful.
The most appropriate action is to
1. apply pressure to the brachial artery pressure point
2. apply pressure to the femoral artery pressure point
3. apply pressure to the radial artery pressure point
4. apply pressure to the ulnar artery pressure point
105. A physical therapist discusses the importance of a well balanced diet with a patient diagnosed
with type II diabetes. The most appropriate action to emphasize the importance of diet is
1. provide a handout from the American Diabetes Association which outlines an appropriate
diet
2. ask other patients that have made dietary changes to speak to the patient
3. arrange for a consultation with a dietician
4. provide copies of recent articles which cite the benefit of a well balanced diet
106. A patient of Iranian descent wearing a traditional turban is examined in physical therapy after
sustaining a whiplash type injury in a motor vehicle accident. The physical therapist would like
the patient to remove the turban, however, is concerned that the patient may become insulted.
The most appropriate action is to
1. modify the examination in order to avoid removing the turban
2. explain to the patient the difficulty of conducting the examination with the turban on
3. ask the patient if he would feel comfortable removing the turban during the examination
4. instruct the patient to remove the turban
107. A physical therapist suspects a female patient recently referred to physical therapy may be a
victim of domestic abuse. The most appropriate initial action is
1. provide the patient with a phone number to a domestic abuse center
2. report your suspicions to the local authorities
3. ask the patient if she has experienced any form of domestic abuse
4. document the domestic abuse in the medical record
108. A physical therapist administers a contrast bath to a patient rehabilitating from a lateral ankle
sprain. The therapist begins the first cycle by immersing the involved ankle in warm water for
three minutes and then promptly moves the ankle into cold water. How long should the
therapist leave the ankle in the cold water?
1. 30 seconds
2. 1 minute
3. 3 minutes
4. 5 minutes

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109. A patient rehabilitating from a fractured acetabulum is referred to physical therapy for
ambulation activities. The patient has been on bed rest for three weeks and appears to be
somewhat apprehensive about weight bearing. The most appropriate device to use when
initiating ambulation activities is
1. parallel bars
2. walker
3. axillary crutches
4. straight cane
110. A 12-year-old boy sitting in the physical therapy waiting area suddenly grasps his throat and
appears to be in distress. The boy slowly stands, but is obviously unable to breathe. The
physical therapist recognizing the signs of an airway obstruction should administer
1. abdominal thrusts
2. chest thrusts
3. back blows
4. back blows in combination with abdominal thrusts
111. A physical therapist assesses a patient’s upper extremity deep tendon reflexes as part of a
screening examination. The most appropriate location to elicit the brachioradialis reflex is the
1. radial tuberosity
2. antecubital fossa
3. biceps tendon
4. styloid process of the radius
112. A physical therapist working on an acute care floor in a hospital reviews the medical record of
a patient with suspected renal involvement. Which laboratory test would be the most useful to
assess the patient’s present renal function?
1. platelet count
2. hemoglobin
3. blood urea nitrogen
4. hematocrit
113. A physical therapist attends an inservice on incomplete spinal cord injuries. As part of the
inservice the speaker describes several frequently observed syndromes on neurological
involvement. Which syndrome does not include an alteration in motor function?
1. central cord syndrome
2. anterior cord syndrome
3. Brown-Sequard syndrome
4. posterior cord syndrome
114. A physical therapist prepares to assist a patient with a sliding board transfer from a wheelchair to a mat
table. Which of the following would be the most appropriate initial instruction to the patient?
1. place the sliding board under your buttocks
2. move your buttocks toward the mat table
3. complete a series of push-ups
4. secure the wheelchair brakes
115. A physical therapist completes a respiratory assessment on a patient in an acute care hospital.
The examination reveals decreased breath sounds and decreased fremitus. This finding is most
indicative of
1. pleural effusion
2. pulmonary edema
3. consolidation
4. atelectasis
116. A patient with several motor and sensory abnormalities exhibits signs of autonomic nervous
system dysfunction. Which of the following is not an indicator of increased sympathetic
involvement?
1. anxiety, distractibility
2. mottled, cold, shiny skin
3. constriction of the pupils
4. rapid, shallow breathing

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117. A patient diagnosed with Guillain Barre syndrome works on weight shifting activities while
standing in the parallel bars. The primary objective of this activity is to improve
1. mobility
2. stability
3. controlled mobility
4. skill
118. A physical therapist records the parameters of an electrical stimulation treatment in a patient’s
medical record. The standard unit of measure when recording AC frequency is
1. volt
2. hertz
3. coulomb
4. pulses per second
119. A physical therapist working in cardiac rehabilitation progresses a patient involved in a phase II program
through an established exercise protocol. The patient weight 70 kg and has progressed without difficulty
through the rehabilitation program. The protocol indicates the patient should be performing activities
requiring 3-4 METs. An example of an appropriate activity would be
1. level walking at 1.5 mph
2. jogging at 5 mph
3. cycling at 10 mph
4. walking on a treadmill at 3 mph
120. A physical therapist instructs a patient with a lower motor neuron disorder to perform a swing
to gait pattern. The most appropriate initial step when instructing the patient is
1. secure another staff member to assist with guarding
2. demonstrate a swing to gait pattern
3. describe the various stages of weight bearing
4. provide a written handout describing the gait pattern
121. A recent entry in the medical record indicates a patient exhibits dysdiadochokinesia. Based on
the patient’s documented deficit, which activity would be the most difficult for the patient?
1. alternate supination and pronation of the forearm
2. perform a standing squat
3. march in place
4. walk along a straight line
122. A physical therapist utilizes continuous ultrasound to supply thermal effects to a patient rehabilitating from
lower extremity injury. During the treatment session, the patient suddenly becomes startled and reports feeling
an electrical shock from the ultrasound machine. The most appropriate therapist action is to
1. decrease the intensity of the ultrasound
2. modify the duty cycle
3. discontinue ultrasound treatment
4. unplug the machine and label – defective, do not use
123. A patient in a rehabilitating hospital begins to verbalize about the uselessness of life and the
possibility of committing suicide. the most appropriate physical therapist action is
1. suggest the patient be placed on a locked unit
2. ask nursing to check on the patient every 15 minutes
3. discuss the situation with the patient’s case manager
4. review the patient’s past medical history for signs and symptoms of mental illness
124. A physical therapy department embarks on a quality assurance program. Results from a
random sample of patient charts reveal that 40% of the charts do not include a discharge
summary. A logical next step to the quality assurance program would be
1. dismiss the findings because discharge summaries are not directly related to the quality of
patient care
2. discipline the staff members who did not complete the discharge summaries and continue
to monitor the situation
3. dismiss the findings because a random sample does not provide accurate information
4. notify the staff that discharge summaries are to be completed on all patients and continue
to monitor the situation

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125. A physical therapist positions a patient as shown prior to testing for clonus. The most
appropriate action to complete the test is
1. provide a quick stretch to the plantarflexors
2. provide a quick stretch to the dorsiflexors
3. provide a quick stretch to the plantarflexors while extending the knee
4. provide a quick stretch to the dorsiflexors while extending the knee
126. A physical therapist employed in a rehabilitating hospital examines a patient that exhibits
several signs and symptoms of anemia. Which question would be the most useful to gather
additional information related to anemia?
1. Does it hurt to take a deep breath?
2. Do you experience heart palpitations or shortness of breath at rest or with mild exertion?
3. Do you frequently experience dizziness, headaches or blurred vision?
4. Are you susceptible to bruising?
127. A physical therapist performs bronchial drainage to the anterior basal segments of the lower
lobes. During the treatment session the patient suddenly complains of dizziness and mild
dyspnea. The most appropriate therapist action is
1. reassure the patient that the response is normal
2. assess the patient’s vital signs
3. elevate the patient’s head
4. call for assistance
128. A terminally ill patient completes a formal document that names his daughter as the individual
to make health care decisions in the event that he is unable. This type of advanced directive is
termed
1. living will
2. directives to physicians
3. durable power of attorney
4. euthanasia
129. A physical therapist recognizes that a child has great difficulty flexing the neck while in a
supine position. Failure to integrate which reflex could explain the child’s difficulty?
1. symmetrical tonic labyrinthine
2. Moro
3. asymmetrical tonic neck
4. symmetrical tonic neck
130. The medical record indicates a patient has been diagnosed with chronic respiratory alkalosis.
the most consistent laboratory finding with this condition is
1. elevated arterial blood pH, low PaCO2
2. low arterial blood pH, elevated PaCO2
3. elevated arterial blood pH, elevated PaCO2
4. low arterial blood pH, low PaCO2
131. A physical therapist completes an examination on a self-referred patient. The patient complains
of general fatigue, shortness of breath, and occasional dizziness. Results of a physical
examination reveal localized lower extremity weakness and diminished balance. The most
appropriate action is to
1. implement a low-level exercise program
2. identify appropriate strengthening exercises
3. establish short and long-term goals
4. refer the patient to a physician
132. A patient recently diagnosed with a deep venous thrombophlebitis is placed on heparin. The
primary side effect associated with Heparin is
1. hypotension
2. depression
3. excessive anticoagulation
4. thrombocytopenia

