08-12-2024

9610WMD801016240016 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) In the following figure, the diodes which are forward biased are :-

(a) (b)

(c) (d)

(1) a, b and d
(2) c only
(3) c and a
(4) b and d

2) In the following circuit the output Y becomes zero for the inputs

(1) A = 1, B = 0, C = 0
(2) A = 0, B = 1, C = 1
(3) A = 0, B = 0, C = 0
(4) A = 1, B = 1, C = 0

3) What is the current through an ideal p-n junction diode shown in figure below :-

(1) Zero
(2) 10 mA
(3) 20 mA
(4) 50 mA
4) When a battery is connected to a P-type semiconductor with a metallic wire, the current in the
semiconductor (predominantly), inside the metallic wire and that inside the battery respectively is
due to :-

(1) Holes, electrons, ions

(2) Holes, ions, electrons
(3) Electrons, ions, holes
(4) Ions, electrons, holes

5) If all the diodes are real then find the value of current i.

(1) 3 mA
(2) zero
(3) 2.75 mA
(4) 1 mA

6) For a logic gate A & B are input and C is output voltage waveform then logic gate is :-

(1) OR
(2) AND
(3) NOR
(4) NAND

7) Find output wave form :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

8) In a P-type semi-conductor, germanium is dopped with :

(1) Indium
(2) Boron
(3) Aluminium
(4) All of these

9) In the energy band diagram of a material shown below, the open circles and filled circles denote

holes and electrons respectively. The material is : -

(1) A p-type semiconductor

(2) An insulator
(3) A metal
(4) An n-type semiconductor

10) In a simple microscope, if the final image is located at infinity then its magnifying power is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) If the refractive index of a material of equilateral prism is then angle of minimum deviation
of the prism is

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 75°

12) The ray diagram could be correct

(1) If n1 = n2 = n3
(2) If n1 = n2 and n1 < ng
(3) If n1 = n2 and n1 > ng
(4) Under no circumstances

13) A thin lens had focal length f1 and its aperture has diameter d. It forms an image of intensity l.

Now the central part of the aperture upto diameter is blocked by an apaque paper. The focal
length and image intensity will changes to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The critical angle for a medium is 60°. The refractive index of the medium is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) A fish at a depth of 12 cm in water is viewed by an observer on the bank of a lake. To what
height the image of the fish is raised.

(1) 9 cm
(2) 12 cm
(3) 3.8 cm
(4) 3 cm

16) An object is kept at a distance of 60 cm from a concave mirror. For getting a magnification
of focal length of the concave mirror required is
(1) 20 cm
(2) 40 cm
(3) –20 cm
(4) 30 cm

17) To get three images of a single object, one should have two plane mirrors at an angle of

(1) 30º
(2) 60º
(3) 90º
(4) 150º

18) On a glass plate a light waves is incident at an angle of 60°. If the reflected and the refracted
waves are mutually perpendicular, the refractive index of material is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A long solenoid carrying a current produces a magnetic field B along its axis. If the current is
doubled and the number of turns per cm is halved, the new value of magnetic field will be equal to : -

(1) B
(2) 2 B
(3) 4 B

(4)

20) Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of a ferromagnetic, a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic
substance respectively. A magnet when brought close to them will : -

(1) attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3

(2) attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3 weakly
(3) attract N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 weakly
(4) attract all three of them

21) The susceptibility of a paramagnetic material is 99. The permeability of the material in Wb/A-m
is : [Permeability of free space ]

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

22) A small square loop of side 'a' and one turn is placed inside a larger square loop of side b and
one turn (b >> a). The two loops are coplanar with their centres coinciding. If a current I is passed
in the square loop of side 'b', then the coefficient of mutual inductance between the two loops is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A current loop consists of two identical semicircular parts each of radius R, one lying in the x-y
plane and the other in x-z plane. If the current in the loop is i. The resultant magnetic field due to
the two semicircular parts at their common centre is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A circular coil of radius R carries an electric current. The magnetic field due the coil at a point
on the axis of the coil located at a distance r from the center of the coil, such that r >> R varies as :-

(1) 1/r
(2) 1/r3/2
(3) 1/r2
(4) 1/r3

25) The momentum in mechanics is expressed as m × v. The analogous expression in electricity is

(1) I × Q
(2) I × V
(3) L × I
(4) L × Q

26) When the current changes from +2 amp to –2 amp in 0.05 sec an emf of 8 volt is induced in a
coil. The coefficient of self-inductance of the coil is:-

(1) 0.1 H
(2) 0.2 H
(3) 0.4 H
(4) 0.8 H

27) In the inductive circuit given in the figure, the current rises after the switch is ON. At instant
when the current is 0.25 A, then potential difference across the inductor will be :

(1) Zero
(2) 240 V
(3) 100 V
(4) 60 V

28) A magnet is taken towards a conducting ring in such a way that a constant current of 10 mA is
induced in it. The total resistance of the ring is 0.5 Ω. In 5sec the magnetic flux through the ring
changes by :-

(1) 0.25 mWb

(2) 25 mWb
(3) 50 mWb
(4) 15 mWb

29) Relative permittivity and permeability of a material εr and μr, respectively. Which of the following
values of these quantities are allowed for a diamagnetic material?

(1) εr = 0.5, μr = 1.5

(2) εr = 1.5, μr = 0.5
(3) εr = 0.5, μr = 0.5
(4) εr = 1.5, μr = 1.5

30) The flux linked with a circuit is given by ϕ = t3 + 3t – 7. The graph between time (x-axis) and
induced emf (y-axis) will be

(1) Straight line through the origin

(2) Straight line with positive intercept
(3) Straight line with negative intercept
(4) Parabola not through the origin

31) A solid cylindrical wire of radius 'R' Carries a current 'I'. The ratio of magnetic fields at points
which are located at R/2 and 2R distance away from the axis of the wire :-
(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 4

32) A uniform electric field and a uniform magnetic field are produced, pointed in the same
direction. An electron is projected with its velocity pointing in the same direction.

(1) The electron will turn to its right.

(2) The electron will turn to its left.
(3) The electron velocity will increase in magnitude.
(4) The electron velocity will decrease in magnitude.

33) Two parallel current carrying wires separated by distance 10 cm attract each other by force of 4
× 10–4 N/m. If current in one wire is 10 A, then current in other wire is :-

(1) 20 A
(2) 10 A
(3) 30 A
(4) 5 A

34) A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a magnetic field requires 3J of work to turn it through
60°. The torque needed to maintain the needle in this position will be :

(1)
(2) 3 Nm
(3) 6 Nm
(4)

35) A stepdown transformer reduce the voltage of transmission line from 2200 V to 220 V. The
power delivered by it is 880 W and its efficiency is 88%. The input current is :-

(1) 4.65 mA
(2) 0.465 mA
(3) 0.4545 A
(4) 4.65 A

SECTION-B

1) Boolean expression for given system will :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) A potential difference of 2V is applied between the opposite faces of a Ge crystal plate of area 1
cm2 and thickness 0.5 mm. If the concentration of electrons in Ge is 2 × 1019 /m3 and mobilities of

electrons and holes are 0.36 and 0.14 respectively, then the current flowing through
the plate will be :-

(1) 0.25 A
(2) 0.45 A
(3) 0.56 A
(4) 0.64 A

3) The circuit represents a full wave bridge rectifier when switch S is open. The output voltage (V0)

pattern across RL when S is closed is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) A compound microscope has an eye piece of focal length 10 cm and an objective of focal length 4
cm. Calculate the magnification, if an object is kept at a distance of 5 cm from the objective so that
final image is formed at the least distance vision (20 cm)

