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Atomic Structure and GOC

The document contains a series of chemistry questions and answers related to atomic structure, electronic configurations, and quantum numbers. It includes problems on isoelectronic pairs, energy calculations for photons, and various properties of atomic orbitals. The content is structured as a quiz format, likely for educational purposes in chemistry.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
45 views14 pages

Atomic Structure and GOC

The document contains a series of chemistry questions and answers related to atomic structure, electronic configurations, and quantum numbers. It includes problems on isoelectronic pairs, energy calculations for photons, and various properties of atomic orbitals. The content is structured as a quiz format, likely for educational purposes in chemistry.

Uploaded by

dr_seema
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

SRI CHAITANYA EDUCATIONAL INSTITUTIONS,INDIA.

A.P,TELANGANA,KARNATAKA,TAMILNADU,MAHARASHTRA,DELHI,RANCHI,CHANDIGARH
CHEMISTRY

ATOMIC STRUCTURE 5. When light of wavelength 470 nm falls on


1. From the following pairs of ions, which one the metal surface, photo electrons emitted

is an isoelectonic pair having d10 electronic with a velocity 6.4 104 m / s . What is the
configuration in each ? minimum energy needed to remove an

1) Cu + , Zn 2+ 2) Fe3+ , Mn 2+ electron from the metal?


21
3+ 1) 421.14 10 J / mole
3) A , Mg2+ 4) All of these
21
2. The number of protons, neutrons and 2) 421.14 10 J / atom
80 3) 253.6 KJ / mole
electrons in 35 Br , respectively are
1) 35, 45 and 35 2) 80, 35 and 35 4) 213.6 KJ / atom

3) 35, 35 and 45 4) 80, 45 and 35 6. The vividh bharati station of All India Radio,
3. Which of the following ions is isoelectronic Delhi broadcasts on a frequency of
1250 kHz. The wave length of the
with O2–
electromagnetic radiation emitted by the
1) S2 2) Mg2
transmitter is (speed of light is 3 × 108 ms–1)
3 
3) Sc 4) K
1) 240cm 2) 240m
4. A monochromatic infrared range finder of
3) 241cm 4) 241m
power 6.625 watt emits photons with wave
7. Which of the following series of transitions
length 300 nm in 10 seconds. The number of
in the spectrum of Hydrogen atom falls in the
photons emitted in 10 seconds is (Given
ultraviolet region ?
34
C=3×108ms–1, h = 6.625 10 Js , 1) Balmer 2) Paschen
Avogadro number = 6.022 1023 , 1 watt = 3) Lyman 4) Brackett

1 J.s–1) 8. Calculate the energy, in joules,corresponding


to light of wavelength 662.5 nm
1) 1020 2) 2  1020
(h = 6.625 ×1034 Js ,C = 3 10 ms
8 1
)
3) 2  10 18
4) 10 18

3 × 10–12
19
1) 2) 3 10
3) 3 1019 4) 3 1012

Sri Chaitanya Page 1


9. Suppose the value of Planck’s constant is 3) The negative sign for all possible orbits

6.63 10 34
Js . The speed of light is indicating that the energy of the electron in
the atom is lower than the energy of a free
3 1017 nm sec 1 . Which value is closest to
electron at rest.
the wavelength, in nano metre of a quantum
4) The energy of second orbit in He+ is
of light of frequency of 5 1016 s 1
?
1) 6 2) 5 same as that of third orbit in Li+2

