17-03-2025

7501CMD303031240021 MD

PHYSICS

1) The wavelength λe of an e– and λp of a photon of same kinetic energy E are related by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) In an experiment with a beam balance on unknown mass m is balanced as shown in fig. The value

of the unknown mass m is :-

(1) 12 Kg
(2) 6 Kg
(3) 8 Kg
(4) 24 Kg

3) The figure shows a double slit experiment where P and Q are the slits. The path length PX and QX
are nλ and (n+2)λ respectively, where n is a whole number and λ is the wavelength. Taking the

central fringe as zero, what is formed at X :-

(1) First bright

(2) First dark
(3) Second bright
(4) Second dark

4) For the given I–V characteristic of p-n junction diode in forward bias as shown. What is the
forward dynamic resistance of diode at 3V.

(1) 375Ω
(2) 250Ω
(3) 125Ω
(4) 167Ω

5) Which of the following process reprsents a gamma-decay?

(1) XZ + γ → XZ–1 + a + b
A A

A 1 A–3
(2) XZ + n0 → XZ–2 + c
A A
(3) XZ → XZ + f
(4) XZ + e–1 → XZ–1 + γ
A Α

6) Graph is ploted for stopping voltage and frequency (v). Its slope depends
upon :-

(1) Type of light

(2) Type of metal
(3) Both of them
(4) None of them

7) Behind a thin converging lens having both the surface of the same radius 10cm, a plane mirror
has been placed. The image of an object at a distance 40 cm from the lens is formed at same

position. What is the refractive index of lens ?

(1) 1.5
(2) 5/3
(3) 9/8
(4) None

8) Assertion : A particle can behave both as a particle and wave but in a given situation, it behaves
either as a particle or as a wave.
Reason : A photon and a electron have same wavelength, then the velocity of photon is less than
that of the electron.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A).
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are false.

9) In a semiconductor,

(1) there are no free electrons at any temperature.

(2) the number of free electrons is more than that in a conductor.
(3) there are no free electrons at 0 K.
(4) none of these

10) A micrometer screw gauge with a –0.03 mm zero error is used to get the final reading as shown

in the figure below. What is the actual reading?

(1) 2.4 mm
(2) 2.91 mm
(3) 2.35 mm
(4) 2.85 mm

11) In Young's double slit experiment the fringe width is b. If entire arrangement is placed in a liquid
of refractive index n, the fringe width becomes :-

(1)

(2) n β

(3)

(4)

12) If K.E of an e– is decreased by 36% then cal. percentage change in its De-broglie wavelength:-

(1) 64%
(2) 4%
(3) 25%
(4) 75%
13) The radius of the smallest orbit of electron in hydrogen-like ion is metre; then
it is :-

(1) hydrogen atom

(2) H+
(3) Li2+
(4) Be3+

14) The threshold frequency for a certain photosensitive metal is υ0. When it is illuminated by light of
frequency υ = 2υ0, the maximum velocity of photoelectrons is v0. What will be the maximum velocity
of the photoelectrons when the same metal is illuminated by light of frequency 5υ0?

(1)
(2) 2v0
(3)
(4) 4v0

15) Light wavelength l falls on a metal having work function . Photoelectric effect will take place
only if

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

16) Alpha particles are fired at a nucleus. Which of the paths shown in figure is not possible ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Two convex lenses of focal lengths 0.3 m and 0.05 m are used to make a telescope. The distance
kept between them in order to obtain an image at infinity is equal to :-

(1) 0.35 m
(2) 0.25 m
(3) 0.175 m
(4) 0.15 m

18) The refracting angle of a prism is A, and refractive index of the material of the prism is
cosec(A/2). The angle of minimum deviation is :-

(1) 180° – 2A
(2) 180° – A
(3) 180° + 2A
(4) 180° – 3A

19) White light is incident on the interface of glass and air as shown in the figure. If green light is

just totally internally reflected then the emerging ray in air contains

(1) Yellow, orange, red

(2) Violet, indigo, blue
(3) All colours
(4) All colours except green

20) If the sodium light in Young's double slit experiment is replaced by red light, the fringe
width will :

(1) Decrease
(2) Increase
(3) Remain unaffected
(4) First increase, then decrease

21) In the given circuit, the current through the zener diode is :-

(1) 2mA
(2) 4mA
(3) 6mA
(4) 1mA

22)

Mass equivalent to energy 931 MeV is

(1) 6.02 × 10–27 kg

(2) 1.66 × 10–27 kg
(3) 16.66 × 10–26 kg
(4) 6.02 × 10–26 kg

23) To measure the height of water level a student sees the pointer tip through the travelling
microscope he must have seen this image : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) An air bubble is contained inside water. It behave as a -

(1) concave lens

(2) convex lens
(3) neither convex nor concave
(4) cannot say

25) Young's double slit experiment is carried out by using green, red and blue light, one colour at a
time. The fringe width recorded are βG, βR and βB, respectively. Then

(1) βG > βB > βR

(2) βB > βG > βR
(3) βR > βB > βG
(4) βR > βG > βB

26) A proton, a deutron , an electron and a uranium nucleus all have the same wavelength. The one
with the maximum kinetic energy will be.

