29-09-2024

4504CMD303001240008 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-1

1) Which is tensor quantity :-

(1) Speed
(2) Force
(3) Moment of inertia
(4) Displacement

2) Which is the correct relation ( = velocity in circular motion, = angular velocity in circular
motion) :-

(1)
(2)
(3) Both
(4) None of these

3) Moment of inertia comes into play :-

(1) in translatory motion

(2) in rotatory motion
(3) in vibratory motion
(4) when the body is permanently at rest

4) Two same masses m are placed at a distance r from each other. Find out moment of inertia of
system, about an axis passing through their centre of mass and perpendicular the line joining the
two masses.

(1)

(2) 2mr2

(3)

(4) 4mr2

5) A couple produces :–
(1) purely translational motion
(2) purely rotational motion
(3) both translational and rotational motion
(4) no motion

6) A wheel having moment of inertia 2 kg-m2 about its vertical axis, rotates at the rate of 60 rpm
about this axis. The torque which can stop the wheel's rotation in 30 sec would be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A rigid body is rotating about an axis as shown in figure with constant angular velocity 'ω'.Which
of the following statement is true.

(1) All particles equidistant from the axis have equal accelerations.
Acceleration of all particles, not on the axis, intersect the axis and angular velocities are parallel
(2)
to the axis.
(3) particles not on the axis have different angular velocities
(4) All particles equidistant from axis have equal velocities.

8) The direction of the angular velocity vector is along :-

(1) The tangent to the circular path

(2) The inward radius
(3) The outward radius
(4) The axis of rotation

9) Three particles, each of mass m are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle ABC of side

ℓ (as shown in the figure). The moment of inertia of the system about a line
AX perpendicular to AB and in the plane of ABC, will be :-
(1) 2 mℓ2

(2)
mℓ2

(3)
mℓ2

(4)
mℓ2

10) The angular momentum of a moving body remains constant if:

(1) net external force is applied

(2) net pressure is applied
(3) net external torque is applied
(4) net external torque is not applied

11) The ratio of angular speeds of minute hand and hour hand of a watch is :-

(1) 1 : 12
(2) 6 : 1
(3) 12 : 1
(4) 1 : 6

12) A uniform rod AB of mass m and length L is free to rotate about A. The rod is released from rest

in horizontal position. The initial angular acceleration of the rod will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A wheel is at rest, its angular velocity increases uniformly and becomes 60 rad/sec after 5 secs.
The total angular displacement is

(1) 600 rad

(2) 75 rad
(3) 300 rad
(4) 150 rad
14) Find out MI of system of point masses about XX'

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) mℓ2

15) A string is wound round the rim of a mounted fly wheel disc of mass 20 kg and radius 20 cm. A
steady pull of 25 N is applied on the cord. Neglecting friction and mass of the string, the angular
acceleration of the wheel is :-

(1) 50 rad/s2
(2) 25 rad/s2
(3) 12.5 rad/s2
(4) 6.25 rad/s2

16) In an equilateral triangle ABC, F1, F2 and F3 are three forces acting along the sides AB, BC and
AC as shown in the given figure. What should be the magnitude of F3 so that the total torque about
centre of the triangle, O is zero?

(1) 2 N
(2) 4 N
(3) 6 N
(4) 8 N

17) The moment of inertia of a body about a given axis of rotation depends upon :-

(1) the distribution of mass

(2) distance of particle of body from the axis of rotation
(3) shape of the body
(4) all of the above
18) A rod is rotated about two axis as shown in figure. Ratio of moment of inertia will be :-

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 4/3

19) The angular velocity of a body is and a torque acts on it. The
rotational power will be : -

(1) 20 unit
(2) 15 unit
(3)
(4)

20) A coin is pressed such that its radius changes from R to 2R. Its moment of inertia

(1) decreases
(2) increases
(3) remains same
(4) increases or decreases depending on value of actual mass

21) The ratio of the moments of inertia of two spheres about their diameter and having same mass
and their radii in the ratio 1 : 2 is:

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 2 : 1

22) The moment of inertia of a solid sphere of density ρ and radius R about an axis passing through
its centre is proportional to :

(1) R2
(2) R3
(3) R4
(4) R5

23) For a body in circular motion angular velocity and radius vector is then
its linear velocity is:
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

24) Figure shows a thin metallic triangular sheet ABC. The mass of the sheet is M. The moment of

inertia of the sheet about side AC is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) A ring starts rotating with constant angular acceleration of 2π rad/s2 about a fixed axis
perpendicular to its plane and passing through its center. Find the total no. of turns completed by it
at end of 8 secs.

(1) 64
(2) 32
(3) 16
(4) 48

26)

The moment of inertia of a solid sphere about diameter axis passing through its centre is .
Then its radius of gyration about a parallel axis at a distance 2R from first axis is :-

(1) 5R

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A force of Newton acts at a point metre from the origin. Torque of this
force about origin is :-
(1) Nm
(2) Nm
(3) Nm
(4) Nm

28) Four identical rods each of mass m and length ℓ make a square frame in xy plane as shown.

Calculate its moment of inertia about the x-axis :-

(1)

(2)

(3) mℓ2
(4) None of these

29) The angular speed on a fly wheel moving with uniform angular acceleration changes from 1200
rpm to 3120 rpm in 16 seconds. The angular acceleration in rad/s2 is :

(1) 4π
(2) 12π
(3) 104π
(4) 2π

30) Two equal and opposite forces are applied tangentially to a uniform disc of mass M and radius R
as shown in the figure. If the disc is pivoted at its centre and free to rotate in its plane, the angular

acceleration of the disc is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

31) The moment of inertia of a uniform circular disc of radius 'R' and mass 'M' about an axis passing
from the edge of the disc and normal to the disc is –
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) MR2

32) A disc is rotating with an angular velocity ω0. A constant retarding torque is applied on it to stop
the disc. The angular velocity becomes (ω0/2) after n rotations. How many more rotations will it
make before coming to rest ?

