D’29 LOCOMOTOR MODULAR EXAM

ANATOMY

1. An individual comes to the clinic with an injury to right scapula. After examination, it is found that
his subscapularis is injured. Where does this muscle originate from?
A. Acromion Process
B. Coracoid Process
C. Dorsal Surface
D. Inferior angle
E. Medial Border on costal surface (medial margin of costal surface)

2. The Great Saphenous vein is used by cardiac surgeons to replace disease coronary artery in bypass
surgery. Lead in/ Question statement: replacing vein terminate into
A. Dorsal venous arch
B. External iliac vein
C. Femoral vein
D. Popliteal vein
E. Plantar venous arch

3. A house officer in the neurological ward while examining the patient noticed that hitting the
hammer on tendocalcaneous causes plantar flexion at the ankle joint. Muscles that form the hitting
tendon are.
A. Flexor Digitorum Longus & Flexor Hallucis Longus
B. Flexor Digitorum Longus & Gastrocnemius
C. Flexor Hallucis Longus & Soleus
D. Gastrocnemius & Soleus
E. Flexor Digitorum Longus & Soleus

4. A 25 year old girl came into the OPD with complain of severe pain on flexing the hip joint after
exercise. After examination diagnosis of sudden contraction of the muscle i.e, is powerful flexor of
the hip joint was made. Contracted muscle is
A. Articular genu
B. Iliopsoas
C. Pectineus
D. Vastus Medialis
E. Vastus Lateralis

5. During formative assessments the examiner asked a medical student about the type of collagen
fibre found in the extracellular matrix of bone. The student gave the correct answer. His reply was:
A. Type I
B. Type II
C. Type III
D. Type IV
E. Type V
6. A motorcycle rider had an accident and was brought to the emergency. The on-duty doctor saw
swelling on his left shoulder and upon being asked to abduct, the patient could not. The x-ray showed
a fracture at the surgical neck of the humerus. Which nerve is most likely to be damaged?
A. Axillary
B. Median
C. Musculocutaneous
D. Radial
E. Ulnar

7. Movements of inversion and eversion of foot takes place at:

A. Subtalar and transverse tarsal joint
B. Subtalar and calcaneocuboid joint
C. Subtalar and ankle joint
D. Talo calcaneonavicular joint

[Link] the popliteal fossa,which of the following are the most deeply placed structures in the
popliteal fossa?
A. small saphenous vein
B. popliteal artery
C. tibial nerve
D. common fibular nerve
E. posterior cutaneous nerve of thigh

9. A patient has undergone a lower leg surgery presented with an inability to flex the toes and a drop
foot. This presentation is most likely due to an injury or dysfunction of which muscle group?
A. Anterior Compartment of Leg Muscles
B. Lateral Compartment of Leg Muscles
C. Anterior Compartment of Leg Muscles
D. Posterior Compartment Muscles
E. Deep Posterior Compartment Muscles

10. Which of the following muscles has its attachment on the radial tuberosity?
A. Triceps
B. Biceps Brachii
C. Brachioradialis
D. Brachialis
E. Teres Major

11. A 56 year old male patient came into the clinic complaining of difficulty in walking. During the
examination, the patient is having a positive trendelenburg’s test. Which of the following nerve
damage can be seen in this condition?
A. Femoral Nerve
B. Sciatic Nerve
C. Superior Gluteal Nerve
D. Inferior Gluteal Nerve
E. Pudendal Nerve
12. a 55-year-old patient presents with pain and weakness in the shoulder, especially when lifting the
arm or reaching behind the back. On physical examination, the patient has difficulty in lateral rotation
of the arm. Which muscle is most likely affected?
A. Infraspinatus
B. Pectoralis minor
C. Subscapularis
D. Biceps Brachii
E. Triceps Brachii

13. In adults, the neck of the femur is inclined at 125° angle with the shaft. What is the angle of the
neck of the femur in children?
A. 130
B. 140
C. 150
D. 155
E. 160