(1) Proton
(2) Deutron
(3) Electron
(4) Uranium nucleus

27)

The forbidden energy gap of a germanium semiconductor is 0.75 eV. The minimum thermal energy
of electrons reaching the conduction band from the valence band should be -

(1) 0.5 eV
(2) 0.75 eV
(3) 0.25 eV
(4) 1.5eV

28) The average binding energy per nucleon is maximum for the nucleus :-

4
(1) 2He
16
(2) 8O
(3) 26Fe56
238
(4) 92U

29) Consider the following reaction

If;
the energy Q released (in MeV) is this fusion reaction is :-

(1) 12
(2) 6
(3) 24
(4) 48

30)

When germanium is doped with phosphorus, the doped material has:

(1) More negative current carries

(2) Excess negative charge
(3) Excess positive charge
(4) More positive current carriers

31) In Young's experiment monochromatic light is used to illuminate the two slits A and B.
Interference fringes are observed on a screen placed in front of the slits. Now, if a thin glass plate is
placed normally in the path of the beam coming from the slit A, then :-

(1) The fringes will disappear

(2) The fringe width will increase
(3) The fringe width will decrease
(4) There will be no change in fringe width but fringe pattern shifts

32) Critical angle of light passing from glass to air is minimum for :-

(1) red
(2) green
(3) yellow
(4) violet

33) The fringe width in Young's double slit experiment increases when :

(1) Wavelength increases

(2) Distance between the slits increases
(3) Distance between the source and screen decreases
(4) Frequency of incident light

34) Assuming that 200 MeV of energy is released per fission of 92U235 atom. Find the number of
fission per second required to release 1 kW power :-

(1) 3.125 x 1013

(2) 3.125 x 1014
(3) 3.125 x 1015
(4) 3.125 x 1016

35) For a logic gate A & B are input and C is output voltage waveform then logic gate is:-

(1) OR
(2) AND
(3) NOR
(4) NAND
36)

The electrical conductivity of pure silicon can be increased by

(1) doping with acceptor impurities

(2) doping with donor impurities
(3) increasing its temperature
(4) all the above

37) Which is the smallest measurement that is possible by vernier caliper?

(1) Least count

(2) Actual reading
(3) Main scale division
(4) Vernier scale division

38) In the figure shown a convex mirror of radius of curvature 20 cm is shown. An object O is placed
in front of this mirror. Its ray diagram is shown. How many mistakes are there in the ray diagram
(AB is its principal axis) :

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

39) Let np and ne be the number of holes and conduction electrons in an extrinsie semiconductor
then :-

(1) np > ne
(2) np = ne
(3) np < ne
(4) np ≠ ne

40) In an interference experiment (n + 9)th bright fringe of blue colour and nth bright fringe of red
colour are formed at the same place. If blue and red light have the wavelength 5200 Å and 7800 Å
respectively, then n will be :-

(1) 18
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 2
41) The order of nuclear density is

(1) 1013 kg/m3

(2) 1015 kg/m3
(3) 1017 kg/m3
(4) 1019 kg/m3

42) In the following diagram if V2 > V1 then

(1)
(2) λ1 < λ2
(3) λ1 = λ2
(4) λ1 > λ2

43)

If refractive index of water is then refractive index of unknown medium is :-

(1) 1.4
(2) 1.73
(3) 1.09
(4) 1.63

44) In certain Vernier callipers, 25 divisions on the vernier scale have the same length as 24
divisions on the main scale. One division on the main scale is 1 mm long. The least count of the
instrument is : -

(1) 0.04 mm
(2) 0.01 mm
(3) 0.02 mm
(4) 0.08 mm
45) A 100 watt light source is emitting radiations of wavelength 5000Å. The rate of emission of
photons is of the order of :-

(1) 1040
(2) 1020
(3) 1010
(4) 105

CHEMISTRY

1) Product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Assertion : Aromatic primary amines can be prepared by Gabriel phthalimide synthesis.

Reason : Aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution with the anion formed by
phthalimide.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is a correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.

3) Given below are two statements :

Statement I: In Lucas test, primary, secondary and tertiary alcohols are distinguished on the basis
of their reactivity with cone. HCl + ZnCl2.
Statement II: Primary alcohols are most reactive and immediately produce turbidity at room
temperature on reaction with Lucas Reagent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct
4) Which of the following alcohols gives a red colour in Victor Meyer test

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–OH

(2)

(3) (CH3)3C–OH

(4)

5) Match the following :

(1) a-q, b-r, c-p, d-s

(2) a-r, b-q, c-p, d-s
(3) a-q, b-p, c-r, d-s
(4) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p

6) Which of the following is dehydrated at the fastest rate?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) D(+) glucose reacts with hydroxylamine and yields an oxime. The structure of the oxime would be
:-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8)
The end product of this reaction y is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Assertion: Amines are basic in nature.

Reason: There is the presence of the lone pair of electron on nitrogen.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

11) Which of the following gives soluble complex in base after reacting with Hinsberg's reagent:

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

12) Decreasing order of reactivity of nucleophilic substitution reaction is :

(I)

(II)

(III)

(IV)

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) IV > III > II > I
(3) II > III > I > IV
(4) I > III > IV > II
13) The reagent suitable for given conversion is :-

(1) Zn-Hg/HCl
(2) HI/Red P
(3) NH2-NH2/OH /Δ
–

(4) Both (1) and (2)

14) Which of the following compounds does not gives Fehling’s test?

