Questions

Q1. A patient with complete C6 spinal cord injury is working on increasing tolerance to an
upright position. While on a tilt table raised to 50°, the patient develops a pounding headache and
begins to exhibit flushing and profuse sweating. What should the physical therapist do first?
A- Lower the tilt table to a horizontal position
B- Lower the tilt table to 30°
C- Inspect the patient’s urinary catheter
D- Measure the patient’s blood pressure

Q2. What precautions should a physical therapist take when treating a patient with a measles
infection?
A- Airborne
B- Droplet
C- Contact
D- Sterile

Q3. In pulmonary function testing, which of the following conditions is most likely to show an
increase in residual volume?
A- Bronchiectasis
B- Atelectasis
C- Sarcoidosis
D- Pulmonary fibrosis

Q4. Which cranial nerve test result is most likely abnormal in a patient presenting with double
vision, ptosis, lateral strabismus, and a dilated pupil in the right eye?
A- Sensory examination of the face
B- Facial muscle strength examination
C- Pupillary light reflex
D- Jaw jerk reflex

Q5. Which of the following motor skill techniques should be emphasized when instructing a
patient with chronic hemiplegia?
A- Recovery of normal movement: Restoring and regaining the ability to perform movements in
a typical or natural manner.
B- Compensatory strategy: Utilizing alternative methods or movements to achieve a task due to
physical limitations.
C- Habituation: Learning to adapt to and become accustomed to a specific movement or
stimulus.
D- Sensitization: Increasing sensitivity or responsiveness to a stimulus, enhancing awareness or
reaction.

Q6. What gait deviation would be expected in a patient walking with a transtibial prosthesis that
has an overly firm wedge?
A- Excessive bending of the knee during the loading response
B- Early knee flexion in terminal stance
C- Inadequate bending of the knee during loading response
D- Excessive bending of the knee in terminal stance

Q7. How should a physical therapist respond if a patient diagnosed with meningioma begins to
have a grand mal seizure during a home therapy session?
A- Call emergency services immediately
B- Lower the patient to the floor and insert the tongue blade in the patient’s mouth
C- Lower the patient to the floor and turn them onto their side
D- Lower the patient to the floor and extend the patient’s neck to keep the airway clear

Q8. Pursed lip breathing exercise will be beneficial for which of the following conditions?
A. Asbestosis
B. Bronchiectasis
C. Heart failure
D. Intermittent claudication

Q9. While auscultating a patient who underwent a right lower lobe resection surgery one day
ago, the physical therapist detects low-pitched crackles in both lungs. The patient’s vital signs
while seated at the edge of the bed are as follows: heart rate of 95 beats per minute, blood
pressure of 125/70 mm Hg, and a pulse oximeter reading of 91% while receiving 2 liters per
minute of oxygen. What should the physical therapist do next?
A. Make the patient walk while ensuring 4 liters per minute of oxygen
B. Do not do any exercises and inform the physician about your findings
C. Start with bronchopulmonary hygiene procedures
D. Start with active range of motion exercises

Q10. While examining a patient's shoulder, a physical therapist identifies a capsular pattern
without radicular pain. What should the therapist do next to determine the cause of this capsular
pattern?
A- Perform axial compression on the cervical spine to assess for nerve root compression.
B- Inquire whether the patient has experienced any previous shoulder joint trauma.
C- Evaluate for pain during active range of motion, particularly looking for a painful arc.
D- Conduct a shoulder examination specifically aimed at identifying a possible rotator cuff tear.

Q11. A physical therapist is instructing a patient with a complete thoracic spinal cord injury, who
is seated in a wheelchair with a custom-made cushion, on pressure relief techniques. How often
should the patient perform pressure relief activities?
A- Every 15-20 minutes
B- Every 1-2 hours
C- Every 2-3 hours
D- When the signs of pressure sores appear

Q12. Which of the following is the sign of hypoglycemia?

A- Dry and itchy skin
B- Increased thirst, frequent urination and vomiting
C- Trouble speaking and focusing
D- Fruity-smelling breath

Q13. A patient admitted to the hospital due to a left femur fracture has an order in the chart for a
Doppler study of the right leg. What should the physical therapist do next?
A. Hold off on physical therapy until the test is done and interpreted by the assigned physician.
B. Limit physical therapy intervention to transfer from bed to chair post evaluation.
C. Follow the evaluation and treatment protocol without any restrictions.
D. Obtain clearance from the nurse present at the intensive care unit before starting with the
evaluation.