14. Pectineus muscle originates from the superior ramus of the pubis and inserts at the upper lines
aspera of the shaft of the femur. What is the action of the pectineus muscle of the thigh?
A. Flexes and abducts
B. Extends and adducts
C. Flexes and adducts
D. Extends and abducts
E. Extends and rotates

15. The calcaneus is the largest tarsal bone of the foot and forms the prominence of the heel. It
articulates above with the talus and in front with the cuboid bone. How many tarsal bones are present
in the foot?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
E. 11

16. After the injury of the first patient complains of loss of sensation on the dorsal aspect of the first
web space. Which of the following nerves are likely to be involved? Deep peroneal
A. Superficial peroneal
B. Dee peroneal
C. Saphenous nerve
D. Sural nerve
E. Medial Plantar

17. A 40-year old man came with the complaint of pain and swelling in hand since two days and now
has difficulty in flexing medial four fingers. Which of the following space infections can lead to the
above-mentioned condition?
A. Dorsal subaponeurotic
B. Hypothenar
 A. Mid Palmar
B. Superficial pulp of the fingers
C. Thenar

18. Choose the incorrect statement regarding muscle inserted into the iliotibial tract? The given
explanation best corresponds to which of the following.
A. Innervated by inferior gluteal nerve
B. Main extension of hip joint
C. Ideal for intramuscular injection
D. Medial rotator of thigh
E. Essential for maintaining the posture

19. An 18 year old man sustained an inversion injury of the ankle while he was playing football on x-
ray the ankle shows no fracture which of the following ligaments is most likely to injure the given
explanation corresponds to which of the following.
A. Anterior Talo fibular ligament
B. Anterior Tibiofibular Ligament
C. Calcaneofibular Ligament
D. Deltoid Ligament
E. Posterior TaloFibular Ligament

20. While teaching medical students, the teacher showed an oval opening which is below and medial
to the pubic tubercle. Select the odd one out
A. It is Saphenous opening
B. It lies in superficial fascia
C. Closed by cribriform fascia
D. Lateral border is sharpest
E. Great saphenous vein passes into it

21. The knee can be unlocked by rotating the leg and full movement can be restored. Unlocking the
knee is done by which of the following muscle listed below
A. Soleus
B. Plantaris
C. Popliteus
D. Gastrocnemius
E. Peroneus Tertius

22. The following cutaneous nerves of the thigh are derived from T12 and L1 spinal nerves.
A. Ilioinguinal
B. Medial femoral cutaneous nerve
C. Obturator nerve
D. Lateral femoral cutaneous nerve
E. Genitofemoral nerve

23 . Select artery which don't participate in trochanteric anastomosis

A. Superior gluteal artery
B. Inferior gluteal artery
C. Obturator artery
 D. Lateral circumflex femoral
E. Medial circumflex femoral

24. The femoral sheath divides the vertical septa into three compartments, (choose the odd one)
A. Medial compartment….. femoral canal
B. Lateral compartment….. femoral artery
C. Intermediate compartment….. femoral vein
D. Medially….. inguinal lymph nodes
E. Laterally….. pierced by saphenous nerve

25. During a Mastectomy and removal of an axillary node surgeon noticed a lateral thoracic artery
running around a group of axillary nodes? The above-mentioned notes are most likely the following.
A. Apical
B. Pectoral
C. Lateral
D. Central
E. Posterior

26. Tennis players came with the complaint of pain addressed at night particularly if lying on the
factory shoulder and weakness when lifting or rotating the arms physician diagnosed it to be an injury
in the region of shoulder and involvement of muscles were predicted. What possible condition could it
be?
A. rotator cuff tear
A. Tendinopathy
B. Bursitis
C. Frozen shoulder
D. AcromioClavicular joint injury