(1) HCHO
(2) CH3CHO
(3) H – COOH

(4)

15)
A and B respectively are :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16)
What is B in the reaction :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

17) 1°, 2° and 3° amines are differentiated by :-

(1) Hinsberg's test

(2) Lucas test
(3) Lieberman nitroso test
(4) Iodoform test

18)

What is the major product of the following reaction

Ph – CH = CH2 Product

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19)
The product (C) will be :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Which of the following test can be used to distinguish between and

(1)
(2)
(3) I2 + aq. NaOH
(4) Hinsberg reagent

21) Which of following is maximum reactive for decarboxylation :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

22)
This reaction is known as :-

(1) Sandmeyer reaction

(2) Gatterman reaction
(3) Gatterman koch reaction
(4) Stephen reaction

23) C2H5Cl + AgF C2H5F + AgCl

The above reaction is called

(1) Hunsdiecker reaction

(2) Swart's reaction
(3) Finkelstein reaction
(4) Wurtz reaction

24)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) C6H5–CH=CH–CH=O

25)

Which of the following compound doesn’t give isocyanide test –

(1) Aniline
(2) di methyl amine
(3) Benzyl Amine
(4) S-butyl Amine
26) Product

(1)
+ CH2 = CH2

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) major product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) Compare the rate of electrophilic substitution reaction :

(1) a > b > c > d

(2) a > c > d > b
(3) a > c > b > d
(4) a > d > b > c

29) Consider the following reaction :

the product Z is :-

(1) Benzene
(2) Toluene
(3) Benzaldehyde
(4) Benzoic acid

30) In the given reaction, meta-nitro product is formed in significant amount reason is :-

(1) –NH2 group is highly meta-directive

(2) Low temperature
(3) Formation of anilinium ion
(4) –NO2 substitution always takes place at meta position

31) In the given reaction

C6H5—O—CH2—CH3 [x] + [Y]
[X] and [Y] will respectively be :

(1) C6H5I and CH3CH2I

(2) C6H5OH and CH3–CH2–I
(3) C6H5I and CH3CH2OH
(4) C6H5OH and CH2=CH2

32) Product is :-

(1) CH3–CH=CH–COOH
(2) CH3–CH=CH–CHO

(3)

(4)
33) The product formed in the following chemical reaction is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) product is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) No reaction

35) The most reactive toward SN1 reaction is :-

(1) Ph–CH2–Cl
(2) Ph–Cl
(3) P–NO2C6H4CH2Cl
(4) PhCHCl(CH3)
36) + CO2
The above reaction is

(1) Kolbe's electrolysis

(2) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(3) Etard Reaction
(4) Kolbe Reaction

37)

Which of the following will produce silver mirror with Tollen's reagent (ammonical AgNO3)

(1)

(2) HCOOH
(3) Glucose
(4) All of these

38) What is the product of the following reaction :- ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) Identify the major products P, Q and R in the following sequence of reaction :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

40) Iodoform test not show by :-

(1)

(2) CH3 – CHO

(3) CH3–CH2–CHO
(4) CH3–CH2–OH

41) Which one of the following vitamins is water–soluble :-

(1) Vitamin A
(2) Vitamin B
(3) Vitamin E
(4) Vitamin K

42) When chlorine reacts with carboxylic acid in the presence of red P then α-chloro carboxylic acid
will be formed, this reaction is known as :

(1) Hunsdicker reaction

(2) Hell-Volhard - zelinsky reaction
(3) Friedel - crafts reaction
(4) Rosenmund reduction

43)
Product A & B are :-

(1)
& C2H5OH
(2)
& CH3CHO

(3)
& CH3CHO

(4)
& CH3 –CH2–NH2

44) major product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) Which of the following aldehyde does not undergo an aldol condensation when mixed with base
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY
1) When population reaches carrying capacity :-

(1) Mortality = Birth rate

(2) Mortality > Birth rate
(3) Mortality < Birth rate
(4) Both (1) and (3)

2) Which of the following is not a favourable factor for increasing the rate of decomposition ?

(1) Oxygen richness of soil.

(2) Detritus rich in lignin
(3) Warm environment
(4) High soil moisture

3) Which of the following is correct match :-

Transmitted
(1) Ascariasis
by culex

Transmitted
(2) Filariasis
by Aedes

Transferred
(3) Amoebiasis
by housefly

Transmitted
(4) Dengue
by anopheles
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Cancer is caused due to activation of A to B and/or inactivation of C .

Identify the A , B & C :-

A–oncogene,
(1)
B–Proto-oncogen, C–Tumor suppressor gene
A–Proto-oncogene,
(2) B–Oncogene,
C–Tumor suppressor gene
A–Tumor suppressor gene,
(3) B–oncogene,
C–Proton-oncogene
A–Halplotype,
(4)
B–Onc-gene, C–Opt.-gene

5) In species area relationship, on a logarithmic scale. The relationship is –

(1) Rectangular hyperbola

(2) Rectangular parabola
(3) Straight line
(4) Sigmoid

6) How many statements are correct for AIDS :-

(A) Core of HIV has 2 identical molecule of dsDNA
(B) GP120 has complementry sequence for CD-8 receptors
(C) AIDS caused by HIV virus
(D) Macrophage become HIV factory after HIV infection

(1) One
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) Four

7) Fatality of cancer increases with increase in grade of ?

(1) Metastasis
(2) Contact inhibition
(3) Local tissue invasion
(4) Both (1) and (3)

8) Match the trophic levels with their correct examples in pond ecosystem.

(a) Fourth trophic level (i) Phytoplankton

(b) Second trophic level (ii) Small fishes

(c) First trophic level (iii) Zooplankton

(d) Third trophic level (iv) Large fishes

Select the correct option.
(1) (a)→(iii), (b)→(iv), (c)→(i), (d)→(ii)
(2) (a)→(iv), (b)→(iii), (c)→(ii), (d)→(i)
(3) (a)→(iv), (b)→(iii), (c)→(i), (d)→(ii)
(4) (a)→(iv), (b)→(i), (c)→(ii), (d)→(iii)

9) The B-Lymphocyte produce an army of protein in response to pathogen into our blood to fight
them. These proteins are represented as H2L2. In this presentation H represents :-

(1) Histidine amino acid

(2) Hydrogen bonds
(3) Heavy polypeptide chain
(4) High density lipoprotein

10)