Q14. What is the MOST suitable prophylactic respiratory care plan for a 92-year-old patient with
chronic heart failure, who has been immobile and was recently hospitalized due to dehydration?
A. Performing turning, coughing, and deep breathing every 1 to 2 waking hours.
B. Vigorous percussion and vibration should be administered four times per day.
C. Gentle vibration with the foot of the bed raised should be conducted once daily.
D. Segmental postural drainage using standard positions should be implemented periodically
throughout the day.

Q15. Which exercise would offer the best cervical spine protection for a patient recovering from
a cervical spine injury and performing stabilization exercises targeting the lower cervical and
upper thoracic extensor muscles?
A- Lie face down and perform overhead arm flexion
B- Stand and extend the arms forward, outward, and upward
C- Stand without assistance and engage in pushing, pulling, and lifting tasks.
D- Lie face down with arms in abduction and external rotation followed by arms horizontal
abduction and scapular adduction

Q16. A patient is asked to grip a card between their thumb and index finger with both hands.
When the therapist pulls on the card, the patient's left thumb flexes at the interphalangeal joint.
Which muscle weakness and nerve lesion does this indicate?
A- Abductor pollicis brevis, median nerve
B- Extensor pollicis longus, radial nerve
C- Adductor Pollicis, ulnar nerve
D- Flexor pollicis longus, median nerve

Q17. Which of the following impairments is a 8-month-old infant with Erb palsy most likely to
exhibit?
A- Affected forearm held in supinated position
B- Elbow flexion contracture of the affected arm
C- Bilateral paralysis of the arms
D- Affected arm held in shoulder medial rotation

Q18. What movement must a physical therapist avoid while measuring shoulder abduction using
goniometer?
A- Elevation of the shoulder blade.
B- Inward rotation of the shoulder.
C- Outward rotation of the shoulder.
D- Sideways bending of the trunk toward the opposite side.

Q19. Girth is best measured from which of the following landmarks following partial resection
of musculocutaneous nerve?
A- Approximately 2 inches (5 cm) closer to the radial styloid.
B- Roughly 3.9 inches (10 cm) closer to the lateral epicondyle of the humerus.
C- About 2 inches (5 cm) further away from the radial tuberosity.
D- Approximately 3.9 inches (10 cm) further away from the medial epicondyle of the humerus.

Q20. What changes are anticipated in lung volumes and capacity in Bronchitis?
A. Increase in residual volume, expiratory reserve volume and functional respiratory capacity
B. Decrease in inspiratory capacity, vital capacity and functional respiratory capacity
C. Increase in reserve volume, functional respiratory capacity and total lung capacity
D. Decrease in expiratory reserve volume, vital capacity and total lung capacity

Q21. In which area would a physical therapist expect to find sensory discrimination deficits if the
biceps tendon reflex was found to be abnormal?
A. lateral upper limb extending from beneath the shoulder to the thumb.
B. Medial aspect of the forearm
C. Back of the neck, extending to the shoulders bilaterally
D. Back of the arms to middle finger

Q22. A patient complains of mild aching pain in the area of joint mobilization lasting for 2-3
hours after a therapy session. What should the therapist do next?
A- Consider the possibility of a neurological lesion in that area.
B- Consider the possibility of flare up in the condition
C- Advise the patient to see their physician for further evaluation.
D- Let the patient know that this type of response is typical.

Q23. To alleviate lateral shoulder and arm pain, a patient raises their arm with the elbow bent and
rests the forearm on their head. Which condition is most likely causing the patient’s symptoms?
A- Herniated disc at the C4–C5 level.
B- Tear in the rotator cuff.
C- Thoracic outlet syndrome.
D- Instability of the anterior shoulder.