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133. A 29-year-old male diagnosed with ankylosing spondylitis reports progressive stiffening of the
spine and associated pain for more than five years. The patient’s most typical standing posture
demonstrates
1. posterior thoracic rib hump
2. flattened lumbar curve, exaggerated thoracic curve
3. excessive lumbar curve, flattened thoracic curve
4. lateral curvature of the spine with fixed rotation of the vertebrae
134. A physical therapist examines the residual limb of a patient following ambulation activities
with a patellar tendon bearing prosthesis. The therapist identifies excessive redness over the
patella. The most likely cause is
1. settling due to limb shrinkage
2. socket not properly aligned
3. excessive withdrawal in sitting
4. excessive number of residual limb socks
135. A 55-year-old patient, six months status post CVA with right hemiparesis, attends physical
therapy on an outpatient basis. As the patient lies supine on the mat, the physical therapist
applies resistance to right elbow flexion. The therapist notes mass flexion of the right lower
extremity as the resistance is applied. The therapist should document this as
1. Raimiste’s phenomenon
2. Souque’s phenomenon
3. coordination synkinesis
4. homolateral synkinesis
136. A physical therapist attempts to determine if a patient is a candidate for aquatic therapy. Which
condition would not be considered a contraindication to aquatic therapy?
1. infectious disease
2. urinary tract infection
3. fever
4. Raynaud’s disease
137. A physical therapist examines a patient diagnosed with adhesive capsulitis. The examination
reveals the patient has significant capsular tightness in the anterior-inferior aspect. The most
likely range of motion limitation is
1. adduction and medial rotation
2. abduction and lateral rotation
3. flexion and medial rotation
4. extension and lateral rotation
138. A patient is asked to complete a pain questionnaire. The patient selects words such as
cramping, dull, and aching to describe the pain. What related structure is most consistent with
the pain description?
1. nerve root
2. muscle
3. fracture
4. sympathetic nerve
139. A physical therapist examines a patient with suspected vascular compression in the shoulder
region. Which special test would be least beneficial to confirm the therapist’s suspicions?
1. Adson maneuver
2. Halstead maneuver
3. Froment’s sign
4. Wright test
140. A 29-year-old female status post Colles’ fracture is referred to physical therapy. The patient
has moderate edema in her fingers and dorsum of her hand and complains of pain during active
range of motion. The most appropriate method to quantify the patient’s edema is
1. volumetric measurements
2. circumferential measurements
3. girth measurements
4. anthropometric measurements

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141. A physical therapist is scheduled to treat a patient requiring droplet precautions. What type of
protective equipment would be necessary prior to entering the patient’s room?
1. gloves
2. mask
3. gloves and mask
4. gloves, gown, and mask
142. A physical therapist administers tapotement as part of a treatment plan for a patient diagnosed
with bronchiectasis. Which of the following massage strokes is not an example of tapotement?
1. kneading
2. clapping
3. hacking
4. beating
143. A physical therapist collects data as part of a research project that requires direct observation of
children performing selected gross motor activities. The therapist is concerned about the
influence of an observer on the children’s performance. The most effective strategy to control
for this source of error is to
1. provide initial and refresher observer training
2. increase observer awareness of the influence of their background
3. have an observer spend time with the children before direct observation
4. ask the children to ignore the presence of the observer
144. A patient reports to a physical therapist that she completely tore one of the ligaments in her
ankle. If the patient’s comment is accurate, the injury to the ligament is most likely classified
as a
1. grade I sprain
2. grade III sprain
3. grade I strain
4. grade III strain
145. A physical therapist preparing to administer phonophoresis on a patient diagnosed with
impingement syndrome palpates the insertion of the supraspinatus. What bony landmark best
corresponds to this site?
1. lesser tubercle of the humerus
2. greater tubercle of the humerus
3. supraspinatus fossa of the scapula
4. deltoid tuberosity of the humerus
146. A patient status post motor vehicle accident is referred to physical therapy. The patient has
multiple injury sites including the hand, wrist, elbow, and knee. As part of the patient care
plan, the physical therapist attempts to increase tissue temperature at each of the involved sites.
The most appropriate thermal agent is
1. diathermy
2. ultrasound
3. hydrotherapy
4. hot packs
147. A physical therapist presents an inservice on graded oscillation techniques. Which grades of
oscillation are the most appropriate for stretching maneuvers?
1. I, II
2. I, III
3. II, III
4. III, IV
148. A physical therapist examines the breath sounds of a 55-year-old male diagnosed with
pulmonary disease. The therapist identifies rales during both inspiration and expiration. This
finding is most representative of
1. pleural effusion
2. pulmonary fibrosis
3. impaired secretion clearance
4. localized stenosis

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149. A rehabilitation manager conducts an inservice on Medicare rules and regulations. Which of
the following practice settings would not receive primary reimbursement through Medicare Part
A?
1. hospital
2. home health care
3. outpatient
4. skilled nursing
150. A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a patient recently referred to physical
therapy. The record indicates the patient has polycythemia. Which of the following laboratory
results would be expected based on the patient’s condition?
1. increased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
2. decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin levels
3. increased hematocrit and decreased hemoglobin levels
4. decreased hematocrit and increased hemoglobin levels
151. A physical therapist instructs a patient’s spouse to remove and reapply a bandage. Which of
the following instructional methods would be the most appropriate to ensure the task is
performed appropriately?
1. have the patient instruct the spouse how to remove and reapply the bandage
2. provide written instructions on how to remove and reapply the bandage
3. instruct the spouse to remove and reapply the bandage and observe her performance
4. instruct the spouse to contact the physical therapy department if she has specific
questions on how to remove or reapply the bandage.
152. A physical therapist completes a study, which examines the effect of goniometer size on the
reliability of passive shoulder joint measurements. The therapist concludes that goniometric
measurements of passive shoulder range of motion can be highly reliable when taken by a
single therapist, regardless of the size of the goniometer. This study demonstrates the use of
1. interrater reliability
2. intrarater reliability
3. internal validity
4. external validity
153. A physical therapist employed in an acute care hospital examines a patient rehabilitating from
surgery. The patient has diabetes, however, has not other significant past medical history.
Which of the following situations would most warrant immediate medical attention?
1. signs of confusion and lethargy
2. systolic blood pressure increase of 20 mmHg during exercise
3. lack of significant clinical findings following the examination
4. discovery of significant past medical history unknown to the physician
154. A patient with a peripheral nerve injury is examined in physical therapy. The patient’s primary
symptoms result from an injury to the superficial peroneal nerve. The most likely area of
sensory alteration is
1. sole of the foot
2. plantar surface of the toes
3. lateral aspect of the leg and dorsum of the foot
4. triangular area between the first and second toes
155. A physical therapist reviews a physician examination, which indicates diminished sensation in
the L3 dermatome. The most appropriate location to confirm the physician’s findings is
1. dorsum of foot
2. anterior thigh
3. lateral thigh
4. lateral calf