(1) 12
(2) 11
(3) 10
(4) 13

5) A ray of light is incident at an angle of incidence i, on one face of a prism of angle A (assumed to
be small) and emerges normally from the opposite face. If the refractive index of the prism is , the
angle of incidence i, is nearly equal to

(1) A

(2)

(3) A/
(4) A/2

6) An object is placed 12 cm to the left of a converging lens of focal length 8 cm. Another
converging lens of 6 cm focal length is placed at a distance of 30 cm to the right of the first lens The
second lens will produce

(1) No image
(2) A virtual diminished image
(3) A real enlarged image
(4) A real smaller image

7) A plano convex lens fits exactly into a plano concave lens. Their plane surface are parallel to each
other. If lenses are made of different materials of refractive indices and R is the radius of
curvature of the curved surface of the lenses, then the focal length of combination is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The current sensitivity of a galvanometer can be increased by :

(A) decreasing the number of turns
(B) increasing the magnetic field
(C) decreasing the area of the coil
(D) decreasing the torsional constant of the spring
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below : -

(1) (B) and (C) only

(2) (C) and (D) only
(3) (A) and (C) only
(4) (B) and (D) only

9) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A) : In an uniform magnetic field, speed and energy remains the same for a moving
charged particle.
Reason (R) : Moving charged particle experiences magnetic force perpendicular to its direction of
motion.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

10) A long conducting wire having a current I flowing through it, is bent into a circular coil of N
turns. Then it is bent into a circular coil of n turns. The magnetic field is calculated at the centre of
coils in both the cases. The ratio of the magnetic field in first case to that of second case is:

(1) N : n
(2) n2 : N2
(3) N2 : n2
(4) n : N

11) Two wires of same length are shaped into a square and a circle. If they carry same current, ratio
of the magnetic moment is

(1) 2 : π
(2) π : 2
(3) π : 4
(4) 4 : π

12) There are two long co-axial solenoids of same length . The inner and outer coils have radii r1
and r2 and number of turns per unit length n1 and n2 respectively. The ratio of mutual inductance to
the self-inductance of the inner-coil is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) A circular coil having N turns and radius r carries a current I. It is held in the XZ plane in a
magnetic field . The torque on the coil due to the magnetic field is :

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

14) A α–particle of 1 MeV energy is moves on circular path in uniform magnetic field. Then kinetic
energy of proton in same magnetic field for circular path of double radius is :–
(1) 1 MeV
(2) 4 MeV
(3) 2 MeV
(4) None

15) A 2C charge of mass 50g, is moving in a magnetic field with velocity . Find
out pitch of its path :-

(1) π × 10–2 m
(2) 10–2 m
(3) 2π × 10–2 m
(4) π cm

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) In which pair of ions both the species contain S – S bond?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) Lone pair and π-bond exist in

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) Four successive member of the first series of the transition metals are listed below. For which one

of them, the standard potential value has a positive sign?

(1) Co (Z = 27)
(2) Ni (Z = 28)
(3) Cu (Z = 29)
(4) Zn (Z = 30)

4) Ti2+ is purple while Ti4+ is colourless, because

(1) There is no crystal field effect in Ti4+

(2) Ti2+ has 3d2 configuration
(3) Ti4+ has 3d2 configuration
(4) Ti4+ is a very small cation when compared to Ti2+ and hence, dose not absorb any radiation

5) In acidic medium H2O2 changes K2Cr2O7 to CrO5 (deep violet solution in ether) having two peroxy
linkage. Oxidation number of Cr in CrO5 is

(1) +10
(2) – 10
(3) +4
(4) +6

6) Out of and

(1) all have identical geometry

(2) all are paramagnetic
(3) all are diamagnetic
(4) is diamagnetic but and are paramagnetic

7) Oxidation state of Mn in indicating all electrons paired in Mn but is coloured. It is

due to

(1) Charge transfer

(2) Presence of unpaired electron in d-orbital in oxygen
(3) Both (A) and (B)
(4) None of the above

8) Consider the following complexes.

(1) K2PtCl6
(2) PtCl4.2NH3
(3) PtCl4.3NH3
(4) PtCl4.5NH3

9) From the following complex ions, one is a Bronsted – Lowry acid. That one is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

10) For a d4 metal ion is an octahedral field, the correct electronic configuration is

(1) when

(2) when
(3) when

(4) when

11) The coordination environment of Ca2+ ion in its complex with EDTA4– is:

(1) tetrahedral
(2) octahedral
(3) square planner
(4) trigonal prismatic

12) When 1 mole of CrCl3.6H2O is treated with excess of 3 moles AgCl are obtained. The
formula of the complex is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

13) The compound Br and represent

(1) linkage isomerism

(2) ionization isomerism
(3) coordination isomerism
(4) no isomerism

14) Which of the following acid form three series of salts?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

15) Which of the following statements is not true for halogens?

(1) Fluorine shows positive oxidation states

(2) All are oxidizing agents
(3) All from monobasic oxyacid
(4) chlorine has the highest electron – gain enthalpy

16) Which is the strongest acid in the following

(1) H2SO4
(2) HClO3
(3) HClO4
(4) H2SO3

17) XeF2 is structural with

(1) TeF2
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) Which one of the following molecules contain no π-bond?

(1) CO2
(2) H2O
(3) SO2
(4) NO2

19) Which is the correct thermal stability order for H2E (E = O, S, Se, Te and Po)?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

20) Which of the following lanthanides ions is diamagnetic? ([Link]. Ce = 58, 62, Eu=63, Yb=70)

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) The reason for greater range of oxidation state in actinoids is attributes to

(1) 4f and 5d level being close in energies

(2) The radioactive nature of actinoids
(3) Actinoids contractions
(4) 5f, 6d and 7s levels having comparable energies

22) Maximum amount of solid solute that can be dissolved in a given volume of liquid solvent does
not depend upon :

(1) temperature
(2) nature of solute
(3) pressure
(4) nature of solvent

23) Low concentration of oxygen in blood and body tissues of people living at high altitude is due to
......

(1) low temperature

(2) low atmospheric pressure
(3) high atmospheric pressure
(4) both low temperature and high atmospheric pressure

24) 0.5 M H2SO4 is diluted from 1 litre to 10 litre, normality of the resulting solution is:

(1) 1 N
(2) 0.1 N
(3) 10 N
(4) 11 N

25) Molar solution means 1 mole of solute present in:

(1) 1000 g of solve

(2) 1 litre of solvent
(3) 1 litre of solution
(4) 1000 g of solution

26) The molarity of a solution containing 50 g of NaCl in 500 g of a solution and having a density of
0.936 g/cm3 is:

(1) 1.5 M
(2) 1.6 M
(3) 1.8 M
(4) 1.2 M

27) Vapour pressure of pure A = 100 mm Hg

Vapour pressure of pure B = 150 mm Hg

2 mole of liquid A and 3 mole of liquid B are mixed to form an ideal solution. The vapour pressure of
solution will be:

(1) 135 mm
(2) 130 mm
(3) 140 mm
(4) 145 mm

28) The vapour pressure of water at 23°C is 19.8 mm. 0.1 mole glucose is dissolved in 178.2 g of
water. What is the vapour pressure (in mm) of the resultant solution ?