A population has certain attributes that an individual organism does not, like :-
(a) birth (b) birth rate
(c) death rate (d) sex ratio
(1) a and d only
(2) a and b only
(3) b, c and d
(4) c and d only

11) If a new habitat is just being colonized, the most significant process which determine the
population size is

(1) Emigration
(2) Immigration
(3) Natality
(4) Reproductive fitness

12) How many of the example given below are the example of in-situ conservation?
Tissue culture, pollen bank, national park, Biosphere reserve, Botanical garden

(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) One
(4) Five

13) Cancer detection is based on :-

(a) Biopsy
(b) Histopathological studies of tissue
(c) Blood test
(d) Bone marrow test

(1) a, b
(2) a, c and d
(3) a, b and c
(4) a, b, c and d

14) Select an odd set of organs :

(1) Thorns of Bougainvillea and tendrils of Cucurbita

(2) Wings of butterfly and bat
(3) Heart of frogs and human heart
(4) Brain of different vertebrates

15) Which of the following features are correct for Homo erectus ?
A. Had a large brain capacity around 1650cc.
B. Probable ate meat
C. Appeared about 1.5 mya.
D. Evolved from Homo sapiens
(1) A, B and C
(2) B, C and D
(3) Only B and C
(4) A, B, C and D

16) Which of the following statement is correct ?

(a) Health is affected by genetic disorders, life style and infections.
(b) Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are very important to maintain good health.
(c) Health is "absence of disease" or physical fitness" only.

(1) a, c
(2) b, c
(3) a, b, c
(4) a,b

17) Identify the skeletal structure represented in the diagram and select the drug that represent it

and the main function performed by it.

(1) LSD – Synthetic drug – Hallucinogen

(2) Cannabinoid – Bhang – Affects cardio vascular system
(3) Opioid – Morphine – Pain killer
(4) Cocaine – Caffeine – Stimulant

18) Consider about he following plants ancestors :

(a) Tracheophyte ancestors
(b) Psilophyton
(c) Chlorophyte ancestors
(d) Rhynia type plants
Which of the following is correct sequence of the evolution of these plants ancestors?

(1) c, d, a & b
(2) c, a, b & d
(3) c, a, d & b
(4) a, c, d & b

19) The immediate adverse effects of drugs and alcohol abuse are manifested in the form of

(1) Reckless behaviour

(2) Vandalism
(3) Violence
(4) All of the above

20) Analogous organs arise due to :

(1) divergent evolution
(2) artificial selection
(3) genetic drift
(4) convergent evolution

21) How many of the following examples are of mutualism ?

Fig tree and wasp, mycorrhiza, clown fish and sea anemone, cattle egret and grazing cattle, lichens,
cuckoo and crow, orchid and bumblebee.

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Six
(4) Three

22) Random genetic drift in a population probably results from -

(1) Highly genetically variable individuals.

(2) Interbreeding within the population.
(3) Constant low mutation rate.
(4) Large population size.

23) Select the incorrect pair :-

(1) Industrial melanism – Natural selection

(2) Original variety of Darwin finches – Seed eating
(3) Australian marsupial – Convergent evolution
(4) Darwins variation – Small and directional

24) An assemblage of population of plant, animal, bacteria and fungi that live in an area and interact
with each other to form :-

(1) Ecosystem
(2) Biotic community
(3) Ecology
(4) Environment

25) Select the correct order of geological time scale of earth.

(1) Palaeozoic → Archaeozoic → Coenozoic

(2) Archaeozoic → Palaeozoic → Coenozoic
(3) Palaeozoic → Mesozoic → Coenozoic
(4) Mesozoic → Archaeozoic → Palaeozoic

26) Drugs which interfere with the transport of the neurotransmitter dopamine, belongs to the
category of :-
(1) Cannabinoids
(2) Opiates
(3) Sedatives and painkillers
(4) CNS stimulants

27) Which of the following are correct matching pairs ?

Competition
(a) (i) Pisaster
exclusion

Resource
(b) (ii) Ectoparasite
partition

(c) Predation (iii) Barnacle

(d) Copepods (iv) Warblers

(1) a–iv, b–iii, c–ii, d–i
(2) a–iii, b–iv, c–i, d–ii
(3) a–ii, b–i, c–iii, d–iv
(4) a–i, b–ii, c–iv, d–iii

28) Which part of the HIV structure is complementary to CD4 proteins ?

(1) GP120
(2) GP41
(3) P17
(4) P24

29)

Which of the following statements are correct ?

(A) Speciation is generally a function of time
(B) Biodiversity hotspots are regions of slow habitat loss
(C) Constant environments promote niche specialisation.

(D) The share of India in global species diversity is an impressive 1.8 percent
Options :-
(1) A, C and D
(2) B, C and D
(3) A and C
(4) B and D

30) Which of the following is odd w.r.t. component of innate immunity ?

(1) Interferons
(2) Phagocyte
(3) NK-cells
(4) Antibodies
31) Which of the following is responsible for resemblance of two different species of different
genealogy when they came to a common habitat?

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Migration

32) Cancerous tumours can be detected by the following techniques, except :

(1) Radiography
(2) Computed tomography
(3) Amniocentesis
(4) Magnetic resonance imaging

33) Some species belonging to two or more trophic levels can be represented in :-

(1) Food chain

(2) Food web
(3) Pyramids
(4) Both 1 and 3

34) Prehistoric cave art develop about :

(1) 10,000 ya
(2) 18000 ya
(3) 15000 ya
(4) 34000 ya

35) For the given population growth curve which statement is correct :-

(1) Curve 'a' does not show saturation because rate of population growth is very low.