Q24. Which of the following conditions is most commonly associated with finger clubbing?
A- Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
B- Venous insufficiency
C- Lymphedema stage II
D- Complex regional pain syndrome

Q25. A physical therapist is determining the effects of electrical stimulation, mobility exercises
and combination of both to improve knee range of motion post TKR surgery over a period of 6
weeks. What would be an appropriate statistical test to compare the range of motion of the knee
joint.
A- Paired t-test
B- ANOVA
C- Mann- Whitney test
D- Chi-square test

Q26. What examination should be included when evaluating a child with spastic quadriplegia
who exhibits persistent primitive reflexes and frequent respiratory infections?
A- Gross motor function classification system
B- Evaluation of oral-motor control and feeding skills
C- Cognitive and developmental assessment
D- Evaluate cardiac functions

Q27. A patient with right hemiparesis tends to push their trunk to the right. Which technique
should a physical therapist use to help the patient transfer from a wheelchair to a bed?
A- Instruct the patient to push up from the wheelchair using their left arm.
B- Tell the patient to stop pushing.
C- Ask the patient to keep their hands clasped together.
D- Stand on the patient’s right side and push their trunk to the left

Q28. A patient with a long-standing wound exhibits low blood pressure, reduced skin elasticity,
and a weak, rapid pulse. What dietary deficiency should a physical therapist suspect in this
patient?
A- Vitamin D
B- Protein
C- Water
D- Vitamin E

Q29. Which of the following will not be appropriate to perform on the second day post posterior
total hip arthroplasty on the right hip?
A- The patient independently moves around in bed using a trapeze bar for assistance.
B- The patient walks in his room (10 meters) with a standard walker, needing moderate help
from someone.
C- The patient actively moves their right leg away from the midline while lying on their left side.
D- Helping the patient move their left hip to a 60-degree flexion position.

Q30. How should the physical therapist measure maximal oxygen consumption in a patient who
is diagnosed with multiple sclerosis and presents with impaired balance?
A. Cycle Ergometer test
B. Bruce protocol treadmill stress test
C. Upper extremity ergometer test
D. 6-minute walk test

Q31. What is the preferred pulse and anatomical position for palpating lower extremity
circulation?
A- Popliteal pulse, palpated just behind the fibular head on the lateral side of the lower leg
B- Posterior tibial pulse, palpated below the lateral malleolus on the lateral aspect of the ankle
C- Dorsalis pedis pulse, palpated medially to the medial Calcaneal tuberosity on the plantar
surface of the foot
D- Dorsalis pedis pulse, palpated near the base of the first metatarsal on the dorsal surface of the
foot

Q32. Which nonsurgical intervention would be most suitable for a patient with a significant tear
of the triangular fibrocartilaginous complex that occurred 10 days ago?
A- Performing passive range of motion exercises at the wrist joint
B- Splinting the wrist joint in neutral position for 6 weeks
C- Mobilization of the carpal joint
D- Active range of motion exercises for the wrist joint

Q33. A patient reports left anterior ankle pain while walking. Upon evaluation, the physical
therapist notes a recent left ankle injury, with pain occurring only during passive rotation of the
lower leg. What diagnosis should the therapist consider?
A- Ankle impingement syndrome
B- Syndesmosis sprain
C- Stress fracture of the tibia
D- Achilles tendonitis

Q34. Which measure best indicates the status of thrombocytopenia in a leukemia patient who
developed the condition after a bone marrow transplant?
A- Count of white blood cells
B- Count of red blood cells
C- Count of platelet
D- Count of T4 lymphocyte

Q35. A 40-year-old male patient with low back pain radiating to the iliac crest and groin area is
referred for physical therapy. During evaluation, the physical therapist notes that the pain does
not change with position, there is no tenderness in the paraspinal muscles, there is a positive
iliopsoas sign, and supraclavicular adenopathy is present. What should the physical therapist do
first?
A- Send the patient back to the physician for possible herniated disc.
B- Perform tests to check sensation and strength in the lower extremities.
C- Send the patient back to the physician for possible testicular cancer.
D- Perform tests to assess the range of motion and strength in the trunk.

Q36. Which principle of physics explains the benefits of aquatic therapy for treating lower
extremity edema?
A. Viscosity
B. Buoyancy
C. Hydrostatic pressure
D. Thermal properties
Q37. What communication approach should the physical therapist employ when addressing a
patient who has disclosed plans to commit suicide soon and has stockpiled medication for an
overdose?
A. Explain that addressing this matter is beyond the scope of physical therapy, refer the
patient to a mental health professional, and conduct follow-up care.
B. Clearly explain the gravity of the situation to the patient, advise discussing the suicidal
thoughts with their primary care physician, and ensure a follow-up.
C. Recommend the patient to discuss their suicidal thoughts with the referring physician,
arrange for an appointment with the physician, and ensure a follow-up.
D. Express concern regarding the patient’s plans, reach out to a mental health professional,
and stay with the patient until assistance arrives.

