RAS PRE.

Test Series : 2024-25

INDIAN ECONOMY

PAPER ID : SBA-021

Answer Key
Date : 29 September, 2024

HINDI & ENGLISH MEDIUM

JAIPUR
A-1, Keshav Vihar, Riddhi Siddhi Chouraha, Gopalpura By Pass,
Jaipur, Rajasthan - 302018 | Mob. : 0141-3597948, 9636977490

JODHPUR
P. No 145 Samrathal Tower Manji Ka Hattha, Paota,
Page No.{1}
Jodhpur (Rajasthan) 342006 | Mob. : 7726944080
1. 1. The effect of capital expenditure is-
[1] [1] It increases assets and reduces liabilities.
[2] [2] It increases liabilities and reduces assets.
[3] [3] It increases both liabilities and assets.
[4] [4] It reduces both liabilities and assets.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
2. 2. Fiscal deficit is-
[1] [1] Total Expenditure - (Revenue Receipts + Recovery
of Loans + Receipts from Disinvestment)
[2] [2] Total Expenditure – Total Receipts

[3] [3] Total Expenditure - Revenue Receipts - Recovery

of Loans + Receipts from Disinvestment

[4] [4] Total Expenditure - Revenue Receipts - Receipts

from Disinvestment + Recovery of Loans

[5] [5] Question Not Attempted

Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
3. Which of the following is not included in the capital
3.
account of the Union Budget?
[1] Loans given
[1]
[2] Loans repaid
[2]
[3] Loans recovered
[3]
[4] All of the above are included
[4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
Loans recovered (principal) are included in the capital
receipts of the Union Budget.
4. In which year's budget the distinction between
4. planned and non-planned expenditure was
abolished?
[1] 2014 [2] 2015 [1] 2014 [2] 2015
[3] 2017 [4] 2019 [3] 2017 [4] 2019
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
5. 5. The actual figures in the three years figure presented
in the annual financial statement are related to-

[1] [1] The current financial year

[2] The previous financial year
[2]
[3] The next financial year
[3]
[4] The current and previous financial year
[4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [2]
Sol. [2]

Page No.{2}
6. 6. Which of the following is not included in the Revenue
Account of the Union Budget?
[1] [1] Interest Receipts
[2] [2] Indirect Tax Receipts
[3] Grant Receipts
[3]
[4] Small Savings
[4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
Small savings are included in internal debt receipts
which are included in capital receipts. Small savings
are a liability of the government.
7. 7. Consider the following statements with reference to
Pradhan Mantri Janjati Unnat Gram Abhiyan -
A. A. This campaign will be run to provide full coverage
to tribal families in tribal dominated villages and
aspiring districts.
B. 63000 villages will be included in this campaign.
B. 63000
Select the correct statement
[1] A only [2] B only
[1] A [2] B
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[3] A B [4] A, B [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] Pradhan Mantri Janjati Unnat Gram Abhiyan has been
announced in the Union Budget 2024-25, it has been
2024 25 started to improve the socio-economic condition of
tribal communities. It will benefit 5 crore people of
63000
63000 villages.
5
8. What is the maximum loan amount in Tarun category
8. 2024 25
in Mudra loan under the Union Budget 2024-25?
[1] 10 lakh [2] 12.50 lakh
[1] 10 [2] 12.50 [3] 15 lakh [4] 20 lakh
[3] 15 [4] 20 [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [4]
Sol. [4] The Mudra scheme was launched on 8 April 2015.
8 2015 Under this scheme, three types of loans are provided,
Shishu up to 50000, Kishor from 50000 to 5 lakh and
50000 50000 5
Tarun from 5 lakh to 20 lakh. In the Union Budget 2024-
5 20
25, loans up to Rs.20 lakh will be provided to those
2024 25 20 entrepreneurs who had previously taken a loan under
the Tarun category and have successfully repaid it.
9. Consider the following statements related to the
9. Model Solar Village Scheme under the PM Surya
Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana-
A. 10000 A. Only revenue villages with a population of more
than 10000 and more than 5000 in special category
5000
Page No.{3}
 states will be eligible to join this scheme.
B. B. Under this, the selected village will be given a
central financial assistance grant of Rs 1 crore.
Choose the incorrect statement
[1] A only [2] B only
[1] A [2] B
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[3] A B [4] A, B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
PM Surya Ghar Muft Bijli Yojana Provisions for
installation of rooftop solar plants to enable one crore
300 families in India to get free electricity up to 300 units
per month. Model Solar Village will be selected in
5000 2000 villages with a population of more than 5000 and in
special category states, villages with a population of
more than 2000. The Model Solar Village will be
6
selected on the basis of the overall distributed
renewable energy capacity of that village in 6 months.
10. 2024
10. Consider the following statements related to the
World Happiness Index 2024-
A. 126 A. This year India has been ranked 126th.
B. 20 B. This index is released on March 20 every year on
World Happiness Day.
Choose the correct statement
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
• • The World Happiness Index is released every year
on World Happiness Day, March 20 by the United
20
Nations Sustainable Development Solutions
Network.
• 2024 126
• India's rank in the World Happiness Index 2024 is
126 (Score 4.05), which is the same as last year.
11. 2024 11. Select the incorrect from the following statements
with reference to the World Happiness Index 2024-
A. A. A total of three indicators are used to measure this
index.
B. B. Gallup survey is conducted for this index.
[1] A [2] B [1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
Three questions are asked to measure the World
Happiness Index and 6 indicators are used. These
6
indicators are GDP per capita, healthy standard of
living, freedom of choice, generosity, social security and
Page No.{4}
 absence of corruption.
12. 12. Consider the following statements :

A. 2022 134 A. India ranks 134th in the Human Development Index

2022.
B. 0 644
B. India's score in the Human Development Index is
0.644.
[1] A [2] B
Select the correct statements-
[3] A B [4] A, B [1] A only [2] B only
[5] [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
2021 0 434 Human Development Index is released by the United
135 2022 2023- Nations Development Programme. India was ranked
24 0 644 134 135th in the year 2021 with a score of 0.434 but in the
year 2022 (Human Development Report 2023-24), India
13. has reached 134th position with a score of 0.644.
13. The factors not included in the calculation of Gender
Inequality Index are-
[1]
[1] Maternal mortality rate
[2]
[2] Per capita income
[3]
[3] Labour force participation
[4]
[4] Participation in Parliament
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
Gender Inequality Index is also released by the United
Nations Development Programme. It is calculated on
the basis of the five bases (Maternal mortality rate,
adolescent birth rate, participation in parliament,
2022 2023-24) 0 437 population with minimum secondary education, labour
108 force participation). In the year 2022 (Human
Development Report 2023-24), India is ranked 108th
14. 2022
with 0.437.
14. Select the incorrect statement from the following with
[1] 2022
reference to Human Development Index 2022.
[1] In the year 2022, India has been placed in the
[2] 2022 67 7 medium human development category under this.
[2] Life expectancy at birth in India in 2022 is estimated
[3] 2022 6542 to be 67.7 years.
[3] Per capita Gross National Income (GNI) for India
[4] 2022 12 6 in 2022 is estimated to be $ 6542.
[4] Expected years of schooling for India in 2022 is 12.6
[5] years.

Page No.{5}
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
6951 The Human Development Report, 2023-24 estimates
15. the gross national income per capita for India at $6951.
15. What percentage of the salary of a government
employee is deposited by the government in the
pension fund of working Government employee
[1] 10% [2] 12%
under the New Pension Scheme?
[3] 14% [4] 16%
[1] 10% [2] 12%
[5]
[3] 14% [4] 16%
Sol. [3]
[5] Question Not Attempted
16.
Sol. [3]
16. Tax burden of which of the following taxes cannot
A.
be transfered?
B. A. Minimum Alternate Tax
C. B. Stamp Duty
D. C. Basic Custom Duty
[1] A B [2] A, B C D. Electricity Tax
[3] C D [4] B, C D [1] A and B only [2] A, B and C
[5] [3] C and D only [4] B, C and D
Sol. [1] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
Minimum Alternate Tax is a direct tax levied by the
Central Government and Stamp Duty is a direct tax
levied by the State Government.
17.
The tax burden of direct taxes cannot be transfered.
A.
17. Consider the following statements-
A. GST was first recommended by the Vijay Kelkar
B. 2018 101
Committee.
B. The 101st Constitutional Amendment was made in
2018 to implement GST.
[1] A [2] B
Select the incorrect statements-
[3] A, B [4] A B
[1] A only [2] B only
[5] [3] Neither A, nor B [4] Both A and B
Sol. [2] [5] Question Not Attempted
2016 101 Sol. [2]
1 2017 The 101st Constitutional Amendment was made in 2016
18. to implement GST and implemented from July 1, 2024.
18. Who has been appointed the first Chairman of the
[1] GST Appellate Tribunal?
[2] [1] Justice Aniruddha Bose
[3] [2] Justice Arun Kumar Mishra
[4] [3] Justice A.S. Bopanna
Page No.{6}
 [5] [4] Justice Sanjay Kumar Mishra
Sol. [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
19. Sol. [4]
19. In any state except NorthEastern and Himalayan
states, it is mandatory for a business with what
minimum annual turnover to register under GST
[1] 20 [2] 40 system?
[3] 10 [4] 50 [1] 20 lakhs [2] 40 lakhs
[3] 10 lakhs [4] 50 lakhs
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
Object-

O;olk; jkT; U;wu re VuZv ksoj Activity State Type Threshold

lkekU; jkT; 40 yk[k Normal Category States Exceeds Rs. 40 lakh
oLrq ls lacaf/kr Sale of Goods
mÙkj&iwohZ o fgeky;h jkT; 20 yk[k Special Category States Exceeds Rs. 20 lakh
Normal Category States Exceeds Rs. 20 lakh
lkekU; jkT; 20 yk[k Providing Services
lsok vkiwfrZ ls lacaf/kr Special Category States Exceeds Rs. 10 lakh
mÙkj&iwohZ o fgeky;h jkT; 10 yk[k
Therefore, except for the North-Eastern and Himalayan
states, it is mandatory for any business having a
20 GST minimum annual turnover of Rs 20 lakh in other states
to get registered under GST.
20. 20. Which of the following is not a tool of fiscal policy?
[1] Public expenditure
[1] [2] Disinvestment
[2] [3] Open Market Operations
[3] [4] Changes in direct tax
[4] [5] Question Not Attempted

[5] Sol. [3]

Sol. [3] 21. The negative impact of high fiscal deficit includes -

21. [1] More difficulty in borrowing by the government in

[1] future.

[2] [2] Decrease in availability of credit for the private

sector.
[3]
[3] Economy getting into debt trap.
[4]
[4] All of the above
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
22.
22. Consider the following statements with reference to
Unified Pension Scheme-
A. 1 2025
A. This scheme will come into effect from 1st April
B. 10
2025.
12000
B. Under this scheme, a minimum assured pension of
Rs.12000 per month will be provided on retirement
C.
after at least 10 years of service.