3) 60 4) 50 13. In H-atom the de-Broglie wavelength of

10. According to law of photo chemical electron in the fourth Bohr orbit is [Given

equivalence, the energy absorbed in that Bohr radius a0 53 pm ]


joules/mole is given as 1) 424pm 2) 424 pm

(h = 6.625 ×1034 Js , C = 3 108 ms 1


, 3) 212 pm 4) 212pm

Avogadro number = 6.022  1023 ) 14. Incorrect set of quantum numbers from the
following is
1.197 10 3
1.197 106
1) 2) 1) n = 4, l = 2, m = –1, s = – 1/2
2) n = 3, l = 2, m = –3, s = + 1/2
1.197 106 1.9875 10 3
3) 4) 3) n = 2, l = 0, m = 0, s = +1/2
4) n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = +1/2
11. If the radius of hydrogen atom in the ground
15. Statement-1:The wave function  may have
state is 53 pm, the radius of the second orbit
positive or negative value depending upon
in He+ is
the values of coordinates.
1) 53pm 2) 106pm
Statement-2:The pobability of finding the
3) 26.5pm 4) 212pm
electron at a point within atom is
12. Based on the equation
proportional to square of orbital wave
2.178 1018  Z 2
E J atom , certain function (  2) .
n2
1)Statement-1is true but Statement-2 is false.
conclusions are written.Which of them is
2)Statement-1is false but Statement-2 is true.
incorrect?
3)Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
1) Equation can be used to calculate the
true.
energy of stationary orbits of one electron
4)Both Statement-1 and Statement-2 are
species only.
false.
2) As n value increases the energy of
16. The element expected to form smallest ion
electron decrease i.e becomes more negative.
to achieve nearest Noble gas configuration is

Sri Chaitanya Page 2


1) K 2) Sc D) n=2,l=1and m=-1 or +1 4) 2s
3) P 4) S The correct match is
17. The relation between nm [ nm = the number A B C D

of permissible values of magnetic quantum 1) 4 3 2 1

number (m)] for a given value of principal 2) 3 4 1 2

quantum number (n), is 3) 2 1 4 3


4) 3 4 2 1
1) nm n2 2) nm 2n2
21. The number of nodes possible in radial
2
n n probability distribution curve of 3d orbital is
3) nm 4) nm
2 2
1) 1 2) 2
18. Which of the following is correct for
3) 3 4) 0
d-subshell (or) orbital
22. The electrons identified by quantum numbers
1) d-orbital contains maximum of two
n and l are
electrons with opposite spins
I) n = 4, l = 2 II) n = 5, l = 1
2) d-subshell is five fold degenerate in
III) n = 5 ,l = 2 IV) n = 4, l = 3
magneticfield
can be placed in order of increasing energy
3) d orbital is double-dumb bell in
z2 as
shape. 1) IV < II < III < I 2) I< II< IV < III
4) Each d-orbital contain one nodal plane. 3) I < III < II < IV 4) III < I < IV < II
19. Which one of the following electrons in the 23. The ratio of the number of radial nodes to the
ground state will have highest amount of total number of nodes for 3s orbital is
energy ? 1) 1:2 2) 2:3
1) An electron in Hydrogen atom. 3) 1:1 4) 3:1
2) The outer most electron in Lithium 24. Which of the following statements is
atom incorrect?
3) The outer most electron in Sodium 1) In order to specify an orbital, four
atom quantum numbers are required
4) The outer most electron in potassium 2) Total orbital angular momentum of
atom electron in p-orbital is equal to 2 h
20. LIST - 1 LIST – 2
3) The excited state electronic
A) n=2,l=1and m=0 1) 2 px (or) 2 p y
configuration of Carbon atom is 1s2
B) n=2,l=0 and m=0 2) 3d
Z2 2s12px12py12p21
C) n=3, l=2 and m=0 3) 2 pZ
Sri Chaitanya Page 3
4) According to Hund's rule ,electrons 2) Azimuthal quantum number only
never pair, if there are empty orbitals in a 3) Spin quantum number only
given sub-shell. 4) Any one of these
25. Which one is the wrong statement ? 30. Which is the correct order of increasing
1) The uncertainty principle is energy of the listed orbitals in the atom
h Copper (Z = 29) ?
x.V 
4m 1) 4s 3s 3p 3d 2) 3s 3p 3d 4s
2) The de-Broglie wavelength of a 3) 3s 3p 4s 3d 4) 3s 4s 3p 3d
microscopic particle of mass ‘m’ having 31. The number of d - electrons in
kinetic energy, KE is given by Co3  Z  27  is equal to the number of
h
 electrons in which of the following ?
2  KE  m
1) d - electons in Mn +2 (Z = 25)
3) Fe +3 ion is more stable than Fe +2 ion 2) p - electrons in phosphorous atom
due to stable half filled 3d-sublevel. (Z = 15)
4) In case of Hydroden like atoms, the
3) s – electrons in Mg+2 (Z = 12)
energy of 3s,3p and 3d orbitals is in the order
3s<3p<3d 4) p – electrons in Al3 (Z = 13)