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156. A 32-year-old female complains of pain in her left wrist and forearm. The patient reports an
insidious onset of pain two weeks ago. Physical examination reveals weakness and point
tenderness along the distal radius and pain with resisted thumb extension and abduction. The
most appropriate special test to gain additional insight into the patient’s condition is
1. Froment’s sign
2. Phalen’s test
3. Finkelstein test
4. Bunnel-Littler test
157. A physical therapist and a physical therapist assistant work as a team in an orthopedic private
practice. Which activity would be inappropriate for the physical therapist assistant?
1. application of a superficial modality
2. completing a discharge summary
3. leading a group exercise program
4. performing an isokinetic test
158. A physical therapist conducts an examination on a patient diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease.
Which of the following clinical findings would you expect the therapist to identify?
1. aphasia
2. ballistic movements
3. severe muscle atrophy
4. cogwheel rigidity
159. A physical therapist prepares a patient with burns over 65% of the body for hydrotherapy. Due
to the extent of the patient’s burns, the therapist plans to use full-body immersion. The most
appropriate piece of equipment to satisfy the therapist’s objective is
1. fluidotherapy
2. highboy tank
3. lowboy tank
4. Hubbard tank
160. A patient elevated on a tilt table to 60 degrees suddenly begins to demonstrate signs and
symptoms of orthostatic hypotension. The most appropriate physical therapist action is to
1. lower the tilt table 10 degrees and monitor the patient’s vital signs
2. lower the tilt table 20 degrees and monitor the patient’s vital signs
3. lower the tilt table 40 degrees and monitor the patient’s vital signs
4. lower the tilt table completely and monitor the patient’s vital signs
161. A physical therapist examines a patient with a limited straight leg raise of 40 degrees due to
inadequate hamstrings length. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique
would be most appropriate to increase the patient’s hamstrings length?
1. contract-relax
2. rhythmic initiation
3. rhythmic stabilization
4. rhythmic rotation
162. A physical therapist administers effleurage in the posterior neck and shoulder region of a
patient with myofascial pain. Which therapeutic effect is most likely to occur when using
effleurage?
1. stimulation of muscle activity and deep circulation
2. mobilization and removal of lung secretion
3. mobilization of muscle tissue
4. stimulation of superficial blood and lymph flow
163. A physical therapist attempts to obtain a history from a patient that has recently immigrated to
the United States. The patient does not speak English and seems to be intimidated by the
hospital environment. the most appropriate action is to
1. ask the patient to communicate in writing
2. ask another physical therapist to complete the examination
3. move the patient to a private treatment room
4. request an interpreter

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164. A physical therapist prepares to perform volumetric measurements as a means of quantifying

edema. Which patient would appear to be the most appropriate candidate for this type of
objective measure?
1. a 38-year-old female with a Colles’ fracture
2. a 27-year-old male with bicipital tendonitis
3. a 48-year-old male with a rotator cuff tear
4. a 57-year-old male with pulmonary edema
165. A physical therapist educates a patient status post transfemoral amputation on the importance of
frequent skin checks. The most appropriate resource for the patient to utilize when inspecting
the posterior aspect of the residual limb is
1. hand mirror
2. video camera
3. nurse
4. prosthetist
166. A patient status post stroke ambulates with a large base quad cane. The patient presents with
left neglect and diminished proprioception. The most appropriate method to ensure patient
safety is
1. provide continuous verbal cues
2. utilize visual cues and demonstration
3. offer manual assistance on the left side
4. offer manual assistance on the right side
167. A physical therapist completes a work site analysis for a patient with T3 paraplegia. The
patient is employed in the marketing department of an advertising agency and relies on a
wheelchair for daily locomotion. Which of the following is likely to be the most significant
architectural barrier for the patient?
1. hardwood floors
2. an entrance ramp (six inches of ramp length for every one-inch of step height)
3. one-quarter-inch thresholds at each door
4. pedestal type sinks
168. A three-year-old child throws frequent temper tantrums, usually contrived to gain attention.
The physical therapist, recognizing the child’s objective, refuses to acknowledge the action.
This type of behavior therapy is best termed
1. aversive conditioning
2. extinction
3. operant conditioning
4. emotive imagery
169. A physical therapist consults with a psychiatrist after examining a patient with a lengthy history
of mental health issues. The psychiatrist describes the patient’s current difficulty as short-lived,
recurrent, unpredictable episodes of intense anxiety. This description best describes
1. psychosomatic disorder
2. dissociative disorder
3. panic disorder
4. obsessive-compulsive disorder
170. A physical therapist selects an assistive device for a patient rehabilitating from a recent illness.
Which assistive device provides the least stability?
1. Lofstrand crutches
2. walker
3. parallel bars
4. axillary crutches

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171. A 61-year-old male referred to physical therapy complains of an excessive cough, sputum
production, and shortness of breath. The patient indicates that he has been bothered by some
combination of these symptoms for over 10 years. The patient’s present condition is most
indicative of
1. idiopathic hypoventilation
2. chronic hypoxemia
3. Parkinson’s disease
4. chronic bronchitis
172. A physical therapist reviews a physician’s note on an 18-year-old male diagnosed with
impingement syndrome. The note indicates standard radiographs were utilized as part of the
examination. Which finding would not be identifiable using a standard radiograph?
1. chronic calcific tendonitis
2. acromioclavicular arthritis
3. partial thickness tear of the rotator cuff
4. unfused acromial apophysis
173. A physical therapist obtains a history of a self-referred patient to physical therapy. During the
history the therapist identifies several subjective reports that suggest the possibility of cancer.
Which finding is not typically associated with cancer?
1. difficulty swallowing
2. change in bowel or bladder habits
3. persistent cough
4. change in vision
174. A patient appears to be somewhat anxious after learning her treatment will include soft tissue
massage. The most appropriate massage stroke to begin treatment is
1. effleurage
2. kneading
3. petrissage
4. tapotement
175. Physical therapists and physical therapist assistants work together in a variety of health care
settings. Which statement regarding the physical therapist assistant is not accurate?
1. Physical therapist assistants can make entries in the patient medical record
2. Physical therapist assistants are licensed in all 50 states
3. Physical therapist assistants are affiliate members of the American Physical Therapy
Association
4. Physical therapist assistants must work under direction and supervision of a physical
therapist
176. A patient two days status post arthrotomy of the knee completes a quadriceps setting exercise
while lying supine on a mat table. During the exercise the patient begins to experience severe
pain. The most appropriate physical therapist action is
1. have the patient perform the exercise in sidelying
2. have the patient flex the knee prior to initiating the exercise
3. place a pillow under the ankle
4. discontinue the exercise
177. A patient diagnosed with a cervical strain is examined in physical therapy. As part of the
examination, the physical therapist attempts to palpate the transverse process of C1. Which
instructions describe the most appropriate method to palpate C1?
1. place your fingers on the inion and move laterally and inferiorly
2. place your fingers immediately inferior to the patient’s earlobes until you identify a body
prominence.
3. place you fingers in the space between the mastoid process and the angle of the mandible
and move medially
4. place your fingers on the superior nuchal line and move laterally and inferiorly