(1) 19
(2) 19.602
(3) 19.402
(4) 19.202

29) Consider the reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g) —→ 2NH3(g). The equality relationship between

and is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) For the reaction N2O5(g) —→ 2NO2(g) + O2(g), the value of rate of disappearance of N2O5 is
given as 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1s–1. The rate of formation of NO2 and O2 is given respectively as:

(1) 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 and 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(2) 1.25 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 3.125 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(3) 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 and 3.125 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1
(4) 1.25 × 10–2 mol L–1 s–1 and 6.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1

31) Identify the order of reaction whose rate constant is

k = 2.3 × 10–5 L mol–1 s–1

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

32) What is the unit of rate of reaction whose rate law is given below
Rate = k[A]3/2[B]–1

(1) sec–1
(2) mol L–1s–1
(3) mol1/2L–1/2s–1
(4) L1/2mol–1/2s–1

33) For N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g) + 22 kcal Ea for the reaction is 70 kcal. Hence, the activation
energy for 2NH3(g) → N2(g) +3H2(g) is :

(1) 92 kcal
(2) 70 kcal
(3) 48 kcal
(4) 22 kcal

34) Sucrose decomposes in acid solution into glucose and fructose according to first order rate law
with a half-life of 3.33 hrs at 25°C. What fraction of sample of sucrose will remain after 9 hrs

(1) 0.333
(2) 0.666
(3) 0.153
(4) 0.250

35) Half-life of a first order reaction is 10 min. What % of reaction will be completed in 100 min?

(1) 25%
(2) 99.9%
(3) 75%
(4) 80%

SECTION-B

1) Increasing order of EAN of the metal in

and is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) The crystal field Stabilization Energy (CFSE) of is

–0.8
(1)

–0.4
(2)

(3) 0.8
–0.4
(4)

3) A square planar complex is formed by hybridisation of which atomic orbitals?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

4) The type of isomerism present in nitropentammine chromium (III) chloride is

(1) Optical
(2) Linkage
(3) Ionization
(4) Polymerisation

5) The hybridization and magnetic behaviour of cobalt ion in complex, respectively is

(1) and diamagnetic

(2) and paramagnetic
(3) and diamagnetic
(4) and paramagnetic

6) The CFSE for octahedral [CoCl6]4– is 18,000 cm–1. The CFSE for tetrahedral [CoCl4]2– will be

(1) 18,000 cm–1

(2) 16,000 cm–1
(3) 8,000 cm–1
(4) 20,000 cm–1

7) On addition of conc. H₂SO₄ to a chloride salt, colourless fumes are evolved but in case of iodide
salt, violet fumes come out. This is because

(1) H₂SO₄ reduces HI to I2

(2) HI is of violet colour
(3) HI gets oxidised to I2
(4) HI changes to HIO3

8) In a cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid molecule. How many single and double bonds are present?

(1) 3 double bonds; 9 single bonds

(2) 6 double bonds; 6 single bonds
(3) 3 double bonds; 12 single bonds
(4) zero double bonds; 12 single bonds

9) An excess of AgNO3 is added to 100 mL of a 0.01 M solution of Dichlorotetraquachromium (III)

chloride. The number of moles of AgCl precipitate would be

(1) 0.001
(2) 0.002
(3) 0.003
(4) 0.01

10) Given that:

Gas Henry’s law constant (KH)
Ar 40.39
CO2 1.67
HCHO 1.83 × 10–5
CH4 0.413
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing solubility.

(1) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar

(2) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
(3) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
(4) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO

11) Mole fraction of the component A in vapour phase is x1 and the mole fraction of component, A in
0 0
liquid mixture is x2, then (p2 = vapour pressure of pure A ; pB = vapour pressure of pure B), the
total vapour pressure of liquid mixture is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) An aqueous solution freezes at –0.186°C (Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1, Kb =0.512 K kg mol–1). The
elevation of [Link]. of the solution is:

(1) 0.186
(2) 0.512

(3)

(4) 0.0512

13) For a reaction Ea = 0 and k = 3.2 × 104 s–1 at 300 K.

The value of k at 310 K would be:

(1) 6.4 × 104 s–1

(2) 3.2 × 104 s–1
(3) 3.2 × 108 s–1
(4) 3.2 × 105 s–1

14) For a gaseous reaction, following data is given:

A → B, k1 = 1015 e–2000/T
C → D, k2 =1014 e–1000/T
The temperature at which k1 = k2 is:

(1) 1000 K
(2) 2000 K
(3) 868.82 K
(4) 434.2 K

15) Which equation is true to calculate the energy of activation, if the rate of reaction is doubled by
increasing temperature from T1 K to T2 K ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Match different organisms in Column-I with their uses in Column-II and select the correct answer
from codes given below :-

Column-I Column-II

Lactobacillus
(A) (i) Formation of dough
acidophilus

Saccharomyces
(B) (ii) Single cell proteins
cerevisiae

Propionibacterium
(C) (iii) Conversion of milk into curd
sharmanii

(D) Spirulina (iv) Formation of swiss cheese

(1) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (ii), D – (iv)
(2) A – (iii), B – (i), C – (iv), D – (ii)
(3) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (iv), D – (ii)
(4) A – (i), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (iv)

2) Match List I with List II.

List I List II

A. Clostridium butylicum I. Ethanol

B. Saccharomyces cerevisiae II. Streptokinase

C. Trichoderma polysporum III. Butyric acid

 D. Streptococcus sp. IV. Cyclosporin-A
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II

3) Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct with regard to biocontrol agents ?

(1) Ladybird beetles and dragonflies are used to get rid of aphids and mosquitoes, respectively.
(2) Bacillus thuringiensis bacteria are used to control butterfly and caterpillars
(3) Trichoderma species are used to control several plant pathogens
(4) All of the above

4) How many of the following bioactive chemicals are produced by certain type of unicellular fungi ?
Citric acid, Butyric acid, Statins, Cyclosporin A, Streptokinase, acetic acid, ethanol

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Five
(4) Two

5) Statement-I : Glomus absorbs sodium from soil and also provide resistant to root born
pathogens.
Statement-II : Baculoviruses are pathogens which kills insect, arthropodes, mammals and fishes.

(1) Both statements are correct

(2) Statement-I is correct and Statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct
Both statements are incorrect
(4)

6) Which process is employed in secondary sewage treatment?

(1) Filtration
(2) Aeration
(3) Sedimentation
(4) Chlorination

7) What is the primary gas released by methanogens?

(1) Carbon dioxide

(2) Methane
(3) Oxygen
(4) Hydrogen
8) Flower with feathery and sticky stigma, numerous light pollen, colourless petals are
characteristically :-

(1) Bird pollinated flower

(2) Bat pollinated flower
(3) Wind pollinated flower
(4) Insect pollinated flower

9) Intine of pollen grain is a :-

(1) Thick, continuous layer made up of cellulose and lignin

(2) Thin, continuous layer made up of cellulose and pectin
(3) Thin, discontinuous layer made up of cellulose only
(4) Thin, discontinuous layer made up of cellulose and Pectin

10) The gynoecium may consist of a single pistil called A. Identify A.

(1) Multicarpellary
(2) Monocarpellary
(3) Syncarpous
(4) Apocarpous

11) The proximal end of filament of a typical stamen is attached to which part of the flower?