26. The number of sub levles in the quantum 32. The angular momentum of electron in

level n =3 is  h 
2p – orbital is equal to  h  
1) 1 2) 2  2 
3) 3 4) 4 1) 2 3h 2) 0
27. How many electrons can fit in the orbital for
3) 6h 4) 2h
which n=4 and l =2 ?
33. What is the maximum number or orbitals that
1) 2 2) 10
can be identified with the following quantum
3) 6 4) 5
numbers n = 3, m  0 ?
28. Which d-orbital has its four lobes along the
axes 1) 1 2) 2
3) 3 4) 4
1) d xy 2) d
x2  y 2
34. The maximum number of electrons that can
3) d 4) d xz be associated with quantum numbers n = 4,
z2

29. Two electrons in an atom are distinguished  2 , m = - 1 is


by 1) 4 2) 10
1) Principal quantum number only 3) 2 4) 6

Sri Chaitanya Page 4


35. The outer electronic configuration of Pd
(Atomic number – 46) is

1) 5s 2 4d8 2) 5s1 4d 9
3) 5s o 4d10 4) 5s 2 3d10

KEY
1) 1 2) 1 3) 2 4) 1 5) 2 6) 2 7) 3 8) 2 9) 1 10) 1

11) 1 12) 2 13) 2 14) 2 15) 3 16) 2 17) 1 18) 1 19) 4 20) 4

21) 4 22) 2 23) 3 24) 1 25) 4 26) 3 27) 1 28) 2 29) 4 30) 3

31) 4 32) 4 33) 3 34) 3 35) 3 36) 37) 38) 39) 40)

ATOMIC STRUCTURE 04. When a certain metal was irradiated with


01. Which of the following pair of species is not light of frequency 3.2 1015 Hz,
isoelectronic with “Ar”? photoelectrons emitted had twice the kinetic
+2 -3 + -2
1) Ca , P 2) K , S energy as did photoelectrons emitted when
+2 - -2 -
3) Se , Cl 4) S , Cl the same metal was irradiated with light of
02. The number of protons, neutrons and frequency 2.0 1016 Hz. Hence threshold
electrons present in Lu+3 ion are frequency is
respectively ( A = 175, z = 71 )
1) 0.8 1015 Hz 2) 0.8 1014 Hz
1) 71, 104, 71 2) 71, 104, 68
3) 8.0 1016 Hz 4) 8.0 1015 Hz
3) 71, 175, 71 4) 68, 104, 68
05. A line with wave number 1.028 102 nm1 is
03. The number of photons emitted by a 100 W
emitted in the spectrum of atomic
(Js-) yellow lamp in 1.0 s is (  of yellow
hydrogen. In what region of the
light is 560 nm )
electromagnetic spectrum does the line
1) 2.8 1020 2) 2.8 1018
occurs?
3) 1.11020 4) 2.2 1020
1) Far UV 2) Near UV
3) Visible 4) Near IR
06. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations
are 5eV and 10eV respectively. The relation
between their wavelengths 1 and 2 will

be

Sri Chaitanya Page 5


Sec :
Chemistry

1 1) P 2) S
1) 1  2 2) 1  2
2 3) Cl 4) K
3) 1  22 4) 1  42 11. The relation between nl ( nl =the no. of
07. The value of planck’s constant is permissible values of azimuthal quantum
6.63 1034 JS . The speed of hight is number (l)) for a given value of principal