27. a 35 year old female housemaid comes to the OPD with right knee pain. It began abruptly a few
days earlier and improved only minimally with NSAIDs. The patient spends on her knees while
working examination with no visible or abrasions but palpitation reveals intense localised pain
although the patient range of motion is normal she experiences severe pain when climbing stairs
which of the following bursa is most likely affected?
A. Anserine
B. Prepatellar
C. Popliteal
D. Suprapatellar
E. Gastrocnemius

HISTOLOGY

28. With respect to the microscopic features of muscle, T-tubules are extensions of which of the
following structure?
A. Nucleus
B. Rough Endoplasmic reticulum
C. Sarcoplasmic reticulum
D. Sarcoplasm
 E. Sarcolemma

29. A student is examining a slide of bone under a light microscope. Which of the following bone
cells will he find along the surface of the bone?

A. Osteoclast
B. Osteon
C. Lymphocytes
D. Osteoblasts
E. Chondrocytes

30. During a demonstration, structure and growth of long bones were under discussion
Long bones grow in length as a result of
A. removal of calcified cartilage
B. endochondral deposition of bone tissue
C. interstitial growth of cartilage tissue
D. appositional deposition of bone tissue
E. interstitial growth of bone tissue

EMBRYOLOGY

31. Removal of apical ridge cause

A. Degeneration of limb bud
B. Formation of structures proximal to apical ridge,no formation of new distal structures
C. Regeneration of entire limb bud from underlying mesoderm
D. Regeneration of new AER
E. Continued development in progress zone

32. Most likely feature to be observed as a result of failure of Apoptosis

A. Bone and muscle would not form
B. overlying epidermis would not form
C. proximal-distal patterning would not occur normally
D. All bones would form as the same structure
E. The digits would be connected by webbing,and would not be separated

33. Somites are developed from

A. endoderm
B. ectoderm
C. paraxial mesoderm
D. lateral plate mesoderm
E. neural crest

34. During the model study of bones the demonstrator explains the development of scapula. She told
the students about all primary and secondary centres of ossification. Scapula is developed by which of
the following
A. Somatic lateral plate mesoderm
B. Neural Crest cells
 C. Splanchnic lateral plate mesoderm
D. Axial mesoderm
E. Somatic mesoderm

PHYSIOLOGY

35. Which of the following best describes a primary reason for the resting membrane potential in
neurons
A. Chloride iron distribution
B. Equilibrium of sodium and potassium ions
C. MembranePermeability of K+ ions
D. Neurotransmitter release
E. Sodium potassium pump activity

36. Which of the following best describes the primary function of titin in skeletal muscles?
A. Anchoring of actin filaments the Z- Line
B. Anchoring of myosin filaments the Z- Line
C. Elastic and structural support for myosin filaments
D. Initiating the power stroke of myosin heads
E. Regulating the contraction speed of myosin

37. Which of the following nerve fibre is responsible for proprioception and motor sensation?
A. A-alpha fibres
B. A-beta fibres
C. A delta fibres
D. B fibres
E. C fibres

38. Which of the following drugs primarily act by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase of the
neuromuscular junction?
A. Atropine
B. Botulinum Toxin
C. Curare
D. Neostigmine
E. Norepinephrine

39. A professional sprinter is preparing for the 100m dash which typically takes about 10 seconds to
complete. As soon as a race starts the sprinter accelerates rapidly and reaches drop speed within the
first few seconds, given the short duration and high intensity of the activity, identify the source of the
energy system that the sprinter's skeletal muscle relies on to generate ATP.
A. Creatine phosphate system
B. Fatty acid
C. Oxidative phosphorylation
D. Glycogen pathway
E. Blood glucose
40. During a marathon, a runner maintains a steady pace over the course of several hours. The
runners' energy demand shifts as a race progresses moving from reliance on glycogen stores to other
energy sources. By the time the runner reaches the 20 mile mark which energy sources predominantly
fuel the skeletal muscles?
A. Amino acids
B. Blood glucose
C. Creatine phosphate
D. Fatty acids
E. Muscle glycogen