(1) n
(2) 2n

(3)

(4)

33) A square sheet of side 'a' is of mass 'M'. Its moment of inertia about a diagonal is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) Four point masses (each of mass m) are arranged in the X-Y plane the moment of inertia of this

array of masses about Y-axis is

(1) 6 ma2
(2) 12 ma2
(3) 18 ma2
(4) 24 ma2

35) A particle of mass m and radius of gyration K is rotating with an angular acceleration α. The
torque acting on the particle is

(1)

(2) mK2α
(3) mK2/α

(4)

SECTION-2

1) A particle is moving along a straight line parallel to x-axis with constant velocity. Find angular
momentum about the

origin in vector form:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) A particle of mass 5 g is moving with a uniform speed of cm/s in the x–y plane along the line
y = x + 4. The magnitude of its angular momentum about the origin in g cm2/s is [x & y are in cm]:-

(1) zero
(2) 30
(3)
(4) 60

3) A circular disk of moment of inertia It is rotating in a horizontal plane, about its symmetry axis,
with a constant angular speed ωi. Another disk of moment of inertia Ib is dropped coaxially onto the
rotating disk. Initially the second disk has zero angular speed. Eventually both the disks rotate with
a constant angular speed ωf. The energy lost by the initially rotating disc to friction is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Assertion :- For system of particles under internal central force field, the total angular
momentum is conserved.
Reason :- The torque acting on such a system is zero.
(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) A light rod carries three equal masses A, B and C as shown in the figure.
What will be the velocity of B in the vertical position of the rod, if rod is released from horizontal

position as shown in the figure?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) A ring and a disc have the same mass and roll without slipping with the same linear velocity v. If
the total kinetic energy of the ring is 8 J, the kinetic energy of disc is :-

(1) 8 J
(2) 6 J
(3) 16 J
(4) 4 J

7) A constant power is supplied to a rotating disc. Angular velocity (ω) of disc varies with number of
rotations (n) made by the disc as :

(1) ω ∝ (n)1/3
(2) ω ∝ (n)3/2
(3) ω ∝ (n)2/3
(4) ω ∝ (n)2

8) A wire of mass m and length ℓ is bent in the form of a circular ring. The moment of inertia of the
ring about its axis is :-

(1) mℓ2

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) In case of pure rolling, what will be the magnitude of velocity of point A of the ring of radius R ?

(1) Vcm
(2)

(3)

(4) 2Vcm

10) The rotational kinetic energy of two bodies of moments of inertia and are
same. The ratio of their angular momentum is

(1) 3 : 1
(2) 1 : 3
(3) 9 : 1
(4) 1 : 9

11) A round uniform body of radius R mass M and moment of inertia I, rolls down (without slipping)
an inclined plane making an angle with the horizontal. Then its acceleration is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Assertion (A): If the ice on the polar caps of the earth melts, then length of the day will
increase.
Reason(R): Moment of inertia of the earth increases, as ice on polar caps melts.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true and R is the not correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

13) Figure shows a uniform solid block of mass M and edge lengths a, b and c. Its M.I. about an axis
through one edge and perpendicular (as shown) to the large face of the block is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) Seven identical disc are arranged in a hexagonal, planar pattern so as to touch each neighbour,
as show in the figure. Each disc has mass m and radius r. What is the moment of inertia of the
system of seven disks about an axis passing through the centre of central disk and normal to plane of

all disks?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Find the minimum value of F to topple about an edge.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-1

1) Oxidation state of oxygen in hydrogen peroxide is -

(1) –1
(2) +1
(3) 0
(4) –2

2) Which of the following can act as an oxidant and reductant :-

(1) H2O2
(2) KMnO4
(3) H2SO4
(4) H2S

3) In which of the following pairs, there is greatest difference in the oxidation number of the
underlined elements ?

(1) NO2 and N2O4

(2) P2O5 and P4O10
(3) N2O and NO
(4) SO2 and SO3

4) In a reaction, 4 mole of electrons are transferred to 1 mole of HNO3, the possible product
obtained due to reduction is :-

(1) 0.5 mole of N2

(2) 0.5 mole of N2O
(3) 1 mole of NO2
(4) 1 mole of NH3

5) Oxidation state of oxygen in CrO5 is :-

(1) –1 only
(2) –2 only
(3) Both –1 & –2

(4)

6) Choose the pair of species in which O.N. of nitrogen is same :-

–
(1) NO2 , N2O3
–
(2) NO3 , NO2
(3) NO, N2O5
(4) None

7) The oxidation state of carbon in CH3CHO is :

(1) –3, +1
(2) +3, +1
(3) +1, +1
(4) +3, +3

8) Which reaction does not represent disproportionation ?

