ASSIGNMENT #1 PHARMACOLOGY
For questions on Dosage Calculations, please show your solutions if applicable.
For questions 81-100, the use of AI in your essay is prohibited. Doing so will
make your correct scores in this assignment null and void.
1. The physician orders 500 mg of amoxicillin PO every 8 hours. The available
dose is 250 mg per tablet. How many tablets should the nurse administer per
dose?
A. 1 tablet
B. 2 tablets
C. 3 tablets
D. 4 tablets
2. The doctor prescribes 1.5 g of ceftriaxone IV daily. The available vial contains
500 mg per vial. How many vials should be reconstituted per dose?
A. 1 vial
B. 2 vials
C. 3 vials
D. 4 vials
3. The physician orders 75 mg of a drug. The label states that each 5 mL contains
50 mg. How many mL should the nurse administer?
A. 5 mL
B. 7.5 mL
C. 10 mL
D. 15 mL
4. The physician prescribes heparin 5,000 units subcutaneously every 12 hours.
The available concentration is 10,000 units/mL. How many mL should be
administered?
A. 0.25 mL
B. 0.5 mL
C. 1.0 mL
D. 2.0 mL
5. A child weighs 20 kg and is prescribed cefazolin 50 mg/kg/day in divided doses
every 8 hours. How much cefazolin is given per dose?
A. 250 mg
B. 300 mg
C. 350 mg
D. 400 mg
6. A physician orders 1,200 mL of IV fluid to be infused over 8 hours. The IV
tubing has a drop factor of 15 gtt/mL. What is the flow rate in drops per minute?
A. 25 gtt/min
B. 30 gtt/min
C. 35 gtt/min
D. 40 gtt/min
7. The physician prescribes 25 mg of a medication IM. The vial contains 50 mg
per 2 mL. How many mL should be given?
A. 0.5 mL
B. 1 mL
C. 1.5 mL
D. 2 mL
8. The nurse needs to administer digoxin 125 mcg PO daily. The available tablets
contain 0.25 mg per tablet. How many tablets should be given?
A. 0.25 tablet
B. 0.5 tablet
C. 1 tablet
D. 2 tablets
9. A child weighs 15 kg and requires acetaminophen 10 mg/kg per dose every 6
hours. How many mg should be administered per dose?
A. 100 mg
B. 120 mg
C. 150 mg
D. 180 mg
10. The doctor orders 400 mg of a drug in an IV infusion over 4 hours. The IV
bag contains 500 mL with 400 mg of the drug. What is the infusion rate in
mL/hr?
A. 100 mL/hr
B. 125 mL/hr
C. 150 mL/hr
D. 200 mL/hr
11. The nurse needs to administer enoxaparin 30 mg SC. The available
concentration is 40 mg/0.4 mL. How many mL should be given?
A. 0.2 mL
B. 0.3 mL
C. 0.4 mL
D. 0.5 mL
12. The doctor prescribes 1000 mL of normal saline to infuse over 8 hours. What
is the infusion rate in mL/hr?
A. 100 mL/hr
B. 125 mL/hr
C. 150 mL/hr
D. 175 mL/hr
13. The doctor orders 0.5 g of a drug IV. The available vial contains 250 mg per
mL. How many mL should be given?
A. 1 mL
B. 2 mL
C. 3 mL
D. 4 mL
14. The physician orders morphine sulfate 6 mg IV every 4 hours. The vial
contains 10 mg/mL. How many mL should be administered?
A. 0.2 mL
B. 0.4 mL
C. 0.6 mL
D. 0.8 mL
15. The doctor prescribes 75 mg of diphenhydramine PO at bedtime. The
available syrup contains 12.5 mg per 5 mL. How many mL should be given?
A. 25 mL
B. 30 mL
C. 35 mL
D. 40 mL
(16) A patient with heart failure is prescribed furosemide 40 mg IV push. The
vial contains 10 mg/mL. How many mL should be given?
(17) A child weighing 10 kg is prescribed cefuroxime 20 mg/kg/day divided into 2
doses. How much should be given per dose?
(18) A patient is ordered 100 mg of a medication, available as 200 mg per 10 mL.
How many mL should be given?
(19) The physician orders 1.5 g of a drug. The available vial contains 750 mg per
3 mL. How many mL should be administered?
(20) The doctor orders 80 mg of gentamicin IV. The vial contains 40 mg/mL.
How many mL should be given?
21. A nurse is about to administer metoprolol to a patient with hypertension.
Which of the following effects does this drug have?
A. Bronchodilation
B. Increased heart rate
C. Decreased heart rate
D. Increased myocardial contractility
22. A patient on beta-1 adrenergic agonist therapy develops tachycardia. Which
medication might be responsible?