41. A runner participating in a downhill race requires careful control of muscle movement to avoid
injury. As he descends, quadriceps muscle lengthens, while controlling the body’s descent. Which
type of muscle contraction is this?
A. Eccentric contraction
B. Concentric contraction
C. Isometric contraction
D. Isotonic contraction
E. Isokinetic contraction

42. A forensic pathologist is examining a disease individual and not the presence of rigor mortis,
indicating that the muscles have become stiff postmortem. Rigor mortis occurs due to biochemical
changes in muscle tissue after death. Which of the following best explains the underlying molecular
mechanism of rigor mortis?
A. Excessive calcium causes continuous contraction
B. Increased ATP leads to sustained contraction
C. Lack of ATP prevents Myosin in detachment from actin
D. Lactic acid accumulation locks muscle fibres
E. Troponin-tropomyosin breakdown freezes muscles

43. In a muscle fibre, what is the best explanation when active tension approaches to zero, the length
of the sarcomere decreases below 1.6 micrometer
A. Complete overlap of actin filaments
B. Crumpling of myosin filaments
C. Lack of atp availability
D. Low calcium release
E. Maximum overlap of myosin cross bridges

44. What process is the one in which muscle strength increases due to the additive effect of muscle
twitch
A. Tetanization
B. Treppe
C. Muscle tone
D. Muscle fatigue
E. Isotonic contraction

45. Which of the following characteristics best distinguishes slow muscle fibres?
A. Extensive sarcoplasmic reticulum
B. High myoglobin content and oxidative metabolism
 C. Largest size and glycolic enzymes
D. Rapid contraction and fewer mitochondria
E. Small nerve fibres and rapid excitation

46. Significant quantities of ATP hydrolyses to produce ADP throughout the contraction process and
the magnitude of work carried out by the muscle directly correlates with the quantity of ATP that is
hydrolysed. What is the term for this phenomenon?
A. Actin PowerStroke theory
B. Crossbridge theory
C. Fenn effect
D. Power stroke
E. Ratchet theory of contraction

47. Which of the following primarily determines the strength of muscle contraction? Select the best
possible option.
A. Length of muscle at rest
B. Number of muscle fibres recruited
C. Number of ACh receptors
D. The thickness of Sarcolemma
E. The type of muscle fibre

48. What is the distance between one actin filament and the next actin filament on the same
sarcomere?
A. Z line
B. M line
C. I band
D. A band
E. H zone

49. Inside the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle, the calcium binds with a protein called
A. Calbindin
B. Calcineurin
C. Calexcitin
D. Calmodulin
E. Calsequestrin

50. Which protein is crucial for attachment of cytoskeleton of muscular fibres to extracellular matrix,
the deficiency of which causes muscular dystrophies:
A. Actin
B. Dystrophin
C. Myosin
D. Titin
E. Troponin

51. A 30-year-old male athlete presents with severe muscle weakness and fatigue after workouts.
Over the past few months, his symptoms have progressed. Lab tests show high serum creatine kinase
and disrupted sarcomeres. Genetic testing reveals dystrophin mutation. Which of the following best
explains the mechanism by which the genetic mutation leads through the patient’s symptoms?
 A. Defective cross bridge formation
B. Defective SERCA pump
C. Disruption of muscle cell membrane integrity
D. Impaired acetylcholine release
E. Reduced binding of calcium to troponin C

BIOCHEMISTRY

52. Which enzyme is used to convert 25 hydroxy D3 into its active form in the kidney?
A. 1-a hydroxylase
B. 24 hydroxylase
C. 25 hydroxylase
D. 7 dehydrocholesterol reductase
E. 17 beta hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase

53: What is the precursor molecule of vitamin D synthesis in the skin?