– – –
(1) Cl2 + OH → Cl + ClO3 + H2O
H2O2 → H2O +
(2)

(3) 2Cu+ → Cu+2 + Cu

(4) (NH4)2Cr2O7 → N2 + Cr2O3 + H2O

9) The number of electrons required to balance the following equation

NO3– + 4H+ → H2O + NO – e– are :

(1) 5
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 2

10) Oxidation number of carbon in C3O2, Mg2C3 are respectively :-

(1) –4/3, +4/3

(2) +4/3, –4/3
(3) –2/3, +2/3
(4) –2/3, +4/3

11) The most common oxidation state of an element is –2. The number of electrons present in its
outermost shell is :-
(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 8

12) Oxidation number of Mn in K2MnO4 and MnSO4 are respectively :-

(1) +7, +2
(2) +6, +2
(3) +5, +2
(4) +2, +6

13) In the conversion, Br2 → BrO3–, the oxidation state of bromine changes from :

(1) –1 to +5
(2) 0 to +1
(3) 0 to +5
(4) 0 to –5

14) In Ni(CO)4, the oxidation state of Ni is :-

(1) 4
(2) 0
(3) 2
(4) 8

15) A reducing agent is a substance which can :-

(1) Accept electrons

(2) Donate electrons
(3) Accept protons
(4) Donate protons

16) A compound contain atoms of A, B and C. If oxidation number of A, B and C are +2, +5 and –2
respectively. The possible formula of the compound is :-

(1) ABC2
(2) A2B2C6
(3) A3B2C8
(4) A3B8C2

17) Which of the following is a redox reaction?

(1) H2 + Cl2 → 2HCl

(2) HCl + NaOH → NaCl + H2O
(3) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
(4) 2NaCl + H2SO4 → Na2SO4 + 2HCl

18) Among the following species which do not shows disproportionation reaction?

(1) ClO–
–
(2) ClO2
–
(3) ClO3
–
(4) ClO4

19) In the reaction, , which element is oxidised?

(1) K
(2) Cl
(3) Neither K nor Cl
(4) Both K and Cl

20) At a certain temperature, 2HI H2 + I2 only 50% HI is dissociated at equilibrium. The

equilibrium constant is :-

(1) 1.0
(2) 3.0
(3) 0.5
(4) 0.25

21) The equilibrium constant (KP) for the reaction PCl5(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2(g) is 16. If the volume of the
container is reduced to half of its original volume, the value of KP for the reaction at the same
temperature will be :-

(1) 32
(2) 64
(3) 16
(4) 4

22) For the reaction, H2(g) + I2(g) ⇌ 2HI(g). The equilibrium constant Kp changes with :-

(1) Total pressure

(2) Temperature
(3) The amount of H2 and I2 present
(4) Use of a catalyst

23) For the equilibrium, SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g) what is the temperature at which = 1?
(R = ideal gas constant)

(1) R
(2) R2

(3)

(4)

24) For the reaction N2 + 3H2 2NH3 + Heat :-

(1) KP = KC(RT)
–3
(2) KP = KC(RT)
–2
(3) KP = KC(RT)
2
(4) KP = KC(RT)

25)

The value of Kc for the reaction

2A B + C is 2.0 × 10–3
–4
At a given time, the composition of reaction mixture is [A] = [B] = [C] = 3 × 10 M. In which
direction the reaction will proceed ?

(1) Forward
(2) Backward
(3) No change in direction
(4) Can't be predicted

26) Vapour density of PCl5(g) would be, if it is 20% dissociated into PCl3(g) and Cl2(g)
(Atomic mass: P = 31 ; Cl = 35.5) :-

(1) 70.3
(2) 86.8
(3) 106.3
(4) 98.25

27) For a reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g), the value of KC does not depend upon :- (A) Initial
concentration of the reactants
(B) Pressure (C) Temperature
(D) Catalyst

(1) C & D
(2) A, B & C
(3) A, B & D
(4) A, B, C & D

28) For a reaction, the value of Kp increases with increase in temperature. The ΔH for the reaction
would be :

(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) Cannot be predicted

29) The following equilibrium are given :-

A B (K1)
X Y (K2)
Equilibrium constant for reaction will be :-

A+Y X+ B

(1)

(2)
2
(3) (K1) ·K2

(4)

30) N2 + O2 2NO – Heat

reaction shift in right hand direction on :-

(1) On decreasing pressure

(2) On increasing pressure
(3) On decreasing temperature
(4) On increasing temperature

31) The figure shows the change in concentration of species A and B as a function of time. The
equilibrium constant KC for the reaction

A(g) ⇌ 2B(g) is :-

(1) KC > 1
(2) KC < 1
(3) KC = 1
(4) Zero

32) The equilibrium, 2SO2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g), shifts forward if :-

(1) A catalyst is used.

(2) An adsorbent is used to remove SO3 as soon as it is formed.
(3) Small amounts of reactants are used.
(4) None
33) The equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction
P4(g) 2P2(g)
o
is 1.4 at 400 C. Suppose that 3 moles of P4(g) and 2 moles of P2(g) are mixed in 2 litre container at
400oC. What is the value of reaction quotient (Qc) ?

(1)

(2)

(3) 1
(4) 1.4

34) Which of the following is not a characteristics of equilibrium:

(1) Rate is equal in both direction

(2) Some measurable quantities are constant at equilibrium
(3) Equilibrium occurs in reversible condition
(4) Equilibrium occurs only in open vessel at constant temperature

35) For reaction

Initially 2 mole of A and B are taken in 10 lit flask at equilibrium 1 mole of C is formed then calculate
KC for given reaction :-

(1) 6.66
(2) 3.33
(3) 2.22
(4) 1.11

SECTION-2

1) In gaseous reversible reaction,

N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g) + Heat, if pressure is increased, then the equilibrium constant would be :

(1) unchanged
(2) increased
(3) decreased
(4) sometimes increased, sometimes decreased

2) At equilibrium on increasing pressure:-

(1) Boiling point of water increases

(2) Boiling point of water decreases
(3) Boiling point of water remains unchanged
(4) Nothing can be assumed