(2)
Curve 'b' population growth rate is represented by = rN.
(3) 'K' is carrying capacity and its value is equal for all organisms.
(4) Curve 'b' represents logistic growth rate in a population.

36) In a hypothetical population of 100 individual having r = 0.4/female/yr. What will be the
population size in 5 years (with e = 2.72) showing exponential rate of growth ?
(1) 1218
(2) 739
(3) 2012
(4) 448

37) When you have gone to a new place and suddenly you started sneezing, wheezing for no
explained reason, and when you went away, your symptoms disappeared. The above mentioned
reaction could be because of :-

(1) Viral infection

(2) Bacterial infection
(3) Allergy to pollen and mites
(4) Auto-immunity

38) Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identification of :-

(1) Angiosperms
(2) Gymnosperms
(3) Microbes
(4) Eukaryotes

39) Who gave a definite proof of 'Life arising from pre-existing life'

(1) Darwin
(2) Oparin
(3) Pasteur
(4) Haldane

40) Chemical evolution refers to-

(1) Formation of diverse inorganic molecules from organic constituents.

(2) Formation of diverse organic molecules from radioactive constituents.
(3) Formation of diverse organic molecules from inorganic constituents.
(4) Formation of diverse non-reducing molecules from inorganic constituents.

41) Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of hotspot ?

(1) Simple food web

(2) High endemic species
(3) High species richness
(4) Accelerated habitat loss

42) Arrange the following in their decreasing order of species.

Fishes, Birds, Reptiles, Amphibian

(1) Fishes > Birds > Reptiles > Amphibian

(2) Fishes > Reptiles > Birds > Amphibian
(3) Reptiles > Fishes > Birds > Amphibian
(4) Amphibian > Fishes > Birds > Reptiles

43) Read the characteristics given below.

a. Not taller than four feet
b. Existed 3-4 mya
c. Essentially ate fruit
d. Hunted with stone weapons
Select the correct option among the following to whom these characteristics belong.

(1) Homo erectus

(2) Dryopithecus
(3) Homo sapiens
(4) Australopithecines

44) Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of :

(1) Adaptive radiation

(2) Transduction
(3) Pre-existing variation in the population
(4) Divergent evolution

45) The fossils are mostly preserved in :

(1) Sedimentary rocks

(2) Igneous rocks
(3) Metamorphic rocks
(4) None of these

46) The exotic species, which when introduced in India became notorious weed(s), is/are :-

(1) Lantana
(2) Eicchornia
(3) Parthenium
(4) All of these

47) Plasmodium enters the human body as :-

(1) Gametocyte
(2) Sporozoite
(3) Trophozoite
(4) Haemozoin

48) Choose the correct match :

(1) Liana & Orchids in tropical rain forest –Parasitism

(2) Sucker fish & shark – Proto Co-operation
(3) Crocodile & plover bird – Commensalism
(4) Cattle Egret birds & cattle – Commensalism

49) If decomposers are removed what will happen to the ecosystem ?

(1) Energy cycle is stopped

(2) Mineral cycle is stopped
(3) Consumers cannot absorb solar energy
(4) Productivity increased

50) When the population density reaches the carrying capacity that stage is called as :-

(1) Exponential phase

(2) Acceleration phase
(3) Deceleration phase
(4) Asymptote phase

51) Match the following :-

Interaction Sign

(A) Mutualism (i) +, 0

(B) Competition (ii) –, 0

(C) Commensalism (iii) +, +

(D) Amensalism (iv) –, –

(1) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i
(2) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(3) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-i, B-ii, C-iv, D-iii

52) Which of the following statements regarding the estimates of number of species found on earth
is not correct ?

Total number of species present on earth are considered to be about 7 million as estimated by
(1)
Robert May.
Plants constitute more than 70% of all the species recorded, whereas animals constitute less
(2)
than 22% of the total number of species.
(3) Insects constitute more than 70% of all the animal species.
(4) None of these

53) Among the following option maximum species diversity is found in :-

(1) Fungi
(2) Angiosperm
(3) Fishes
(4) Birds

54) World-summit on sustainable development held in 2002 in _____ :-

(1) Johannesburg
(2) Kyoto
(3) Rio de janeiro
(4) Copenhagen

55) Which type of selection is industrial melanism as observed in moth ?

(1) Stabilizing
(2) Directional
(3) Disruptive
(4) Artificial

56) Species extinct in the wild are maintained in which of the following conservation site ?

(1) Zoo
(2) Biosphere reserves
(3) Hotspot
(4) National Park

57) Statement-I : The first organisms that invaded the land were plants.
Statement-II : First life forms were originated in water environment only.

(1) Only Statement I is correct.

(2) Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I and Statement II both are correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

58) Match the following :

Interaction Example

(A) Predation (i) Ticks on dogs

(B) Commensalism (ii) Balanus and Chathamalus

(C) Parasitism (iii) Cactus and moth

(D) Competition (iv) Orchid on Mango

(1) A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
(2) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv
(3) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i
(4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
59) Which of the following is not an example of homologous organs-

(1) Flippers of penguin and dolphin

(2) Vertebrates' Hearts
(3) Fore limbs of mammals
(4) Thorns of bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbits

60)

Global species diversity present in india

(1) 2.4%
(2) 12%
(3) 8.1%
(4) 7%

61) Match the following :-

Gross primary Total Assimilation by green

(i) (A)
productivity plants

Energy assimilated by
(ii) Secondary productivity (B)
Heterotrophs

(iii) Transducers (C) Green plants

(iv) Food web (D) Interlocking pattern

(1) i – A, ii – B, iii – C, iv – D
(2) i – B, ii – C, iii – D, iv – A
(3) i – C, ii – D, iii – A, iv – B
(4) i – A, ii – C, iii – B, iv – D

62) Match the column-I with II :-

Column -I Column -II

(A) Dodo (i) Africa

Bali, Javan
(B) Quagga (ii)
Caspian

(C) Thylacine (iii) Mauritius

(D) Steller's sea cow (iv) Australia

(E) Tiger sub-species (v) Russia

A B C D E

(1) iv ii i v iii

(2) iii iv ii i v
 (3) iii i iv v ii

(4) iii v iv i ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

63) Who disproved the "good humor hypothesis" of health using thermometer to demonstrate normal
body temperature in person with blackbile ?