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178. A physical therapist enters a private treatment area and observes a patient collapsed on the
floor. The patient appears to be moving slightly, however, seems to be in need of medical
assistance. The most immediate therapist action is
1. check for unresponsiveness
2. monitor airway, breathing and circulation
3. position the patient
4. phone emergency medical services
179. A physical therapist presents an inservice on ergonomics for administrative personnel. As part
of the presentation the therapist discusses positioning when seated at a computer terminal.
Which of the following recommendations would be most helpful?
1. position your thighs parallel with the floor
2. position your knees one inch above your hips
3. position your knees two inches above your hips
4. position your knees one inch below your hips
180. A patient four weeks status post anterior dislocation of the glenohumeral joint is treated in
physical therapy. The patient’s arm was immobilized for three weeks following the injury.
Currently the patient has limited active range of motion in flexion, abduction, and lateral
rotation. Which of the following treatment options would be least appropriate for the patient?
1. D2 flexion proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation muscle strengthening
2. strengthening of the scapular stabilizers
3. posterior glenohumeral joint mobilization
4. use of single-channel electromyographic biofeedback
181. A physical therapist examines the posture of a 16-year-old distance runner. The therapist
identifies excessive genu valgum. Which of the following would be the most probable
associated finding?
1. decreased Q angle
2. excessive subtalar pronation
3. posterior pelvic tilt
4. ipsilateral pelvic rotation
182. A physical therapist completes a functional leg length assessment as part of a lower quarter
screening examination. The therapist determines the right lower extremity is shorter than the
left lower extremity. Which of the following would be most indicative of functional
shortening?
1. lateral rotation of the right hip
2. supination of the right foot
3. posterior rotation of the right innominate
4. extension of the right knee
183. A physical therapist attends an inservice entitled “Principles of Exercise for the Obstetric
Patient”. During the session, the speaker identifies several conditions that are considered to
result in high-risk pregnancies. Which of the following conditions would not be considered
high risk?
1. diastasis recti
2. incompetent cervix
3. preeclampsia
4. multiple gestation
184. A 48-year-old female rehabilitating from a fractured femur asks questions about her expected
functional level following rehabilitation. Assuming an uncomplicated recovery, the most
accurate prediction of functional level would be based on the patient’s
1. frequency of physical therapy visits
2. previous medical history
3. previous functional level
4. compliance with a home exercise program

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185. A physical therapist utilizes neuromuscular electrical stimulation by attaching an electrode over
the motor point of the peroneus longus. The most appropriate location to attach the electrode is
1. along the lateral border of the popliteal fossa
2. on the anterolateral surface of the lower leg
3. proximal to the first metatarsophalangeal joint
4. immediately inferior to the lateral malleolus
186. A physical therapist attempts to assess the dynamic balance of an elderly patient. Which
screening tool would be most helpful to test balance and gait?
1. Functional Independence Measure
2. Tinetti Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment
3. Rankin Scale
4. Barthel Index
187. A physical therapist instructs a patient how to fall safely to the floor when using axillary
crutches. Which of the following should be the first to occur in the case of a forward fall?
1. reach towards the floor
2. turn your face towards one side
3. release the crutches
4. flex the trunk and head
188. A physical therapist attempts to strengthen the lumbricales on a patient with a low metatarsal
arch. Which exercise would be the most appropriate?
1. resisted extension of the metatarsophalangeal joint
2. resisted flexion of the metatarsophalangeal joint
3. resisted abduction of the metatarsophalangeal joint
4. resisted adduction of the metatarsophalangeal joint
189. A 46-year-old male rehabilitating from a radial head fracture misses his third consecutive
physical therapy treatment session. The therapist called the patient after the second missed
appointment, but did not receive a return phone call. The most appropriate physical therapist
action is
1. contact the patient’s insurance provider
2. design a home exercise program for the patient
3. schedule the patient with another physical therapist
4. discharge the patient from physical therapy
190. A physical therapist treats a patient with a decubitus ulcer using whirlpool. After treating the
wound for 10 treatment sessions the wound still shows little evidence of granulation. The most
appropriate action is
1. begin aggressive debridement
2. recommend a wound culture
3. apply aseptic ointment to the wound
4. discontinue whirlpool treatments
191. A physical therapist completes a review of a patient’s medical record prior to beginning a
physical examination. The record indicates the patient was recently placed on an antidepressant
medication. The most common side effect associated with antidepressants is
1. sedation
2. dysarthria
3. seizures
4. blood pressure variability
192. A physical therapist instructs a patient rehabilitating from a low back injury in a series of five
pelvic stabilization exercises. The patient indicates he understands the exercises, however,
frequently becomes confused and is unable to perform them correctly. The most appropriate
therapist action is
1. repeat the exercise instructions
2. reduce the number of exercises in the series
3. select a different treatment option
4. conclude the patient is not a candidate for physical therapy

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193. A physical therapist employed in a rehabilitation hospital prepares to perform a stand pivot transfer with
a 42-year-old male rehabilitating from a motor vehicle accident. Prior to initiating the transfer, the
therapist notices that the patient is wearing only a pair of hospital issued non-skid socks on his feet. The
most appropriate therapist action is to
1. ask another therapist for assistance and complete a dependent transfer
2. have the patient complete a sliding board transfer
3. perform the stand pivot transfer without socks
4. perform the stand pivot transfer with the patient wearing the hospital-issued socks
194. A physical therapist designs an exercise program consisting of closed-chain activities for a
patient rehabilitating from a medial meniscus repair. An appropriate closed-chain exercise to
include in the rehabilitation program is
1. submaximal velocity spectrum isokinetic exercise
2. bilateral mini-squats in standing
3. short-arc terminal knee extension
4. prone leg curls with a two pound cuff weight
195. A patient with a T3 spinal cord injury exercising on a treatment table in supine begins to exhibit
signs and symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia including a dramatic increase in blood pressure.
The most immediate action to address the patient’s blood pressure response is to
1. elevate the patient’s legs
2. call for assistance
3. sit the patient upright
4. check urinary drainage system
196. A physical therapist observes a change in the muscle tone of an infant’s extremities as a result
of head rotation. Which development reflex would facilitate this type of response?
1. asymmetrical tonic neck reflex
2. symmetrical tonic neck reflex
3. symmetrical tonic labyrinthine reflex
4. crossed extension reflex
197. A physical therapist palpates medially along the spine of the scapula. Which spinous process is
at the same level as the vertebral end of the spine?
1. T2
2. T3
3. T4
4. T5
198. A physical therapist instructs a patient in an exercise designed to increase pelvic floor awareness and
strength. The exercise requires the patient to tighten the pelvic floor as if attempting to stop the flow of
urine. The patient is instructed to hold the isometric contraction for 5 seconds and complete 10
repetitions. The most appropriate initial position for the exercise is
1. supine
2. sitting
3. tall kneeling
4. standing
199. An attorney contacts you by phone and requests specific information on a patient he claims to
represent. Questions asked include the extent of the patient’s disability and his willingness to
return to work. The most appropriate response is
1. answer the questions asked by the attorney
2. request the attorney to provide a completed release of patient medical information form
3. tell the attorney not to bother you at work
4. send the attorney a copy of the patient’s medical records
200. A patient four weeks status post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction questions a physical
therapist as to why he is still partial weight bearing. An acceptable rationale is
1. the patient does not have full active knee extension
2. the patient has good quadriceps strength
3. the patient has fair hamstrings strength
4. the patient has diminished superficial cutaneous sensation