3) For the reaction, A + B C+D, if initially the concentration of A and B are both equal but at
equilibrium concentration of D will be twice of that of A then what will be the equilibrium constant
of reaction?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 4

4) Solubility of gas in liquid increase on :-

(1) Addition of a catalyst

(2) Increase the pressure
(3) Decrease the pressure
(4) Increase the temperature

5) Le-Chatelier principle is not applicable to :-

(1) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI(g)

(2) Fe(s) + S(s) FeS(s)
(3) N2(g) + 3H2(g) 2NH3(g)
(4) N2(g) + O2(g) 2NO(g)

6) If KC > 103 then

(1) Reaction proceeds nearly to completion

(2) Reaction proceeds rarely
(3) Appreciable amount of both reactant and product are present
(4) Equal amount of reactant and product are present at equilibrium

7) Kc = 16, for the reaction,

A(g) + B(g) C(g) + D(g), If one mole of each A and B are taken, then amount of C in equilibrium is
:

(1) 1 M
(2) 0.25 M
(3) 0.8 M
(4) 10 M

8) In which of the following equilibrium Kc and Kp are not equal ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

9) HNO3 functions as :-

(1) Acid
(2) Oxidant
(3) Reductant
(4) Both (1) and (2)

10) Which of the following only acts as oxidant ?

(1) KMnO4
(2) H2SO3
(3) HNO2
(4) H3PO3

11)

In the following reaction,

4P + 3KOH + 3H2O → 3KH2PO2 + PH3

(1) P is oxidized as well as reduced

(2) P is reduced only
(3) P is oxidised only
(4) P is oxidised & KOH is reduced

12) The eq. wt. of iodine in,

I2 + 2S2O32– → 2I– + S4O62– is :

(1) Its molar mass

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) What is the value of n in the following equation : + OH– → CrO42– + H2O + ne– ?

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 2

14) Which of the following is a disproportionation reaction :

(1) 2KClO3 → 2KCl + 3O2

(2) CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
(3) 2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2
+2 – + +3 +2
(4) Fe + MnO4 + 8H → Fe + Mn + 4H2O

15) Oxidation number of 'N' in N3H (hydrazoic acid) is :-

(1)

(2) – 3
(3) +3

(4)

BOTANY

SECTION-1

1) Roots originates from any part of plant other than radicle is known as :-

(1) Adventitious root

(2) Tap root
(3) Foliar root
(4) Fibrous root

2) In monocotyledonous plants, for example, wheat, the primary root is short lived and is replaced by
a large number of roots. These roots originate from the base of the stem and constitute the:

(1) Prop roots

(2) Pneumatophores
(3) Napiform
(4) Fibrous roots

3) Root hairs are present in

(1) Region of elongation

(2) Region of meristematic activity
(3) Root cap
(4) Region of maturation

4)

A few millimeters above the root cap is the:-

(1) Region of elongation

(2) Region of meristematic activity
(3) Region of maturation
(4) Root cap

5) Statement-I : In majority of the dicotyledomous plants, the direct elongation of radicle leads to
the formation of primary roots which grows inside the soil.
Statement-II : In some plants, Grass, Monstera and banyan tree has adventitious roots system.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-II is incorrect but statement-I is correct.
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.

6) The mode of arrangement of sepals or petals in floral bud with respect to the other members of
same whorl is known as:-

(1) Aestivation
(2) Placentation
(3) Cohesion
(4) Adhesion

7) Stem develops from the plumule of embryo ____.

(1) Of developing seed.

(2) Of developing food.
(3) Of germinating seed.
(4) Of germinating fruit.

8) The arrangement of veins & the veinlets in the lamina of leaf is termed as:

(1) Phyllotaxy
(2) Venation
(3) Aestivation
(4) None of these

9) When leaflets are attached at a common point, i.e., at the tip of petiole is known as-

(1) Pinnately compound

(2) Palmately compound
(3) Simple
(4) None of these

10) The reticulate venation is generally found in the leaves of :-

(1) Monocot plants

(2) Dicot plants
(3) Bryophytes
(4) Thallophytes

11) If more than two leaves arise at a node and form a whorl, then phyllotaxy is called :-

(1) Opposite
(2) Radical
(3) Whorled
(4) Alternate

12) In some leguminous plants , the leaf base may become swollen, which is called the:

(1) Sheathing leaf base

(2) Petiole
(3) Pulvinus
(4) Stipules

13) In mango, the edible part of the fruit is:-

(1) Mesocarp
(2) Epicarp
(3) Endocarp
(4) All of these

14) The leaf is attached to the stem by the leaf base and may bear two lateral small leaf like
structure called ______.

(1) Petiole
(2) Stipule
(3) Lamina
(4) Pulvinus

15) Identify the type of leaf in given diagram.

(1) Simple leaf

(2) Pinnately compound leaf
(3) Palmately compound leaf
(4) None of these

16) In racemose type of inflorescences the main axis continues to grow, the flowers are borne
laterally in an:-

(1) Basipetal order

(2) Mesopetal order
(3) Acropetal succession
(4) None of these

17) When a shoot tip transforms into a flower, it is:-

(1) Cymose inflorescence

(2) Racemose inflorescence
(3) Always solitary
(4) It may be racemose or cymose

18) Which kind of inflorescence is represented by the given figure

(1) Cymose
(2) Racemose
(3) Compound raceme
(4) Cyantheium

19) Epigynous type of flower is present in-

(1) Guava
(2) Cucumber
(3) Rayflorets of sunflower
(4) All of these

20) Which kind of symmetry is found in canna

(1) Radial
(2) Bilateral
(3) Asymmetric
(4) Both (1) and (2)

21) Out of following four which are not accessory organs of a flower
(a) Androecium (b) Calyx
(c) Corolla (d) Gynoecium
(1) a, c
(2) b, c
(3) b, d
(4) a, d

22) Perigynous flowers are found in:

(1) Cucumber
(2) China rose
(3) Rose
(4) Guava

23) In which type of flower gynoecium occupies the highest position, while the other parts are
situated below it.