A. 7-dehydrocholesterol
B. cholecalciferol
C. cholesterol
D. ergocalciferol
E. ergosterol

54. Which of the following is a common cause of elevated phosphate level in the blood? The given
explanation best corresponds to one of the following.
A. Hyperparathyroidism
B. Osteoporosis
C. Rickets
D. Renal failure
E. Thymoma

55. Which of the following enzyme activity is used as an indicator of liver function and bone disease?
The given explanation is best for response to one of the following.
A. Aspartate Aminotransferase
B. Alanine aminotransferase
C. Alkaline phosphatase
D. Gamma glutamyl transferase
E. Osteocalcin

56. The hormone responsible for bone resorption to increase serum calcium levels:
A. Parathyroid
B. Calcitonin
C. Insulin
D. Thyroxine
E. Testosterone

PATHOLOGY
57. Which of the following is a type of fracture with bone being shattered into multiple pieces?
A. Comminuted fracture
B. Greenstick fracture
C. Transverse fracture
D. Spiral fracture
E. Oblique fracture

58. A 65 year old woman presents to the clinic with a history of multiple fractures over the past few
years, despite minor trauma. She has a stooped posture, and her bone mineral density (BMD) test
reveals significantly low bone density. Laboratory tests show normal levels of calcium and phosphate
but decreased levels of oestrogen. Which of the following best explains the underlying pathogenesis
of her osteoporosis?
A. Increased osteoblastic activity leading to excessive bone formation
B. Increased parathyroid hormone secretion causing bone resorption
C. Decreased osteoclast activity resulting in dense but fragile bones
D. Decreased oestrogen levels leading to increased osteoblast activity and bone
resorption
E. Excessive vitamin D leading to hyper mineralisation of bones

59. A 10-year-old boy falls off his bicycle and lands on his outstretched arm. He is brought to the
emergency department with payments spelled in his forearm and x-ray reviews. The bone is partially
fractured on one side, with the other side of the bone slightly bent but intact. What type of fracture is
most likely seen in this patient?
A. Comminuted fracture
B. Greenstick fracture
C. Transverse fracture
D. Spiral fracture
E. Oblique fracture

60. Which of the following is a major risk factor for the development of osteoporosis?
A. High body Weight
B. Regular weight bearing exercise
C. Adequate calcium and vitamin D intake
D. Postmenopausal status
E. Male gender

61. Which of the following corresponds to the first step in fracture repair?
A. bone remodelling
B. bony callus formation
C. hematoma formation
D. Vascularisation of site
E. Fibrocartilaginous callus formation

PHARMACOLOGY
62. A six-year-old boy presented in paediatric OPD with chickenpox infection. Physical examination
showed that the child had fever and mild dehydration. Aspirin is contraindicated in this child because
of increased risk of which of the following complications?
A. Fanconi Syndrome
B. Gastric bleeding
C. Nephrotoxicity
D. Reye’s syndrome
E. Thrombocytopenia

63. A 32 year old female schizophrenic patient is brought to ER with complaints of nausea, vomiting
and right upper quadrant pain. Lab monitoring short deranged liver function tests. Her urinary drug
screening showed acetaminophen positive. She was diagnosed with acetaminophen poisoning. Which
of the following agents can be used as an antidote in this patient?
A. Activated charcoal
B. N acetyl cysteine
C. Protamine sulphate
D. Sodium bicarbonate
E. Sulphapyridine

64. Which of the following NASIDs irreversibly inhibits cyclo-oxygenase?

A. Acetaminophen
B. Aspirin
C. Diclofenac
D. Mefenamic acid
E. Naproxen

65. Which effect of aspirin would occur by blockage of this? (picture given)
A. Antiplatelet
B. Antipyretic
C. Analgesic
D. Anti inflammatory
E. Antitumour

COMMUNITY MEDICINE

66. The concept which counts people who are represented in a given territory on the census days is
called:
A. De facto counting
B. De Jure counting
C. Enumeration
D. Population
E. Sample survey
67. When researchers want to collect primary data examine some research questions they collect data
information about a part of population with the view to make inferences about the whole and this is
called:
A. Demographic sample survey
B. Population Census
C. Service statistics
D. Surveillance
E. Vital registration

