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CAPM Analysis and Investment Evaluation

The document outlines various financial calculations including project cost of capital, net present value (NPV), and expected returns for different investments. It discusses the implications of CAPM, Sharpe ratios, and the impact of diversification on portfolio risk. Additionally, it evaluates specific investment opportunities and their respective financial metrics, concluding that some projects may not be good investments due to their risk-return profiles.

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Mayank Singh
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
29 views26 pages

CAPM Analysis and Investment Evaluation

The document outlines various financial calculations including project cost of capital, net present value (NPV), and expected returns for different investments. It discusses the implications of CAPM, Sharpe ratios, and the impact of diversification on portfolio risk. Additionally, it evaluates specific investment opportunities and their respective financial metrics, concluding that some projects may not be good investments due to their risk-return profiles.

Uploaded by

Mayank Singh
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as XLSX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

β= 1.

5 Project cost of capital: E(r_i)=


E(r_m)= 8% E(r_i) =
r_f = 4%

Year -> 0 1
Capital Expenditure -1,200,000

Cash flow $ 340,000

10% PV @ r=10% $ -1,200,000 $ 309,091

NPV (Project) = $ 88,867.5

NPV (Project) > 0 Furniture Depot should take this project


r_f + β [E(r_m) -r_f] E(r_i)=
10.0% ρ (i_m)
r_f =
σ(i)=
2 3 4 5 E(r_m)=
σ(m)=

$ 340,000 $ 340,000 $ 340,000 $ 340,000 Where,


r= rate
$ 280,992 $ 255,447 $ 232,225 $ 211,113

t
25% β = σ(i_m) * ρ (i_m)/ σ(m)
0.80
3% β= 1.33
25%
20%
15%

According to CAPM, the actual return (25%) has been lesser than
Accordng to CAPM
Project cost of capital: E(r_i)= r_f + β [E(r_m) -r_f]

E(r_i) = 25.7%

Average return " E(r_)


eturn (25%) has been lesser than expected returns (25.7%) Standard dev. "σ
Correlation

W_d =
W_e =
Average return " E(r_)
Standard dev. "σ
Correlation
Correlation
Weightage
Correlation

Standard dev
Standard dev
Standard dev

E(r_i)=
E(r_i)=

Standard deviation:

W_d 25%
W_e 55%
W_c 20%

The expected return for crypto (2%


standalone investment, it would ha

Since crypto has a negative correla


crypto being a volatile asset by its
Risk free Debt Equity
age return " E(r_) 3% 6% 10%
ndard dev. "σ 0% 12% 20%
ρ -0.20

0.3 E(r_i)= W_d*E(r_d)+W_e*E(r_m)


0.7 E(r_i)= 8.8%

Standard Dev σ_p= Sqrt (w_D² * σ_D² + w_E² * σ_E² + 2 * w_D * w_E * σ_D *
σ_p= 13.7%

Sharp ratio
Part 1: E(r_p)= 8.80%
r_f= 3.00%
σ_p 13.74%
Sp= 0.422

Part 2: E(r_c)= 2.00%


r_f= 3.00%
σ_c 25.00%
Sc= -0.040

# A negative Sharpe ratio means that the investment is yielding returns below
# A negative Sharpe ratio (Sp = -0.040) suggests that the project is not a good investment b
compensating for the risk taken,
Risk free Debt Equity Crypto
ge return " E(r_) 3% 6% 10% 2.0%
ard dev. "σ 0% 12% 20% 25.0%
ρ(c_e) -0.50
ρ(c_d) -0.30
W 25% 55% 20%
ρ(d_e) -0.20

σ(d) 12% Standard dev σ(d_e) -0.48%


σ(e) 20% Standard dev σ(c_d) -0.90%
σ(c) 25% Standard dev σ(c_e) -2.50%

W_d*E(r_d)+W_e*E(r_m)+W_c*E(r_c)
7.4%

dard deviation: Variance=

W_d W_e W_c σ_p= 8.8%


25% 55% 20%
0.0009 -0.0007 -0.00045
-0.00066 0.0121 -0.00275
-0.00045 -0.00275 0.0025

Part 3: E(r_c)= 7.40%


r_f= 3.00%
σ_c 8.82%
Sc= 0.499

return for crypto (2%) is lower than both debt and equity, while its risk (25%) is much highe
estment, it would have a low or negative Sharpe ratio, meaning a poor risk-return tradeoff

as a negative correlation with both debt & equity, it helps to reduce the overall portfolio ris
volatile asset by itself. This diversification benefit makes crypto a valuable addition to the
Debt Equity
E('r) 6% 12%
Amount 100 250
Weightage 28.6% 71.4%