Q38. Which of the following would be the MOST functional goal for a stroke patient who
resides in an assisted living facility?
A- The patient's balance will improve to allow independent standing on the affected lower
extremity for 15 seconds.
B- The patient will be able to put on his orthosis with help.
C- The patient will achieve normal (5/5) strength in the hamstring muscles.
D- The patient will walk independently for 80 meters using a straight cane from his room to the
food hall.

Q39. When assessing a patient with dorsal column syndrome, what signs or symptoms would be
anticipated?
A- Weakness and heightened sensitivity in the left extremity.
B- Weakness and reduced sensitivity in both extremities.
C- Difficulty with balance and reduced trunk movement between spinal segments.
D- Reduced ability to sense vibrations and decreased awareness of body position.

Q40. When evaluating a patient with a gunshot wound to the spine at L1, the physical therapist
notes the following findings: weakness in the right lower extremity, inability to move the knee,
ankle, and foot, increased patellar and Achilles tendon reflexes on the right, loss of
proprioception in the right ankle and knee, a positive Babinski sign on the right side, and reduced
pinprick sensation and temperature sensitivity in the left thigh, leg, and foot. Cranial nerve tests
are normal. These findings indicate damage to which area?
A- Damage to the right anterior horn of the spinal cord
B- Total transection of the spinal cord
C- Damage to the right side of the spinal cord
D- Damage to the central region of the spinal cord
 Answers and Rationale:
Correct answer 1- C
Rationale:
A- Lowering the patient to a flat position may worsen the symptoms of autonomic dysreflexia
B- Keeping the patient in an upright position is the best approach for managing autonomic
dysreflexia
C- Symptoms such as flushing, excessive sweating, and a severe headache indicate autonomic
dysreflexia One of the most common triggers is a full or irritated bladder. The first step is to
eliminate the source of irritation
D- Measuring the patient's blood pressure should be done after addressing and attempting to
remove the noxious stimuli

Correct answer 2- A
Rationale:
A- Since measles spreads through the air, all precautions for airborne diseases should be
observed.
B- Measles infection is spread through air, not through droplets.
C- Measles infection is spread through air, not through contact.
D- The physical therapist does not need to use sterile precautions or techniques when treating a
patient with measles infection.

Correct answer 3- A
Rationale:
A- Bronchiectasis causes obstructive issues. Obstructive lung diseases are generally associated
with an increased residual volume.
B- Atelectasis is primarily a restrictive problem and does not cause an increase in residual
volume. Restrictive lung diseases are typically linked to a decrease in residual volume.
C- Sarcoidosis is primarily a restrictive problem and does not cause an increase in residual
volume.
D- Pulmonary fibrosis is primarily a restrictive problem and does not cause an increase in
residual volume.

Correct answer 4- C
Rationale:
A- The trigeminal nerve (CN V) transmits pain sensation from the face.
B- The facial nerve (CN VII) controls facial muscle movements.
C- The oculomotor nerve (CN III) controls the medial rectus muscle, contributing to lateral
strabismus when weakened. It also regulates pupillary constriction; damage can lead to pupillary
dilation. Ptosis results from impaired innervation of the levator palpebrae superioris muscle.
Double vision occurs due to impaired eye movement, as CN III controls four of the six ocular
muscles and mediates the pupillary light reflex.
D- The trigeminal nerve (CN V) oversees the jaw-jerk reflex.

Correct answer 5- B
Rationale:
A- Acutely, the focus is on restoring normal function. However, for patients with chronic
conditions like hemiplegia, achieving complete recovery of normal movement is not realistic.
B- Patients with chronic hemiplegia typically do not regain normal function. Compensatory
strategies are necessary when permanent loss of function prevents the restoration of normal
movement patterns.
C- Habituation occurs when repeated exposure to a nonpainful stimulus results in decreased
responsiveness.
D- Sensitization involves increased responsiveness after exposure to a threatening or noxious
stimulus.

Correct answer 6- A
Rationale:
A- Upon heel contact/loading response, a partially compressible heel section absorbs ground
impact, allowing controlled plantar flexion. If the heel is overly stiff, the knee may excessively
flex too early upon initial contact.
B- A firm heel wedge would not impact late stance.
C- Excessive knee flexion is anticipated
D- A firm heel wedge would not affect late stance

Correct answer 7- C
Rationale:
A- Calling emergency services isn’t the initial step; it’s important to assess the patient post-
seizure before deciding to do so.
B- Trying to prevent tongue biting or placing an object in the patient’s mouth is unnecessary and
could harm their teeth.
C- Injury prevention should be the first goal during a seizure. Lowering the patient on the floor
and turning the patient onto their side helps avoid aspiration.
D- Extending the neck for airway clearance is not a suitable action for managing a seizure.