68. The system that keeps continuous record of vital events such as birth, death, marriage, divorce in a
defined territory is called
A. Vital registration
B. Population census
C. Demographic sample survey
D. Service status
E. Surveillance

BEHAVIOURAL SCIENCE

69. A 17 year old boy is brought to you by his mother. While his mother has no major concerns, there
have been ongoing problems with his behaviour reported by the school. He is not listening when
spoken to him, repeatedly changing his activities to another and reluctant to engage in activities that
require persistent mental efforts, making careless mistakes and regularly losing belongings. The
school finds that he is very slow, and forgets daily tasks and avoids communication with others. He
has no close friends. What would be the preferred diagnosis to explore?
A. Combined ADHD
B. hyperactive ADHD
C. Inattentive ADHD
D. Autism syndrome
E. Asperger’s syndrome

70. A 10-year-old boy is brought to the clinic with school refusal. His mother reports that the boy has
never had clear friendships at, and tends to talk over other children and is hyperactive in school and
clinical assessment revealed he is diagnosed with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder. Which
interventions would you like to consider in this case?
A. Psychotherapy, behavioural therapy and ADHD counselling
B. Educational programs, psycho, stimulants psychotherapy and support group
C. Behavioural therapy pharmacotherapy and teacher training
D. Parent training and behavioural therapy
E. Antipsychotic and behavioural therapy

RADIOLOGY

71. A25-year-old male visited the OPD with a history of trauma to the anterior aspect of the right
knee. He was investigated with the AP (anteroposterior) and lateral radiograph of the knee. A
triangular bone with apex inferiorly is seen in front of the knee joint. The given explanation
corresponds to which of the following?
 A. Avulsed bone
B. Lateral epicondyle
C. Medial epicondyle
D. Patella
E. TBL tuberosity

72. A 32-year old woman is brought to the emergency department with a history of assault. She has a
laceration of the lateral side of right elbow joint. Which muscle is likely to be severed?
A. Brachioradialis
B. Pronator teres
C. Biceps brachii
D. Coracobrachialis
E. Triceps brachii

OSPE
Figure 2 (Questions: 73-77)

73. Identify the muscle:

A. Supraspinatus
B. Supinator
C. Infraspinatus
D. Deltoid
E. Pectoralis

74. Muscle is originating from, (select odd one out)

A. clavicle
B. spine of scapula
C. acromion
D. humerus
E. thoracic spine

75. Nerve supply of the muscle:

A. Musculocutaneous
B. Ulnar
C. Axillary
D. Radial
 E. Median

76. Action of it, (select odd one out)

A. Adduction of arm
B. Abduction of arm
C. Lateral rotation of arm
D. Horizontally Extend the arm
E. Flexion and Medial Rotation of the arm

77. Clinical importance, it is used clinically for:

A. Intramuscular injection
B. Intravenous injections
C. To wrap cuff for BP monitoring
D. To maintain IV line
E. To record pulse

Figure 3 (Questions: 78-82)

78. At which week do complete separation of hand and foot occur

A. Week 4
B. Week 5
C. Week 6
D. Week 8
E. Week 9

79. At which week digital Ray's appear

A. Week 5
B. Week 6
C. Week 7
D. Week 8
E. Week 9

80. At which week do hand plates form?

A. Week 4
B. Week 5
C. Week 7
D. Week 8
E. Week 9
81. Rotation of limbs takes place in?
A. Week 4
B. Week 5
C. Week 6
D. Week 7
E. Week 9

82. Upper limb bends at the elbow and fingers are slightly webbed at.
A. Week 4
B. Week 5
C. Week 6
D. Week 7
E. Week 9

Figure 4 (Questions: 83-87)

83. Identification
A. Radial nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Ulnar Nerve
D. Musculocutaneous nerve
E. Axillary Nerve

