Mock Test Paper

Class - XII

BIOLOGY
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Sector- 18, Udyog Vihar, Gurugram, Haryana - 122018

MM : 70 CBSE Mock Test Paper Time : 3 hrs.

Complete Syllabus of Class XII

General Instructions:

1. All questions are compulsory.

2. The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
3. Section-A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section-B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section-C has 7
questions of 3 marks each; Section-D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section-E has 3
questions of 5 marks each.
4. There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in few questions. A student has to
attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
5. Wherever necessary, neat, proportional, and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

BIOLOGY

SECTION - A
1. Fusion of male and female gametes leading to the formation of zygote is termed as [1]
(1) Parturition (2) Gestation
(3) Gametogenesis (4) Fertilisation
2. Function of secretions of bulbourethral glands in humans is to [1]
(1) Secrete the entire seminal plasma (2) Lubricate the penis
(3) Store and nourish the sperms (4) Secrete androgens
3. Which of the following statements are correct with respect to post-fertilization development in a typical
angiosperm? [1]
a. Central cell of embryo sac develops into endosperm.
b. Ovary matures into fruit.
c. Zygote develops into perisperm.
d. Ovules mature into seed.
(1) b and c (2) a, b and d
(3) a and c (4) b, c and d

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4. Which barrier of innate immunity includes mucus coating of the epithelium lining the respiratory tract? [1]
(1) Physical barrier (2) Physiological barrier
(3) Cellular barrier (4) Cytokine barrier
5. Administration of antitoxin can be considered as [1]
(1) Active immunisation (2) Passive immunisation
(3) Auto immunity (4) Innate immunity
6. A scientist wants to create a colony of E. coli which possesses the plasmid pBR322 that is sensitive to
ampicillin. Which restriction site would he use to ligate a foreign DNA? [1]
(1) PstI (2) ClaI
(3) HindIII (4) SalI
7. The unequivocal proof that DNA is a genetic material came from the experiments of [1]
(1) Frederick Griffith (2) Meselson and Stahl
(3) Francois Jacob and Jacque Monod (4) Alfred Hershey and Martha Chase
8. A woman is in the second trimester of her pregnancy. Read the following statements and choose the incorrect
one w.r.t. this woman who is seeking for MTP. [1]
(1) She can go ahead with the MTP on the opinion of two registered medical practitioners.
(2) MTP can be carried out with the opinion of just one registered medical practitioner.
(3) She can seek an MTP on the ground that there is a chance of a physical/mental abnormality in the child.
(4) MTP can be on the ground that the pregnancy would involve a risk to her life.
9. Which among the following statements is true for Law of Dominance? [1]
(1) It explains that all the parental characters are expressed in F1 generation.
(2) Proposed by T. H. Morgan.
(3) Stated that characters are controlled by discrete units called factors.
(4) Universally applicable.
10. Which among the given below is an ex-situ conservation strategy of organisms? [1]
(1) Sacred groves
(2) National parks
(3) Wildlife sanctuaries
(4) Wildlife safari parks
11. In which of the following types of population interactions only one species benefits? [1]
(1) Competition
(2) Amensalism
(3) Parasitism
(4) Mutualism
12. Which of the given is not considered as a part of histone octamer? [1]
a. Non-histone chromosomal proteins b. Arginine
c. H1 histone d. Lysine
(1) a and d (2) b and d
(3) a, c and d (4) a and c

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13. Assertion (A) : Turner’s syndrome is an example of trisomy. [1]

Reason (R) : The genetic complement of an individual who is inflicted with Turner’s syndrome is 44 + XO.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
14. Assertion (A) : DNA is chemically less reactive and structurally more stable than RNA. [1]
Reason (R) : DNA has deoxyribose sugar along with that, thymine is present in the place of uracil.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
15. Assertion (A) : Saheli is a non-steroidal oral contraceptive pill. [1]
Reason (R) : It has high contraceptive value and to be taken daily by the female.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true
16. Assertion (A) : The essence of Darwinian theory is natural selection. [1]
Reason (R) : There has been a gradual evolution of life according to Darwin.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

SECTION - B
17. Name the group of chemicals obtained from the plant to which the part shown in the diagram belongs. [1]
State the location of its receptors in the human body and one mode of consumption of these drugs. [1]

18. Draw a diagram of mature female gametophyte of a typical angiosperm and label any four of its parts. [2]
19. Define allergy. Name the substances which cause allergy and what type of antibodies are produced during
allergic reactions? [2]

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20. Define homologous structures. Give two examples. [2]

21. The diagram given below represents a typical biogas plant. Identify the parts labelled as A and B, also mention
the name of institutes/commissions mainly involved in development of technology of biogas production. [2]

OR

Name the organism which is involved in the production of ‘Swiss cheese’. Provide the reason for the formation
of large holes in this cheese. [1 + 1]

SECTION - C
22. Explain in brief, how a bacterial cell can be made ‘competent’ to take up rDNA and the reason behind this. [3]

23. Construct a pyramid of number in a grassland ecosystem. Label its three trophic levels. Is the pyramid upright
or inverted? Justify your answer. [3]

24. (a) Hotspots are a type of in-situ conservation, write any two key criteria for determining a hotspot.