(1) Epigynous flower

(2) Hypogynous flower
(3) Perigynous flower
(4) None of the above

24) When sepals or petals in a whorl just touch one another at the margin, without overlapping, then
it is said to be ?

(1) Twisted
(2) Imbricate
(3) Valvate
(4) Vexillary

25) In which of the following, the given floral diagram is represented?

(1) Potato
(2) Onion
(3) Pea
(4) Mustard

26) The position of the mother axis with respect to the flower is represented by a

(1) Star
(2) Bar
(3) Dot
(4) ⊕

27) Identify 'X', 'Y' and 'Z' in given diagram :

(1) X - Standard ; Y - Wings ; Z - Keel

(2) X - Wings ; Y - Keel ; Z - Standard
(3) X - Keel ; Y - Wings ; Z - Standard
(4) X - Keel ; Y - Standard ; Z - Wings

28) What is true for the placentation given below:-

(1) Parietal
(2) Basal
(3) Axile
(4) Marginal

29) Ovary is one-chambered, but it becomes two-chambered due to the formation of the false septum
(replum)?

(1) Mustard
(2) China rose
(3) Lily
(4) Sunflower

30)

Label the following

(1) A - plumule, B - radicle, C - cotyledon
(2) A - cotyledons, B - radicle, C - plumule
(3) A - Radicle, B - cotyledon, C - plumule
(4) A - cotyledons, B - plumule, C - radicle

31) The ____ is a scar on the seed coat through which the developing seeds were attached to the
fruit.

(1) Hilum
(2) Testa
(3) Tegmen
(4) Micropyle

32) Monocotyledonous seeds, consist of one large and shield shaped cotyledon known as:-

(1) Tegmen
(2) Endosperm
(3) Scutellum
(4) Aleurone

33) In maize seed, the outer covering of endosperm separates the embryo by a proteinous layer,
called–

(1) Coleoptile
(2) Aleurone layer
(3) Scutellum
(4) Coleorhiza

34) Choose correct example for above given figure.

(1) China rose, mustard

(2) Gauva, calotropis
(3) Alstonia
(4) Neem, Mango

35) Match column-I containing types of aestivation with their examples given in column-II and
choose the correct option.

Column-I Column-II
(Type of aestivation) (Examples)
 A. Valvate I. Cotton

B. Twisted II. Calotropis

C. Imbricate III. Bean

D. Vexillary IV. Gulmohar

(1) A - I; B - II; C - IV; D - III
(2) A - II; B - I; C - IV; D - III
(3) A - II; B - IV; C - I; D - III
(4) A - II; B - I; C - III; D - IV

SECTION-2

1)
(a) (b) Which type of venation is found in above diagrams (a) and (b) respectively.

(1) Parallel and reticulate

(2) Both have parallel venation
(3) Reticulate and parallel
(4) Both have parallel venation found in monocot only

2) Which type of leaf is present in neem plant-

(1) Simple leaf

(2) Pinnately compound leaf
(3) Palmately compound leaf
(4) None of these

3) After root cap, region of meristematic activity is present- in this region cells are-

(1) Very large, thin walled & with dense protoplasm

(2) Very small, thick walled & with light protoplasm
(3) Very small, thin walled & with light protoplasm
(4) Very small, thin walled & with dense protoplasm
4) What is the correct arrangement of structure starting from root tip?

(1) Root cap Region of meristematic activity Region of elongation Region of maturation
(2) Root cap Region of meristematic activity Region of maturation Region of elongation
(3) Region of maturation Region of meristematic activity Region of elongation Root cap
Region of meristematic activity Region of elongation Region of maturation Region of
(4)
cap

5) Function of stem is/are :-

(1) Conduction of water and minerals.

(2) Some stems perform the function of storage of food
(3) Spreading out branches.
(4) All of the above

6) In _______ types of inflorescence the main axis terminates in a flower, hence is limited in growth.
The flower are borne in a basipetal order.

(1) Racemose
(2) Cymose
(3) Head
(4) Spike

7) When the margins of sepals or petals overlap one another not in any particular direction, the
condition is termed as

(1) Vexillary
(2) Imbricate
(3) Twisted
(4) Valvate

8) The three diagrams (A, B, C) given below represent types of flower. Which one of these is

correctly identified in the option given ?

A-Hypogynous, B-Perigynous,
(1)
C-Epigynous
A-Hypogynous, B-Epigynous,
(2)
C-Perigynous
A-Perigynous, B-Epigynous,
(3)
C-Hypogynous
A-Epigynous, B-Perigynous,
(4)
C-Hypogynous
9) Match the Column I with Column II.