Correct answer 8- B
Rationale:
A. In asbestosis, a restrictive lung condition, pursed lip breathing is not helpful
B. Bronchiectasis, an obstructive lung condition, benefits from pursed lip breathing
C. Heart failure may result in pulmonary problems, but necessarily of the obstructive type
D. Intermittent claudication is a peripheral vascular disease, not a pulmonary condition

Correct answer 9- C
Rationale:
A. The presence of crackles and low pulse oximeter readings indicates a requirement for
enhanced ventilation and secretion clearance. While walking can aid in clearing lung secretions,
the low oximeter reading suggests this might not be the most suitable option
B. Notifying the physician shouldn’t be the initial action taken by the physical therapist. If
attempts to clear the lungs and improve the oximeter reading are unsuccessful, then contacting
the physician would be appropriate
C. Bronchopulmonary hygiene, encompassing techniques like postural drainage, percussion,
vibration, suctioning, and incentive spirometry, is advantageous for both treating and preventing
postoperative atelectasis. These techniques effectively address the need for improved ventilation
and secretion clearance
D. While active range of motion exercises are crucial for preventing postoperative complications
and facilitating faster recovery, prioritizing ventilation and secretion clearance is paramount

Correct answer 10- B

Rationale:
A- Nerve root impingement typically causes radicular pain, which the patient does not have.
B- Traumatic arthritis following shoulder injury is a common cause of a capsular pattern in the
shoulder, often developing gradually.
C- A painful arc is commonly associated with conditions like bursitis or tendinitis rather than a
capsular pattern, which the patient exhibits.
D- A torn rotator cuff often results in weakness and reduced ability to lift the shoulder actively.
In contrast, a capsular pattern primarily affects lateral (external) rotation, abduction, and then
medial (internal) rotation of the shoulder joint.

Correct answer 11- A

Rationale:
A- A patient with a thoracic-level spinal cord injury can perform independent pressure relief and
should do so every 15 to 20 minutes.
B- Pressure relief needs to be done every 15 to 20 minutes, not every 1 to 2 hours.
C- Pressure relief needs to be done every 15 to 20 minutes, not every 2 to 3 hours.
D- Pressure relief should be done before any signs of skin damage appear.

Correct answer 12- C

Rationale:
A- Dry and itchy skin is sign of hyperglycemia
B- Increased thirst, frequent urination and vomiting are all signs of hyperglycemia
C- A frequent mental symptom of hypoglycemia is trouble with speaking and focusing
D- Fruity smelling breath is a sign of hyperglycemia

Correct Answer 13- A

Rationale:
A. Doppler test is ordered to eliminate the possibility of deep vein thrombosis. Hence, no
physical therapy should be conducted until the study is conducted and interpreted by the assigned
physician.
B. It would be unwise to place the patient in a seated position with their legs hanging down,
especially considering the potential risk of deep vein thrombosis.
C. A physical therapy exam is contraindicated until test results of doppler test are back.
D. The nurse present in the intensive care unit does not hold the right to provide clearance until
the test results are back.

Correct Answer 14- A

Rationale:
A. An immobile patient is at risk of developing atelectasis and subsequent pneumonia, which can
be prevented by regularly changing positions and performing deep breathing exercises.
B. Vigorous percussion and vibration are not recommended for this elderly patient, who does not
have a history of retaining secretions.
C. This elderly patient with chronic heart failure may not tolerate vibration with the head down.
D. Standard postural drainage positions, where the head is positioned below the heart, may not
be suitable for this elderly patient with chronic heart failure

Correct answer 15- D

Rationale:
A- Lifting the shoulders while lying prone offers less cervical spine protection than having the
arms abducted, externally rotated, horizontally abducted, and the scapulae adducted.
B- The prone position offers better cervical spine support than the standing position.
C- The prone position offers better cervical spine support than the standing position.
D- The prone position offers better cervical spine support than the standing position. Among the
prone options, the position in option 4 provides the most protection, while lifting the shoulders in
the prone position offers moderate to minimal protection.