3 107 nms1 . Which value is closest to the quantum number n is

wavelength (in nm) of a quantum of light 1) n l  n  1 2) n l  n

with frequency of 6 1015 s1 ? 3) n l  n  1 4) n l  0


1) 10 2) 25 12. Identify the incorrect statement of the
3) 50 4) 75 following
08. The ionization potential of hydrogen atom 1) All the three 4p orbitals are different in size
is 13.6 eV. The energy required to remove when compare to the respective 3p orbitals
an electron from n = 2 state of hydrogen 2) All the three 5p orbitals have shapes similar
atom is to the respective 4p orbitals
1) 27.2 eV 2) 13.6 eV 3) In an atom all the three 3p orbitals are equal
3) 6.8 eV 4) 3.4 eV energy in free state
09. Given below are two statements 4) The shapes of px, py and pz orbitals are
Statement I : The value of wave function, similar to each other and d x2  y2 and d z2 are
 depends upon the coordinates of the
similar to each other
electron in the atom
13. Which one of the following electrons in the
Statement II: The probability of finding an
ground state will have highest amount of
electron at a point within an atom is
energy
proportional to the square of the orbital
1) An electron in 2p orbital of carbon atom
wave function
2) The outermost electron in sodium atom
In the light of the above statements, choose
3) An electron in hydrogen atom
the correct answer from the options given
4) The electron of copper atom present in 4s
below
orbital
1) Both statements I and II are true
14. Match List I with List II
2) Statement I is false but statement II is true
List I List II
3) Statement I is true but statement II is false
a) n = 3, l = 1 i) 4s
4) Both statements I and II are false
b) n = 3, l = 2 ii) 3s
10. The element expected to form smallest ion
c) n = 3, l = 0 iii) 3d
to achieve the nearest noble gas
d) n = 4, l = 0 iv) 3p
configuration is
Sri Chaitanya
Page 6
Sec :
Chemistry

Choose the correct answer from the options 1) The uncertainity principle is
given below h
 E    t  
a b c d 4

1) i ii iii iv 2) Half – filled and fully filled orbitals have

2) iii iv ii i greater stability due to greater exchange

3) iv ii iii i energy, greater symmetry and more balanced


arrangement.
4) iv iii ii i
3) In hydrogen atom energy of 3s < 3p < 3d
15. Orbital having two radial nodes and two
4) The de Broglie’s wavelength is given by
total nodes is
h
1) 3p 2) 6s  , where m = mass of the particle and v
mv
3) 5f 4) 3s
= group velocity of the particle
16. 6s, 4f, 6d, 5d orbitals are arranged in the
20. The total number of orbitals and maximum
order of decreasing energy. The correct
number of electrons possible in n = 3 are
option is
respectively
1) 6d < 4f < 6s < 5d 2) 6d < 5d < 4f < 6s
1) 3, 18 2) 9, 3
3) 4f < 5d < 6s < 6d 4) 5d < 6s < 4f < 6d
3) 9, 18 4) 3, 9
17. Number of angular and radial nodes for 4f
21. How many electrons can fit in the orbital
– orbital are respectively
for which n = 4, l = 2?
1) 4, 1 2) 5, 0
1) 2 2) 6
3) 3, 0 4) 3, 2
3) 10 4) 14
18. Which one is wrong statement
22. Which of the following pairs of d – orbitals
1) Total orbital angular momentum of electron
will have electron density at 450 to axis.
in s – orbital is equal to zero
1) d z 2 , d zx 2) dz2 ,d x2  y2
2) An orbital is designated by three quantum
number by an electron in an atom is 3) d xy , d yz 4) d xy ,d x2 y2
designated by four quantum numbers 23. Two electrons occupying  320 orbital are
3) the electronic configuration of nitrogen
distinguish by
atom is
1) azimuthal quantum number
2 1 1 1
1s 2s
2
2p x 2p y 2p z
2) spin quantum number
3) principal quantum number
4) The value of m for d z2 is zero 4) magnetic quantum number
19. Which one is wrong statement