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1. 4. Normal position of the lower extremity at the end of terminal stance is as follows: hip 10-20
degrees of hyperextension; knee 0 degrees; ankle 0 degrees of dorsiflexion;
metatarsophalangeal 30 degrees of hyperextension.
2. 4. A patient with D7 tetraplegia is the highest spinal injury level that will consistently attain
independence with self-range of motion of the lower extremities.
3. 1. The independent variable, often termed the experimental variable, is manipulated by the
researcher to determine the effect on the dependent variable.
4. 4. A patient is usually required to immerse the hand in paraffin 6-10 times in order to form a
solid wax glove around the fingers, wrist, an hand.
5. 3. Open-ended questions allow patients to answer with a myriad of responses, while close-
ended questions can often be answered with a yes or no response.
6. 4. Electrical equipment should be inspected according to specified intervals outlined by the
manufacturer. Although often these intervals may be more frequent than every 12 months, it is
unacceptable for any electrical equipment to be uninspected for more than a 12-month period.
7. 3. A rapid straight leg raise with the left lower extremity will typically result in the patient
pushing their right heel down into the therapist’s hand. The described testing procedure is
consistent with Hoover’s test, which is often employed as a gross test for malingering.
8. 2. A standard bathroom scale can effectively be used to educate patients on weight bearing
status.
9. 3. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy is considered a relative contraindication to exercise testing,
while the remaining options are absolute contraindications.
10. 3. Abduction and adduction typically occur in a frontal plane around an anterior-posterior axis.
11. 1. Moderate tension over a prolonged period of time would be the most appropriate form of
stretching for the hip flexors. In addition, this type of stretch will be better tolerated by the
patient.
12. 2. Duty cycle is defined as the ratio of the on time to the total time. Duty cycle = 2 msec /
(2msec + 8 msec) = .20 (100) = 20%.
13. 3. A patient with a transfemoral amputation would have the greatest difficulty in ascending and
descending stairs. Due to the higher level of the amputation and subsequent shorter lever arm
the patient requires greater energy expenditure, balance, and coordination when using a
prosthesis.
14. 2. Atrioventricular blocks are caused by an abnormal delay or failure of conduction through the
AV node or the atrioventricular bundle. Appearance of all waves on the electrocardiogram will
be normal, however, the PR interval will be prolonged.
15. 3. Cryotherapy is not contraindicated for patients with cancer, however, secondary
impairments such as diminished sensation may make cryotherapy an unacceptable treatment
option in certain situations.
16. 2. The most important factor to promote patient compliance in order to avoid the complications
associated with premature weight bearing on a fracture.
17. 1. A 26-year-old with a lower extremity injury without other complicating factors should have
little difficulty utilizing an assistive device following a single training session.
18. 4. A child with a hip disarticulation would have the greatest difficulty with ascending a curb
during prosthetic training since there are no external supports (rails) to assist with the activity.
19. 3. The dermatome that corresponds to the hypothenar eminence is at the C8 level. As a result,
the finding of diminished sensation (not absent) at a level below C6 may indicate the injury is
incomplete.
20. 2. Systolic blood pressure tends to increase with increasing exercise intensity and progressively
decrease during the cool down and post-exercise period.
21. 4. A D2 flexion pattern incorporates flexion, abduction, and lateral rotation of the shoulder and
therefore promotes upright posture. The verbal command to complete this pattern would be
open your hand and pull up and away from your body.
22. 3. Elbow flexion is usually the first and the strongest component of the flexor synergy.
23. 4. Continuing education resources should be allocated in a manner that will provide the
greatest tangible benefit for the current patient population.

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24. 3. Negligence results when a therapist provides care that falls below a standard established by
law. Failure to monitor the condition of a patient is often the basis for health care malpractice
claims.
25. 2. If the heel wedge of a prosthesis is too soft it will not allow the prosthesis to advance as
needed over the foot in order to create a flexion moment at the knee.
26. 1. Broca’s aphasia usually occurs from a lesion to the left inferior frontal lobe. A patient with
Broca’s aphasia can understand what is said to them, however, recovery of verbal output is
slow and fragmented.
27. 3. The Romberg test can be used to examine the influence of proprioceptive, visual and
vestibular input on balance. The test is administered with the patient in standing with the feet
together and arms crossed over the chest. Initially the test should be performed with the
patient’s eyes open and then closed, if applicable. The therapist should attempt to subjectively
quantify the amount of postural sway present during four trials lasting approximately one
minute each.
28. 1. Peripheral vascular disease refers to a condition involving the atrial, venous, or lymphatic
systems that results in compromised circulation to the extremities. Resting claudication is
typically considered a contraindication to active exercise in patients with peripheral vascular
disease.
29. 2. The humeroradial joint consists of the convex capitulum articulating with the concave radial
head. The resting joint position of the joint is full extension and supination.
30. 2. A bell supplies the patient with a method to communicate with the therapist in a safe and
efficient manner without alarming other patients.
31. 2. An ordinal measurement scale uses independent categories that have a qualitative
relationship regarding the order of ranking.
32. 4. Patients with lesion above T12 are not functional ambulators due to the extreme energy
demands and therefore utilize a wheelchair as their primary aide of mobility.
33. 4. According to the American College of Sports Medicine, exercise performed at a moderate
intensity should be performed most days of the week. If exercise is at a vigorous level, it
should be performed at least three times per week. Since the cited exercise is low intensity,
five times per week is the most appropriate option.
34. 4. The pisiform is located within the flexor carpi ulnaris tendon and lies immediately superior
to the triquetrium.
35. 3. Congestive heart failure is characterized by an inability of the heart to adequately deliver
oxygenated blood to tissue. Specifically, the heart cannot eject a sufficient stroke volume
during ventricular systole. Stroke volume is the difference between end diastolic volume and
end systolic volume.
36. 2. A physical therapist should measure from the seat of the chair to the patient’s axilla and
subtract 4 inches. This procedure will allow the back height to fall below the inferior angle of
the scapula. Average back height in an adult size wheelchair is 16 to 16.5 inches.
37. 2. Ice massage serves as an effective method of cryotherapy over local areas such as tendons,
bursae, or muscle bellies. Due to the limited size of the treatment area, 5-10 minutes of ice
massage is usually adequate.
38. 2. The “rule of nines” is commonly utilized to assess the percentage of the body surface
affected by a burn. Anterior surface of the right upper extremity = 4.5%, anterior surface of the
trunk = 18%.
39. 3. 1 inch is equivalent to 2.54 centimeters, therefore, 13 cm = 5.12 inches and 33 cm = 12.99
inches.
40. 3. The 2:1 ratio of humerus to scapula movement does not pertain to the initial phase of
movement.
41. 3. Fatigue will vary directly with the ratio of on/off time. A ratio of 5:1 will therefore promote
the greatest amount of muscle fatigue.
42. 4. Capitation refers to a method of payment for services on a per member, per month basis. In
this type of system the provider receives payment whether or not services are utilized.

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43. 4. Angina that does not dissipate after the termination of exercise should be considered to
medical emergency. As a result, the most appropriate therapist action is to discontinue the
treatment session and call an ambulance.
44. 3. Age-predicted maximal heart rate is determined by the formula 220-patient’s age (55) = 165.
45. 3. Demonstration is an essential component of any educational session particularly when
initially instructing a patient. The parallel bars offer a secure and stable base for the patient to
attempt ambulation.
46. 3. A dependent standing pivot transfer is used when a patient can bear some weight through the
lower extremities, however, cannot transfer independently.
47. 3. All health care facilities must have a formal infection control policy that is consistent with
OSHA requirements.
48. 3. A transfer classified as minimal assistance usually requires up to 25% of the physical work
to be performed by the physical therapist.
49. 2. The latissimus dorsi is innervated by the thoracodorsal nerve. Weakness in this muscle
would produce impaired strength during shoulder extension.
50. 3. The touch weight bearing permits the toes of the involved extremity to touch the ground for
balance, but not for weight bearing. Partial weight bearing permits the transfer of a small
amount of weight through the involved extremity.
51. 2. The anterior tibialis acts to dorsiflex the ankle joint and assist in inversion of the foot. The
muscle is innervated by the deep peroneal nerve.
52. 3. Sensory-level stimulation is characterized by a relatively short phase duration of 20-100
microseconds.
53. 2. Knee flexion of approximately 90 degrees is required for stair climbing.
54. 3. The patient’s ability to maintain balance in standing and inability to maintain balance with
weight shifting or outside challenges is typical of a patient with fair balance. A poor grade
would indicate that the patient requires some form of assistance to maintain balance.
55. 3. A posterior leaf spring orthosis is a type of ankle-foot orthosis that provides a dorsiflexion
assist during swing phase. The trim line is posterior to the malleoli and does not provide any
medial or lateral ankle support.
56. 3. The standing flexion test is designed to identify innominate distortion. The physical
therapist should palpate the inferior portion of the posterior superior iliac spine as the patient
actively flexes the spine.
57. 2. The supine position creates support and resistance to the diaphragm. There is a direct
correlation between the amount of chest expansion and intercostal strength.
58. 2. A patient with bilateral lower extremity amputations requires offset rear wheels to
accommodate for the change in the center of gravity. An anti-tipping device is another method,
which will prevent the wheelchair and patient from falling backwards.
59. 3. Rheumatoid arthritis is a chronic systemic disease characterized by inflammatory changes in
joints and related structures. Symptoms of rheumatoid arthritis include morning stiffness,
limited range of motion, and pain with movement. The disease is 2-3 times more common in
women than men.
60. 1. When descending a curb with axillary crutches the involved lower extremity and crutches
are moved from the curb to the ground, while the upper extremities and the uninvolved lower
extremity are used to slowly lower the body. As a result, the patient’s involved ankle must be
on the left. The amount of weight being transmitted through the foot using this specific
technique is most consistent with a partial weight-bearing gait.
61. 2. A variety of massage techniques are appropriate to incorporate into a treatment program for
a patient with tendonitis.
62. 3. A patient scheduled for discharge home following total hip replacement surgery should be
able to perform transfers independently without using a sliding board.
63. 3. Slow reversal hold is a technique that is utilized to improve stability around a joint and
control a particular movement. Techniques that are used in order to decrease sympathetic
activity include massage, rocking, slow rolling, maintained pressure, and slow breathing.