Page No.{7}
 C. There is no provision for lump sum payment on
retirement in this pension scheme.
[1] A B [2] B C Choose the incorrect statement from the above-
[3] A C [4] A, B C [1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[5] [3] A and C only [4] A, B and C
Sol. [2] [5] Question Not Attempted

10 Sol. [2]
10000 Under this scheme, a minimum assured pension of
Rs.10000 per month will be provided on retirement
after at least 10 years of service.
This pension scheme has a provision for lump sum
10 payment on retirement, under which retirees will get a
lump sum payment equal to one tenth of their monthly
pay (basic pay + DA) for every six months of completed
23. 2016
service on retirement.
23. The recommendation of FRBM Review Committee,
[1]
2016 does not include -
[2] 2022 23 25 [1] An autonomous fiscal council should be formed.
[2] Bringing down fiscal deficit to 2.5 per cent of GDP
[3] 2022 23 05 by 2022-23.
[3] Bringing down revenue deficit to 0.5 per cent of
[4] GDP by 2022-23.
[5] [4] All of the above are included
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted

2016 Sol. [3]

FRBM Review Committee- 2016:
Chairman : N.K. Singh
2022 23 25
To bring down fiscal deficit to 2.5 percent of GDP and
08
revenue deficit to 0.8 percent of GDP by 2022-23. A
05
deviation of 0.5 percent in this target can be accepted,
this is called escape clause.
24.
24. Consider the following statements-
A. A. Both cess and surcharge are temporary in nature.
B. B. Both cess and surcharge are imposed for a specific
purpose.
C. C. On the recommendation of the Finance
Commission, surcharge is shared with the states but
not cess.

[1] A B [2] B C Choose the incorrect statement from the above-

[1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[3] A C [4] A, B C
[3] A and C only [4] A, B and C
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]

Page No.{8}
 Sol. [2]
Cess is imposed for a specific purpose and the revenue
obtained from it is used only for that purpose. Cess
and surcharge on the recommendation of the Finance
Commission are not shared with the states.
25.
25. Which of the following are included in GST ?
A. B.
A. Paneer B. Hair oil
C. D.
C. Petroleum products D. Electricity
[1] A B [2] C D
[1] A and B only [2] C and D only
[3] A, B D [4] B, C D
[3] A, B and D [4] B, C and D
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
Petroleum products, electricity, alcohol used for human
consumption are not included in GST.
26. ( )
26. Consider the following statements with reference to
the Ways and Means advance system-
A.
A. It is short-term in nature.
B.
B. Under this, loans are given by the RBI to the Central
Government and State Governments.
C.
C. It is considered as a tool for internal borrowing of
the capital receipts of the government.
Choose the correct statement from the above-
[1] A B [2] B C
[1] A and B only [2] B and C only
[3] A C [4] A, B C
[3] A and C only [4] A, B and C
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
There is some time difference in the receipts of the
government, so the government has to take a loan from
RBI for a short period, this arrangement is called Wage
and means Advance. It is not included in fiscal deficit.
27.
27. Which indirect tax of the state government is

[1] [2] completely out of GST?

[3] [4] [1] State Excise Duty [2] Luxury Tax

[5] [3] Advertisement Tax [4] Lottery Tax

Sol. [1] [5] Question Not Attempted

Sol. [1]
State Excise Duty is levied on liquor used for human
consumption, it is completely kept out of GST.
28. 28. Choose the correct statement from the following

Page No.{9}
 A. 2024 25 statements-
12 5 A. In the Union Budget 2024-25, the tax rate on long-
term gains on all financial and non-financial assets
B. 2024 25
has been fixed to 12.5%.
35
B. In the Union Budget 2024-25, the corporate tax rate
[1] A [2] B on foreign companies has been reduced to 35%.
[3] A B [4] A, B [1] A only [2] B only
[5] [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted
2024 25 40 Sol. [3]
35 In the Union Budget 2024-25, the corporate rate on
29. (PMVVY) foreign companies has been reduced from 40% to 35%.
29. The Pradhan Mantri Vaya Vandana Yojana
[1] (PMVVY) comes under which ministry ?
[2] [1] Ministry of Finance
[3] [2] Ministry of Social Justice & Empowerment
[4] [3] Ministry of Rural Development
[4] Ministry of Home Affairs
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]
 Ministry : Ministry of Finance
60  Pension Scheme exclusively for the senior citizens
aged 60 years and above.
30. 30. Select the incorrect statement regarding Pradhan
Mantri Internship Scheme
[1] Under this scheme, one crore youth will be given
[1] 500
the opportunity of internship in the top 500
companies of the country.
[2] 3 [2] The total duration of this scheme will be 3 years.
[3] 5000 [3] Under this scheme, there is a provision of internship
allowance of Rs.5000 per month.
[4] This scheme will promote employment and skill
[4]
development among the youth.
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [2]
Sol. [2] Pradhan Mantri Internship Yojana is the fifth scheme
under the Prime Minister's Package. It has been
2024 25 announced in the Union Budget 2024-25. The total
duration of this scheme will be 5 years. Under this
5
scheme, internship allowance of Rs.5000 per month and
5000 6000
one-time assistance of Rs.6000 will be provided during
internship. The company will also be able to partially
use its CSR fund for the expenses of this scheme.
31. (APY) 31. Find the correct statements related to Atal Pension
A. Yojana (APY).
A. It focusses on the all individuals engaged in the
B. 18 40 organised sector.
[1] B [2] A B. Age of joining in it is 18 years to 40 years.
Page No.{10}
 [3] A B [4] A B [1] B only [2] A only
[5] [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A nor B
Sol. [1] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
 Ministry : Ministry of Finance
 It focussed on the all citizens in the unorganised
18 40
sector.
32.  Age of joining APY is 18 years to 40 years.
32. Which of the following statements regarding India's
[1] 2022 export sector is not correct?
[1] India has become the sixth largest smartphone
exporter in the world in the year 2022.
[2] 2022
[2] India ranks second in the world in the export of
telecommunications, computer and information
[3] 2022 services in the year 2022.
43 [3] India's share of service exports in global service
[4] exports in the year 2022 is 4.3%.
[5] [4] None of the above
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
2014 23 2022
India has become the sixth largest smartphone exporter
in the world in the year 2022 from the 23rd largest
smartphone exporter in the year 2014. Globally, India
ranks sixth in the export of personal, cultural and
entertainment services, eighth in the export of other
business services and tenth in the export of transport
33 services.
33. Consider the following statements regarding
A Paramparagat Krishi Vikas yojana-
A. It is an elaborated component of Soil Health
Management (SHM) of major project National
Mission of Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA).
B
50000 B. Under the programme, financial assistance of
Rs 50000/ha/3years is provided for cluster
3
formation, capacity building, incentive for
inputs, value addition and marketing.
[1] A [2] B Select the incorrect statement/s-
[3] A B [4] A B [1] A only [2] B only
[5] [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A nor B
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]

 Government of India has been implementing
2015 16 dedicated scheme of Paramparagat Krishi Vikas
Yojana (PKVY) since 2015-16 to promote
chemical free organic farming in the country in
cluster mode.

 Under the programme, financial assistance of
50000 Rs 50000/ha/3 years is provided for cluster
3

Page No.{11}
34. formation, capacity building, incentive for
inputs, value addition and marketing.
34. Choose the correct statement from the following
A. statements related to Ayushman Bhav Abhiyan-
A. The objective of this campaign is to provide
B. complete coverage of health services to every
village and town of the country.
B. Under this campaign, Aabha ID cards are made for
the people and awareness is raised about various
[1] A [2] B health schemes, etc.
[3] A B [4] A, B [1] A only [2] B only
[5] [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
35
35. Consider the following statements with reference
to the steel sector in India:
A
A. India is the world’s second-largest steel
B 100 producer.
FDI B. 100 percent FDI through the automatic route is
allowed in the steel sector in India.
[1] B [2] A Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
[3] A B [4] A B [1] B only [2] A only
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A nor B
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
36. (UCBs) 36. National Urban Cooperative Finance and
(NUCFDC) Development Corporation (NUCFDC) has been set
up as an umbrella organisation for Urban Cooperative
Banks (UCBs) by which of the following?
[1]
[1] Union Ministry of Finance
[2] [2] Union Ministry of Cooperation
[3] [3] Reserve Bank of India
[4] NABARD
[4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [2]
Sol. [2] • The Union Ministry of Cooperation has set up
• (UCBs) National Urban Cooperative Finance and
Development Corporation (NUCFDC) as an
umbrella organisation for Urban Cooperative Banks
(NUCFDC) (UCBs).
• (NUCFDC) • The National Urban Cooperative Finance and
Development Corporation (NUCFDC) has been
granted a certificate of functioning as a ‘non-
banking finance company’ by the Reserve Bank of
37. (Redenomination) India.
37. What is meant by the term 'redenomination' in
economics?
[1] [1] Taking a currency out of circulation.
[2] [2] Bringing back into circulation the currency taken
[3] out of circulation.
[3] Decreasing value of a currency without changing
Page No.{12}
 it's purchasing power.
[4] Appreciation of currency in case of deflation.
[4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] • Redenomination means -
• Decreasing the value of a currency. For example,
making the value of a Rs.500 note to Rs.50.
500
• This is usually done as part of efforts to tackle
50 inflation.
• 38. Choose the correct statement from the following with
reference to National Payments Corporation of India
(NPCI)-
38. (NPCI) A. It was established in the year 2008 by a group of
banks.
A. 2008 B. Its objective is to provide cost-effective payment
solutions.
B. [1] A only [2] Both A and B
[1] A [2] A B [3] Neither A, nor B [4] B only
[3] A, B [4] B [5] Question Not Attempted

[5] Sol. [2]

• National Payments Corporation of India was
Sol. [2]
established in the year 2008 by a group of 10 banks
• 2008 10
with the objective of providing cost-effective
payment solutions. At present PayTM, PhonePay,
PayTM, PhonePay, Amazon Pay etc. are also its shareholders.
Amazon Pay • It is a non-profit company.
• 39. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
39. (DICGC) (DICGC) provides insurance up to Rs 5 lakh on
5 amount deposited in banks. Which of the following
are included in the insurance facility provided by it?
A. A. All Indian Commercial Banks

B. B. All Co-operative Banks

C. Regional Rural Banks
C.
D. Foreign Banks operating in India
D.
E. Local Area Banks
E.
F. Primary Co-operative Societies
F.
[1] A - B - C - D - E [2] B - C - D - E - F
[1] A - B - C - D - E [2] B - C - D - E - F
[3] A - B - D - E - F [4] A - C - D - E - F
[3] A - B - D - E - F [4] A - C - D - E - F [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1] Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
(DICGC) (DICGC)
• - 1978 • Establishment - 1978 AD
• - (RBI) • Ownership - Reserve Bank of India (RBI)

• 5 • Insurance up to Rs 5 lakh on bank deposits.