Sri Chaitanya
Page 7
Sec :
Chemistry

24. Which is correct order of increasing energy 27. What is the maximum number of orbitals
of the listed orbitals in the atom of cerium that can be identified with the following
(atomic no. z = 58) quantum numbers? n=2, l = 1, m = -1
1) 6s, 6p, 5d, 4f 2) 4f, 5d, 6p, 6s 1) 1 2) 2
3) 6s, 4f, 5d, 6p 4) 5d, 6s, 4f, 6p 3) 3 4) 4
25. The number of 4p electrons in Fe+2 (z=26) is 28. What is the maximum number of electrons
equal to the number of electrons in which of that can be associated with the following
the following set of quantum numbers? n = 4, l = 2
1) d – electrons in Fe (z=26) and m = -1
2) p – electrons in Ne (z=10) 1) 4 2) 2
3) s – electrons in An (z=13) 3) 10 4) 6
2+
4) p – electrons in Be (z=4) 29. The outer electronic configuration of
26. The orbital angular momentum of electron Th (at no. = 90) is
in s and p orbitals are respectively 1) 5f0 7s2 7p2 2) 5f0 6d2 7s2
 h  3) 5f0 6d4 4) 5f2 6d0 7s2
  
 2 

1) 0, 0 2) 2 , 6

3) 0, 2 4) 0, 6

KEY

1) 3 2) 2 3) 1 4) 4 5) 2 6) 3 7) 3 8) 4 9) 1 10) 4
11) 2 12) 4 13) 4 14) 4 15) 4 16) 2 17) 3 18) 3 19) 3 20) 3
21) 1 22) 3 23) 2 24) 3 25) 4 26) 3 27) 1 28) 2 29) 2
2. The number of  and  bonds in between
GENERAL ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
carbon atoms in 3 – ethyl – 4 methyl penta –
1. What is the hybridization shown by C1 and
1, 3 – diene
C2 carbons respectively in the given
(1) 7 and 2 bonds
compound ?
(2) 6 and 2 bonds
O O
(3) 7 and 4 bonds
Cl  C  CH  CH  CH 2  C  OH
(4) 6 and 3 bonds
2 3 3 3
(1) sp and sp (2) sp and sp 3. The type of hybridization of carbon atoms
(3) sp2 and sp2 (4) sp3 and sp2 numbered 1 and 3 in CH 2  CH  C  CH

Sri Chaitanya
Page 8
Sec :
Chemistry

(1) sp, sp3 (2) sp2 , sp

(3) sp2 , sp2 (4) sp, sp

4. The total number of  bond electrons in the (2)

following structure is

NH 2 As OH
(3)
As NH 2
HO
(1) 12 (2) 16
(3) 14 (4) 8
(4)
5. The correct IUPAC name of the following
8. The IUPAC name of the compound
compound is
O
OH
OH is
Cl (1) 3 hydroxy butanoic acid
(1) Isoprene (2) 4 – methyl – 2 – oxo – 1, 4 butane diol
(2) Chloroprene (3) 1, 4 dihydroxy – 2 – butanone
(3) 2 methyl – 1, 3 butadiene (4) 1, 4 dihydroxy – 2 – pentanone
(4) 2 chloro – 1, 3 butadiene 9. The structure of secondary butyl group in an
6. The correct IUPAC name of the following organic compound is
compound (1) CH3  CH 2  CH 2  CH 2 
O CH 3
H CH 3  C 
CH 3
(1) 3 methyl pent – 4 ene – al (2)
(2) 3 ethyl pent – 4 ene – al CH 3
(3) 3 methyl hex – 4 ene – al CH  CH 2 
(4) 2 methyl pent – 4 ene oic acid CH 3
(3)
7. The correct structure of 2, 5 dimethyl
CH3  CH  CH 2  CH3
non – 3 – ene is (4)
10. Structure of the compound whose IUPAC
name is 3 – ethyl 4 methyl hept – 5 – en – 2
one
(1)