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64. 3. Soft tissue approximation is associated with a soft end feel. An example of a soft end feel is
created by contact between the soft tissue of the posterior leg and the posterior thigh during
knee flexion.
65. 2. The therapist should stroke the skin in the area of the upper and inner thigh in order to elicit
the superficial cremasteric reflex. The anticipated response is elevation of the testicle on the
same side as the stimulus.
66. 4. Ankylosing spondylitis is a form of systemic rheumatic arthritis that results in inflammation
of the axial skeleton with subsequent back pain. The condition often is associated with an
increase in thoracic kyphosis and loss of the lumbar curve. As a result, extension exercises are
often an important component of a comprehensive treatment plan.
67. 3. Sublingual administration of nitroglycerin is most appropriate with an acute angina attack
due to the rapid absorption into the systemic circulation
68. 1. The teres minor and deltoid muscles are innervated by the axillary nerve.
69. 3. The concave ulnar notch of the radius articulates with the convex head of the ulna to form
the distal radioulnar joint. A dorsal glide of the distal radius is used to increase supination.
70. 2. A grade of poor indicates that the hip flexors can produce movement with gravity
eliminated, but cannot function against gravity. As a result the recommended testing position is
in sidelying.
71. 2. Measurement should be taken from the head of the third metacarpal before and after the
patient reaches as far forward as possible without taking a step. The Functional Reach Test has
been found to exhibit intrarater reliability of r = .98 and interrater reliability of r = .92.
72. 3. A bandage can be used for a variety of reasons including securing a dressing, maintaining
barrier between the dressing and environment, or providing pressure to control swelling.
73. 2. The walker should be positioned at a height that allows for 20 to 30 degrees of elbow flexion
when the handgrip is grasped.
74. 3. Bilateral forearm crutches allow the patient to take adequate step length and exhibit a
normal gait pattern without unnecessarily jeopardizing patient safety.
75. 2. The accepted method for correcting a mistake is to place a single line through the error,
write “error”, date and initial it. Other forms of correcting mistakes may be construed as
negligence.
76. 2. Lofstrand crutches avoid transmitting pressure to the brachial plexus area and accommodate
for the weight bearing status of the involved lower extremity. The patient’s age and upper
extremity strength make Lofstrand crutches the most appropriate device.
77. 1. The first label on a visual analog scale should always refer to “no pain” or the “absence of
pain”. The second label is most often termed “most severe pain”.
78. 2. By considering all patients as potentially infected, therapists gently reduce the transmission
risk of HIV.
79. 4. Torticollis is a condition caused by a contracture of the sternocleidomastoid muscle. This
condition is characterized by lateral flexion of the head toward the affected side and rotation
toward the unaffected side. Stretching activities should be performed in the opposite direction.
80. 1. Barognosis is a cortical sensation that is responsible for recognition of the weight of an
object. It is responsible for the ability to differentiate weight between two or more objects.
81. 2. An irregular rhythm often requires a physical therapist to assess the pulse for 60 seconds.
82. 3. A two-person lift is often used to transfer a patient with some trunk control between a
wheelchair and the floor. One therapist controls the trunk and head, while the other manages
the patient’s legs. the therapist controlling the trunk and the head verbalizes the commands and
the patient is moved as a unit.
83. 4. The triceps and the subscapular skinfolds are the two most common sites utilized when
measuring body composition using a skinfold caliper. Other possible sites include the iliac
crest, anterior chest, just below and lateral to the umbilicus, and the anterior thigh.
84. 3. A number of factors play a significant role in determining the amount of heat absorbed using
ultrasound, however, the choice of coupling agent has a relatively small impact when compared
to the other presented options.

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85. 3. Physical therapy aides are non-licensed health care workers who are trained under the
direction of a physical therapist. The physical therapist of record is directly responsible for the
actions of the physical therapy aide.
86. 1. The Bobath concept for neurological rehabilitation is often termed neurodevelopmental
treatment (NDT). This theory of rehabilitation emphasizes influencing normal movement
through handling of the patient and does not utilize abnormal movement patterns or reflexes.
87. 4. To perform postural drainage to the superior segments of the lower lobes a physical therapist
should clap over the middle of the back at the tip of the scapula on either side of the spine with
the patient in prone and two pillows positioned under the hips.
88. 3. The most commonly accepted ratio of quadriceps to hamstrings strength is 3:2. As the
speed of movement increases above 200 degrees per second the ratio approaches 1:1.
89. 2. The cooler water temperature should range from 12-20 degrees Celsius, while the warmer
water temperature should range from 27-40 degrees Celsius.
90. 1. 3.0 MHz frequency is used to treat tissues up to 1-2 cm from the skin surface, while 1.0
MHz frequency is more appropriate for deeper structures.
91. 3. According to the Americans with Disabilities Act the minimum doorway width is 32 inches.
92. 2. Arrhythmias occur in approximately 90% of individuals following myocardial infarction.
Each of the listed options are possible complications following myocardial infarction, however,
they are not as prevalent as arrhythmias.
93. 2. A patient that has sustained a spinal cord injury must intake approximately 2000 ml of fluid
daily. This amount of required to avoid dehydration and prevent overdistention of the bladder.
Scheduled catheterizations along with monitoring of fluid intake are required for a successful
bladder program.
94. 3. Six to eight towel layers placed between a hot pack and the treatment surface is generally
adequate to allow transmission of heat without jeopardizing patient safety.
95. 1. Two inches between the front edge of the seat and the posterior aspect of the lower leg
demonstrates appropriate seat depth. Normal seat depth in an adult size wheelchair is 16
inches.
96. 2. According to the Americans with Disabilities Act the grade of a ramp should be no greater
than 8.3%. The information can also be expressed as for every inch of rise, there should be a
minimum of 12 inches of run.
97. 2. Lower brachial plexus injuries can occur during the birthing process, however, due to the
patient’s age and acuity of the injury, the most likely mechanism of injury is through excessive
hyperabduction of the upper extremity. Upper brachial plexus injuries can occur through high
velocity accidents where there is excessive separation of the neck and shoulder.
98. 3. The physical therapist’s primary concern should be to establish an environment that is
conducive to instructing the patient in an exercise program. Failure to address the negative
interaction between the mother and daughter may limit the effectiveness of the session.
99. 1. The most important priority is to provide pre-operative patient instruction. the other stated
activities are important, however, can be deferred without immediate consequence.
100. 2. The frequency of use of an ultrasound device is extremely important when determining a
schedule for calibration and maintenance. Ultrasound units used frequently may be calibrated
many times within a year, while a unit used sparingly would likely warrant a longer interval.
101. 1. The patient’s cognitive status combined with her post-operative condition make it unrealistic
for the patient to return to her home. A skilled nursing facility would enable the patient to
receive continued therapy services and at the same time provide a safe living environment.
102. 4. Placing the arms at the side of the body makes the exercise easier to perform and as a result
is an acceptable modification.
103. 1. Urinary incontinence is a clinical symptom often associated with a vascular infarct to the
anterior cerebral artery.
104. 1. The brachial artery can be compressed against the medial aspect of the humerus in an
attempt to control the bleeding.
105. 3. Although many therapists possess a basic background in nutrition, a patient with type II
(non-insulin dependent) diabetes is an ideal candidate to refer to a dietician.