Column I Column II

A. Gamosepalous I. Flower of lily

B. Polysepalous II. Sterile stamen

C. Gamopetalous III. Free petals

D. Polypetalous IV. Free sepals

E. Epiphyllous V. Fused petals

F. Staminode VI. Fused sepals

A B C D E F

(1) IV V III I VI II

(2) IV V III I II VI

(3) VI IV V III I II

(4) VI IV V III II I
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) What is true for the (A) and (B) type of placentation given below :-

A = Free central, found in Marigold;

(1)
B = Basal, found in Dianthus
A = Basal, found in Marigold;
(2)
B = Free central found in Dianthus
A = Axile, found in Lemon;
(3)
B = Basal, found in Sunflower
A = Free central, found in Dianthus
(4)
B = Basal, found in Marigold

11) The given figure shows the parts of mango and coconut. Choose the option which shows the

correct labelling of A, B, C and D marked in the figures.

 A B C D

(1) Epicarp Mesocarp Seed Endocarp

(2) Epicarp Mesocarp Ovule Endocarp

(3) Epicarp Mesocarp Ovary Endocarp

(4) Epicarp Mesocarp Embryo Endocarp

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12) Statement-I: Maize is an albuminous seed.

Statement-II: Orchids are endospermic.

(1) Both Statement-1 and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-1 and Statement-Il are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct

13) % K(5) C1+1+(2) A(9)+1 G1

Select the correct option in respect of given floral formula :-

(1) Posterior petals are fused

(2) Found in flower of tulip plant
(3) Diadelphous condition
(4) Monoadelphous condition

14) Which among the following is a odd member of the family Malvaceae?

(1) Lady finger

(2) Cotton
(3) Hibiscus
(4) Radish

15) Perianth is reduced to lodicules in the family

(1) Lilliaceae
(2) Gramineae
(3) Compositae
(4) Malvaceae

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-1
1) Brain stem comprises all except-

(1) Mid Brain

(2) Pons
(3) Medulla oblongata
(4) Cerebellum

2) A. Which number structure is the cell body ?

B. Which structure receives nerve impulses and passes them towards the cell body ?
C. The structure that contains vesicles filled with neurotransmitter.

(1) A – 5, B – 4, C – 8
(2) A – 4, B – 1, C – 8
(3) A – 8, B – 6, C – 1
(4) A – 4, B – 8, C – 6

3) Main properties of neural system are -

(1) Excitability and Elasticity

(2) Conductivity and Elasticity
(3) Flexibility and Excitability
(4) Excitability and Conductivity

4) Myelin sheath is derived from :

(1) Astrocytes cells

(2) Schwann cells
(3) Nerve cells
(4) All of these

5) The axoplasm contains high concentration of ___A___ and negatively charged proteins and low
concentration of ___B___ :-
A B
⊕
(a) K ions HCO3– ions
(b) Na⊕ ions K⊕ ions
(c) K⊕ ions Na⊕ ions

(1) (a)
(2) (b)
(3) (c)
(4) All correct

6) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is enclosed by a Schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath
around the axon and is commonly found in:-

(1) Autonomus neural system

(2) Central neural system
(3) Somatic neural system
(4) Both 1 & 3

7) Which is correctly matched ?

Post-synaptic Action
(1) A
membrane potential

Post-synaptic Possess
(2) B
membrane receptors

Stores
(3) C Mitochondria
neuro-transmitter

Binds to receptor
Neuro-
(4) D on pre-synaptic
transmitter
membrane
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Thalamus in human brain

(A) is surrounded by cerebrum
(B) acts as a major coordinating centre for sensory and motor signalling
(C) is under the direct control of hypothalamus.
Which of the following option is most appropriate?

(1) A and B are correct

(2) B and C are correct
(3) Only C is correct
(4) A, B and C are correct

9) The inner part of cerebral hemisphere and group of associated deep structures like amygdala,
hippocampus etc. are form a complex structure that is ?

(1) Limbic system

(2) Cerebral medula
(3) Cerebral cortex
(4) Association area

10) Rapid movement of Na+ ions from extracellular fluid to inside the nerve cell leads to

(1) Polarisation
(2) Depolarisation
(3) Repolarisation
(4) All of these

11) Autonomic neural system :-

(1) Transmit impulses from CNS to skeletal muscles.

(2) Transmit impulses from CNS to voluntary organs.
(3) Transmit impulses from CNS to smooth muscles of body
(4) All of the above

12) Unipolar neurons found in :

(1) Retina
(2) Embryonic stage
(3) Cerebral cortex
(4) Spinal cord

13) Statement-I :- Midbrain is located between the thalamus/hypothalamus of the forebrain and
pons of the hindbrain.
Statement-II :- The dorsal portion of the midbrain consists mainly of four round swellings (lobes)
called corpora quadrigemina.

(1) Both the statements are correct.

(2) Statement-I is incorrect while statement-II is correct.
(3) Both the statements are incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is correct, while statement-II is incorrect.

14) The cerebral hemispheres are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called :

(1) Cerebral peduncle

(2) Corpus callosum
(3) Association area
(4) Cerebral cortex

15) The new potential developed in the post-synaptic neuron is :-

(1) Excitatory
(2) Inhibitory
(3) Either excitatory or inhibitory
(4) Neither excitatory nor inhibitory

16) Basal part of thalamus is.