(1) Hippocrates
(2) Indian Ayurveda system of medicine
(3) William Harvey
(4) Both (1) and (2)

64) If in a pond there are 40 lotus plants last year and through reproduction 10 new plants are
added, taking the current population to 50. The birth rate is as :-

(1) 0.25 offspring per lotus per year

(2) 0.25 offspring per lotus per day
(3) 0.25 offspring per total population per year
(4) 0.5 offspring per total population per year

65) Statement I : T rex was the biggest dinosaur.

Statement II : T rex had huge fearsome dagger like teeth.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I incorrect and Statement-II is correct
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct

66) The above pyramid shows :-

(1) Expanding population

(2) Stable population
(3) Declining population
(4) None of above

67) Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to

(1) Increase in plant productivity

(2) Increased resistance to environmental perturbations like drought
(3) Decreased variability of ecosystem processes like productivity
(4) Decline in plant production

68) Read the following statements and find out correct option :
(A) Some species of insects and frogs are cryptically coloured to avoid being detected easily by the
predator
(B) Lichens represent on intimate mutualistic relationship between a fungus and photosynthesising
algae.
(C) Amensalism is +, – type of interspecific interaction

(1) Only A, C is correct

(2) Only B, C is correct
(3) Only C is incorrect
(4) All are correct

69) Gametocytes of Plasmodium are formed in :-

(1) Human liver

(2) Mosquito gut
(3) Human RBC
(4) Human salivary gland

70) If S is species richness, A is area, Z is slope of the line, and the C is Y intercept, then the species
richness will be shown as

(1) S = C – Az
(2) S = C + AZ
(3) S = C / AZ
(4) S = C AZ

71) The figure shows an ecological pyramid. What must be correct for this pyramid ?

(1) It is a pyramid of biomass in tree ecosystem.

(2) It is pyramid of number in grassland.
(3) It is a pyramid of biomass in grassland.
It is a pyramid of biomass in a pond where small standing crop of phytoplanktons support large
(4)
standing crop of zooplanktons.

72) Choose the incorrect match :-

Annual net primary productivity of

(1) 170 billion ton
Biosphere
(2) Productivity of ocean 55 billion ton
(3) Pyramid of energy Productivity
(4) Secondary productivity Transducer

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

73) What did S.L. Miller observe in his experimental set-up?

(1) Formation of sugars and nitrogenous bases

(2) Formation of amino acids
(3) Formation of pigments
(4) Formation of fats

74) What is the minimal requirement of any natural habitat on earth for population interaction ?

(1) A single species

(2) Many species
(3) Minimum two species
(4) Few species

75) Assertion :- In severe cases of Pneumonia; the lips and finger nails may turn gray to bluish in
colour.
Reason :- In Pneumonia the alveoli get filled with fluid leading to severe problems in respiration.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

76) Which of the following statement is false ?

(1) Virus infected cells secrete interferons.

(2) Interferons protect non infected cells from further viral infection.
(3) Innate immunity is specific type of defence, that is present at the time of birth.
The overall ability of the host to fight the disease causing organisms, conferred by the immune
(4)
system is called immunity.

77) Which of the following is not the features of a stable community?

(1) Resistant or resilient to occasional disturbances (Natural or Anthropogenic).

(2) Does not show much variation in productivity.
(3) Resistant to invasion by alien species.
(4) Show much variation in year-to-year productivity
78)
Which of the following property is true regarding the drug obtained from the given plant?

(1) Pain killer

(2) CNS Stimulant
(3) Hallucinogen
(4) Hypnotic

79) Jawless fish probably evolved around _____

(1) 35 bya
(2) 350 mya
(3) 35 mya
(4) 200 mya

80) Process of evolution of different species in a given area starting from a point and literally
radiating to other habitats is called :-

(1) Adaptive convergence

(2) Parallel evolution
(3) Adaptive radiation
(4) Hardy Weinberg Equilibrium

81) Opioids receptors are present :-

(1) CNS
(2) GIT
(3) Cardiovascular system
(4) Both (1) & (2)

82) Sacred groves are example of in situ conservation are found in :-

(A) Khasi and Jaintia – In Meghalaya
(B) Aravalli hills – In Rajasthan
(C) Chanda and Bastar – In Madhya Pradesh
(D) Western ghats – In Karnataka

(1) A, B Only
(2) B, C Only
(3) A, C Only
(4) A, B, C, D

83) Assertion : Disturbance of Hardy Weinberg equilibrium in a population would be interpreted as

resulting in evolution.
Reason : This principle says that allele frequencies in a population are stable and constant
from generation to generation.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true

(2) Assertion is false and Reason is true
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

84) What was the most significant trend in the evolution of modern man from his ancestors?