Correct answer 16- C

Rationale:
A- This activity tests the adductor pollicis, not the abductor pollicis.
B- The task involves thumb adduction, not extension. The extensor pollicis longus is not being
tested.
C- The test described in the question is the Froment's sign. Both thumbs should remain extended
during the test. If the thumb flexes, it indicates adductor pollicis weakness with compensation by
the flexor pollicis longus, often due to an ulnar nerve lesion.
D- If the thumb flexes, it suggests weakness in the adductor pollicis, with compensation by the
flexor pollicis longus, typically due to an ulnar nerve lesion.

Correct answer 17- D

Rationale:
A- Erb palsy results from injury to the upper roots of the brachial plexus at C5 and C6, leading to
the affected limb being positioned in pronation, not supination.
B- Erb palsy is due to injury to the upper roots of the brachial plexus at C5 and C6, causing
unilateral paralysis rather than spasticity, so it doesn't lead to a contracture.
C- Erb palsy involves injury to the upper roots of the brachial plexus at C5 and C6, causing
unilateral paralysis, not affecting both sides.
D- Erb palsy is characterized by weakness in the shoulder muscles, causing the affected arm to
be held in medial (internal) rotation at the shoulder.

Correct answer 18- D

Rationale:
A- When the shoulder abducts, the scapula usually rotates upward.
B- Internal rotation of the shoulder typically limits abduction.
C- Shoulder abduction often coincides with external rotation of the shoulder.
D- During shoulder abduction measurement, maintaining a straight trunk is important. Allowing
lateral trunk flexion might falsely suggest increased shoulder abduction, when it’s actually spine
motion.
Correct answer 19- B
Rationale:
A- Muscles controlled by the musculocutaneous nerve are situated in the upper arm, not the
forearm.
B- The musculocutaneous nerve supplies the biceps brachii, brachialis, and coracobrachialis
muscles in the anterior arm, along with sensory nerves to the lateral forearm. Damage to this
nerve can lead to muscle weakness and wasting.
C- Muscles innervated by the musculocutaneous nerve are situated in the upper arm, not the
forearm.
D- Muscles controlled by the musculocutaneous nerve are located in the upper arm, not the
forearm

Correct answer 20- C

In obstructive lung disease - Everything Decreases except : ⬆️RV, FRC and TLC
In restrictive lung disease everything decreases ⬇️

Correct answer 21- A

Rationale:
A. The biceps reflex assesses the function of C5-C6. The dermatome of C5-C6 encompasses the
lateral part of the upper limb, extending from the shoulder to the thumb.
B. The medial aspect of the forearm receives innervation from C8-T1 and not from C5-C6.
C. Dermatome C3-C4 extends across both the front and back of the neck. Across the chest covers
multiple dermatomes and gives a less precise answer.
D. Back of the arm to middle finger describes C7 dermatome and not C5-C6.

Correct answer 22- D

Rationale:
A- The symptoms reported do not suggest any neurological issues.
B- The patient’s reaction is normal, and does not indicate flare up of the condition.
C- It is not necessary to refer the patient to a physician, as this is a typical response to the
treatment.
D- Joint mobilization can cause some soreness. The therapist should explain this to the patient,
reassess them, and consider adjusting the treatment by either waiting an additional day before the
next session or reducing the intensity.

Correct answer 23- A

Rationale:
A- The test mentioned assesses for radicular symptoms involving the C4 or C5 nerve roots. If
resting the arm on the head alleviates the symptoms, it suggests a cervical compression issue or
nerve root compression. Pain in the lateral shoulder corresponds to the C4 dermatome.
B- A rotator cuff tear is assessed with tests like the drop arm or lift-off test. Elevating the arm
would likely be painful for someone with a rotator cuff tear, and the described test would
probably cause pain rather than relieve it.
C- Thoracic outlet syndrome is evaluated with tests like the Roos test. Raising the arm is more
likely to worsen symptoms of thoracic outlet syndrome, not alleviate them.
D- Anterior shoulder instability is tested using the apprehension test, not the described test,
which evaluates radicular symptoms. Abducting and externally rotating the shoulder would likely
worsen symptoms in someone with anterior shoulder instability

Correct answer 24- A

Rationale:
A- Conditions that consistently disrupt tissue perfusion and nutrition can lead to clubbing.
Pulmonary disease is the most common cause, accounting for 75% to 85% of cases where
clubbing is observed.
B- Venous insufficiency is not typically associated with finger clubbing. More characteristic
signs include hemosiderin staining, swelling in the lower extremities, and stasis ulcers.
C- Lymphedema is not usually linked to finger clubbing. Instead, it often results in chronic
swelling and pitting edema in the extremities.
D- Complex regional pain syndrome does not commonly cause finger clubbing. It is
characterized by abnormal pain and trophic changes.