• Banks covered under insurance provided by
• (DICGC)
Page No.{13}
 Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee
- ( Corporation (DICGC)-
) - All commercial banks (including foreign banks
operating in India)
-
- Local Area Banks
-
- Regional Rural Banks
-
- All Co-operative Banks
• DICGC
• DICGC does not provide insurance on deposits in
primary co-operative societies.
40. (Paradox of Thrift) 40. What is meant by the ‘Paradox of Thrift’?
[1] Decrease in personal savings leads to an increase
[1] in overall savings in the economy.
[2] Increase in personal savings leads to an increase in
[2] overall savings in the economy.
[3] Decrease in personal savings leads to a decrease in
[3] overall savings in the economy.
[4] Increase in personal savings leads to a decrease in
overall savings in the economy.
[4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
[5]
A concept introduced by John Keynes according to
Sol. [4.] which high personal savings may harm the economy
and increased consumer spending is necessary for
economic growth.
41. Consider the following statements with reference to
the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India-
41.
A. At present, the tenure of the Governor is three years.
B. Chintaman Dwarkanath Deshmukh was the first
A.
Indian Governor.
B. C. Before independence (1947 AD), no Indian could
C. (1947 ) become a Governor.
The correct statement among the above is/are-
[1] C only [2] A only
[1] C [2] A [3] A and B only [4] B and C only
[3] A B [4] B C [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
[5]
• The Governor of the Reserve Bank of India is
Sol. [3]
appointed for 3 years and the Governor can also be
• 3 reappointed.
• Chintaman Dwarkanath Deshmukh was the first
• Indian Governor of the Reserve Bank of India and
1943 1949 his tenure was from 1943 to 1949.
42. 42. Choose the correct statement from the following-

A. A. Bond is an stock security.

B. The interest rate of a bond is called the ‘coupon rate’.
B.
[1] A only [2] B only
Page No.{14}
 [1] A [2] B [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[3] A B [4] A, B [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [2]
• A bond is a debt security.
Sol. [2]
• Short-term bond: For a period of less than one year.
•
• Long-term bond: For a period of more than one
• year.
• 43. Consider the following statements with reference to
43. India VIX India VIX index-
A. It is calculated by Bombay Stock Exchange (BSE).
A. (BSE) B. It is an indicator of near future volatility in the share
market.
B.
Choose the correct statement from the above-
[1] A and B both [2] A only
[3] Only B [4] Neither A, nor B
[1] A B [2] A
[5] Question Not Attempted
[3] B [4] A, B Sol. [3]
[5] • India VIX indicates near term volatility of the
investors towards the market. It shows the expected
Sol. [3]
market volatility over the next 30 days.
• India VIX • Higher value of VIX indicates higher volatility.
30 • VIX is calculated by National Stock Exchange (NSE)
based on NIFTY Options.
44. Consider the following with reference to Securities
• VIX
and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)-
• VIX (NSE) NIFTY
A. Madhabi Puri Buch is the first woman chief of SEBI.
Options B. Madhabi Puri Buch is the first chief of SEBI from
44. (SEBI) the private sector.
C. Securities and Exchange Board of India was given
statutory status in the year 1988.
A.
Choose the correct statement from the above-
B.
[1] A and B only [2] B and C only
C. 1988
[3] A and C only [4] A, B and C
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
[1] A B [2] B C
• Securities and Exchange Board of India was
[3] A C [4] A, B C
established in the year 1988 and it was given
[5]
statutory status in the year 1992.
Sol. [1]
45. Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND) reports
• 1988 directly to which of the following?
1992 [1] Reserve Bank of India
45. (FIU- IND) [2] Securities and Exchange Board of India
[3] Union Home Ministry
[1]
[4] Economic Intelligence Council
[2]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[3]
Sol. [4]
[4] • Financial Intelligence Unit-India (FIU-IND) is an

Page No.{15}
 [5] independent body and it directly reports to the
Sol. [4] Economic Intelligence Council (EIC) whose head
is the Finance Minister of India.
• (FIU-IND) • It was established in the year 2004. It is the central
(EIC) national body responsible for receiving, processing
and analysing information on suspicious financial
• 2004 transactions.
46. Consider the following statements-
A. SENSEX reflects the average fluctuations in the
46. share prices of 50 large companies.
A. (SENSEX) 50 B. NIFTY reflects the average fluctuations in the share
prices of 30 large companies.
Choose the correct statement from the above-
B. (NIFTY) 30
[1] A only [2] B only
[3] Neither A nor B [4] Both A and B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[1] A [2] B
Sol. [3]
[3] A, B [4] A B
• SENSEX (BSE) represents the average fluctuation
[5]
in share prices of 30 large companies.
Sol. [3]
• NIFTY (NSE) represents the average fluctuation in
• (SENSEX) 30
share prices of 50 large companies.
47. Consider the following statements-
• (NIFTY) 50
A. Imported inflation refers to a general and continu-
ous increase in prices due to the high cost of im-
47. ported goods and services.
A. B. Imported inflation is also called cost inflation.
Choose the correct statement from the above-
[1] A only [2] B only
B. [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[1] A [2] B Sol. [3]
[3] A B [4] A, B Factors of imported inflation:
[5]
• Exchange rate
Sol. [3]
• Commodity (petroleum etc.) price increase
• Trade policies
•
• Transportation cost
•
48. Consider the following statements in the context of
• calculation of inflation-
• A. Inflation is calculated every month in India.
48. B. The prices of each month are compared with the
prices of the previous month of the same year.
A. Choose the correct statement from the above-
B. [1] A only [2] B only
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[1] A [2] B
Sol. [1]

Page No.{16}
 [3] A B [4] A, B • In calculating inflation, the prices of a month are
compared with the prices of the same month of the
[5]
previous year.
Sol. [1]
49. Consider the following statements-
•
A. Inflation can lead to problem of 'Twin deficit'.
B. Current account deficit and revenue deficit are col-
49.
lectively called 'Twin deficit'.
A.
Choose the incorrect statement from the above-
[1] A only [2] B only
B.
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]
[1] A [2] B
• Inflation leads to increase in government expendi-
[3] A B [4] A, B ture due to which fiscal deficit increases.
[5] • Inflation leads to increase in imports and decrease
Sol. [2] in exports. This increases the current account defi-
• cit.
• Fiscal deficit and current account deficit together
are called twin deficit.
•
50. Consider the following statements with reference to
the effects of inflation-
•
A. People withdraw their money from banks.
B. Increase in employment opportunities .
50. C. One who saves the money is at disadvantage.
Choose the correct statements from the above-
A. [1] A and B only [2] B and C only
B. [3] A and C only [4] A, B and C
C. [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
[1] A B [2] B C • In case of inflation, people withdraw their money
[3] A C [4] A, B C from banks and invest it in risky sectors. This re-
duces the bank's deposits and reduces the bank's
[5]
lending capabilities.
Sol. [4]
51. When inflation is seen in the prices of some prod-
• ucts and the prices of other products remain stable,
then it is which type of inflation?
[1] Bottleneck inflation [2] Stagflation
51. [3] Skewed inflation [4] Core inflation
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
[1] [2] • In skewed inflation, the prices of some particular
[3] [4] commodity increase and the prices of others remain
[5] generally stable; e.g. protein inflation.
Sol. [3] 52. Consider the following statements
•

52.
A.
Page No.{17}
 A. Wholesale Price Index is released by National Sta-
B. 2014 tistical Office.
B. Consumer Price Index is the main index of infla-
tion measurement from the year 2014.
Choose the correct statement from the above-
[1] A [2] B
[1] A only [2] B only
[3] A B [4] A, B
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5]
Sol. [2] [5] Question Not Attempted
• WPI Sol. [2]
• WPI is published by the Office of Economic Ad-
viser, Ministry of Commerce and Industry.
• • Consumer Price Index is released by National Sta-
tistical Office.
53. 53. Which one of the following mathematical relation is
[1] = correct in the context of inflation?
[1] Headline inflation = Core inflation - Food and fuel
[2] = inflation
[2] Core inflation = Headline inflation + Food and fuel
[3] = inflation
[3] Headline inflation = Core inflation + Food and fuel
inflation
[4]
[4] None of the above
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
• =
• Core inflation = Headline inflation - Food and fuel
inflation
• = • Headline inflation = Core inflation + Food and fuel
inflation
• • Both these mathematical relation are correct in the
context of inflation.
54.
54. Which of the following statements is incorrect in the
context of the National Food Security Act?
[1] 67
[1] It covers 67% of the country's total population as a
whole.
[2] [2] Under this, rice, wheat and coarse grains are made
3, 2 1 available to the eligible beneficiary every month at
the rate of 3, 2 and 1 per kg respectively.
[3] [3] Under this, food security allowance is given to the
eligible beneficiaries in case of non-supply of food
grains.
[4]
[4] Eligible beneficiaries under Antyodaya Anna
Yojana are not included in this Act.
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
• • This act provides legal right to food to two-thirds
of the country's population. This act covers 75% ru-
75 50 ral and 50% urban population through the PDS
5 system. Under this Act, every eligible person gets
5 kg of grain per month. This Act also includes the
very poor families of Antyodaya Anna Yojana, who
35
Page No.{18}
 will continue to be given 35 kg of grain per family
55. per month as before.
55. Under the Public Distribution System, the responsi-
bility of the State Government is not -
[1]
[1] Allocation of fair price shops
[2]
[2] Identification of beneficiaries
[3]
[3] Making ration cards for beneficiaries
[4]
[4] Storage
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
•
• Under the Public Distribution System, the Central
Government is responsible for MSP declaration,
procurement, storage, transportation and allocation
• to the states.
• Under the Public Distribution System, distribution
in the state, distribution of fair price shops, identi-
fication of beneficiaries, making ration cards for
56. beneficiaries etc. are the functions of the State Gov-
[1] 1997 [2] 1992 ernment
[3] 2000 [4] 56. When was the Targeted Public Distribution System
[5] started?
Sol. [1] [1] June, 1997 [2] June, 1992
• [3] December, 2000 [4] None of the above
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
• In this system, ST/SC and BPL persons living be-
low the poverty line were considered as the target
category. In this system, differentiated price sys-
tem was adopted for the first time and the people
57. of the country were divided into two categories BPL
(red card) and APL (blue or green card). Food grains
[1] 2014 [2] 2016 were made available to BPL sections at a price lower
than the normal price.
[3] 2018 [4] 2020
57. In which year the Direct Benefit Transfer system in
[5] fertilizers was implemented by the Government of
Sol. [2] India?
• 2016 [1] 2014 [2] 2016
[3] 2018 [4] 2020
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]
• The Direct Benefit Transfer system in fertilizers was
58. 2024-25 implemented by the Government of India in the
year 2016. Under this system, subsidy is transferred
to fertilizer companies after the actual sale of fertil-
izer to farmers through point of sale devices in-
A. i. 8% stalled at retail outlets.
B. ii. 21% 58. Match the following with reference to the govern-
C. iii. 19% ment expenditure mentioned in the Union Budget
D. iv. 6% 2024-25-
Sectors of Expenditure Contribution
to Expenditure
Page No.{19}A. Centrally Sponsored Schemes i. 8%
 A B C D A B C D B. States’ Share in Taxes and Duties ii. 21%
[1] i ii iv iii [2] ii i iii iv C. Interest Payments iii. 19%
D. Subsidies iv. 6%
[3] iii iv i ii [4] i ii iii iv
Code:
[5]
A B C D A B C D
Sol. [4]
[1] i ii iv iii [2] ii i iii iv
[3] iii iv i ii [4] i ii iii iv
• - 21%
[5] Question Not Attempted
• - 19%
Sol. [4] Government Expenditure
• - 16% Sectors of Expenditure Contribution to
Expenditure
• States' Share in Taxes and - 21%
• - 9%
Duties
• Interest Payments - 19%
• - 8% • Central Sector Schemes - 16%
• - 8% (Except Capital Expenditure
on Defence and Subsidies)
• - 6% • TransfersRelated to Finance - 9%
• - 4% Commission and Others
• - 9% • Centrally Sponsored Schemes - 8%
• Defence - 8%
59. 2024-25 • Subsidies - 6%
• Pensions - 4%
A. B. • Other Expenditure - 9%
C. D. 59. Arrange the following in ascending order with refer-
ence to Government receipts mentioned in Union
[1] C - D - A - B [2] C - D - B - A Budget 2024-25-
[3] D - C - A - B [4] B - D - A - C A. Corporate Tax B. Income Tax
[5] C. Customs Duty D. Central Excise Duty
Sol. [1] [1] C - D - A - B [2] C - D - B - A
[3] D - C - A - B [4] B - D - A - C
• - 27% [5] Question Not Attempted
• - 19% Sol. [1] Government Receipts
• GST - 18% Source Percentage
• - 17% • Borrowings and other liabilities - 27%
• - 9% • Income Tax - 19%
• - 5% • GST and other taxes - 18%
• Corporate Tax - 17%
• - 4%
• Non-Tax Receipts - 9%
• - 1%
• Central Excise Duty - 5%
60.
• Customs Duty - 4%
A. • Non-debt Capital Receipts - 1%
2020 2025 111 60. Choose the incorrect statement from the following
B. statements-
A. Under the National Infrastructure Pipeline Project,
[1] A [2] B Rs 111 lakh crore will be spent by the year 2020-
2025.
[3] A B [4] A, B
B. Only brownfield investment is allowed in the Na-
[5] tional Infrastructure Pipeline Project.
Sol. [2] [1] A only [2] B only
• [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
Page No.{20}
 15 [5] Question Not Attempted
2019 Sol. [2]
39 39 22 • The National Infrastructure Pipeline Project has
been started for the development of infrastructure.
It was announced on 15 August 2019. The partici-
111 pation of the Center, State and Private Sector in this
61. project is 39% 39% and 22% respectively. Both green
field and brownfield investment are allowed in this
project. A total of Rs 111 lakh crore will be spent in
A. 18
this project.
61. Choose the correct statement from the following state-
B. 17 2023 ments regarding PM Vishwakarma Yojana-
[1] A [2] B A. The objective of this scheme is to provide assistance
[3] A B [4] A, B to artisans and craftsmen engaged in 18 types of
traditional occupations.
[5]
B. This scheme was started from 17 September 2023.
Sol. [3]
[1] A only [2] B only
• 17 2023
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
• PM Vishwakarma Yojana is a central sector scheme
started from 17 September 2023. Which will be fully
funded by the Government of India. Its nodal min-
62. istry is the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium
Enterprises. This scheme has been started with the
aim of providing recognition, skill upgradation,
[1] collateral free loan and marketing assistance to tra-
ditional artisans and craftsmen.
[2] 62. Select the false fact related to Deendayal Antyodaya
Yojana- National Rural Livelihood Mission-
[3] [1] The objective of this scheme is to provide mean-
ingful self-employment and skilled wage employ-
ment opportunities to poor families.
[4]
[2] This program is applicable in all the states and
union territories of India.
[5] [3] This program expands community institutions and
Sol. [*] encourages self-help groups.
• [4] This program is being implemented by the Minis-
2011 try of Human Resource Development.
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [*]
28 • Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana National Rural Liveli-
6 742 7135 hood Mission was started by the Ministry of Rural
Development in the year 2011. It is a centrally spon-
sored program. Its objective is to promote economic
63.
empowerment, women entrepreneurship, skill devel-
[1] 5 4 18 opment, social empowerment and self-help groups etc.
It is being operated in 7135 blocks in 742 districts of 28
[2] 42 states and 6 union territories of India.
63. Select the incorrect statement regarding the agricul-
[3] tural sector of India-
18 2 [1] Indian agricultural sector has grown by an aver-