(1) Shortening of Jaws

(2) Binocular vision
(3) Increasing cranial capacity
(4) Upright posture

85)

In 1992 Earth summit was held at Rio de Janeiro it is meant for :-

(1) Conservation of biodiversity

(2) Kyoto protocol
(3) Climate change
(4) All of the above

86) Which of the following pyramid is never inverted

(1) Pyramid of biomass

(2) Pyramid of energy
(3) Pyramid of number
(4) Pyramid of standing crop

87) More species in community, tends to more stability than communities with less species'. It was
supported by–

(1) David Tilman

(2) Paul Ehrlich
(3) Humboldt
(4) Both (1) and (2)

88) The most intriguing question of biodiversity is that more than 70% of all species are animals
while plant account for :-

(1) Only 30%

(2) Less that 20%
(3) More that 25%
(4) Not more that 22%
89) In malaria which factor is responsible for the chill and high fever ?

(1) Sporozoits
(2) Merozoits
(3) Haemozoin
(4) R.B.C

90) Which of the following will have maximum number of organism in a pyramid of number of
grassland ecosystem ?

(1) Trophic level 3

(2) Trophic level 2
(3) Trophic level 1
(4) Trophic level 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 1 3 3 3 4 3 3 3 2 3 3 4 2 3 3 1 2 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 2 3 1 4 3 2 3 3 2 4 4 1 1 2 4 1 2 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 3 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 3 4 2 1 1 2 4 2 1 1 2 4 3 4 3 2 1 3 4 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 2 3 2 2 1 2 4 3 2 2 4 3 4 4 4 3 4 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 2 2 1 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 3 2 3 3 4 3 3 3 2 2 4 2 3 4 2 3 4 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 1 3 2 3 4 2 1 3 4 2 3 2 2 4 2 3 3 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 1 1 4 3 1 4 2 4 2 4 2 2 2 1 2 1 3 1 1 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 1 3 3 1 4 3 4 3 3 4 4 4 2 3 1 3 4 1 2 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 1 3 1 2 4 4 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) for, photon & Electron

⇒ λp ∝ λe2

2)

m1r1 = m2r2
16 × 6 = m × 8
m = 12 kg

4) Forward dynamic resistance

7) 'O' act as focal point

10) Formula for micrometer screw gauge measurements with zero error is given by :
Final reading – Zero error = Actual reading.
From the figure,
The final reading = 2.88 mm.
Since Zero error is –0.03 mm,
The actual reading = 2.88 – (–0.03) = 2.91 mm

12) E1 = E, E2 = 0.64E

∴ ⇒
 % change =
= 25%

13) For hydrogen-like atom, the radius of nth orbit is

Where r0 = 0.51 × 10–10 metre

Here, metre
In the ground state, n = 1

∴
∴ Z=4
So, the atom is triply ionised beryllium.

14) As ν0 is the thershold frequency,

∴ Work function, ϕ0 = hν0
According to Einstein photoelectric equation

= hν – ϕ
0

where hn is the incident energy, f0 is the work function of the metal and is the maximum
kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectron.
As per question

0 0 0
= h (2ν ) –hν = hν ...(i)

0 0 0
and = h (5ν ) –hν = 4hν ...(ii)
Divide (ii) by (i), we get

0
⇒ v'2 = or v' = 2v

15)

For photoelectric effect to take place

17)

d = f0 + fe = 0.3 + 0.05 = 0.35 m

18) μ =
∵ μ = cosec (A/2)

∴ cosec (A/2) =

⇒ 1 = sin

⇒ 90° =
⇒ δm = 180° – A

19)

sinθc =

21) voltage drop at 1 kΩ = 20 –12 = 8V

∴ current through 1kΩ = = 8mA

and current through 2kΩ =

∴ Iz = 8 – 6 = 2 mA

23) Conceptual.

24) Air bubble combines air whose refractive index is less than its surrounding medium, (i.e.
water), so it will behave as concave lens.

25)
β∝λ

26) λpr = λd = λe = (λ)uranium

So is same for all.

Hence mpr (KE)pr = (m)d (KE)d = (m)e (KE)e = (m)v (KE)u
m × KE = const.

me is the least among all so KE for electron will be maximum.

32)

sinθc =
∴ as λ↓, θc↓
λmin for violet
∴ θc min for violet

34) Released power 1 kW or 1 × 103 W

and per fission released energy 200 MeV
or 200 × 1.6 × 10–13 J

Number of fission =
per sec = 3.125 × 1013

37) Theory based.

38)

A parallel to principal axis ray will diverge away from convex mirror. A light ray incident at
pole will obey the locus of reflection.

39) np ≠ ne

42) . From the graph V2>V1

⇒ λ1 >λ2

43) snell's law

μsin 60° = sin 45°

μ = 1.09

44) L.C. = 1 MSD – 1 VSD

(25 VSD = 24 MSD)

So,
 45) 100 = n ×

100 =
25 × 1019 = n
2.5 × 1020 = n
OR

n=

CHEMISTRY

46)

47)

48) 1°,2°,3° Alcohol are distinguished by Lucas test on the basis of the time taken for turbidity
to appear

Reactivity of alcohol towards Lucas reagent

⇒ 3° > 2° > 1° Alcohol
49) 1° Alcohol gives red colour in victor Meyer test.

50)

51)

NCERT XII, 11.4.4-b-3, Pg # 331

52) Glucose reacts with hydroxyl amine to form an oxime.

53)

X= Y=
Hoffman product.

54)
(Hoffmann Bromamide Reaction)

55) Conceptual

56)

NCERT XII : Pg.-401 (E), 409 (H)

57)

Reactivity order :

due to leaving group ability.

58)

59) NCERT Reference: XII, Part-II, Page No. 369

60)

Baeyer's reagent results is syn addition of 'OH' & form's syn diol.
In presence of O2/Ag, it results in Anti addition of 'OH'.

61)

62)

Fact (NCERT-Nitrogen compound)

63)

OMDM
64)

65) Iodoform test

66) Rate of decarboxylation –I / –M group.