Correct answer 25- B

Rationale:
ANOVA is a statistical test that compares the effects of three or more treatment groups (such as
Electrical Stimulation, Mobility Exercises, or Combined Exercise) on a dependent variable (like
range of motion) at a specified level of probability.

Correct answer 26- B

Rationale:
A-The Gross Motor Function Classification System (GMFCS) aids in determining the level of
motor function. While testing this is included, it is not critical.
B- Oral-motor control may contribute to respiratory infections since poor feeding is linked to a
weak suck, poor swallowing coordination, and a reduced gag reflex.
C- Cognitive and Developmental Assessment evaluates cognitive function and developmental
progress. This assessment is included but not essential.
D- A cardiac examination would not be a primary focus in the evaluation of this child

Correct answer 27- C

Rationale:
A- Allowing the patient to push on the wheelchair armrest will worsen the problem.
B- Simply telling the patient to stop pushing is ineffective because patients with pusher
syndrome have distorted sensory input and are unaware of how much they are pushing off
balance.
C- A patient with pusher syndrome and right hemiparesis will push to the right using their left
arm. Clasping the hands together minimizes this pushing. It’s important to restrict the use of the
unaffected arm for pushing.
D- If the therapist tries to correct the patient’s posture by pushing the trunk to the left, the patient
will push even harder to the right.

Correct answer 28- C

Rationale:
A- Vitamin D deficiency primarily affects bone health and calcium absorption, not directly
related to blood pressure or skin turgor
B- Excessive protein intake can increase water requirements, while insufficient protein can
hinder wound healing. Protein levels do not directly impact heart rate or blood pressure.
C- Water helps hydrate the wound site, and dehydration can lead to an increased heart rate and
lower blood pressure.
D- Vitamin E deficiency primarily affects immune function and skin health but not typically
linked to blood pressure or rapid pulse.

Correct answer 29- C

Rationale:
A- Moving around in bed should begin within 1 or 2 days after the operation.
B- Training for walking should also start within 1 or 2 days following the surgery.
C- While protocols may vary by surgeon and surgical approach, it’s generally advised to avoid
exercises where the hip moves outward against gravity until 5 to 6 weeks after surgery.
D- Patients are instructed to avoid bending their hip too much, typically not more than 80
degrees.

Correct answer 30- A

Rationale:
A. Cycle ergometer tests are perfect for patients with impaired balance which is described in the
question. This test is utilized to approximate maximal oxygen consumption based on
submaximal exercise. These tests remove the requirement for balance, which might be
compromised in individuals with multiple sclerosis.
B. The Bruce Protocol treadmill stress test is a standardized exercise test that gradually increases
treadmill speed and incline every three minutes, aiming to assess cardiovascular fitness and
detect any abnormalities in heart function. This will not be an appropriate option for a patient
with impaired balance.
C. Performing upper extremity ergometer testing is possible, but it’s more probable to experience
muscle fatigue before reaching maximum cardiopulmonary capacity.
D. Walking tests are utilized to approximate maximal oxygen consumption through submaximal
exercise, yet they necessitate balance and walking capability, both of which might be impaired in
individuals with multiple sclerosis.

Correct answer 31- D

Rationale:
A- Dorsalis pedis pulse is preferred due to its distal location. Popliteal pulse may also be
palpated but it is located posterior to the knee and not in the lateral leg
B- Dorsalis pedis pulse is preferred due to its distal location. Posterior tibial pulse may also be
palpated but it is located at the medial ankle just posterior to the medial malleolus, not the lateral
ankle.
C- The therapist should palpate the dorsal pedal pulse. This pulse is palpated on the dorsal
surface and not on the plantar surface of the foot
D- The therapist should palpate the dorsal pedal pulse, located on the dorsal surface of the foot
near the base of the first metatarsal. This pulse is commonly used to assess a patient’s circulation
because it is located distally on the lower extremity.
Correct answer 32- B
Rationale:
A- Passive range of motion is not suitable as it can generate torque forces
B- Conservative treatment involves splinting or casting the wrist in a neutral position for 4-6
weeks to prevent ulnar or radial deviation. After splint removal, active range of motion exercises
can begin, and strengthening of the proximal joints can be done while the splint is on, but
without resistance or weight-bearing on the wrist
C- Carpal joint mobilization should be avoided as it can create torque forces
D- Active range of motion exercises begins post immobilization