Before Tax WACC 10.3%

If we adjust the tax in Debt, then we need not factor in t


that case the Aftr tax WACC can be used for calculating
After tax WACC 9.9%

2 * w_D * w_E * σ_D * σ_E * ρ_DE)

returns below the risk-free rate


not a good investment because it’s not
(25%) is much higher. As a
risk-return tradeoff on its own.

e overall portfolio risk, despite


able addition to the portfolio.
Tax 21%

need not factor in the Interest on Debt in Net taxable income computation, then in
sed for calculating required rate of return
0 1
0 Capital Expenditure $ -35,000,000

1 Revenue $ 7,500,000
2 Expenses $ 2,000,000
3 Interest $ 600,000
4= 1-2-3 EBT $ 4,900,000
5= Rate *4 Taxes @ 21% $ 1,029,000
6= 4-5 Net Income $ 3,871,000
7= 3+6 Op. Cash flow $ 4,471,000

8= 7+0 Total CF $ -35,000,000 $ 4,471,000

C= $ 4,471,000
PV of Cash-inflow:- Annuity of C for 20 yrs @ r=10.3%
C/r [1- 1/(1+r)^t]
PV of Cash-inflow:- $ 37,333,473

NPV = $ 2,333,473
Total investment =
Debt
Equity
2 …..20 Debt 6%
Interest

$ 7,500,000 $ 7,500,000
$ 2,000,000 $ 2,000,000
$ 600,000 $ 600,000
$ 4,900,000 $ 4,900,000
$ 1,029,000 $ 1,029,000
$ 3,871,000 $ 3,871,000
$ 4,471,000 $ 4,471,000

$ 4,471,000 $ 4,471,000
35000000
10000000
25000000
$ 10,000,000
$ 600,000

The formula for CAPM is:

r = r_f+β×(r_m−r_f)

Where:
r = Required return (discount rate)
Risk-free rate = r_f=3%
Market return = r_m= 9% or 0.09
β = Beta of the division

Discount Rate for Telecommunications Division


r_Tel= 0.03 + 0.50×(0.09−0.03)
r_tel= 6.0%

Discount Rate for Media Division


r_Tel= 0.03 + 1.05×(0.09−0.03)
r_med= 9.3%

Overall Discount Rate for the Firm


r_company​= 0.60×r_tel​+0.40×r_med
r_company​= 7.3%

Final Answers:
1. Telecommunications Discount Rate: 6%
2. Media Discount Rate: 9.3%
3. Overall Company Discount Rate (for acquisition)
Part a

tions Division (60% of the firm)

(40% of the firm)


Part b

(for acquisition): 7.32%


Risk free Global crisis hedge S&P 500
Average return " E(r_) 2.5% 2% 8%
Standard dev. "σ 0% 8% 17%
Correlation ρ -0.75

Global crisis hedge Sharp ratio S&P 500


E(r_g)= 2.00% E(r_sp)=
r_f= 2.50% r_f=
σ_g 8.00% σ_sp
S_g= -0.063

Quantitative Explanation:
# On a standalone basis, the Global Crisis Hedge Fund seems less attractive than the S&P 500 due to
# A negative Sharpe ratio indicates that the fund’s returns are below the risk-free rate when consider

# The correlation between the hedge fund and the S&P 500 is -0.75. This negative correlation implies

Qualitative Explanation:
The Global Crisis Hedge Fund invests in alternative assets such as precious metals and water ri
In periods of market downturns or high volatility in equities (like the S&P 500), having exposure t
Investors who are risk-averse or concerned about future market instability might allocate part of the
Sharp ratio
8.00%
2.50%
17.0%
S_sp= 0.324

n the S&P 500 due to the negative Sharpe ratio.


ee rate when considering its volatility (risk).

ve correlation implies that the hedge fund can act as a diversifier in a broader portfolio, reducing overall portfol

metals and water rights, which tend to perform well during economic crises or inflationary periods. Inve
0), having exposure to uncorrelated or negatively correlated assets can significantly reduce losses and pr
ht allocate part of their portfolio to this hedge fund as a way to manage and mitigate systemic risks
educing overall portfolio risk.

tionary periods. Investors may value this as a hedge against market volatility or unexpected economic s
y reduce losses and protect wealth.
stemic risks.
nexpected economic shocks.

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