(1) Anther
(2) Thalamus
(3) Pollen sac
(4) Microspores

12) Generative cell of pollen grain

(1) Is spindle shaped with dense cytoplasm

(2) Floats in the nucleoplasm of the vegetative cell
(3) Is diploid
(4) Is larger than vegetative cell

13) Which one of the following option gives the correct characterisation of layers of anther wall
(A,B,C) according to the their nature or function :

A B C
Endothecium Middle layer Tapetum

(1) Hygroscopic Callose bands Ubisch body

(2) Protection Ephemeral Dehiscence

(3) Hygroscopic Storage of food granules Nourishes

(4) Ephemeral Nourishes Storage of food granules

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

14) Pollen grains of different species show characteristic difference in :-

(1) Shape, size & colours only

(2) Exine & ploidy only
(3) Shape, size, colour and design only
(4) Ploidy only

15) Geitonogamy is :-

(1) Functionally and genetically autogamy

(2) Functionally cross pollination involving a pollinating agent
(3) Genetically it is dissimilar to autogamy since the pollen grains comes from the different plant
(4) Seen in papaya & date palm

16) Identify the most closely related terms in the given sets:

(1) Megasporangium, megaspore, egg, ovule

(2) Microsporangium, microspore, egg, ovule
(3) Megasporangium, megaspore, pollen grain, ovule
(4) Microsporangium, microspore, carpel, ovary

17) The pollen viability in some cereals like wheat and rice is with in :-

(1) 30 minutes
(2) 30 seconds
(3) 30 Hours
(4) 30 Days

18) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option from given below options.

Column-I Column-II

i Structural and functional unit of nature a Productivity

ii Input in ecosystem b Ecosystem

iii Output in ecosystem c Ocean

iv Mega ecosystem d Decomposition

(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
(2) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(3) i-d, ii-b, iii-c, iv-a
(4) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c
19) In pond ecosystem all the functions of ecosystem are performing where ?

(1) Zooplankton is producer.

(2) Zooplankton do not show secondary productivity.
(3) Decomposers are mostly present at the top of layer.
(4) Decomposers are fungi and bacteria.

20) Among them how many steps are part of decomposition :

Fragmentation, Leaching, Photorespiration, Respiration, Humificcation and Mineralisation.

(1) Five
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) All of these

21) The unit of primary production and productivity are -

(1) g/m2 and Kcal/m2

(2) Kcal/m2 and Kcal/m2 Yr
(3) g/m2 Kcal and g/m2
(4) Kcal/m2 and Kcal/m2

22) Statement I : The number of organisms at any trophic level depends upon availability of
organism at lower trophic level which are either used as food or not be used as food.
Statement II : The pyramid of biomass for tree ecosystem is erect.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.

23)
With respect to above diagram select the correct option for it;

(1) Here primary consumer dry weight is greater than producer.

(2) It is an inverted pyramid.
(3) Biomass is decreasing toward higher trophic level.
(4) It is also shown in aquatic ecosystem.
24) Assertion : Ecological pyramids does not consider the same species belonging to two or more
trophic levels.
Reason : Same species at different trophic level does not exist in ecosystem.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is not a correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

25)
With respect to above diagram identify the correct option from given below option respectively.

(1) Q-Grass, R-Goat, S-Man

(2) Q-Goat, R-Grass, S-Man
(3) Q-Grass, R-Tiger, S-Man
(4) Q-Man, R-Goat, S-Grass

26) Read the following statements and select the not correct statements among them -
(I) Energy that is trapped into an organism remains in it for ever.
(II) Death of organism is the beginning of the detritus food chain/web.
(III) If organisms eating plant it is considered as secondary consumer.
(IV) Productivity of tropical rain forest is high.

(1) (I), (II)

(2) (II), (III), (IV)
(3) (I) Only
(4) (I), (III)

27) If Natality is B, mortality is D, immigration is I and emigration is E, then population density (N)
at the time t + 1, can be represented by

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) Association between Balanus and Chathamalus barnacles is

(1) Symbiosis
(2) Commensalism
(3) Parasitism
(4) Competition

29) The Mediterranean orchid Ophrys employs a unique method to ensure pollination by a species of
bee. This method is known as :-

(1) Food reward

(2) Sexual deceit
(3) Wind dispersal
(4) Mimicry

30) What role do predators play in an ecosystem?

(1) They have no significant role

(2) They only transfer energy across trophic levels
(3) They help in controlling prey population and prevent ecosystem instability
(4) They exclusively act as invasive species

31) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : Lichens represent an intimate mutualistic relationship between a fungus and
photosynthesising algae or cyanobacteria.
Statement-II : In mycorrhizae, the plant helps the fungi in the absorption of essential nutrients
from the soil while the fungi provide the plant with energy-yielding carbohydrates.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

32) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : During the course of evolution, the eggs of the parasitic bird have evolved to
resemble the host’s egg in size and colour to reduce the chances of the host bird detecting the
foreign eggs.
Statement-II : Commensalism is the interaction in which one species benefits and the other is
harmed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

33) Coevolution is seen in which of the following interactions ?

(1) Competition & predation

(2) Mutualism & parasitism
(3) Commensalism & amensalism
(4) Predation & parasitism

34) Which of the following interactions is/are examples of competition:

I. Cattle egret and cattle
II. Abingdon tortoise and goats
III. Flamingoes and fishes
IV. Monarch butterfly and birds

(1) I and III only

(2) II & III only
(3) I, II and IV
(4) II, III and IV

35) Which is not a parasitic adaptation:

(1) Loss of digestive organs

(2) Loss of reproductive capacity
(3) Loss of unnecessary sense organs
(4) Development of adhesive organs

SECTION-B

1) Match Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Glomus (i) Bio gas

(b) Baculovirus (ii) IPM

(c) Methanobacterium (iii) Antibiotics

(d) Penicillium notatum (iv) Biofertilizer

(1) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)

2) Assertion: Wine and beer are produced by distillation of the fermented broth.
Reason: Different types of alcoholic drinks are obtained only by fermentation, always followed by
distillation process.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason correct, Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are correct, Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion
(3) Assertion is true, Reason is false
(4) Both A and R is false

3)

Select the correct statement from the given statements

(1) Large holes in Roquefort cheese are due to production of large amount of CO2
(2) Streptokinase is used to clarify the bottled juices
(3) The Ladybird Beetles & Dragonflies are useful to remove aphids & mosquitoes respectively
(4) In mycorrhiza, the fungi helps in absorption of nutrients only

4)

Which of following is not a character that resemble with self incompatibility.

(1) prevention of pollen germination

(2) deorientation of pollen tube
(3) prevent the formation of intine
(4) failure of nuclear fusion

5) Before the fertilization which event is more curical after the gamete transfere.

(1) Microsporogenesis
(2) Megasporogenesis
(3) Pollen pistil interaction
(4) Double fertilization

6) Identify the A,B,C in given chart with respect to pollination.

(1) A-Hypohydrophily, B-Epihydrophily, C-By insect

(2) A-Epihydrophily, B-Hypohydrophily, C-By air
(3) A-Hypohydrophily, B-By air, C-Epihydrophily
(4) A-Hypohydrophily, B-Epihydrophily, C-Epihydrophily

7) Assertion (A) : Depending on the source of pollen, pollination is of three types.

Reason (R) : Geitonogamy is genetically similar to the autogamy.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

(2) A is true but R is false.
(3) A is false but R is true
(4) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A

8) In which condition female flower buds are bagged before the flower open to prevent unwanted
pollination.

(1) When flowers of male plant are unisexual

(2) When flowers of plant are sterile
(3) When flowers of female plant are unisexual
(4) When flowers of female plant are bisexual

9) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option from given below options.