Correct answer 33- B

Rationale:
A- Ankle impingement symptoms does not reproduce with passive rotation of the lower leg
B- Passive rotation of the lower leg assesses the integrity of the tibiofibular syndesmosis. A
positive test result will reproduce symptoms, indicating anterior ankle pain in this case.
C- Passive rotation of the lower leg does not exert enough load on the tibia or muscles to cause
pain from a stress fracture.
D- Passive rotation of the lower leg does not reproduce symptoms of achilles tendonitis

Correct answer 34- C

Rationale:
A- The white blood cell count is assessed to detect infection or the level of immunosuppression.
B- The red blood cell count is used to check for anemia.
C- Thrombocytopenia refers to a decrease in the number of circulating platelets, either acute or
chronic.
D- The T4 lymphocyte count measures immune function in patients with HIV or AIDS.

Correct answer 35- C

Rationale:
A- The nature of the patient's back pain raises suspicion of testicular cancer and does not align
with the mechanical back pain caused by a herniated disc.
B- Further testing for sensation and strength is unnecessary before deciding that a medical
referral is required.
C- The examination findings, particularly the supraclavicular adenopathy and positive iliopsoas
sign, suggest testicular cancer rather than a herniated disc (note: a positive psoas sign can also
indicate appendicitis if located in the right lower quadrant).
D- Additional testing for trunk strength and range of motion is not needed before making a
referral for medical evaluation.

Correct Answer 36- C

Rationale:
A. Viscosity increases resistance for strengthening exercises and provides support for balance
and proprioception training. It does not affect edema.
B. Buoyancy reduces weight-bearing, allowing for decreased joint stress and increased mobility
in water. It does not affect edema as much as hydrostatic pressure.
C. Hydrostatic pressure improves circulation, reduces swelling, and provides joint stability
during aquatic therapy. The pressure exerted by deep water applies uniform pressure around the
lower extremity, promoting the flow of fluids towards the body’s core, thereby aiding in reducing
swelling or edema.
D. Thermal properties facilitate relaxation, relieves pain, and enhances tissue healing through
temperature modulation in aquatic environments.

Correct Answer 37- D

Rationale:
A. Expressing suicidal intent and discussing plans for self-harm constitutes an emergency.
Patient safety and clear communication falls within the scope of physical therapy practice. The
scenario described in the question demands immediate attention and prompt medical intervention
by the physical therapist.
B. Relying on the patient to go to their primary care physician does ensure patient safety.
C. Relying on the patient to go to the referring physician does not ensure patient safety. The
patient might never go to the referring physician.
D. Research indicates that 50% of individuals who commit suicide had visited a healthcare
provider within the month prior. The situation described in the question suggests an imminent
risk of suicide. The physical therapist’s most effective communication strategy would be to
convey these concerns to both the patient and other healthcare provider efficiently.

Correct answer 38- D

Rationale:
B- This goal lacks a specific measurable objective and lacks clear assistance criteria.
A- This goal is not connected to the functional activity
C- This goal is not connected to the functional activity
D- This goal is specific, measurable, and serves a functional purpose.

Correct answer 39- D

A- Dorsal column syndrome does not affect motor function, so it doesn't reduce extremity
strength.
B- Dorsal column syndrome does not impair motor function, so it doesn't weaken extremity
strength.
C- Dorsal column syndrome does not impact motor function, so it doesn't decrease
intersegmental trunk rotation.
D- Dorsal column syndrome leads to a reduced perception of vibration and proprioception.

Correct answer 40- C

Rationale:
A- Damage to the anterior horn cells leads to lower motor neuron issues and reduced reflexes.
B- Complete severance of the spinal cord results in motor and sensory loss on both sides of the
body.
C- The symptoms described indicate a hemisection of the spinal cord on the right side, causing
ipsilateral motor and proprioception loss, contralateral pain and temperature loss, along with
hyperreflexia and a positive Babinski sign on the right side.
D- Central spinal cord damage typically spares the motor pathways.