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106. 3. In order to conduct an appropriate examination of the cervical spine, a physical therapist
should attempt to expose the entire cervical region. Asking the patient permission to remove
the turban provides the patient with an opportunity to refuse the request.
107. 3. Physical therapists have a duty to identify and report suspected patient abuse to local
authorities, however, it is often advisable to seek confirming information prior to initiating
formal action.
108. 2. The ratio of heat to cold when using a contrast bath is most commonly expressed as 3:1 or
4:1.
109. 1. The parallel bars provide the patient with the most stable environment to begin ambulation
activities.
110. 1. An airway obstruction in a child or an adult is best treated by using subdiaphragmatic
abdominal thrusts.
111. 4. The brachioradialis reflex is best elicited by using the flat end of the reflex hammer over the
distal end of the radius. This reflex can be used to examine the integrity of the C6 nerve root.
112. 3. Blood urea nitrogen is a common measure used to examine renal function. A rise in blood
urea nitrogen levels can be indicative of an impairment in renal tubule excretion.
113. 4. Posterior cord syndrome results from an injury to the posterior column of the spinal cord.
this injury is rare and does not affect motor function, light touch, and pain.
114. 4. Securing the wheelchair brakes is always the most appropriate action when initiating a
transfer from a wheelchair.
115. 1. Decreased breath sounds and decreased fremitus are most likely caused by pleural effusion
or pneumothorax. Pulmonary edema, consolidation, and atelectasis are often associated with
decreased breath sounds and increased fremitus.
116. 3. Increased sympathetic involvement would tend to produce dilation of the pupils and not
constriction.
117. 3. Controlled mobility is the third stage of motor control where proximal segments move over
a distal weight bearing part. Control should be attained first in a small range and gradually
expanded as warranted based on the patient response.
118. 2. Acceptable terminology for the frequency of alternating current is cycles per second or
hertz. Pulses per second is utilized to describe the frequency of pulsed current.
119. 4. One metabolic equivalent is the amount of oxygen consumed at rest and is equal to
approximately 3.5 ml of oxygen per kilogram of body weight per minute. Other recreational
activities requiring 3-4 METs including cycling at 6 mph and golfing while pulling a bag cart.
120. 2. Demonstration provides the opportunity for the patient to observe a specific action being
performed correctly and as a result often enhances learning and decreases anxiety.
121. 1. Dysdiadochokinesia is defined as the inability to perform rapidly alternating movements.
122. 4. Any equipment that is potentially defective should be formally inspected prior to being used
to treat patients.
123. 3. Any formal or informal indication that a patient may suicidal should be taken seriously. The
case manager communicates with all of the members of the rehabilitation team and is therefore
the most appropriate of the presented options.
124. 4. Quality assurance refers to activities or programs designed to achieve a desired degree or
grade of care. Findings from quality assurance initiatives should be communicated directly to
staff in a manner that is constructive instead of punitive.
125. 1. Clonus refers to rhythmic oscillation of a body part resulting from a quick stretch. The test
is ideally performed by producing the stretch to the plantarflexors with the gastrocnemius in a
relaxed position.
126. 2. Anemia refers to a condition in which there is reduced delivery of oxygen to the tissues due
to a reduction in the number of circulating red blood cells. Heart palpitation along with
dyspnea are often associated with this condition.
127. 3. Bronchial drainage of the anterior basal segments of the lower lobe requires the patient to be
positioned in supine with the bottom of the bed elevated 18-20 inches. Since this position
results in the head being significantly below the feet, the patient would be susceptible to
dizziness and dyspnea.

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128. 3. Durable power of attorney for health care decisions is a legal document that delegates
decision making to a specified individual in the event another individual is found to be
incompetent to make a decision.
129. 1. The symmetrical tonic labyrinthine reflex creates full extension of the body and extremities
when positioned in supine. Extension serves to limit the child’s ability to flex the neck.
130. 1. Respiratory alkalosis is caused by alveolar hyperventilation. Signs and symptoms include
dizziness, syncope, tingling, and numbness.
131. 4. A self-referred patient that presents with multi-system involvement should be examined by a
physician prior to engaging in a formal physical therapy program.
132. 3. Heparin, the primary drug used to treat deep venous thrombophlebitis, is administered
parenterally. The most common side effect of the drug is increased bleeding.
133. 2. Ankylosing spondylitis is a form of systemic rheumatic arthritis that is associated with an
increase in thoracic kyphosis and loss of the lumbar curve. Ankylosing spondylitis occurs three
times more often in males than females with a typical age of onset of 20-40 years.
134. 1. A patient would likely have reddening over the patella if the residual limb has shrunk and/or
if there is inadequate ply of socks used. In both cases, the residual limb would sit lower in the
prosthesis and the patella would hit the patellar tendon-bearing surface.
135. 4. Homolateral synkinesis is an associated reaction that can occur after neurological damage.
Resistance to flexion of the affected upper extremity will cause flexion in the lower extremity.
136. 4. Raynaud’s disease is a peripheral vascular disorder characterized by abnormal
vasoconstriction of the extremities upon exposure to cold or emotional distress. Although
Raynaud’s disease can be considered a contraindication for selected forms of cryotherapy, it is
not contraindicated for aquatic therapy.
137. 2. Anterior capsular tightness at the glenohumeral joint may result in limited lateral rotation
and extension, while inferior capsular tightness is associated with limited abduction.
138. 2. Muscle pain is often characterized as cramping, dull, and aching, while nerve root pain is
more often termed sharp or shooting. Subjective pain descriptors can provide valuable
information related to a patient’s condition.
139. 3. Froment’s sign is a special test where a patient attempts to grasp a piece of paper between
the thumb and index finger. A positive test is indicated by flexion of the terminal phalanx of
the thumb caused by paralysis of the adductor pollicis. The test is used to assess the integrity of
the ulnar nerve.
140. 1. Volumetric measurements are often used to quantify the presence of edema in the wrist and
hand. Comparison with the uninvolved extremity provides a baseline measure, however, it is
important to note there may be a small difference between the dominant and non-dominant
hand.
141. 2. Droplet precautions require individuals coming within three feet of the patient to wear a
mask, but does not require the use of a gown or gloves. Droplet precautions are designed to
prevent transmission of infectious agents that are transmitted primarily through coughing,
sneezing, or talking.
142. 1. Kneading is a form of petrissage that utilizes intermittent rolling and pressing of muscles to
increase circulation and reduce edema.
143. 3. Spending time with the children prior to direct observation will allow them to feel more at
ease and as a result their performance may be more reflective of their current abilities.
144. 2, A third-degree sprain involves a complete rupture or break in the continuity of a ligament.
The injury usually results in significant joint play hypermobility.
145. 2. The supraspinatus originates on the supraspinous fossa of the scapula and inserts on the
greater tubercle of the humerus. The muscle is innervated by the suprascapular nerve.
146. 3. Hydrotherapy is the most appropriate thermal agent due to the varied location and size of the
treatment area.
147. 4. Grades I and II oscillations are used primarily to treat joints limited by pain, while grades III
and IV oscillations are used as stretching maneuvers.
148. 3. Low-pitched, non-rhythmical sounds occurring throughout the ventilatory cycle often are
indicative of fluid in the large airways due to impaired secretion clearance.