Column-I Column-II

i Food chain begin with dead organic matter a Tiger

ii Standing crop b Detritus food chain

iii Omnivores c Cockroaches

iv Primary Consumer d Pyramid of biomass

e Second trophic level

f Predatory food chain

(1) i-b, ii-d, iii-a, iv-e
(2) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-e
(3) i-e, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
(4) i-b, ii-e, iii-d, iv-c

10) Match the column-I with column-II and select the correct option from given below options.

Column-I Column-II

i Primary carnivores a Herbivores

ii Apex carnivores b Phototrophic organism

iii Producer c Top consumer

iv Primary consumer d Secondary consumer

(1) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
(2) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
(3) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
(4) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

11) Assertion : Number of trophic level in food chain is restricted.

Reason : Only 10% of energy is transferred to next trophic level from lower trophic level.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Only assertion is correct.
(4) Only reason is correct.

12) The base of pyramid is broad and narrow at apex, shown always in -

(1) Pyramid of energy

(2) Pyramid of biomass
(3) Pyramid of number
(4) Pyramid of Population

13) The biological control method used to manage the prickly pear cactus in Australia involved:

(1) Introducing chemical pesticides

(2) Cultivating competitive plant species
(3) Introducing a cactus-feeding predator
(4) Manual removal of the cactus

14) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : A given fig species can be pollinated only by its specific 'partner' wasp species and no
other species.
Statement-II : Orchids show a limited variety of floral patterns which have evolved specifically to
deter all but the right pollinator insect.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

15) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : MacArthur showed that five closely related species of warblers living on the same
tree were able to avoid competition and co-exist due to behavioural differences in their foraging
activities.
Statement-II : Many parasites have evolved to be host-specific and have adaptations such as the
presence of unnecessary sense organs and a low reproductive capacity.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below :-

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Which of the given age pyramid reflects an expanding human population?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Match the following & find the correct combination :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Marine fish (i) Brood parasitism

(b) Cuscuta (ii) Copepods

(c) Cattle egret (iii) Grazing cattle

(d) Koel (iv) Parasite

a b c d

(1) ii iv iii i

(2) iii iv i ii

(3) iv ii iii i

(4) i iii iv ii
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) If '8' Drosophila in a laboratory population of '80' died during a week, the death rate in the
population is _______ individuals per Drosophila per week.

(1) Zero
(2) 0.1
(3) 10
(4) 1.0

4) Assertion :- Two butterfly species competing for same nectar in a garden, avoid competition by
choosing different feeding pattern.
Reason :- Resource partitioning is a method to avoid competition.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :-

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is NOT the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

5) Which among the following interaction is widely used in medical science for production of
antibiotics by micro organisms ?

(1) Species A (–); Species B(0)

(2) Species A(+); Species B (+)
(3) Species A(–); Species B (–)
(4) Species A (+); Species B (0)

6) Examples of chemicals produced by plants as a defense against grazers and browsers.

I. Nicotine II. Caffeine
III. Quinine IV. Strychine
V. Opium
Choose the correct combination.

(1) I and II
(2) I, II, III and IV
(3) I, II and III
(4) All of these

7) The following figure shown :-

(1) Yucca flower is pollinated by wasp.

(2) Fig flower is pollinated by bee.
(3) Yucca flower is pollinated by bee
(4) Orchid flower is pollinated by bee.
8) In given diagram. The prime function of structure 'X' is to :-

(1) Produce and store eggs.

(2) Form gametes that may involve in fertilization.
(3) Produce energy needed for sperms to move.
(4) Produce food for the sperm to carry it to the eggs.

9) Select the odd one out from the following structures with reference to the male :-

(1) Vasa efferentia

(2) Isthmus
(3) Rete testis
(4) Epididymis

10) The given diagram refers to T.S. of testis. Identify A, B, C and D.

(1) A–Sertoli cells, B–Spermatozoa, C–Interstitial cells, D–Sperms

(2) A–Sertoli cells, B–Secondary spermatocyte, C–Interstitial cells, D–Sperms
(3) A–Interstitial cells, B–Spermatogonia, C–Sertoli cells, D–Sperms
(4) A–Sertoli cells, B–Spermatogonia, C–Interstitial cells, D–Sperms

11) Parturition is induced by :-

(1) A complex neuroendocrine mechanism.

(2) A neural mechanism
(3) A neuroexocrine mechanism
(4) A physio-chemical mechanism

12) Which of the following hormones is not secreted by human placenta?

(1) Progesterone
(2) LH
(3) hCG
(4) Estrogens

13) Which is the function of fimbriae?

(1) Provide path to sperm during fertilization

(2) Maintain the shape of ovary
(3) Collection of the ovum after ovulation
(4) None of these

14) Which statement is not correct?

(1) The secretion of LH and FSH decreases gradually during the follicular phase.
(2) The menstrual flow results due to breakdown of endometrial lining.
(3) In the absence of fertilization, the corpus luteum degenerates.
(4) During pregnancy all events of menstrual cycle stop.

15) Fertilization takes place at :-

(1) Isthmus
(2) Vagina
(3) Cervix
(4) Ampullary-region

16) Corpus luteum produces :-

(1) hCG
(2) Testosterone
(3) Progesterone
(4) Androgen

17) The processes of transformation occurs in which stage?

(1) Secondary spermatocyte → spermatid

(2) Spermatid → spermatozoa
(3) Spermatogonia → primary spermatocyte
(4) Primary spermatocyte → secondary spermatocyte

18) The correct sequence of hormone secretion from beginning of menstruation is :-

(1) FSH, estrogen, progesterone
(2) Esterogen, progesterone, FSH
(3) FSH, Progesterone, estrogen
(4) Estrogen, FSH, Progesterone

19) Morula is a developmental stage :-

(1) After the implantation.

(2) Between implantation and parturition.
(3) Between the zygote and blastocyst.
(4) Between the blastocyst and gastrula.

20) Which gland of females undergo differentiation during pregnancy?

(1) Pituitary
(2) Thymus
(3) Thyroid
(4) Mammary

21)

Which is correct for colostrum?

(1) Consist IgE autibody

(2) It is white in colour
(3) It contains severel antibodies
(4) It produced during the last days of lactation

22) Firstly formation of life occured in :-

(1) Water
(2) Air
(3) At 800°C temperature
(4) In vapour state

23) Miller synthesized simple amino acids from which of the following ?

(1) Methane, ammonia, oxygen and nitrogen.

(2) Hydrogen, methane, ammonia and water vapour.
(3) Ammonia, methane, carbon dioxide and oxygen.
(4) Hydrogen, oxygen, water and nitrogen.

24) Believers of spontaneous generation theory believed that.

(1) Life originated from other similar organisms or spontaneously.

(2) Life originated only spontaneously.
(3) Life originated from similar organisms.
(4) Life originated from air.

25) Darwin's Theory of Natural Selection was based on :-

(1) Inheritance of acquired characters.

(2) Mutation
(3) Enormous rate of reproduction in organisms, struggle for existence and survival of the fittest.
(4) Changes due to the use and disuse of organ.

26) What was the basic principle of Lamarckism?

(1) Inheritance of acquired characters

(2) Survival of the Fittest
(3) Natural Selection
(4) Variations

27) Gene pool is :-

(1) Genotype of an individual of a population.

(2) Different genes of all individuals of a species found in an area.
(3) Pool of artificially synthesised genes.
(4) Genes of a genus.