Sri Chaitanya
Page 9
Sec :
Chemistry

O O
O

(1) I. II.
O O

(2)
III.
O Which of the given compounds can exhibit
tautomerism ?
(1) I only (2) II only
(3)
(3) Both I and II (4) Both I and III
O 14. The enolic form of acetone as shown below
has
H 2C CH 3
(4) C
11. The compound which does not show
OH
metamerism is
(1) 9 and 2 bonds
(1) C 4 H10O (2) C4 H8
(2) 9 and 9 bonds
(3) C5 H10O (4) C5H10O 2
(3) 9 and 1 bond
12. Which among the given molecules can
exhibit tautomerism ? (4) 8 and 1 bond

O 15. Which among the following compounds


O
species is least basic
I. II.
NH  CH3
O
(1)

O
III. IV. N
(1) I only (2) Both I and II
(2) H
(3) Both I and IV (4) Both III and IV
13. Given

N
(3)

Sri Chaitanya
Page 10
Sec :
Chemistry

Reason (R) : In formic acid resonating


CH 3  NH 2
(4) structures do not have equal contribution
16. Statement – I : In an organic compound, towards hybrid
when inductive and electromeric effects (1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the
operate in opposite directions, the correct explanation of (A)
electromeric effect predominates (2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not
Statement – II : Hyperconjugation is the correct explanation of (A)
observed in ethyl benzene (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are (4) Both (A) and (R) are false
true 19. Which of the following is the least stable
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is carbocation ?
false
 
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is
(1) (2)
true

(4) Both statement I and Statement II are 
false (3) (4)
17. Match List I with List II 20. A secondary butyl carbocation is more stable
List – I List – II than a tertiary butyl carbocation because of
a) Separation of i) Fractional which of the following ?
impurities from camphor distillation (1) Hyperconjugation
b) Separation of glycerol ii) Sublimation (2) – I effect of  CH3 group
from spent – lye
(3) + R effect of  CH3 group
c) Separation of water iii) Distillation
(4) – R effect of  CH3 group
from ethyl alcohol under reduced
pressure 21. How many (i) sp 2 hybridized carbon atoms
Choose the correct answer from the options and (ii)  bonds are present in the following
given below compound ?
a b c a b c O
(1) i ii iii (2) ii i iii
C  OC2 H 5
(3) iii ii i (4) ii iii i
18. Assertion (A) : In formic acid both C – O
(1) 8, 4 (2) 7, 4
bond lengths are unequal
(3) 10, 3 (4) 7, 3
22. The most stable carbocation among the
following is
Sri Chaitanya
Page 11
Sec :
Chemistry

CH 3 (1) R 3N (2) Cl 

CH3  C (3) FeCl3 (4) SO3

CH 3 27. Treatment of cyclohexanone with methyl


(1)
magnesium bromide gives which of the
CH 3  CH 2  CH  CH 3 following species
(2)
(1) Cyclo hexanoyl radical
CH3  CH 2  CH 2 (2) Cyclo hexanoyl biradical
(3)
(3) Cyclo hexanoyl anion
CH 3  CH  CH 2 (4) Cyclo hexanoyl cation
CH 3 28. Correct electron displacement for a
(4)
nucleophillic reaction to take place
23. Which of the following is correct with
(1)
respect to + ME of the substituents
H H
(1)  OH   SeH   SH
(2)  OH   SH   SeH CH 3 C C C F

(3)  SH   SeH   OH H H

(4)  SeH   SH   OH (2)


H H
24. Least stable carbocation is
 CH 3 C C C F
CH 2
 H H
CH 2
(3)
H H
CH 3
(1) (2)
CH 3 C C C F
 