Page No.{21}
 [4] age of 4.18% per year in the last 5 years.
[5] [2] Indian agricultural sector provides livelihood sup-
Sol. [4] port to about 42% of India's population.
• 7 [3] Indian agricultural sector has a share of 18.2% in
the country's GDP at current prices.
[4] None of the above
64. 2022
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
[1] 3 5 [2] 4 4
• All the above statements are true. India exports
[3] 7 [4] 8 5 more than 7% of its food grains.
[5] 64. What percentage of India's service exports of the
Sol. [2] world's commercial service exports in the year 2022
• 6 has been-
54 [1] 3.5% [2] 4.4%
[3] 7% [4] 8.5%
65. [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]
[1] 15 2023 • India's service sector has grown at a rate of more
than 6% in recent years. Its share in gross value
[2] 3
addition has been more than 54 percent.
65. Select the incorrect statement regarding Lakhpati
[3] 1 Didi Yojana-
[1] This scheme was announced on 15 August 2023.
[4] 18 40 [2] The objective of this scheme is to provide skill de-
[5] velopment training to 3 crore women.
Sol. [4] [3] The objective of this scheme is to make rural women
• eligible for an income of Rs 1 lakh per year.
• 15 2023 [4] Women in the age group of 18 to 40 years are eli-
gible in this scheme.
[5] Question Not Attempted
1 Sol. [4]
• There is no age limit for becoming Lakhpati Didi.
• Lakhpati Didi Yojana was announced on 15 Au-
gust 2023. This scheme encourages women to set
up micro industrial enterprises through self-help
groups. The objective of this scheme is to make ru-
66. ral women eligible for an income of Rs 1 lakh per
annum. To join this scheme, women will have to be
[1] [2] associated with a self-help group in their state.
Under this scheme, women will be provided inter-
[3] [4]
est-free loans within the prescribed limit.
[5] 66. In which of the following states will Mitra Park not
Sol. [3] be established under the PM Mitra Park Scheme-
• 2021 22 [1] Tamil Nadu [2] Gujarat
2027
[3] Rajasthan [4] Maharashtra
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
• PM Mitra Park Scheme was announced in the Bud-
get 2021-22, its duration will be till the year 2027.
67. (GDP) (GNP)

Page No.{22}
 Its main objective is to attract modernization, em-
ployment generation and investment in the textile
A.
industry. Under this, Mitra Parks will be established
in seven states Tamil Nadu, Karnataka,
B. Maharashtra, Gujarat, Telangana, Madhya Pradesh
and Uttar Pradesh.
67. Consider the following statement about Gross
Domestic product (GDP) and Gross National Product
[1] A [2] B
(GNP)-
[3] [4] A B
A. GDP focuses on where the output is produced
[5] rather than who produced it.
Sol. [4] B. GNP is a measure of the value of output produced
• by the nationals of a country irrespective of the
geographical boundaries.
Choose the correct statement from above-
•
[1] A only [2] B only
[3] None of the above [4] Both A and B
[5] Question Not Attempted
68. Sol. [4]
• GDP reflects the goods and services produced
A. (NDP)
within the boundaries of the country by both
GDP citizens and foreigners.
B. GNP GDP • GNP is a measure of the value of output produced
by the nationals of a country irrespective of the
geographical boundaries. It refers to the output of
Indian citizens both within India and in all other
[1] B [2] countries of the world.
[3] A [4] A B 68. Consider the following statements-
[5] A. The Net Domestic Product (NDP) of an economy is
Sol. [4] always less than it's GDP.
• NDP GDP B. In India's case GNP (Gross National Product) is
lower than its GDP.
Choose the correct statements-
• GNP GDP [1] B only [2] None of the above
[3] A only [4] Both A and B
GNP = GDP + [5] Question Not Attempted
69. Sol. [4]
• The NDP of an economy is always less than its GDP,
[1]
because the depreciation can never be reduced to
[2] zero and will always be positive.
[3] • In India's case, GNP is lower than its GDP as net
[4] income from abroad has always been negative in
India.
[5]
GNP = GDP + Net factor income from abroad
Sol. [4]
69. Which of the following is not a component of
calculation of national income by income method?
[1] Wages and interest
1. 2. 3. [2] Rent/rent
4. 5. [3] Mixed income and profit
70. [4] End use goods and services
[5] Question Not Attempted
Page No.{23}
 [1] Sol. [4]
[2] The income method for calculating national income
includes the following components.
[3]
1. Wages 2. Interest 3. Rent 4. Profit
[4]
5. Mixed Income- in the form of salary or commission
[5]
70. What is the difference between Net National Product
Sol. [2]
at market price and Gross National product at market
NNP = GNP – price?
71. [1] Net factor Income from abroad
[2] Depreciation
[1]
[3] Net Indirect Taxes
[2]
[4] Indirect Taxes and Subsidies
[5] Question Not Attempted
[3]
Sol. [2]
NNP = GNP – Depreciation
[4] 71. Transfer payments used in computing personal
[5] income refer to?
Sol. [2] [1] Social security contributions
• [2] Amounts provided by the government to
vulnerable sections under social security.
[3] Net payments received from an employer (private
or public) in lieu of service.
• [4] Amount of undistributed corporate profits.
[5] Question Not Attempted
72. Sol. [2]
[1] GNP [2] GDP • Transfer payments are those payments which are
[3] NNPFC [4] NNPMP not given in lieu of any service, but are provided
by the government to the weaker sections under
[5] social security.
Sol. [3] For example- pension, unemployment allowance,
= (NNP)FC/ assistance to the disabled
73. • In this, purchasing power is transferred from one
group to another.
[1] 72. The appropriate measure of National Income is-
[1] GNP [2] GDP
[2] [3] NNPFC [4] NNPMP
[5] Question Not Attempted
[3] Sol. [3]
National Income = (NNP)FC/ Population
[4] 73. Which of the following best describes the terms Base
[5] effect?
Sol. [1] [1] It refers to the contribution of price changes in the
74. previous year to the current change in inflation.
[2] It is the impact of the surge in demand due to rapid
[1] economic growth.
[2] [3] It refers to the effect of increasing foreign
investment on the economic

Page No.{24}
 [3] [4] It refers to the winden tax base of taxpayers.
[4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [4] 74. Minimum Support Price for agricultural crops in
India is finally approved by which of the following?
• MSP
[1] Food Corporation of India
(CACP)
[2] Commission for Agricultural Costs and Prices
[3] NABARD
75.
[4] Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs
[5] Question Not Attempted
A. Sol. [4]
• Minimum Support Price (MSP) for agriculture in
B. India is determined by the Secretariat Committee
on Economic Affairs on behalf of the Commission
for Agricultural Costs and Prices (CACP).
75. Consider the following sentences with respect to
[1] A [2] B
Public Distribution System-
[3] A B [4]
A. The State government procures food grains from
[5] framers at a minimum support price.
Sol. [1] B. State government bear the responsibility of trans-
• porting food grains from godowns to each fair price
shop.
Choose the incorrect statements from above-
76.
[1] A only [2] B only
[3] Both A and B [4] None of the above
A. (RPDS) 1993
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
B. 1997 • The central government procures food grains from
farmers at a MSP and sells it to states at central is-
sue prices.
76. Consider the following statements about develop-
[1] B [2] A
ment of Public distribution system in India-
[3] [4] A B
A. The Revamped Public Distribution System (RPDS)
[5] was launched in June 1993.
Sol. [2] B. In June 1997 the Government of India launched the
• 1992 Targeted public distribution system with focus on
the poor.
77.
Choose the incorrect statement from above-
[1] B only [2] A only
A. 2020
[3] None of the above [4] Both A and B
B.
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]
• The Revamped PDS was launched in June 1992.
C. 2028 77. Consider the following statements about Pradhan
Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna Yojana-
A. The scheme was launched in April 2020.
[1] A B [2] B C B. Under this scheme, all the beneficiaries under the
[3] A C [4] National Food Security Act (NFSA) are provided
[5] free food grains as per their eligibility.
C. With a further extension of five years, it will re-
Sol. [4]
main in force till December, 2028.