(1) Epithalamus
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Thalamus
(4) Cerebrum

17) Cerebral aqueduct is a structural constituent of

(1) Forebrain
(2) Hindbrain
(3) Midbrain
(4) Medulla oblongata

18) Sequence of meninges from inner to outside is :-

(1) Duramater - Arachnoid - Piamater

(2) Duramater - Piamater - Arachnoid
(3) Arachnoid - Duramater - Piamater
(4) Piamater - Arachnoid - Duramater

19) Repolarisation of neuron is occured due to:-

(1) Influx of Na+

(2) Influx of K+
(3) Efflux of Na+
(4) Efflux of K+

20) The site of Axon which is observed as positive towards inside and negative towards outside is :-

(1) Repolarised
(2) Hyperpolarised
(3) Depolarised
(4) Polarised

21) The ionic gradients accross the resting membrane are maintained by active transport of ions by
:-

(1) Sodium voltage gated channels

(2) Potassium voltage gated channels
(3) Ion channels
(4) Sodium potassium pump

22) In our body ___________ system and endocrine system jointly co-ordinate and integrate all the
activities of the organs:-

(1) Circulatory system

(2) Skeletal system
(3) Nervous system
(4) Respiratory system

23) The neural system of all animals is composed by highly specialized cells called neurons. In
Hydra, these neurons are in the form of ______ . Choose the option which fills the blank correctly.

(1) Nuclei
(2) Ganglia
(3) Brain
(4) Network

24) Which of the following keeps our body temperature at roughly 37°C by means of a complex
thermostat system?

(1) Somatosensory area

(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Basal ganglia
(4) Cerebellum

25) Multipolar neurons are found in

(1) Retina of the eye

(2) Embryonic stage
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Cerebral cortex

26) Which of the following statement is incorrect about cortex of cerebrum ?

(1) It consists of grey matter.

(2) It consists of white matter.
(3) It shows prominent folds.
(4) It contains motor areas, sensory areas and association areas.

27) Chemical transmission of nerve impulses from one neuron to another at a synapse is by :-
(1) Cholesterol
(2) Acetylcholine
(3) Cholecystokinin
(4) ATP

28) Nerve fibres are surrounded by an insulating fatty layer called :-

(1) Adipose sheath

(2) Myelin sheath
(3) Hyaline sheath
(4) Peritoneum

29) Fibres tract of different region of brain interconnect at:-

(1) Medulla
(2) Hypothalamus
(3) Thalamus
(4) Pons

30) Nissl's granules are not found in

(1) Cell body

(2) Axon
(3) Dendrites
(4) Both 2 and 3

31) Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. electrical synapse

(1) Electrical current cannot flow directly from one neuron into the other across the synapses
Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always faster than that across a chemical
(2)
synapse
(3) Electrical synapses are rare in our system
In electrical synapses, the membranes of pre and post – synaptic neurons are in very close
(4)
proximity

32)

Medulla oblongata contain centres that control :

(1) Respiration
(2) Cardiovascular reflexes
(3) Gastric secretions
(4) all of these

33) Diagrammatic representation of impulse conduction through an axon is shown in the following
figure. Threshold stimulus is applied at point A to generate an action potential which reaches at
point B. What will be the direction of current on outer surface of nerve fibre to complete the circuit
of current flow?

(1) A to B
(2) B to A
(3) Inside to outside
(4) Same as inside

34)

Na+ − K+ pump transports :

(1) 2Na+ into the cell

(2) 3K+ out of the cell
(3) 3Na+ out of the cell
(4) 2K+ out of the cell

35) Junction between axon of a neuron and dendrite of next is called

(1) Synapse
(2) Neuromuscular junction
(3) Junction
(4) Bridge

SECTION-2

1) Autonomic nervous system consists of :

(1) Brain and spinal cord

(2) Cranial and spinal nerves
(3) Sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system
(4) Brain and cranial nerves

2) The structures that are the site of information processing and control are

(1) Only brain

(2) Brain and spinal cord
(3) Brain, spinal cord and nerves
(4) Only nerves

3) A bipolar neuron has

(1) 2 dendrites and 1 axon

(2) 2 axons and 1 dendrites
(3) 1 dendrites and 1 axon
(4) 2 axons and 2 dendrites

4) A typical value of Resting Membrane Potential (RMP)-

(1) –40 mv
(2) –50 mv
(3) –70 mv
(4) –90 mv

5) Which is not the function of the limbic system?

(1) Emotion
(2) Motivation
(3) Sexual behaviour
(4) Hearing

6) The axonal membrane is ____ to negatively charged proteins present in the axoplasm :-

(1) Selectively permeable

(2) Permeable
(3) Semipermeable
(4) Impermeable

7)

Visceral nervous system comprises :

(1) Never fibres

(2) Ganglia
(3) Plexuses
(4) All of the above

8) If hypothalamus is removed from brain then what will be affected ?

(1) Coughing
(2) Thinking
(3) Hunger
(4) Vomiting

9) During the transmission of nerve impulse through a nerve fibre, the potential on the inner side of
the plasma membrane has which type of electric charge?

(1) First positive, then negative and continue to be negative

(2) First negative, then positive & continue to be positive
(3) First positive, then negative & again back to positive
(4) First negative, then positive & again back to negative

10) Release of chemical messenger from synaptic vesicles is triggered by ?

(1) Mg2+, Sr2+

(2) Fe, S
(3) Cl
(4) Ca2+

11) Synaptic knob

I. is terminal bulb like structure of dendrites and axons.
II. contains neurotransmitter-filled vesicles
III. is a protoplasmic extension of cell body
Which of the following option is most appropriate?