67)

Gattermann reaction

68) NCERT-XII, Part-II ; Page No: 166, Article No: 6.4.3, Edition 2023 - 24.

69) NCERT Pg.#364 (Reaction-5(i)

70)

Primary amine (R/Ar–NH2) gives carbylamine (isocyanide) test.

71)

72) Hoffmann's rule

73)

in presence of edg rate of ESR is increased.

74)

75) NCERT-XII, Part-II, Edition 2023-24, Pg. # 273

76)

77) NCERT pg #363+354

CH3CH2OH CH3COOH

78) NaBH4 reduces aldehyde/ketone but does not reduce

ester.

79) 3° halide not shows williamson ether synthesis & form alkene by elimination

80) SN1 ∝ stability of C⊕ intermediates

 81)

Fact based

82)

Because sucrose is non reducing.

83)

84)

85) In aldehydes only acelaldehyde gives iodoform test

86)

NCERT XII Biomolecule Pg. No # 418

87) NCERT-XII, Part-II ; Page-375

88) NCERT Page No. # 422, Amine

89) HBO process followed by AMR

90) NCERT Pg. # Aldehyde ketones

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT Pg # 228 (E), 249 (H)

92) NCERT XII Pg.# 244

 93) NCERT XII Pg. # 149

94) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 157

96) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 154,155,156, Para-8.3

97)

NCERT [Link]. 157 - logical

99) NCERT XII Pg. # 151

100) NCERT XII Pg.# 192

103) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 157

104)

NCERT Pg#115

105)

NCERT Pg#124

106) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 145.146

108) The correct answer is 3. c, a, d & b

A. Chlorophyte ancestors: It is generally accepted that plant's evolved from a group of green
algae called Chlorophytes. These aquatic organisms are the ancestors of all land plants.
B. Tracheophyte ancestors: From the chlorophyte lineage, some 3925735 algae evolved
adaptations that allowed them to transition to a terrestrial environment. This led to the
development of early land plants, the ancestors of tracheophytes.
C. Rhynia type plants: Rhynia is an extinct genus of early vascular plants. They represent a
significant step in plant evolution, as they were among the first plants to develop vascular
tissues (xylem and phloem} for transporting water and nutrients.
D. Psilophyton: This genus is closely related to Rhynia and represents a further step in the
evolution of early vascular plants.

110) Analogous organs rise due to convergent evolution.

113) The incorrect pair is 3. Australian marsupial - Convergent evolution.

Australian marsupials - Convergent evolution: This is incorrect.
 Australian marsupials are a classic example of adaptive radiation, not convergent evolution.
Adaptive radiation is when a single ancestral species diversifies into multiple species, each
adapted to a different ecological niche.

114)

All the living beings/biotic factors of an area form biotic community.

115)

The correct order of the geological time scale of Earth is:

A. Paleozoic Era
B. Mesozoic Era
C. Cenozoic Era

119) NCERT Pg. # 261, 262, 266

120)

NCERT Pg. # 134

121)

The correct answer is 2. Convergent evolution.

Convergent evolution is the process where organisms that are not closely related
independently evolve similar traits as a result of adapting to similar environmental pressures

122)

NCERT XII, Page # 141,142

125)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 194, 195

127) NCERT XII Pg. # 153

130) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 112

133)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 124

134) Appearance of antibiotic-resistant bacteria is an example of pre-existing variation in the

 population.

137)

NCERT Pg. # 148 (E)

139)

NCERT XII, Pg. # 207, 208

140) NCERT XII, Page # 230

141)

The task is to match ecological interactions with their corresponding signs. The signs
represent the effect of interactions on the organisms involved:
Correct Answer: 2. A-iii, B-iv, C-i, D-ii
Explanation:
1. Mutualism (A):

A. (iii) +, +: In mutualism, both species benefit from the interaction. Example: Pollinators and
flowers.

2. Competition (B):

A. (iv) -, -: In competition, both species are harmed as they compete for limited resources.
Example: Two species fighting for the same food or territory.

3. Commensalism (C):

A. (i) +, 0: In commensalism, one species benefits, while the other is unaffected. Example: Cattle
egrets feeding on insects stirred up by grazing cattle.

4. Amensalism (D):

A. (ii) -, 0: In amensalism, one species is harmed, while the other is unaffected. Example: A tree
casting dense shade that prevents grass from growing underneath.

144) NCERT XII, Pg. # 225

145)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 120

147)

NCERT Pg no. 122

 148)

NCERT XII Pg # 233 to 237

149)

Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are examples of analogous organs.

153)

NCERT [Link]. 145

155) The correct answer is 4. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
Statement I: T-rex was the biggest dinosaur.

A. This statement is correct. While T-Rex was a massive predator, it was the biggest dinosaur.

Statement II: T-rex had huge fearsome dagger-like teeth.

A. This statement is correct. T-Rex is famous for its massive, powerful jaws and teeth, which were
designed for crushing bones and tearing flesh.

159)

NCERT-XII BIO Pg#132

160)

Alexandervon Humboldt's Species-Area Relationship is represented by S = C x A ∧ Z and its

log - log form as log S = log C + Z log A for graphical analysis.

161) NCERT XII Pg. # 248

162) NCERT XII Page # 242

163) Alanine, Glycine and Aspartic Acid were formed in Miller’s experiment.

164) NCERT Pg. # 232

165)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 131

166)

NCERT Pg. No. 150

168)

NCERT [Link]. 158

170) The process of evolution of different species in a given geographical area starting from a
point and literally radiating to other areas of geography (habitats) is called adaptive
radiation.

171) NCERT XII Pg. # 158

172) NCERT (XII) Pg # 267

173)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 120,121

174)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 126

179) NCERT–XII, Pg. # 147, Para–8.1