28) According to Hugo De. Vries, speciation due to mutation is also called 'Saltation' which means :-

(1) Single step variation

(2) Single step small mutation
(3) Single step large mutation
(4) Huge change due to natural selection

29) Darwin finches differ with each other on the basis of :-

(1) Feather
(2) Beak
(3) Colour of eye
(4) Body colour

30) Most recent man found as fossil was :-

(1) Java man

(2) Homo habilis
(3) Cromagnon man
(4) Australopithecus

31)
Which type of plants fell to form coal deposits?

(1) Bryophyta
(2) Pteridophyta
(3) Gymnosperm
(4) Angiosperms

32) Arrange the following in correct chronological sequence :-

(A) Tracheophyte ancestors
(B) Rhynia type plants
(C) Chlorophyte ancestors
(D) Psilophyton

(1) A → B → C → D
(2) C → A → B → D
(3) C → B → D → A
(4) D → B → C → A

33) Which one of the following are analogous structures?

(1) Wings of bat and wings of pigeon.

(2) Gills of prawn and lungs of man.
(3) Thorns of bougainvillea and tendrils of cucurbita.
(4) Flippers of dolphin and legs of horse.

34) Which of the following had the smallest brain capacity?

(1) Homo habilis

(2) Homo erectus
(3) Homo sapiens
(4) Homo neanderthalensis

35) Analogous structures are a result of :-

(1) Divergent evolution

(2) Convergent evolution
(3) Shared ancestry
(4) Stabilizing selection

SECTION-B

1) The equation for J-shaped population growth curve is

(1)
(2)

(3)
(4)

2) Which strategy is considered better for maximizing reproductive fitness in Populations ?

(1) r-selected strategy

(2) K-selected strategy
(3) Both strategies are equally effective
(4) It depends on various factors such as habitat, selection pressures, and life history traits

3) Exotic species are also called :-

I. introduced species
II. alien species
III. non-indigenous species
IV. non-native species
Choose the correct combination.

(1) I, II and III

(2) II, III and IV
(3) I, III and IV
(4) All of these

4) The male acessory glands constists of :-

(i) Testes
(ii) Seminal vesicle
(iii) Bartholin gland
(iv) Prostate
(v) Bulbourethral
(vi) Sertoli cells

(1) (i), (ii), (iii), (v)

(2) (i), (ii), (iv), (v)
(3) (i), (ii), (iv), (v), (vi)
(4) (ii), (iv), (v)

5) Which is the incorrect statement about testosterone ?

(1) It affects the development of muscular system.

(2) Its efficiency increases according to age.
(3) Development of male accessory sex organs.
(4) Helps in spermatogenesis.

6) In testes, columnar cell phagocytes the dead sperm cells. Which statement is not true about those
cells?
(1) It can synthesize progesterone from testosterone.
(2) They form the basis of blood testis barrier.
(3) These are also called sustentacular cell which occur in all animals.
(4) Both (1) and (3)

7) Ist meiotic division in the process of oogenesis is completed :-

(1) After puberty

(2) In intra uterine life
(3) Before birth
(4) Before puberty

8) Spermiogenesis refers to :-

(1) Phase of multiplication of spermatogonia.

(2) Growth phase of spermatogenesis.
(3) Process of spermatogenesis.
(4) Sequential changes which convert a spermatid into sperm.

9)

Which of the following is not correct for gastrulation?

(1) Morphogenetic movements

(2) Blastomeres degenerate
(3) Inner cell mass differentiation
(4) All germinal layer are formed

10) Life cannot originate from inorganic materials at present because :-

(1) High degree of environmental pollution.

(2) A very high amount of oxygen in the atmosphere.
(3) Very high atmospheric temperature.
(4) Absence of raw materials.

11) Wings of locust, pigeon and bat are examples of :-

(1) Vestigial organs

(2) Analogous organs
(3) Homologous organs
(4) Exoskeleton

12) Fossil X can be considered to have evolved earlier than fossil Y if :-

(1) Y has vestigial structures that are homologous to functional structures in fossil X.
(2) Y is structurally less complex than fossil X.
(3) Y is not in better state of preservation than X.
(4) X is found in upper stratum of undisturbed sedimentary rock than Y.

13) Which scientist gave the 'Theory of Continuity of Germplasm'?

(1) Weismann
(2) Mendel
(3) Lamarck
(4) Darwin

14) There would be no evolution if :-

(1) The inheritance of acquired characters did not take place.

(2) Somatic variations were not inheritable.
(3) Genetic variations were not found among members of the population.
(4) Somatic variations would not transform into germinal variations.

15) Which of the following facts develop suspicions in Lamarckism?

Human females are not born with bored ear pinna, although they have been bored for
(1)
thousands of years.
(2) Giraffe has long neck to eat leaves of tall trees.
(3) A stag can run fast to protect against the enemies.
(4) None of these.
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 3 1 1 2 3 4 1 1 3 3 4 2 4 3 3 2 1 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 3 1 1 4 3 1 3 2 2 4 1 4 1 4 3

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 4 1 1 1 3 4 4 1 3 3 4 1 2 3

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 3 2 3 1 4 3 1 1 3 1 2 4 4 3 1 3 2 2 1 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 4 3 2 2 3 2 2 2 2 2 2 3 1 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 2 2 2 3 3 3 3 1 3 1 4 2 4 4

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 3 4 4 4 2 2 3 2 2 2 1 3 3 2 1 1 4 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 2 4 3 3 1 4 1 4 2 3 4 4 2 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 4 3 3 3 3 4 3 2 4 1 1 3 1 4

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 2 4 1 4 4 2 2 4 1 2 3 1 4 3 2 1 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 1 2 2 3 1 2 3 2 3 2 2 2 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 4 4 4 4 2 4 1 4 2 2 2 1 1 3 1
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

For F.B. VP – VN > 0

2)

= 0 for A = 1
B=1
&C=0

3)

4)

In P type majority charge carriers are holes in metallic wire free charge carriers are electrons
& inside battery charge carriers are ions :

5)

VR = 10V – 0.7 V – 0.3 V

VR = 9V

6) Truth table
Here C = 1 only when A = 1, B = 1 & C = 0 for all other cases so It is C = A.B AND gate

7) For + ve half cycle

i= = 2.5 mA
For – ve half cycle

8)

Pure S.C. + Trivalent impurity = P-type S.C. (13th group)

9)

Donor level is near valence bond.

10)

11)

12) If n1 > ng then the lens will be in more denser medium. Hence s nature will change and the
convex lens will behave like a concave lens.

13)

and focal length remain unchanged.

14)

15) Apparent rise = d

16) Hence, object distance, u = –60 cm

Magnification M =
at is the image is real

∴m=
According to mirror formula

17) n =

18) Front figure

19) Magnetic field due to solenoid is given by

0
B = μ nI ⇒ B ∝ nI ⇒

⇒ ∴ B2 = B

20) Ferromagnetic substance has magnetic domains whereas paramagnetic substances have
magnetic dipoles which get attracted to a magnetic field. Ferromagnetic material magnetised
strongly in the direction of magnetism field, Hence, N1 will be attracted paramagnetic
substance attract weekly in the direction of field. Hence, N2 will weakly attracted. Diamagnetic
substances do not have magnetic dipole but in the presence of external magnetic field due to
their orbital motion of electrons these substances are repelled. Hence, N3 will be repelled.
21) μr = 1 + ฀ = 1 + 99 = 100
μ = μ0μr = μ0 × 100 = 4π × 10–7 × 100 = 4π × 10–5

22)
Magnetic field at centre due to each side

Field due to all 4 sides

Flux through small sphere will be

Coefficient of mutual induction, is given as

23)

24)

If r >> R then <<< 1 (negligible)

25) m → L
v→I

26)
L = 0.1H

27)

VR = IR = 0.25 × 400 = 100V

remaining 100V drop across the inductor

28)

q= ⇒Δϕ = q.R
⇒ Δϕ = itR
Δϕ = 10 × 10–3 × 5 × 0.5
Δϕ = 25 mwb

29) For a diamagnetic material, the value of μr is slightly less than one. For any material, the
value of ∈r is always greater than 1.