Page No.{25}
 • Select the correct statement from the above-
2020) [1] A and B only [2] B and C only
31 2023 [3] A and C only [4] All of the above
[5] Question Not Attempted
2028
Sol. [4]
78. (GeM)
• Initially, Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Anna
Yojana was announced for a period of only three
[1] months (April-June 2020). After multiple exten-
[2] sions, it was to expire on December 31, 2023. How-
ever, with a further extension of five years, it will
[3]
remain in force till the end of December, 2028.
[4] 78. Government e-Marketplace (GeM) was launched by
which ministry?
[5] [1] Ministry of Commerce and Industry, Government
Sol. [1] of India
• GeM [2] Ministry of Finance, Government of India
[3] Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises,
• Government of India
(PSU) [4] Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public
Distribution, Government of India
• [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
79. (ONDC) • GeM is a digital platform that enables the purchase
and sale of goods and services.
A. (App) • It is a public procurement portal for procurement
of all Central Government and State Government
Ministries, Departments, Public Sector Units (PSUs)
and services.
B.
• Its main objective is to increase efficiency, trans-
(DPIIT) 2021 parency and speed in public procurement.
79. Consider the following statements regarding Open
[1] A [2] B Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC)-
[3] A B [4] A. It is an application (App) platform designed to pro-
mote open exchange and connection between buy-
[5]
ers and retailers.
Sol. [2] B. It was launched in 2021 by the Ministry of Com-
• (ONDC) merce and Industry under the Department for Pro-
motion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
Select the correct statements from the above-
[1] A only [2] B only
80. GDP [3] Both A and B [4] None of the above
[5] Question Not Attempted
A. Sol. [2]
GDP • Open Network for Digital Commerce (ONDC) is a
B. network of interconnected e-marketplaces through
which sellers can sell their products directly to cus-
tomers, bypassing the intermediary.
80. Consider the following statements about 'GDP (Gross
domestic Product) deflator-
[1] A [2] B
Page No.{26}
 [3] A B [4] A. It shows the increase in the value of GDP due to
[5] increase in inflation between the period of base year
and the current year.
Sol. [3]
B. It covers the entire range of goods and services
• GDP GDP
produced in the economy, it is seen as a more
comprehensive measure of inflation.
GDP Choose the correct statements from above-
• [1] A only [2] B only
[3] Both A and B [4] None of the above
[5] Question Not Attempted
81. Sol. [3]
A. • GDP deflator is the ratio of the GDP at current prices
to that of the constant prices. This show the increase
in the value of GDP due to increase in inflation in
between the period base year and the current year.
B.
• Since the deflator covers the entire range of goods
and services produced in the economy, it is seen as
a more comprehensive measure of inflation.
[1] A [2] B 81. Consider the following statements-
[3] A B [4] A B A. The term that is used to denote the net contribu-
[5] tion made by a firm in an economy is called its value
Sol. [3] added.
B. The wage, interest and profits paid out by the firm
82. 2022 23
must be added up to the value added of the firm.
Choose the correct statements from the above-
A. 2013 14 29 17
[1] A only [2] B only
2022 23 11 28
[3] Both A and B [4] Neither 1 nor 2
B.
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
C. 12 82. Consider the following statements with reference to
the Multidimensional Poverty Index 2022-23 released
[1] A C [2] B C by NITI Aayog-
[3] A [4] A. Multidimensional poverty has decreased from
[5] 29.17% in the year 2013-14 to 11.28% in the year
2022-23.
Sol. [4]
B. The maximum decline in number of poor has been
83. in Uttar Pradesh, Bihar and Madhya Pradesh.
C. All the 12 indicators of the index have shown im-
provement.
[1] [2] Select the incorrect statement from the above -
[1] Only A and C [2] Only B and C
[3] [4]
[3] Only A [4] None of the above
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [4]
83. Adoption of higher tax rates on the income and ex-
•
penditure of rich people by the government reduces
which of the following types of poverty?
[1] Relative poverty [2] Absolute poverty
[3] Urban poverty [4] None of the above
[5] Question Not Attempted
84. Sol. [1]
[1]
• When the distribution of wealth or national income
is unequally distributed among different sections
Page No.{27}
 [2] of the society, some people are poorer than others.
[3] This is called relative poverty. To overcome this,
the government adopts fiscal measures including
[4]
high tax rates on the income and expenditure of
[5] rich people.
Sol. [3] 84. Which of the following factor is not a responsible
• for poverty ?
[1] Discriminatory rigid traditions
[2] Wide disparity in per capita income of states
85. [3] Development of entrepreneurial skills among the
poor
[1] [4] Populist measures by political parties
[2] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
[3]
[4]
• Development of entrepreneurial skills among the
poor provides self-employment opportunities to
[5] poor families thereby reduces poverty.
Sol. [3] 85. In which Five Year Plan poverty alleviation was ac-
86. cepted as an objective?
[1] Second Five Year Plan
A [2] Third Five Year Plan
[3] Fifth Five Year Plan
2100
[4] Sixth Five Year Plan
2400
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
B.
86. Consider the following statements with reference to
30 poverty estimation in India -
A. Poverty was defined in terms of energy require-
[1] A [2] B ment, a person consuming less than 2100 calories
[3] A B [4] A B per person per day in rural areas and 2400 calories
[5] in urban areas were considered poor.
B. Data on expenditure on five non-food items under
Sol. [4]
mixed recall period was collected on the basis of 30
• 2400 days recall period.
2100 Choose the incorrect statement from the above -
[1] Only A [2] Only B
• [3] Neither A nor B [4] Both A and B
365 [5] Question Not Attempted
30 Sol. [4]
• A person consuming less than 2400 calories per
person per day in rural areas and 2100 calories in
87. 2022 23
urban areas is considered poor.
• Data on expenditure on five non-food items under
[1] 4 1 [2] 4 8
mixed recall period was collected on the basis of
[3] 3 2 [4] 6 365 days recall period and for the remaining items
[5] on the basis of 30 days recall period.
Sol. [3] 87. According to the data of Periodic Labour Force Sur-
vey, the unemployment rate of India in 2022-23 is -
88. [1] 4.1 % [3] 4.8%
[3] 3.2% [4] 6%
[5] Question Not Attempted
[1] [2] Sol. [3]
[3] [4] 88. Which of the following types of unemployment is

Page No.{28}
 [5] seen in the economy due to inadequacies in the edu-
cation system and use of inappropriate technology?
Sol. [3]
[1] Disguised unemployment
• [2] Urban unemployment
[3] Structural unemployment
[4] None of the above
89. 15 65
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]

[1] • Structural unemployment - When jobs are available

to a person willing to work but he is not qualified
[2] for job is mainly due to discrepancy in skill.
[3] 89. Working and aspiring population in the 15-65 age
[4] group expressed as a percentage of total population
[5] is -
[1] Workforce participation rate
Sol. [3]
[2] Unemployment rate
• × 100
[3] Labour force participation rate
• 15 65 [4] Employed labour force rate
[5] Question Not Attempted
• Sol. [3]
• Labor force participation rate = Labour force /
Population ×100
90.
• Labor force - Every person aged 15 to 65 years who
has the willingness and ability to work.
A.
• Workforce participation rate is represented as the
ratio of working population to the total population.
B. 15000 It is also called worker population ratio.
90. Consider the following statements about Pradhan
C. 15 Mantri Rojgar Protsahan Scheme -
A. Its objective is to provide new employment oppor-
tunities in the informal sector.

[1] A C [2] A B B. Under this, employees with income less than Rs.
15000 per month are included.
[3] B [4]
C. In this, 15% contribution to the EPF of the employ-
[5] ees is paid by the Government of India.
Sol. [3] Which of the above Statement is correct -
• [1] Only A and C [2] Only A and B
[3] Only B [4] None of the above
• 12 [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
91. • Its objective is to provide new employment oppor-
tunities in the formal sector.
A. (PLFS) • In this, 12% contribution to the EPF of the employ-
10 ees is paid by the Government of India.
B. 45 91. Consider the following statements with reference to
C. the current employment scenario in India-
A. According to the Periodic Labour Force Survey
(PLFS), the unemployment rate among the youth
Page No.{29}
 is 10%.
[1] A C [2] A B B. More than 45% of the workforce is employed in the
service sector.
[3] B [4] A C. Female labour force participation has increased in
[5] urban areas while a decline has been recorded in
the rural area.
Sol. [4]
Choose the correct statement from the above-
• PLFS 17 8% [1] Only A and C [2] Only A and B
2022 23 10 [3] Only B [4] Only A
[5] Question Not Attempted
• 45
Sol. [4]
28 9 11 4
• According to PLFS, the unemployment rate among
• 6
youth has decreased from 17.8% to 10% in 2022-23.
• More than 45% of the workforce is employed in ag-
92. riculture sector, followed by service sector (28.9%)
and manufacturing (11.4%).
A. Oil India ltd- • Female labour force participation has been increas-
ing in both urban and rural areas in the last 6 years.
92. Consider the following statements with respect to
B. 13 25
public sector undertakings in India -
C. 1 51 2 11 A. Oil India ltd. is the latest company to receive the
status of Navratna.
B. At present there are a total of 13 Maharatna and 25
Navratna companies.
[1] A B [2] B C C. There are 51 companies in the Miniratna - 1 cat-
[3] B [4] C egory and 11 in the Miniratna - 2 category.
[5] Choose the correct statement from the above -
[1] Only A and B [2] Only B and C
Sol. [2] [3] Only B [4] Only C
• Oil India ltd [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]
93. • Oil India ltd. is the latest company to receive the
status of Maharatna.
93. Consider the following statements with respect to the
A.
performance of major industrial sectors of the Indian
B. economy -
A. India is the largest producer of cement in the world.
C. B. The Indian pharmaceutical market is the third larg-
D est by volume.
C. India has been a net exporter of finished steel in
the last decade.
D. India is the second largest textile manufacturer in
[1] A D [2] B C the world and one of the top five exporting coun-
[3] A [4] C D tries.
[5] The incorrect statements among the above are -
[1] Only A and D [2] Only B and C
Sol. [3]
[3] Only A [4] Only C and D
• [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
94. 2023 24 • India is the second largest producer of cement in
the world. China is at first place.
[1] 6 [2] 9 5 94. As Per Economic Survey 2023-24, the growth rate of
Indian industrial sector is -
[3] 4 [4] 8