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149. 3. Outpatient physical therapy services are primarily reimbursed through Medicare Part B.
Medicare Part A provides benefits for hospitals, outpatient diagnostic services, extended care
facilities, and short-term care at home required by an illness for which the patient was
hospitalized.
150. 1. Polycythemia is a condition characterized by an excessive number of erythrocytes and an
increased concentration of hemoglobin.
151. 3. The physical therapist should observe the removal and reapplication of the bandage in order
to determine if the spouse is capable of performing the task. Although this will not ensure the
task is done appropriately in the future, it will identify if the spouse need remedial assistance.
152. 2. Intrarater reliability refers to the amount of agreement between repeated measurements of
the same joint position by the same therapist.
153. 1. Signs of confusion and lethargy in a patient with diabetes can be indicative of a significant
alteration in a patient’s glycemic state. The condition, if untreated, can rapidly progress
towards a life-threatening situation.
154. 3. The superficial peroneal nerve innervates the peroneus longus and brevis. A peripheral
nerve injury affecting the superficial peroneal nerve often results in sensory alterations along
the lateral aspect of the leg and dorsum of the foot.
155. 2. The L3 dermatome corresponds to portions of the back, upper buttocks, anterior thigh and
knee, and the medial lower leg.
156. 3. The Finkelstein test is designed to identify the presence of de Quervain’s tenosynovitis in
the thumb. A positive test is indicated by pain over the abductor pollicis longus and the
extensor pollicis brevis tendons at the wrist.
157. 2. Physical therapist assistants often complete documentation in the medical record, however,
the physical therapist is responsible for establishing a discharge plan and documenting the
discharge summary.
158. 4. Signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s disease include cogwheel rigidity, resting tremor, poor
initiation of movement, shuffling gait, and flat affect.
159. 4. An average size Hubbard tank is eight feet long, six feet wide, and four feet deep. The tanks
often hold over 400 gallons of water and are designed for full-body immersion.
160. 4. The tilt table should be lowered to a horizontal position when a patient begins to
demonstrate signs and symptoms of orthostatic hypotension. Signs and symptoms of this
condition include a 20 mmHg or greater decrease in systolic blood pressure, dizziness, and
nausea.
161. 1. Contract-relax is a proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique utilized to increase
range of motion on one side of a joint. This technique utilizes isometric as well as isotonic
contractions.
162. 4. Effleurage is defined as a slow, stroking movement performed with increasing pressure in
the direction of flow within the veins and lymph vessels.
163. 4. In order to effectively communicate with a patient that does not speak English it is often
essential to utilize an interpreter.
164. 1. Volumetric measurements are commonly used to measure edema in the distal extremities.
The measurement is typically performed by examining the amount of water displaced from a
cylinder following immersion of an affected body part.
165. 1. The use of a mirror during skin inspection of the residual limb will ensure that the patient
can independently see all areas that are not easily visible.
166. 3. The physical therapist can offer manual contact and assistance with lower extremity
placement while standing on the patient’s affected side. This will also help to alert the patient
as to the environment on the left.
167. 2. An entrance ramp that has six inches of ramp length for each inch of vertical rise exceeds
the 12:1 inch minimum ratio identified in the Americans with Disabilities Act.
168. 2. By refusing to acknowledge the child’s tantrums the physical therapist avoids reinforcing
the behavior. As a result, the tantrums may decrease in frequency and eventually disappear.
169. 3. Panic disorders may affect up to 3-5% of the population with a 2:1 prevalence in females.
This disorder may be associated with signs and symptoms such as dyspnea, tachycardia,
dizziness, nausea, and feelings of impending doom.

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170. 1. Lofstrand crutches are wooden or metal crutches with a full or half-cuff that fits over a
patient’s forearms. Patients grasp the crutches using a handgrip that extends from the vertical
axis of the crutch. Lofstrand crutches allow for greater ease of movement than axillary
crutches, but provide less stability.
171. 4. Chronic bronchitis is identified by the presence of a cough and pulmonary secretion
expectoration for at least three months, two years in a row. This disease is often associated
with cigarette smoking.
172. 3. Soft tissue structures such as muscles and tendons do not possess the density necessary to be
seen on x-ray.
173. 4. Seven early danger signs of cancer include change in bowel or bladder habits, a sore that
does not heal, unusual bleeding or discharge, thickening or lump in breast or elsewhere,
indigestion or difficulty swallowing, obvious change in a wart or mole, and a nagging cough or
hoarseness.
174. 1. Effleurage is a massage stroke that is often utilized as a transitional stroke or as a means of
introducing massage.
175. 2. There are several states that do not license physical therapist assistants.
176. 4. Severe pain in a patient rehabilitating from a surgical procedure is an acceptable reason to
immediately discontinue an exercise.
177. 3. C1, commonly termed the atlas, has the broadest transverse process in the cervical spine and
is therefore easily identifiable.
178. 1. The first step in performing a primary survey is to determine responsiveness.
179. 1. Other recommendations when seated at a computer terminal include: top of screen at eye
level, minimum viewing distance of 12 inches, height of work surface at 23-28 inches, and
width of work surface at 30 inches.
180. 1. D2 flexion proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation muscle strengthening should be
avoided due to its emphasis on a pattern of shoulder flexion, abduction and lateral rotation.
This type of resistive exercise would likely place too much pressure on a shoulder that is only
four weeks status post anterior dislocation.
181. 2. Excessive subtalar pronation is a common finding in patients with genu valgum. This type
of alignment results in patients bearing excessive weight on the inner side of the foot.
182. 3. Functional shortening refers to a shortening that is not a result of a structural change, but
rather is associated with a compensation for a positional change. Posterior rotation of the right
innominate on the sacrum results in functional shortening of the right lower extremity.
183. 1. Diastasis recti refers to a separation of the two halves of the rectus abdominis muscle in the
midline at the linea alba. This condition is often associated with pregnancy during the second
and third trimesters, however, is not considered to place a pregnancy at high risk.
184. 3. A relatively young patient rehabilitating from a fractured femur should have a near complete
recovery. As a result, the patient’s previous functional level should serve as the best predictor
of her future functional level.
185. 2. The peroneus longus originates on the head and upper two thirds of the lateral surface of the
fibula and inserts on the base of the first metatarsal and the lateral aspect of the medial
cuneiform. The muscle acts to evert the foot at the subtalar joint and assists in plantarflexion at
the ankle.
186. 2. The Tinetti Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment measures balance and gait using a
2-3 point ordinal scale. The test takes 5-15 minutes to administer with a total possible score of
28. Patients scoring less than 19 are considered to be at high risk for falling.
187. 3. A patient should release the crutches in an attempt to utilize the upper extremities to break
the forward fall.
188. 2. The lumbricales act to flex the metatarsophalangeal joints and assist in extending the
interphalangeal joints of the second through fifth digits. The lumbricales are innervated by the
tibial nerve.
189. 4. A patient consistently missing scheduled appointments should be discharged from physical
therapy unless there are extraordinary circumstances.
190. 4. The physical therapist has an obligation to discontinue an ineffective intervention. In
addition, the question does not provide enough evidence to justify any of the remaining options.

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191. 1. Antidepressant medications can produce a broad range of side effects including sedation.
Tricyclics are an example of a category of antidepressant medication that commonly results in
sedation.
192. 2. A physical therapist should attempt to amplify the exercise session in order to reduce the
patient’s confusion. The most appropriate method to simplify the program is to reduce the
number of exercises.
193. 4. Therapists should not permit patients to perform transfer activities with standard socks,
however, since the hospital-issued socks are “non-skid” this becomes an acceptable option.
194. 2. Closed-chain activities require the distal segment to be in contact with the ground or some
other surface.
195. 3. Moving the patient from supine to a sitting position will serve to reduce the patient’s blood
pressure. Checking the patient’s urinary drainage system could be useful to reduce the patient’s
blood pressure, but only if it served as the noxious stimulus triggering the sympathetic
response.
196. 1. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex normally occurs in infants from birth to 6 months of age
when the head is rotated to one side. This reflex causes extension of the extremities toward the
side of rotation.
197. 2. In the resting position the scapula covers ribs two through seven, while the spine of the
scapula is opposite the spinous process of T3.
198. 1. Kegel exercises are often utilized as part of a treatment program for incontinence. Supine
and sidelying are the easiest positions to begin the training session.
199. 2. The attorney would not be entitle to the patient’s medical information without a completed
release of patient medical information form.
200. 1. A patient status post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction surgery may continue to use
an assistive device for weight bearing if they do not possess full active knee extension.
Ambulation on a flexed knee can result in excessive irritation of the patellofemoral joint.

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