CH 2 CH 2 H H
(4)

H H
NO2 Cl
(3) (4) CH 3 C C C F
25. Which of the following is electrophile H H
(1) :CCl2 (2) NH3 29. Hyperconjugation occurs in
(3) H 2O (4) R  NH 2
26. Which of the following is a nucleophile

Sri Chaitanya
Page 12
Sec :
Chemistry


Ph E. C H3

CH 3 Ph  C  Ph (1) E < D < C < A < B


(1) (2)
(2) D < E < C < A < B
CH 3 (3) A < E < D < C < B
CH 3  C (4) E < D < C < B < A

CH 3 CH 2  CH 33. The hybridization state of carbocation in allyl


(3) (4)
carbocation is
30. In which of the following compounds, the
(1) sp 2 (2) sp3d
C – Cl bond ionization shall give most stable
carbonium ion (3) sp3 (4) sp

Cl 34. Homolytic fission of which of the following

Cl alkane gives more stable radical


(1) CH 3  CH 3
(1) (2)
(2) CH3CH 2CH3
Cl Cl
(3)  CH3 2 CH  CH2  CH3
(4) CH 4
(3) (4)
35. In thin layer chromatography mobile phase is
31. Which of the following is non aromatic
(1) Gas
(2) Liquid
(3) Solid
(1) (2)
(4) Gas – Solid phase
36. Ninhydrin solution is used to separate amino
(3) S (4) acids in
32. Arrange the following in the increasing order (1) Chromatography
of stability (2) Sublimation
 (3) Distillation under reduced pressure
A.  CH3 2 CCH2CH3 (4) Steam distillation

B.  CH3 3 C 37. Retardation factor for four components A, B,
C and D in TLC is 0.8, 0.6, 0.7 and 0.4

C.  CH3 2 CH respectively. Most adsorbed is


(1) A (2) B
D. CH 3  C H 2 (3) C (4) D

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Sec :
Chemistry

38. Ortho nitrophenol and para nitrophenol can 41. In Carius method of estimation of halogen
be separated by 0.15g of organic compound gave 0.12gr of
(1) Steam distillation AgBr. The percentage of bromine in the
(2) Crystallisation compound is
(3) Sublimation (1) 34.04 (2) 3.4
(4) Fractional distillation (3) 54.04 (4) 5.4
39. Sulphur can be detected by Lassaigne’s test. 42. 0.25gr of an organic compound gave 30cm3
The purple (violet) colour formed
of moist dinitrogen at 288K and 745mm
corresponds to the following formula
pressure. The percentage of nitrogen is
4
(1)  Fe  CN 5 NO  (Aqueous tension at 288K = 12.7mm)

4 (1) 30.6 (2) 23.6


(2)  Fe  CN 6 NOS
(3) 13.6 (4) 20.6
4
(3)  Fe  CN 5 NOS 43. 0.5gr of an organic compound containing
nitrogen on kjeldahlising required 29ml of
4
(4)  Fe  CN 4 NOS N 5 H 2SO4 for complete neutralization of
40. In Kjeldahl’s method ammonia is converted ammonia. The percentage of nitrogen in the
to compound is
(1) NH 4OH (2)  NH4 2 SO4 (1) 34.3 (2) 16.24
(3) 21.6 (4) 14.8
(3) NH 4Cl (4)  NH4 3 PO4
KEY

1) 1 2) 1 3) 2 4) 3 5) 4 6) 1 7) 1 8) 3 9) 4 10) 3
11) 2 12) 3 13) 3 14) 3 15) 2 16) 1 17) 4 18) 1 19) 2 20) 1
21) 2 22) 1 23) 2 24) 3 25) 1 26) 1 27) 3 28) 1 29) 3 30) 1
31) 4 32) 1 33) 1 34) 3 35) 2 36) 1 37) 4 38) 1 39) 3 40) 2
41) 1 42) 3 43) 2

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