Page No.{30}
 [5] [1] 6% [2] 9.5%
Sol. [2] [3] 4% [4] 8%
[5] Question Not Attempted
95. A. B.
Sol. [2]
C. D. 95. A. Milk B. Pulses
C. Rice D. Spices
India ranks first in the production of which of the
[1] A B [2] B C above agricultural products-
[3] C D [4] A, B D [1] Only A and B [2] Only B and C
[3] Only C and D [4] A, B and D
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
• • First Position - Milk, Pulses and Spices
• • Second Position - Rice, Wheat, Cotton, Sugarcane,
Fruits, Flowers, Sugar
96.
96. Consider the following statements regarding Agri-
culture Infrastructure Fund-
A. 1 3 A. Under this, Rs 1 lakh crore is provided in the form
of loan at an interest rate of 3 percent per annum.
B. BHARAT B. The aim of 'BHARAT' Campagin under it, is to cre-
ate an competitive environment among banks.
C. C. National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Develop-
ment is its implementing agency.
Choose the correct statement from the above-
[1] Only A and C [2] Only A and B
[1] A C [2] A B
[3] Only A [4] All of the above
[3] A [4]
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
97. YES-Technology, WINDS and CROPIC are-
97. [1] Modern Technology in Agriculture
[1] [2] A Variety of Maize
[2] [3] Advanced Fertilizer
[3] [4] Agri-marketing App
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [1]
[5]
• Recently used technology in PM Fasal Bima Yojana-
Sol. [1]
• YES-Technology - Technology based Yield Estima-
• tion System
• • WINDS- Weather Information Network and Data
• (WINDS) System
• CROPIC- Collection of real time observations and
photographs of crops
•
98. Consider the following statements regarding Kisan
Credit Card Scheme-
98. A. This scheme was started on the recommendation
of R.V. Gupta Committee.
A. B. Loans are provided at a rate of 7% per annum.
C. Fisheries and animal husbandry farmers are not in-
cluded in it.
B. 7 Choose the correct statement from the above-
C. [1] Only A and C [2] Only A and B
[3] Only B [4] Only C
Page No.{31}
 [5] Question Not Attempted
[1] A C [2] A B Sol. [2]
[3] B [4] C
• Kisan Credit Card - launched - 15th August 1998
[5]
Sol. [2] • From the year 2018-19, fisheries and animal hus-
bandry activities have been included in this scheme.
• 15 1998
99. Consider the following statements regarding Digital
• 2018 19 Agriculture Mission-
A. The total outlay of this mission is Rs. 2817 crores
99. B. It has basic pillars 'AgriStack' and 'Krishi Decision
Support System'
A. 2817 C. It has been designed as a comprehensive scheme
B. to support various digital agriculture initiatives
Choose the correct statement from the above-
C. [1] Only A and C [2] Only A and B
[3] Only B [4] All of the above
[5] Question Not Attempted
[1] A C [2] A B Sol. [4]
[3] B [4]
100. Choose the incorrect statement regarding Minimum
[5] Support Price (MSP)-
Sol. [4] [1] It covers 14 Kharif, 6 Rabi and 2 commercial crops.
100. (MSP) [2] At present MSP is issued on A2 + FL + 50% profit
basis.
[1] 14 6 2 [3] Minimum Support Price (MSP) is not supported by
any law at present.
[2] MSP A2 FL 50 [4] None of the above
[5] Question Not Attempted
[3] (MSP) Sol. [4]
• Minimum Support Price (MSP) is not supported by
[4]
any law at present.
[5]
Sol. [4]
• Fair and Remunerative Price (FRP) is governed by
the provisions of Sugarcane (Control) Order, 1966.
• (MSP)
101. Mukesh's sister is the wife of Ramesh. Ramesh is
Rani's only brother. Ramesh's father is Madhur.
• (FRP) Sheetal is Ramesh's paternal grandmother. Rema is
1966 Sheetal's daughter-in- law. Ronit is Rani's brother's
son. How is Ronit related to Mukesh?
101.
[1] Son [2] Brother
[3] Brother-in-law [4] Nephew
[5] Question Not Attempted
[1] [2] Sol. [4]
[3] [4]
[5]
Sol. [4]

Page No.{32}
 102. Jahnavi is the sister of Taruni. Taruni is married to
Dilip. Dilip is the father of Raghu. Manoj is the
son of Hema. Taruni is the mother-in-law of Hema.
Dilip has only one son and no daughter. Jahnavi is
married to Barun. Lekha is the daughter of Barun.
How is Jahnavi’s sister related to Manoj’s paternal
grandfather ?
[1] Sister [2] Wife
102.
[3] Mother-in-law [4] Mother
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]

[1] [2]
[3] [4]
[5]
Sol. [2]
103. There are six family members X, Y, Z, P, Q and R, in
which there is one married couple. X is the brother of
P. P is the daughter of Y. Z is the sister-in-law of Q. R
is the brother of Z. Y is the sister of [Link] R is related
to P?
[1] Brother [2] Uncle
[3] Aunt [4] Son
[5] Question Not Attempted
103. X, Y, Z, P, Q R,
X, P P, Y Z, Q Sol. [2]
R, Z Y, Z R P

[1] [2]
[3] [4]
[5]
Sol. [2]
104. Guna is the son of Shyamala. Hemant is the father
of Manu. Guna is married to Deepa. Guna and
Manu are siblings. Prathik is the brother of Deepa.
Shyamala has only one son. Roshan is the son of
Guna. Prathik is the father of Kalki. Jatin is the son
of Manu. Prathik has no daughters. How is Hemant
related to Roshan's father ?
[1] Brother [2] Father
104. [3] Grandfather [4] Brother-in-law
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]

[1] [2]
[3] [4]
[5]
Page No.{33}
Sol. [2]

105. Himanshu is the daughter of Anjan. Archana's sister

Mrinalini has a son Rahul and a daughter Sunayana.
105. Kalpika is Kripal's mother and Sunayana's mother's
sister. Rahul is the cousin of Kripal. Kripal is the
brother of Himanshu. How is Archana related to
Anjan ?
[1] Sister-in-law [2] Niece
[1] [2] Niece/ [3] Cousin [4] Sister
[5] Question Not Attempted
[3] [4]
Sol. [1]
[5]
Sol. [1]

106. If Swati's father is the maternal grandfather of Divya,

who is the daughter of Manya, then how is Manya's
106. husband's father related to Divya?
[1] Father [2] Grandfather
[1] [2] [3] Maternal uncle [4] Paternal uncle
[3] [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [2]

Sol. [2]

7. There are seven members S, T, U, V, W, X and Y in a

family. Five members are in different professions i.e.
107. S, T, U, V, W, X Y Teacher, Doctor, Nurse, Engineer and Scientist. There
are two married couples in the family. S is a doctor
who is married to Y, who is a teacher. W is a scientist,
who is father-in-law of Y. V and U are children of S,
S Y
who study in 6th and 8th standard respectively. X is
W Y V U, S the mother-in-law of Y. S is the brother of T, and T is
6 8 X, Y an Engineer. Who is the wife of W?
S, T T W [1] X [2] Y
[1] X [2] Y [3] T [4] S
[3] T [4] S [5] Question Not Attempted
Page No.{34}
 [5] Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]

108. Azad points towards a picture and says it's the

108. picture of his mother's father's only granddaughter's
only brother. How is Azad related to the person in
the picture?
[1] Sister [2] Son
[3] Father [4] Azad himself
[1] [2] [5] Question Not Attempted
[3] [4] Sol. [4]
[5]
Sol. [4]

109. A+B means 'B is the sister of A'

A – B means 'A is the father of B'
109. A+B 'B, A A × B means 'B is the son of A'
A–B 'A, B A ÷ B means 'B is the husband of A'
A×B 'B, A If E ÷ F – H + J × G + D, then how is D related to H?
A÷B 'B, A [1] Aunt [2] Father
E÷F–H+J×G+D H D [3] Uncle [4] Niece
[1] [2] [5] Question Not Attempted
[3] [4]
Sol. [4]
[5]
110. ‘C @ D’ means ‘C is the father of D’.
Sol. [4] ‘C * D’ means ‘C is the brother of D’.
110. 'C @ D'
C, D 'C × D’ means ‘D is the husband of C’.
'C * D'
C, D ‘C # D’ means ‘C is the sister of D’.
'C  D'D, C ‘C $ D’ means ‘C is the son-in-law of D’.
'C # D'
C, D ‘C = D’ means ‘C is the mother of D’.
'C $ D'
C, D How is A related to C in the following expression?
'C = D'
C, D A@L#F*E×G$C
A, C [1] Husband [2] Son
A@L#F*E×G$C [3] Brother [4] Father
[5] Question Not Attempted
[1] [2]
[3] [4] Sol. [1]
[5] 111. A sum of Rs 800 becomes Rs 920 in 3 years at simple
interest. If the rate of interest is increased by 3%, how
Sol. [1]
Page No.{35}
111. 3 800 920 much will it become?
3% [1] Rs. 992 [2] Rs. 800
[3] Rs. 920 [4] Rs. 820
[1] 992 [2] 800
[5] Question Not Attempted
[3] 920 [4] 820
Sol. [1]
[5]
Simple Interest = Rs. (920 – 800) = Rs. 120
Sol. [1]
P = Rs. 800, T = 3 Year
= (920 – 800) = 120;
 100  120 
P= 800, T = 3  R  %  5%
 800  3 
 100  120 
 R  %  5% New Rate = (5 + 3)% = 8%
 800  3 
= (5 + 3)% = 8%  800  8  3 
New Simple Interest = Rs.    Rs. 192
 100 
 800  8  3 
=   192  New Sum = Rs. (800 + 192) = Rs. 992
 100 
112. A certain sum lent on simple interest becomes Rs.
 = (800 + 192) = 992 2400 in 4 years and Rs. 3000 in 6 years. Find the rate
112. 4 of interest per annum?
2400 6 3000
[1] 20% [2] 18%
[3] 25% [4] 15%
[1] 20% [2] 18%
[3] 25% [4] 15% [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [3]
Sol. [3] Simple interest for 2 years = 3000 – 2400 = Rs. 600
2 = 3000 – 2400 = 600 Simple interest for 1 year = Rs. 300
1 = 300 Simple interest for 4 years = 4 × 300 = Rs. 1200
4 = 4 × 300 = 1200  Principal = 2400 – 1200 = Rs. 1200
Simple interest = Rs. 1200
 = 2400 – 1200 = 1200
Time = 4 years
= 1200
=4 1200  100
 Rate   25%
1200  4
1200  100
   25% 113. A sum of money doubles itself in 5 years at simple
1200  4
interest rate. In how many years will it become 16
113. 5 times of itself at the same rate of simple interest?
[1] 20 [2] 60
16
[3] 75 [4] None
[1] 20 [2] 60
[5] Question Not Attempted
[3] 75 [4]
Sol. [3]
[5] Let P = x
Sol. [3] A = 2x
P=x So, simple interest = 2x – x = x
A = 2x Now P = x
= 2x – x = x A = 16x
P=x  Simple Interest = 15x
A = 16x Now, simple interest of x is earned on Rs. x in 5 years.
So, simple interest of 15x must be earned 15 times on x
 = 15x
i.e. 5 × 15 = 75 years
x x 5
x 15x 15
Page No.{36}
 5 × 15 = 75 114. A certain sum of money at simple interest amounts
to Rs. 1012 in 2½ years and Rs. 1067.20 in 4 years. The
114. 2½ 1012
annual rate of interest is:
4 1067.20
[1] 2.5% [2] 3%
[1] 2.5% [2] 3%
[3] 4% [4] 5% [3] 4% [4] 5%

[5] [5] Question Not Attempted

Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
Simple interest for 1½ year
1½
= Rs. (1067.20 – 1012) = Rs. 55.20.
= (1067.20 – 1012) = 55.20.
 2 5
 2 5 Simple interest for 2½ years =  55.20     92
2½ =  55.20     92  3 2
 3 2
 Principal = Rs. (1012 – 92) = Rs. 920
 = (1012 – 92) = 920.
 100  92  2 
 100  92  2 
 So, the rate    %  4%
 %  4%  920  5 
 920  5 
115. Sujatha invested Rs. 7500 at simple interest @ 11%
115. @ 11% 7500 per annum. She further invested some amount at
15% simple interest at 15% per annum, the total interest
earned at the end of the year became 12% per annum.
12% 15% Find the amount invested at 15% per annum.
[1] Rs. 2000 [2] Rs. 2500
[1] 2000 [2] 2500 [3] Rs. 3000 [4] Rs. 3500
[3] 3000 [4] 3500 [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [2]
Sol. [2] Let the required sum be Rs. x.
x Then, 11% of 7500 + 15% of x = 12% of (7500 + x)
7500 11% + x 15% = (7500 + x) 12%  11   15  12
  100  7500    100 x   100 (7500  x)
 11   15  12    
  100  7500    100 x   100 (7500  x)
     82500  15x  90000  12 x  3x = 7500
 82500  15x  90000  12 x  3x = 7500  x = 2500
 x = 2500 116. In how many years Rs. 800, compounded half
116. 800 10% yearly at 10% per annum will become Rs. 926.10?
926.10
1 1 1 1
[1] 1 [2] 1 [1] 1 years [2] 1 years
3 2 3 2