84. Root value of this nerve

A. C7, C8 and T1
B. C5, C6 and C7
C. C6, C7 and C8
D. C8 and T1
E. C5, C6

85. Muscle supplied by it.

A. Adductor pollicis
B. Extensor carpi radialis
C. Extensor carpi Alaris
D. Supinator
E. Flexor carpi ulnaris

86. Its damage causes abnormalities.

A. Wrist drop
 B. Claw like hand
C. Ape like hand
D. Numbness over the lateral forearm
E. Wasting of the deltoid muscle

87. This nerve is arising from.

A. Medial cord
B. Posterior cord
C. Roots
D. Lateral Cord
E. Trunks

Figure 5 (Questions: 88-90)

88. Which of the following labelled muscles are responsible for eversion of foot?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

89. The muscle labelled with the letter “D” has one of the following actions on foot
A. Abduction
B. Adduction
C. Eversion
D. Inversion
E. Plantae reflection

90. The lab muscle with “C” is which of the following muscles
A. Extensor digitorum longus
B. Gastrocnemius
C. Peroneus longus
D. Soleus
E. Tibialis Anterior
 CBL

Figure 6 (Questions: 91-100)

Scenario:
A 32 year old female, teacher by profession, c\o increased feeling of tiredness in her arms when she
continued to write for some time on blackboard continuously. Her arm dropped by her side and only
improved if she rested for sometime. She reports difficulty with eyelids, double vision, swallowing
and slurred speech. Upper examination: patient was asked to lift her arm to 90° repetitively, muscle
strength decreased with repetitive testing. There was a difficulty in doing flexion at wrist joint.. to
check reflexes doctor passed his finger on the tendon of a muscle and cubital fossa and struck it with a
hammer.
Laboratory tests reveal positive acetylcholine receptor antibodies, EMG with a decremental response,
and a chest CT scan indicates a thymic hyperplasia.

91: Which of the following muscles is tested when a patient is asked to raise the arm?
A. Deltoid
B. Serratus anterior
C. Subscapularis
D. Teres major
E. Trapezius

92. Which of the following nerve root values is responsible for the jerk checked at cubital fossa?
A. C4 – C5
B. C4 – C5 – C6
C. C5 – C6
D. C6 – C7
E. C7 – C8

93. Which of the following nerves supplies the muscle responsible for mentioned movement at the
wrist joint?
A. Anterior Interosseous
B. Median
C. Posterior Interosseus
D. Radial
E. Ulnar

94. Which of the following bones articulates to form the mentioned joint?
A. Radius and proximal carpal bones
B. Radius and Ulna
C. Radius articular disc and proximal carpal bones
D. Ulna articular and proximal carpal bones
 E. Ulna and proximal carpal bones

95. What is the most likely diagnosis based on the patient’s presentation?
A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
B. Guillain Barre syndrome
C. Lambert Eaton myasthenic syndrome
D. Multiple sclerosis
E. Myasthenia gravis

96. Which of the following is a primary pathophysiological mechanism?

A. Autoimmune attack on the neuromuscular junction
B. Degeneration of muscle fibres
C. Demyelination of motor neurons
D. Destruction of acetylcholine receptors
E. Excessive release of acetylcholine
97. Which of the following is a common anatomical abnormality associated with this disorder?
A. Adrenal hyperplasia
B. Parathyroid hyperplasia
C. Pineal gland calcification
D. Pituitary adenoma
E. Thymic Hyperplasia

98. Which of the following pharmacological drugs are used in symptomatic treatment of this
condition?
A. Albuterol
B. Atropine
C. Diazepam
D. Prednisone
E. Pyridostigmine

99. What is the primary reason for performing a chest CT scan in this patient?
A. To assess diaphragm weakness
B. To detect lung metastasis
C. To evaluate pulmonary function
D. Identify thymic abnormalities
E. To rule out cardiac involvement

100. Which of the following is a potential complication of untreated or severe disease state
A. Acute Respiratory failure
B. Cardiomyopathy
C. Chronic kidney disease
D. Deep vein thrombosis
E. Pulmonary embolism