30) e = 3t2 + 3
It is not in the form y = 4ax2.

31) Field inside the conductor

Bin = , where r =

... (1)
Field outside the conductor :-

Bout = , where r = 2R ...(2)

rom (1) & (2)

32)
Force is opposite of velocity so speed will decrease.

33)

⇒
⇒ I2 = 20 A
34) W = MB (1 – cos 60º) = =3 ⇒ MB =6

τ = MB sin60º = 6 × = Nm.

35)

Ip = = 0.45 A

36)

37) σ = ne(µe + µh)

= 2 × 1019 × 1.6 × 10–19(0.36 + 0.14)
= 1.6 (Ω-m)–1

R=

∴i=
38)
When S is closed then
(i) In +ve half cycle → D1, D3 → FB → S/C
→ D2, D4 → RB → O/C
→ D5 → RB → O/C
So, I will flow through A → B → D → C → E → F
So we will get output across load.
(ii) In –ve half cycle D1, D3 → RB → O/C
D2, D4 → RB → S/C
D5 → FB → S/C
So, I will flow through outer loop due to short circuiting of Ds & path of current is F → E → H →
G→B→A
So, no current will flow through load hence voltage is zero across load.

39) For objective lens

Now M =

40) For normally emergence e = 0

Therefore r2 = 0 and r1 = A
Snell's low for incident ray's
1 sin i = sin r1 = sin A
For small angle, i = A

41) For lens (1)

v = 24 cm i.e. Image A'B' is obtained 6 cm before the lens 2 or at the focus of lens 2. Hence
final image formed by lens 2 will be real enlarged and it is obtained at .
42)

Equivalent focal length is given by

43) Current
where, K = torsional constant and
B = magnetic field

∴ and

44) In uniform magnetic field

So, .
So, speed and kinetic energy remains same.

45) We have,

and

Now, N × 2πr1 = n × 2πr2 ⇒ Nr1 = nr2 ⇒

So,

46) Suppose length of each wire is .

∴ Magnetic moment
47)

⇒ .

48)
Magnetic moment of coil = NIA

Torque on loop (coil) =

49)
Given : rP = 2rα

⇒ KP = 4Kα = 4 × 1 = 4 MeV

50)

pitch = Vcosθ × T

= V11 × T = 2 ×

=
 = 2π × 10–2 m

CHEMISTRY

51)

52)
Three π-bonds and one lone pair

53) In electrochemical series, metals with positive standard potential are placed below
hydrogen. Out of given transition metals, Only Cu is lower than hydrogen in electrochemical
series. Therefore, it must have positive sign for standard potential.

54) Ti(22) : [Ar] 4s23d2

has two unpaired electrons in 3d and thus d-d * transition is possible due to absorption of
light in visible region.

55)
Oxidation number of oxygen in peroxide = – 1
56)
(due to presence of strong field ligand pairing will occur)

57) Charge transfer (LMCT)

58) Greater the number of ions, greater the conductance.

1.
2. No ion (least)
3. Two ions
4. Four ions (maximum)

59) [Fe(H2O)6]3+ donates proton

[Fe(H2O)6]3+ → [Fe(H2O)5(OH)]2+ + H+

60) If = then
If then

61) EDTA4– → Hexadentate ligand

[Ca(EDTA)]2– → coordination environment is octahedral.

62) 1 mole of precipitates one free chloride ion

Here, 3 moles of AgCℓ are precipitated by excess of . Hence, there must be three
ions.
So, the formula of the complex can be and correct choice is (4).

63) Compounds having same molecular formula but different structural formula are known as
isomers. Br and have no same molecular formula.
Hence they are not isomers.

64)

H3PO4 has 3 –OH groups i.e., has three ionisable H- atoms and hence forms three series of
salts. These three possible series of salts for are as follows
65) All halogens show +ve and –ve oxidation state while F show –ve oxidation state due to high
electronegativity and small size.

66) The strength of oxyacids can also be decided with the help of the oxidation number central
atom.
Higher the oxidation number of central atom, more acidic is the oxyacid.

Since, in HClO4, oxidation number of Cl is high.

So HClO4 is the strongest acid among the given.

67)

Species having the same number of bond pairs are structural (have same structure).
Species ℓ.p. + b.p. Structure
XeF2 4lp + 2bp Linear
TeF2 2lp + 2bp Angular or V-shapes
4lp + 2bp Linear
NCl3 1.ℓ.p. + 3b.p Pyramidal
Thus, XeF2, is structural with

68)

In case of H2O, there is no π bonding.

69) As we move down the group stability of hydrides decreases

70) lanthanides ions with no unpaired electron is diamagnetic in nature.

(two unpaired electrons)
(Six unpaired electrons)
(seven unpaired electrons)
(no unpaired electrons)
Because of the absence of unpaired electrons is diamagnetic.

71) Actinoids have a greater range of oxidation states due to comparable energies of 5f, 6d
and 7s orbitals. Hence, all their electrons can take part in bond formation.

72) Solubility of solid solute in a liquid does not depend on the pressure. However, solubility of
gas in a liquid depends upon the pressure.

73) According to Henry's law, low solubility of O2 in blood at high altitude is due to low
atmospheric pressure. Temperature has no effect because body temperature of human beings
remains constant.

74)

M1V1 = M2V2
0.5 × 1= M2 × 10
M2 = 0.05
N = M × basicity of acid = 0.05 × 2 = 0.1 N

75)

As per theory

76)

77)

78)

p = p 0 xA
= 19.8 × 0.99 = 19.602 mm

79)

80)

–2 –1 –1
= 1.25 × 10 mol L s

= 3.125 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–l

 81) Unit of
Comparing the power of litre we get
n–l=1
n=2
i. e., 2nd order reaction.

82) Order of reaction = Sum of power of concentration terms involved in rate law

Unit of
= L–1/2 mol1/2 sec–1

83) ΔH = Ef – Eb
–22 = 70 –Eb
Eb = 92 kcal

84)

85)

x = 99.9%

86)

Electron gained
Complex z OS of metal EAN
due to ligands
(Ni(CN)4)2– 28 +2 8 28–2+8 = 34
(Fe(CN)6)4– 26 +2 12 26–2+12 = 36
(Cu(CN)4)3– 29 +1 8 29–1+8 = 36

87) hence there will be no pairing of e–.

CFSE = –

88) A square planar complex is formed by hybridisation of and atomic orbitals.

89) The chemical formula of nitropentaammine chromium (III) chloride is

[Cr(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2
It can exist in following two structures
[Cr(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2
Pentaamminenitrochromium (III) chloride and
[Cr(NH3)5ONO]Cl2
Pentaamminenitrito-o-chromium (III) chloride
Therefore, the type of isomerism found in this compound is linkage isomerism as NO2 group
linked through N as -NO2 or through O as –ONO.

90)

behaves as strong field ligand in case of Co3+ and pairing will take place.

So, the hybridisation is d2sp3 and diamagnetic in nature.