1 1 1 1
[3] 2 [4] 2 [3] 2 years [4] 2 years
3 2 3 2
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2] Sol. [2]
n Let the time be n years, then,

2n 2n
 
5  5 
800 ×  1 +  = 926.10 800 ×  1 +  = 926.10 Or
 100   100 

Page No.{37}
 2n 2n
 5  9261  5  9261
1 +  =
8000 1 +  =
8000
 100   100 

2n 3 3 2n 3 3
 21   21  n=  21   21 
    2n = 3 Or     or 2n = 3 or n =
 20   20  2  20   20  2

1 1
n = 1 n = 1
2 Year
2
117. 10% 117. A sum of money is deposited for 4 years at 10% an-
4 2 nual interest rate compounded annually. The differ-
4 ence between the interest received at the end of 2
years and at the end of 4 years is Rs. 5052. Find the
5052
amount (in Rs).
[1] 20,000 [2] 10,164
[1] 20,000 [2] 10,164
[3] 30,820 [4] 25,500
[3] 30,820 [4] 25,500
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
= x Let the sum = Rs. x
2 = 10 + 10 + 1 = 21% Gradual rate for 2 years = 10 + 10 + 1 = 21%

21x 21x
2  Interest earned at the end of 2 years 
100 100

10  21 10  21
3  10  21   33.1 Gradual rate for 3 years  10  21   33.1
100 100
Gradual rate for 4 years
10  33.1
4  10  33.1   46.41% 10  33.1
100  10  33.1   46.41%
100
46.41x
4  46.41x
100 Interest earned at the end of 4 years 
100
Now according to the question-
46.41x 21x 46.41x 21x
  5052   5052
100 100 100 100
25.41x 25.41x
  5052   5052
100 100
5052  100 5052  100
 x  Rs.20000
 x  Rs.20000
25.41 25.41
118. 118. A company informs its customers that at a certain rate
3 of compound interest, a sum deposited by someone
8 will become 8 times in 3 years. If the same sum is
16 deposited at the same rate of compound interest, in
how many years will it become 16 times?
[1] 4 [2] 3.5
[1] 4 year [2] 3.5 year
[3] 3 [4] 4.5
[3] 3 year [4] 4.5 year
[5]
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
Sol. [1]

Page No.{38}
 t 3 t 3
 r   r   r   r 
A  1   8P  P  1   A  1   8P  P  1  
 100   100   100   100 
3 3
 r  r  r  r
 8  1   1 2  8  1   1 2
 100  100  100  100

r r
 1  r  100%  1  r  100%
100 100
t t
 100   100 
 16 P  P  1    16  2 t
 16 P  P  1    16  2 t
 100   100 
 2t  2 4  t4  2t  2 4  t4
119. 8 40%
2 30,000 119. A sum increases by 40% in 8 years at simple interest.
What will be the compound interest (in Rs) on Rs
[1] 6150 [2] 7687.5 30,000 after 2 years at the same rate?

[3] 4612.5 [4] 3075 [1] 6150 [2] 7687.5

[5] [3] 4612.5 [4] 3075

Sol. [4] [5] Question Not Attempted

Sol. [4]
8 40% 5%
40% in 8 years i.e. 5% per annum
2
 5  30000  441
A  30000  1     33075 2
 5  30000  441
 100  400 A  30000  1     33075
 100  400
  33075  30000  3075
 Compound Interest  33075  30000  3075
120. (% ) 3
120. What is the rate of interest (in %) if the simple inter-
6000 2 est accrued on a certain sum for 3 years is Rs. 6000
4160 and the compound interest accrued for 2 years is Rs.
[1] 9 [2] 8 4160?
[3] 12 [4] 6 [1] 9 [2] 8
[5] [3] 12 [4] 6
Sol. [2] [5] Question Not Attempted
3 = 6000 Sol. [2]
 1 = 2000 Simple interest for 3 years = 6000
 Simple interest for 1 year = 2000
2 = 4000
Simple interest for 2 years = 4000
2 = 4160
Compound interest for 2 years = 4160
Compound interest and simple interest for the first
 2000 160 year are same.
 Compound interest on Rs. 2000 for the second year
160  100
 r%   8% is Rs. 160.
2000  1
121. 2024 160  100
 r%   8%
2000  1
121. What is the installed power capacity of Rajasthan till
[1] 30683.94 [2] 36079
March 2024?
[3] 27487.80 [4] 24783.64
[1] 30683.94 MW [2] 36079 MW
[5] [3] 27487.80 MW [4] 24783.64 MW
Sol. [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
122. 2024 Sol. [4]
Page No.{39}
 122. Arrange the different sectors in ascending order
according to the capacity of power projects installed
[1]
in the state till March 2024.
[2]
[1] Solar Energy - Wind Energy - Biomass
[3]
[2] Wind Energy - Solar Energy - Biomass
[4]
[3] Biomass - Wind Energy - Solar Energy
[5] [4] Solar Energy - Biomass - Wind Energy
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted
• 2024 Sol. [3]
19459 • Installed power capacity in different sectors till
March 2024 - Solar Energy (Ground Mounted) -
• 5209
19459 MW
• 128.45 • Wind Energy - 5209 MW
123. • Biomass - 128.45 MW
A. 123. Rajasthan is a state rich in solar energy. The reasons
B. for this are-
C. A. Maximum solar radiation intensity
B. Maximum solar day
D. C. Availability of barren land
[1] A, B C [2] B D D. Low average rainfall
[3] A, B D [4] [1] A, B and C only [2] B and D only
[5] [3] A, B and D only [4] All of the above
Sol. [4] [5] Question Not Attempted
124. Sol. [4]
[1] [2] 124. Which of the following is an important source of
biomass energy in Rajasthan-
[3] [4]
[1] Rice husk [2] Mustard husk
[5]
[3] Prosopis Juliflora [4] All of the above
Sol. [4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
125. Sol. [4]
125. At which place the solar park of highest capacity has
[1] [2] been developed?
[3] [4] [1] Bhadla [2] Poogal (Bikaner)
[5] [3] Nokha (Jaisalmer) [4] Phalodi-Pokaran
Sol. [1] [5] Question Not Attempted
• 2245 Sol. [1]
750 925 1450 • Solar park capacity- Bhadla - 2245 MW, Phalodi -
Pokaran - 750 MW, Nokha - 925 MW, Poogal - 1450
IB - 1500
MW, Fatehgarh Phase I - 1500 MW
126. 126. Which of the following wind power plants is not
located in Jaisalmer district?
[1] [2] [1] Amarsagar [2] Bada Bagh
[3] [4] [3] Sodha Bandhan [4] Devgarh
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4] Wind Power Plants-
• Amarsagar-Jaisalmer • Badabagh - Jaisalmer
• • • Devgarh - Pratapgarh • Sodha Bandhan - Jaisalmer
• • • Phalodi • Akal - Jaisalmer
• • 127. On the basis of Economic Review 2023-24 of
127. 2023-24 Rajasthan Government, choose the incorrect
statement related to the condition of roads in

Page No.{40}
 Rajasthan-
[1] The density of roads per 100 square kilometers in
[1] 100 100 the state is less than 100 kilometers.
[2] National road density is more than 150 kilometers
per 100 square kilometers.
[2] 100 150
[3] State road density is very low as compared to
national road density.
[3] [4] National road density and state road density are
almost equal.
[4] [5] Question Not Attempted
[5] Sol. [4]
Sol. [4] As on 31st March, 2023, the road density in the state is
88.18 km per 100 sq km whereas the national road
31 2023 100
density is 165.24 km per 100 sq km. The state road
88.18 100 density is very low as compared to the national road
165.24 density.
128. Arrange the length of various roads in Rajasthan in
128. 31 2023 descending order till 31st March, 2023-
[1] National Highway - State Highway - Rural Road
[1] [2] Rural Road - State Highway - National Highway
[2] [3] National Highway - Rural Road - State Highway
[4] State Highway - Rural Road - National Highway
[3]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[4]
Sol. [2]
[5] Length of various roads in the state till 31st March,
Sol. [2] 2023-
31 2023 • National Highway - 10789 km
• State Highway - 17348 km
• 10789 • Main District Road - 14172 km
• 17348 • Other District Road - 67952 km
• 14172 • Rural Road - 191547 km
• 67952 129. Which is the nodal agency of Government of India
for generating energy from non-conventional energy
• 191547
sources in Rajasthan-
129. [1] Rajasthan Non-Conventional Energy Corporation
Limited
[1] [2] Rajasthan New and Renewable Energy Corporation
[2] Limited
[3] [3] Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Limited
[4] Rajasthan Energy Efficiency Corporation Limited
[4]
[5] Question Not Attempted
[5]
Sol. [3]
Sol. [3]
Rajasthan Renewable Energy Corporation Limited (R&E)
(RRECL) is a nodal agency of Ministry of New and Renewable
Energy, Government of India for generating energy from
non-conventional energy sources in the state.
130. 130. Rajasthan State Highway Investment Programme
Project is funded by whom?
[1] [2] [1] A.D.B. [2] World Bank
[3] [4] [3] UNESCO [4] N.D.B.
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted

Page No.{41}
Sol. [1] Sol. [1]
Rajasthan State Highway Investment Programme
Project is funded by ADB- and Rajasthan State High-
way Development Project is funded by World Bank.
131. Identify the correct statement(s) regarding 'Nazar
131.
Citizen' App-
A. It has been launched by the Health Department of
A. Rajasthan Government.
B. B. It has been launched for regular health checkup and
monitoring of pregnant and lactating women.
[1] A [2] A B [1] A only [2] Both A and B
[3] B [4] A B [3] B only [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
• • Nazar Citizen has been launched by Jaipur Police.
• • Through this, users will be able to upload details
of their families, tenants, PG dwellers, drivers,
servants. This will facilitate digital records and
verification.
132. 132. Recently, which institution of Rajasthan was
2024 awarded the 'ET Government PSU Leadership and
Excellence Award 2024'.
[1] [1] Rajasthan Fintech Institute, Jaipur
[2] [2] A.P.J. Abdul Kalam Institute of Biotechnology,
[3] Jaipur
[4] [3] Rajasthan University of Health Sciences
[5] [4] Rajasthan Medical Service Corporation
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
Sol. [4]
Rajasthan Medical Service Corporation was awarded
this award in the category of 'Leadership in Digital
133. Transformation'.
133. Identify the correct statement/statements regarding
A. the Chief Minister Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana-
2000 A. Under this, an amount of Rs. 2000 will be provided
in three installments in addition to the amount
B. 2000 given under the Prime Minister Kisan Samman
Nidhi Yojana.
60 : 40
B. This additional amount of Rs. 2000 will be borne
[1] A [2] A B
by the Center and the State in the ratio of 60: 40.
[3] B [4] A B
[1] A only [2] Both A and B
[5]
[3] B only [4] Neither A, nor B
Sol. [1] [5] Question Not Attempted
2000 Sol. [1]
1000, 500, 500 Under the Mukhyamantri Kisan Samman Nidhi
Yojana, Rs. 2000 will be provided in three installments
(First - Rs. 1000, Second Rs. 500, Third Rs. 500) in
134. addition to the Prime Minister Kisan Samman Nidhi
Yojana.
A.
134. Identify the matched pairs-
B.
A. Juvenile De-Addiction Center - Ajmer
Page No.{42}
 C. B. Tarang Mela - Jaipur
D. C. Dogs Training and Breeding Center - Barmer
[1] A B [2] C D D. Vande Bharat Maintenance Depot - Jodhpur
[3] B D [4] A C [1] A and B only [2] C and D only
[5] [3] B and D only [4] A and C only
Sol. [1] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
•
• Rajasthan's first juvenile D-addiction center was
built in Ajmer.
• BSF • Rajasthan and Gujarat Frontier's first dog training
and breeding center has been opened by BSF in
• Bikaner.
• Vande Bharat Maintenance Depot will be
constructed in Khatipura, Jaipur.
• • A three day Tarang Fair was organised by
NABARD at Jawahar Kala Kendra, Jaipur.
135. 135. Consider the following statements-
A. A. Srinagar (Jammu and Kashmir) has been given the
status of World Crafts City by the World Crafts
Council.
B.
B. It is the only city in India to receive the status of
World Crafts City.
Identify the incorrect statement/statements from the
[1] B [2] A B above-
[3] A [4] A B [1] B only [2] Neither A, nor B
[5] [3] A only [4] Both A and B
Sol. [1] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
•
• Srinagar, the summer capital of Jammu and
Kashmir, has been given the status of ‘World Crafts
• City’ by the World Crafts Council.
• • It is the fourth city in India to receive such status.
• Earlier, Jaipur (Rajasthan), Mamallapuram (Tamil
136. Nadu) and Mysore (Karnataka) had this status.
136. Identify the correct statement/statements from the
A.
following-
A. Kozhikode (Kerala) has been recognised as India’s
B. 2023 first ‘City of Literature’ by UNESCO.
B. In the year 2023, Kozhikode (Kerala) was ranked
[1] A [2] A B in the literature category of the 'UNESCO Creative
Cities Network'.
[3] B [4] A B
[1] A only [2] Both A and B
[5]
[3] B only [4] Neither A, nor B
Sol. [2] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]
137. Gwalior has been declared as ‘City of Music’ by
A. UNESCO.
137. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following-
B. 2024, A. JIMEX is a bilateral joint maritime exercise between
India and Japan.
B. The second phase of Tarang Shakti 2024 multilateral
C. air exercise was held in Jodhpur.
C. Only the armies of India and USA participate in
[1] A [2] A B the Red Flag exercise.
Page No.{43}
 [3] B [4] C [1] A only [2] A and B only
[5] [3] B only [4] C only
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [2]
Sol. [2]
•
• Red Flag exercise is a multinational air exercise.
•
• The air forces of India, Singapore, UK, Netherlands,
Germany and USA participated in it.
138. 18 138. Identify the correct statement(s) regarding the general
elections held for the 18th Lok Sabha-
A. 65.79% A. The total voting percentage in this general election
was 65.79%.
B.
B. The total voting percentage in this general election
has increased as compared to the last general
C. 99 election.
37 C. In this election, the Indian National Congress won
99 seats and the Samajwadi Party won 37 seats and
came second and third respectively.
[1] A [2] B
[1] A only [2] B only
[3] A C [4] A B
[3] A and C only [4] A and B
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
2019 67.4 2024 There was 67.4 percent voting in the 2019 general
65.79 election and 65.79 percent voting in the 2024 election.
Hence, the voting percentage has decreased in this
139. general election as compared to the last general election.
139. Recently in news is ‘Pushpak’?
[1] ICAR
[1] New wheat hybrid variety developed by ICAR
[2]
[2] Disputed island between Sri Lanka and India
[3]
[3] Damaged helicopter in Uttarakhand
[4]
[4] Reusable launch vehicle
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4] Sol. [4]
ISRO conducted the third and final test of reusable
launch vehicle technology at the Aeronautical Test
140. I Range in Chitradurga, Karnataka.
A. 140. Identify the correct statement(s) regarding
‘Nagastra-I’-
B.
A. It is a man portable weaponised drone system.
C.
B. It has been developed by DRDO.
C. It is an indigenously manufactured ‘loitering
[1] A B [2] A munition’ category system.
[3] A C [4] C [1] A and B only [2] A only
[5] [3] A and C only [4] C only
Sol. [3] [5] Question Not Attempted
I: Sol. [3]
NAGASTRA-I : It has been developed by Economics
141. Explosives Limited, a subsidiary of Nagpur-based Solar
Industries.
141. Identify the correct statement(s) regarding the awards
A.
given by Sahitya Akademi, New Delhi-
A. Rajasthani language young literary award was
B. given to Prahlad Singh Jhorda for his work ‘Mhari

Page No.{44}
 Dhani’.
[1] A [2] A B B. The Young Writer Award for Hindi language was
given to Devendra Kumar for his work 'The Earth
[3] B [4] A B
is Surrounded by Memories'.
[5]
[1] A only [2] Both A and B
Sol. [4]
[3] B only [4] Neither A, nor B
142. 2024 [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [4]
A. 142. Identify the correct statement(s) regarding Global
B. Energy Transition Index-2024.
C. 100 A. It has been released by the World Bank.
[1] A B [2] C B. Sweden tops this index.
[3] B C [4] B C. India is among the top 100 countries in this index.
[5] [1] A and B only [2] C only
Sol. [3] [3] B and C only [4] B only
• 2024 [5] Question Not Attempted
• Sol. [3]
• Global Energy Transition Index - 2024
•
• Released - World Economic Forum
• 63
• Top Rank - Sweden
143. ICC 20 • India's Rank - 63th
143. Consider the facts with reference to ICC Men’s T20
A. Cricket World Cup-
A. It was jointly organized by West Indies and USA.
B. 7 B. India won the title by defeating England by 7 runs
C. 20 in the final.
C. This was India’s second T20 World Cup title.
D.
D. Virat Kohli was the Player of the Tournament.
Identify the correct statement(s) from the above-
[1] A B [2] C D [1] A and B only [2] C and D only
[3] A C [4] B D [3] A and C only [4] B and D only
[5] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3] Sol. [3]
• 7 • India won the title by defeating South Africa by 7
runs in the final.
• Player of the Tournament - Jasprit Bumrah
•
144. Which player defeated Jasmine Paolini of Italy to win
144. 2024 the women's singles title in French Open-2024.
[1] Serena Williams
[1] [2] Barbara Krajcikova
[2] [3] Iga Swiatek
[3] [4] Martina Navratilova
[4] [5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [3]
[5]
In the final of the women's singles category, world
Sol. [3]
number one player Iga Swiatek of Poland defeated
Jasmine Paolini of Italy.
145. Consider the facts with reference to ISSF World Cup-
2024-
145. ISSF 2024 A. It was held in Munich, Germany.
A. B. Anantjit Singh Naruka was the only gold medalist
B. for India in this.
C. Sifart Kaur Samra of India won the bronze medal
Page No.{45}
 in the women's 50m rifle position.
C. 50 Identify the incorrect statement from the above-
[1] A only [2] B only
[3] C only [4] A and B only
[5] Question Not Attempted
[1] A [2] B
Sol. [2]
[3] C [4] A B • India ranks third in the standings.
[5] • Only gold medal for India was won by Sarabjot
Sol. [2] Singh in 10m air pistol.
• 146. Identify the correct statement(s) from the following-
A. India Olympic Research and Education Centre has
• 10
been opened in Rashtriya Raksha University
Gandhinagar, Gujarat.
146. B. Arunachal Pradesh is India’s first eco-friendly state
A. government headquarters.
[1] A only [2] Both A and B
B. [3] B only [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] Question Not Attempted
Sol. [1]
[1] A [2] A B
Assam Secretariat is India’s first state government
[3] B [4] A B headquarters to meet its power needs from green
[5] energy.
Sol. [1] 147. The year 2025 has been declared as the International
Year of which of the following by the United Nations?
A. Quantum Science and Technology
B. Cooperatives
147. 2025
C. Peace and Trust
D. Conservation of Glaciers
A. [1] A only [2] A and B only
B. [3] A, B and C only [4] A, B, C and D
C. [5] Question Not Attempted
D. Sol. [4]
[1] A [2] A B The year 2024 has been declared as the International
Year of Camelids.
[3] A, B C [4] A, B, C D
148. Identify the incorrect statement(s) from the
[5]
following-
Sol. [4] A. Recently, scientists of Physical Research Laboratory
2024 (PRL), Ahmedabad have discovered three new
craters on Mars.
148. B. Two of these craters are named after the towns of
A. (PRL) Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, Hilsa and Mursan
respectively.
[1] B only [2] A only
B. [3] Both A and B [4] Neither A, nor B
[5] Question Not Attempted
[1] B [2] A Sol. [1]
[3] A B [4] A, B • Scientists of Physical Research Laboratory (PRL)
[5] Ahmedabad discovered three new craters on Mars.
Sol. [1] • One crater has been named ‘Lal’ after former
director of PRL, Devendra Lal.
• (PRL)
• The remaining two craters have been named after
towns of Uttar Pradesh and Bihar, Mursan and
• PRL Hilsa respectively.

Page No.{46}
 • 149. Which Indian has been honoured with South Africa's
prestigious 'Nelson Mandela Lifetime Achievement
Award' for the first time?
149.
[1] Vivek Agnihotri [2] Sanjay Leela Bhansali
[3] Sooraj Barjatya [4] Vinod Ganatra
[5] Question Not Attempted
[1] [2] Sol. [4]
[3] [4] Indian filmmaker Vinod Ganatra is the first Indian to
[5] be honoured with the Nelson Mandela Lifetime
Sol. [4] Achievement Award for his contribution to the world
of cinema for children.
150. Where is the state's second Kharmore breeding center
being developed for the rare bird Kharmore?
[1] Jhalana, Jaipur [2] Sorsan, Baran
150. [3] Bhinay, Ajmer [4] Hamirgarh, Bhilwara
[5] Question Not Attempted
[1] [2] Sol. [2]
[3] [4] • The state's second Kharmore breeding center is
[5] being developed for the rare bird Kharmore in the
Sol. [2] Sorsan forest area of ??Anta tehsil of Baran district.
• • The state's first Kharmore breeding center is in
Ajmer.

ANSWER KEY
RAS PRE. 2024 (Economy-021) DATE 29 Sep. 2024

1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15
1 1 4 3 2 4 3 4 1 3 1 3 2 3 3
16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
1 2 4 1 3 4 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 1 2
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45
1 4 4 3 3 2 3 2 1 4 3 2 3 1 4
46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
3 3 1 2 4 3 2 3 4 4 1 2 4 1 2
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75
3 * 4 2 4 3 4 4 4 2 2 3 1 4 1
76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
2 4 1 2 3 3 4 1 3 3 4 3 3 3 3
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105
4 2 3 2 4 4 1 2 4 4 4 2 2 2 1
106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
2 1 4 4 1 1 3 3 3 2 2 1 1 4 2
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
4 3 4 4 1 4 4 2 3 1 4 4 1 1 1
136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
2 2 3 4 3 4 3 3 3 2 1 4 1 4 2

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