(1) I and II are correct

(2) Only III is correct
(3) Only II is correct
(4) I and III are correct

12) Grey matter includes :

(1) Myelinated axon

(2) Concentrated cell body
(3) Unmyelinated axon
(4) Both (2) and (3)

13) Major part of human brain is formed by-

(1) Cerebrum
(2) Cerebellum
(3) Corpora quadrigimina
(4) Medulla oblongata

14) The nerves leading to the central nervous system are called :-

(1) Afferent
(2) Efferent
(3) Motor
(4) None
15) When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, ie., resting, the axonal membrane is
comparatively more permeable to :

(1) K+ ions
(2) Na+ ions
(3) Ca2+ ions
(4) Equally permeable to both Na+ and K+ ions
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-1

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 2 3 2 1 2 4 2 4 3 2 4 1 3 3 4 1 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 4 1 2 2 2 3 1 1 3 3 4 3 4 2

SECTION-2

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 4 1 1 1 2 1 2 2 1 1 1 1 4 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-1

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 1 4 2 3 1 1 4 3 2 3 2 3 2 2 3 1 4 1 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 2 3 3 2 2 3 1 1 4 1 2 2 4 1

SECTION-2

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 1 4 2 2 1 3 1 4 1 1 2 1 3 1

BOTANY

SECTION-1

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 1 4 4 2 1 1 3 2 2 2 3 3 1 2 2 3 3 1 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 4 3 2 3 4 3 1 3 1 4 1 3 2 3 2

SECTION-2

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 4 1 4 2 2 1 3 4 1 3 3 4 2

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-1

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 2 4 2 3 4 2 1 1 2 3 2 1 2 3 2 3 4 4 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 4 3 4 2 4 2 2 2 4 2 1 4 2 3 1

SECTION-2

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 2 3 3 4 4 4 3 4 4 3 4 1 1 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

4)

6)

7)
A → False, only magnitude is equal.
C → False, all having same.
D → Only magnitude of is equal.

10)

We know that when the net external torque acting on a system is zero, the total angular momentum
of the system remains constant. Therefore the angular momentum of a moving body remains
constant if net external torque is not applied.

11)

Angular velocity is -

ωminute = 1 round/hr and ωhour = round/hr

12)
 14)

Masses at A & at B are on the axis XX'. So MI is due to mass at C only.

15)

Here, M = 20 kg

R = 20 cm =
Moment of inertia of
flywheel about its axis is

=
= 0.4 kg m2
As τ = Iα
where a is the angular acceleration

16) Let d be perpendicular distance of O from every side of the equilateral triangle. The
torques F1d and F2d respectively are in anticlockwise. The torque F3d is clockwise.

The total torque about O

F1d + F2d – F3d = 0
 or F3 = F1 + F2 = 4 + 2 = 6 N.

19)

21)

∴ I ∝ mR2

∴ =1×

22)

I ∝ R5

24) Moment of inertia of ABC about AC

× moment of inertia of square sheet ABCD about AC

25)

θ= αt2

= (2π) (8)2
θ = 64π radian
= 32 turns

27)
 29)

ω = ω0 + αt

α=

= 4π rad/s2

30)

α Hence option (3)

31)

From the centre distance of three sides are equal

∴ F1X + F2X –F3X = 0
F3 = F1 + F2

32) ω2= ω0 + 2αθ

2

angular velocity become ω0/2 after n rotations

= ω + 2α (2π n)
02

Now let N number of rotation before stop

 N=

35)

as, torque = Iα
⇒ τ = mK2α {where K = radius of gyration}

37)

l0 = mv cos45° × 4

=5× × × 4 = 60 g cm2/s

38)

By conservation of angular momentum

Itωi = (It + Ib)ωf ⇒ ωf =

loss in kinetic energy

39)

When a body rotates about an axis under the action of an external torque t, then the rate of change
of angular momentum of the body is equal to the torque, that is

If external torque is zero (t = 0), then

⇒ dJ = 0

40)

Applying law of conservation of mechanical energy

Loss in gravitational P.E. = Gain in rotational K.E. i.e.,

mg + mg
 41) For ring, KE1 =

⇒ …(i)

For disc, KE2 =

= [using relation (i)]

42)

P=τ.ω

P=I α.ω=

ω2dω = dθ
ω ∝ θ1/3
ω ∝ (n)1/3

43)
2πr = ℓ

I = mr2

44)

Velocity at point 'A'

=
as vcm = Rω (For pure rolling)
vA = vcm
 45) constant

49) I = I0 + 6I’
I0 is the momentum of inertia of central disc and I’ is moment of inertia of rest of the each disc
about specified axis.

By parallel axes theorem

50) Fmin × b = Mg ×

⇒ Fmin =

CHEMISTRY

53)

57)

78)

log
 83)

BOTANY

105)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 57,58

107)

NCERT XI Pg. # 59

113)

NCERT_2021_22_PG_70

126)

NCERT_11_2021-22_78

129)

NCERT page no. 65

132)

NCERT Pg. # 77

134) NCERT Pg. # 71

135)

NCERT Page no. 74

136)

NCERT -XI, Pg. # 60

140)

NCERT Pg. # 59

143) NCERT Pg. No.62

146) NCERT XI, Pg. # 76

ZOOLOGY
 155)

NCERT (XI) E Pg. # 318

156)

NCERT Pg. No. 232 Para 1

159)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 321

160) NCERT Pg. # 317

161)

NCERT Page # 231

163)

NCERT XI Pg. # 321[E] 322[H]

164)

NCERT-XI, Pg # 321, 21.4.1

167)

NCERT Reference: Zoology-XI, Page No.-327

169) NCERT Pg. No. 233

170) NCERT Pg. No 317, 318

173)

NCERT Reference: Zoology-XI, Page No.- 316

181)

NCERT Reference: Biology-XI, Page No.- 319

182) NCERT Pg. No 321

183)

NCERT page- 318

184) NCERT Pg. No 317

186)
NCERT Pg.#119

189) NCERT Pg. no.

194)

NCERT Page No-317,318

200)

NCERT Pg. # 317