91)

CFSE for octahedral and tetrahedral complexes are closely related to each other by formula

.
Where, Δ0 = CFSE for octahedral complex, Δt = CFSE for tetrahedral complex. According to
question, Δ0 = 18,000 cm–1

∴
= 4 × 2,000 cm–1 = 8,000 cm–1

92) Hydrogen iodide (HI) is more stronger reducing agent than H₂SO₄. So, it reduces H₂SO₄ to
SO2 and itself oxidises to I2. Colour of I2 is violet hence on adding conc. H₂SO₄ to HI, it gets
oxidised to I2.
93) Cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid contain three double bond and 9 single bonds as shown below

cyclotrimetaphosphoric acid
a, b, c are three π bond and numerics 1 to 12 are sigma bonds.

94) The formula of dichlorotetraquachromium (III) chloride is

On ionisation it generates only one ion
[Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl → [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]+ + Cl–
Initial 100×0.01 = 1m mol – –
After 0 1m mol 1m mol
ionization
One mole of ion react with only 1 mole of AgNO3 molecule to produce 1 mole of AgCl.

∴ 1 m mol or 1 × 10–3 mole react with AgNO3 to give AgCl = = 10–3 or,
0.001 mol AgCl

95) Lesser is the Henry's law constant, greater is the solubility of gas.

96) x2, vapour pressure of ‘A’

Mole fraction of A in vapour =

97)

ΔT = Kf × m
0.186 = 1.86 × m
m = 0.1
 ΔT = Kb × m = 0.512 × 0.1 = 0.0512

98)
When Ea = 0, k = A = constant
∴ k310 = k300 = 3.2 × 104s–1

99) When k1 = k 2 ,
15 –2000/T
10 e = 1014 e–1000/T
10 = e1000/T

2.303 log 10 =
T = 434.2 K

100) We know

When reaction rate becomes double then will be equal to 2.

Then,

BIOLOGY-I

102) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 153

103) NCERT Pg # 157

104)

NCERT Pg # 153

105) NCERT Pg. # 187, 188

106) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 152

107) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 155

108)

NCERT, Pg. # 13

109) NCERT XII Pg # 07

110) NCERT Pg. # 08

111)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 05

112) NCERT XII Pg. # 07

The generative cell is small and floats in the cytoplasm of the vegetative cell.

113)

NCERT XII, Page # 05

114) NCERT, Pg. # 07

115) NCERT, Pg. # 12

116)

NCERT XII, Pg. No. 09

117) NCERT-XII Page # 08

118) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 205

119) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 206

120) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 207

121) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 207

122) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 213

123) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 212

124) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 214

125) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 209

126) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 209

127) Ncert pg No: 229

128) Ncert pg No: 233

129) The Mediterranean orchid Ophrys uses 'sexual deceit' to achieve pollination. It has
evolved one of its petals to closely resemble the female bee in size, color, and markings,
tricking the male bee into 'pseudocopulating' with the flower. This interaction allows the
flower to transfer pollen onto the male bee, which then pollinates other flowers. This is an
example of co-evolution, where the orchid must continue to adapt to changes in the bee
species to maintain successful pollination.

130) Predators play a crucial role in maintaining the balance of ecosystems by controlling prey
populations. Without predators, prey species could reach very high population densities,
leading to ecosystem instability. Predators also act as conduits for energy transfer across
trophic levels but their role is not limited to this function alone.

131) Statement-I : Correct. Lichens do indeed represent a mutualistic relationship between a

fungus and photosynthesising algae or cyanobacteria.
Statement-II : Incorrect. In the mutualistic relationship of mycorrhizae, it is the fungi that
assist the plant in the absorption of essential nutrients from the soil, while the plant provides
the fungi with energy-yielding carbohydrates, not the other way around.

132) Statement-I : Correct. The eggs of parasitic birds, such as the cuckoo, have indeed
evolved to mimic the appearance of the host's eggs in size and color, which reduces the
likelihood of the host bird recognizing and removing the foreign eggs.
Statement-II : Incorrect. Commensalism is a type of interaction where one species benefits
while the other is neither harmed nor benefited, not harmed as stated in the statement.

133) Ncert Pg No: 196 - 202

134) Ncert Pg No: 199

135) Ncert Pg No: 200

140) NCERT 12 Page # 15,16

141) NCERT 12 Page # 13

142) NCERT 12 Page # 11,12

143) NCERT 12 Page # 17

 144) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 210

145) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 209,210

146) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 211

147) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 211

148) The prickly pear cactus problem in Australia was managed by introducing a natural
predator, a moth, from the cactus's native habitat. This is an example of a biological control
method, where a predator is used to regulate the population of a pest species.

149) Statement-I : Correct. Each fig species is typically pollinated by a specific 'partner' wasp
species, and this mutualistic relationship is exclusive.
Statement-II : Incorrect. Orchids are known for their incredible diversity of floral patterns,
many of which have evolved to attract specific pollinators like bees and bumblebees, not to
deter them.

150) Statement-I : Correct. MacArthur's study did show that five closely related species of
warblers could co-exist on the same tree by having different foraging behaviors, thus avoiding
competition.
Statement-II : Incorrect. While it is true that many parasites have evolved to be host-specific,
they typically have adaptations such as the loss of unnecessary sense organs, presence of
adhesive organs or suckers, loss of digestive system, and a high reproductive capacity, not a
low reproductive capacity and the presence of unnecessary sense organs as stated.

BIOLOGY-II

151) Ncert Pg No: 192

152) NCERT-XII, Pg # 200

153)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 191

154) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 198, 199

155) NCERT XII (Pg - 233)

156)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 234

157) NCERT Pg. # 238

158)

NCERT-XII, Page # 27

159)

NCERT-XII, Page # 29

160)

NCERT-XII, Page # 28

162)

NCERT-XII, Page # 37

163)

NCERT-XII, Page # 29

164)

NCERT-XII, Page # 34

165)

NCERT-XII, Page # 35

166)

NCERT-XII, Page # 34

167)

NCERT-XII, Page # 33

168)

NCERT-XII, Page # 34
169)

NCERT-XII, Page # 36

170)

NCERT-XII, Page # 38

171)

NCERT-XII, Page # 38

172)

NCERT-XII, Page # 11

173)

NCERT-XII, Page # 112

174)

NCERT-XII, Page # 111

175)

NCERT-XII, Page # 119

176)

NCERT-XII, Page # 118

177)

NCERT-XII, Page # 120

178)

NCERT-XII, Page # 119

179)

NCERT-XII, Page # 117

180)
NCERT-XII, Page # 125

181)

NCERT-XII, Page # 124

182) NCERT-XII, Page # 122

183)

NCERT-XII, Page # 115

184)

NCERT-XII, Page # 124

185)

NCERT-XII, Page # 115

186) Ncert Pg No: 194

187) NCERT 12th Class :

188) NCERT Pg. # 234

189)

NCERT-XII, Page # 27

190)

NCERT-XII, Page # 27

191)

Sertoli cells synthesize estrogen from testosterone.

Sustentacular cells occurs only in mammals.

192)

NCERT-XII, Page # 33
193)

NCERT-XII, Page # 31

194)

NCERT-XII, Page # 37

195)

Due to oxidising nature.

196)

NCERT-XII, Page # 115

197)

NCERT-XII, Page # 113

(Y is more complex than X)

198)

NCERT-XII, Page # 121

199)

Genetic variation are inheritable.

200)

NCERT-XII, Page # 119

(Evolution of life forms had occurred but driven by use and disuse of organs.)