(b) Name any two hotspots found in India.

(c) Why are the hotspots placed under in-situ conservation? [3]

25. If a foreign gene of interest is inserted at PvuI site of pBR322 vector then what will happen to recombinants?
How will you select recombinants from a colony of bacteria containing both transformants and non-
transformants? [3]

26. Explain cancer and how cancerous cell is different from the normal cell? Elaborate the methods of cancer
detection. [3]

OR

With the help of flow chart, represent the life cycle of a malarial parasite.

27. Name the technique which is carried out in a single test tube simply by mixing DNA with a set of reagents and
placing the tube in a thermal cycler that enables amplification of gene of interest. Describe the basic steps
involved in the amplification of gene of interest with the help of a diagram. [3]

28. (a) Name any two cyanobacteria which serve as an important biofertilisers.

(b) What is the mode of nutrition in cyanobacteria?

(c) Discuss their role as biofertilisers. [3]

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SECTION - D
29. The bacteria shown in the below given diagram is used to produce a product by genetic engineering and is
given to patients having myocardial infarction.

(a) Identify the bacteria and the product. [1]

(b) How does this product help the patients? [1]
(c) One such type of bacterium was also involved in the discovery of the first antibiotic. Which was that
bacterium and the antibiotic discovered? How had this discovery made? [2]
OR
The given bacteria is also used for proposing ‘Transforming Principle’. Who gave this principle? What is the
conclusion of ‘Transforming Principle’ experiment? [2]
30. A geneticist used a plasmid for cloning, that has a tetracycline resistance gene and the lac Z gene. The lac Z
gene codes for enzyme -galactosidase. The geneticist inserts a piece of foreign DNA into a restriction site
that is located within the lac Z gene and transforms the bacteria with the plasmid.
Then, he plated those bacterial culture on a agar medium and obtained the following scenario.

(a) Explain how the geneticist can identify bacteria that contain a copy of a plasmid with the foreign DNA. [2]
(b) Suppose that this geneticist discovers a new restriction enzyme in the bacterium Aeromonas ranidae. This
restriction enzyme is the first to be isolated from this bacterial species. Using the standard convention for
abbreviating restriction enzymes, give this new restriction enzyme a name. [2]
OR
A girl ‘X’ is of 15 years and suffers from Type-1 diabetes. This type of diabetes develops in people younger
than age 20, though it persists throughout life. This is the most common type of diabetes in northern Europe,
especially in Finland where nearly 1% of the population develops this diabetes by 15 years of age. In the U.S.,
it is 1.5-2 times more common in whites than in African American or Asian populations.
A doctor prescribed ‘X’ to get regular injections of insulin. ‘X’ read about it and came to know that insulin used
for diabetes was earlier extracted from pancreas of slaughtered cattle and pigs, but now RDT i.e., recombinant
DNA technology is used to make insulin.
(a) Why is insulin extracted from pancreas of slaughtered animals are not used anymore? [1]
(b) Describe the maturation of insulin with the help of a diagram. [1½]
(c) Explain the process of formation of humulin by an American company Eli Lilly in 1983. [1½]

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SECTION - E
31. Explain the hormonal control of spermatogenesis and give schematic representation of the process called
spermatogenesis. [5]
OR
(a) Draw and label the E. coli cloning vector pBR322 showing the various restriction sites. [3]
(b) What is gene therapy? When and why the first gene therapy was given to a four-year old girl? [2]
32. Population interactions between two species A and B are given below.
Species-A Species-B
(i) + +
(ii) + 0
(a) Identify the type of interaction given in (i) and (ii) along with an example of each. [2]
(b) For the first (i) type of interaction, it is said that in some cases participating populations co-evolve. Justify
the statement. [3]
OR

Dominance is not an autonomous feature of a gene or the product. It depends upon the gene product and the
phenotype we choose to examine when a gene shows pleiotropy. Explain this hypothesis by taking example
of starch synthesis in garden pea. [5]
33. (a) What is metastasis? [1]
(b) What are the characteristic symptoms of withdrawal syndrome? [1]
(c) Name a drug which is an effective sedative and painkiller. [1]
(d) What is heroin? Mention the locations where opioid receptors are present in the human body. [2]
OR
A modern pathology laboratory uses non-conventional methods of diagnosis for detecting a disease early.
(a) Which method that they use is based on the principle of antigen-antibody interaction? [1]
(b) Describe the procedure of using ssDNA or RNA probes. [2]
(c) Name any two conventional methods of diagnosis which are not helpful in the early detection of diseases.
[2]

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