A. Dobutamine
B. Atropine
C. Atenolol
D. Pilocarpine
23. The nurse is administering atenolol to a patient with hypertension. What
should the nurse monitor before administration?
A. Respiratory rate
B. Blood glucose levels
C. Heart rate and blood pressure
D. Urine output
24. A nurse is teaching a patient about the effects of cholinergic drugs. Which
statement indicates correct understanding?
A. "This medication will make my heart beat faster."
B. "This drug may cause my mouth to feel dry."
C. "This medication may cause diarrhea and increased urination."
D. "This drug will reduce my ability to sweat."
25. Which of the following drugs is a direct-acting cholinergic agonist used in
glaucoma?
A. Atropine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Dobutamine
D. Propranolol
26. Which drug would be most appropriate for treating bradycardia?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Atenolol
C. Atropine
D. Metoprolol
27. Which effect is expected when administering a beta-1 adrenergic agonist?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Bronchoconstriction
C. Increased cardiac output
D. Decreased blood pressure
28. Which of the following beta-blockers is cardioselective?
A. Propranolol
B. Atenolol
C. Labetalol
D. Carvedilol
29. The nurse is caring for a patient with asthma and hypertension. Which beta-
blocker is safest?
A. Propranolol
B. Atenolol
C. Labetalol
D. Carvedilol
30. Which condition is contraindicated for cholinergic drugs?
A. Glaucoma
B. Myasthenia gravis
C. Urinary retention
D. Asthma
IDENTIFICATION
[Link] Beta-1 adrenergic agonist is commonly used in cardiogenic shock?
32. Which beta-blocker is commonly prescribed post-myocardial infarction
to reduce cardiac workload?
33. Which medication is used to reverse the effects of cholinergic toxicity?
34.A nurse administers bethanechol. What should be monitored?
[Link] is the primary effect of cholinergic drugs on the gastrointestinal
system?
36. A nurse is monitoring for side effects of atropine. What is expected?
37. Which Beta-1 agonist is given in acute heart failure to improve cardiac
output?
38. Which medication is used to treat organophosphate poisoning?
39. A patient taking beta-blockers should be educated to report which
symptom?
40. Which of the following medications is a Beta-2 adrenergic agonist used in
asthma treatment?
A. Atenolol
B. Salbutamol
C. Propranolol
D. Metoprolol
41. What is the primary effect of Beta-2 adrenergic agonists on the lungs?
A. Bronchoconstriction
B. Bronchodilation
C. Decreased mucus secretion
D. Increased vascular resistance
42. A patient is experiencing an asthma attack. Which drug should the nurse
anticipate administering?
A. Salbutamol
B. Metoprolol
C. Pilocarpine
D. Propranolol
43. Which Beta-2 adrenergic agonist is commonly used for preterm labor?
A. Salmeterol
B. Terbutaline
C. Propranolol
D. Metoprolol
44. A patient taking a Beta-2 adrenergic agonist may experience which side
effect?
A. Bradycardia
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Tremors
D. Miosis
45. Which of the following Beta-2 adrenergic agonists is a long-acting
bronchodilator?
A. Salbutamol
B. Salmeterol
C. Propranolol
D. Metoprolol
46. Which medication should be avoided in a patient with asthma?
A. Salbutamol
B. Ipratropium
C. Propranolol
D. Terbutaline
47. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed a
Beta-2 adrenergic agonist. The nurse expects which therapeutic effect?
A. Increased bronchoconstriction
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Improved airflow due to bronchodilation
D. Increased mucus production
48. Which of the following is a direct-acting cholinergic drug used for glaucoma?
A. Pilocarpine
B. Atropine
C. Propranolol
D. Salmeterol
49. What is the primary effect of cholinergic drugs on the gastrointestinal
system?
A. Decreased peristalsis
B. Increased peristalsis and secretions
C. Increased gastric pH
D. Relaxation of smooth muscles
50. Which of the following is an Alpha-1 adrenergic agonist used to treat
hypotension?
A. Prazosin
B. Phentolamine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Clonidine
51. The primary action of Alpha-1 adrenergic agonists is:
A. Bronchodilation
B. Vasodilation
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Increased insulin secretion
52. A patient receiving an Alpha-1 adrenergic agonist may experience which side
effect?
A. Hypotension
B. Reflex bradycardia
C. Miosis
D. Diarrhea
53. Which of the following medications is an Alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist used
to treat hypertension?
A. Dobutamine
B. Prazosin
C. Phenylephrine
D. Epinephrine
54. What is the primary effect of Alpha-1 adrenergic blockers on the urinary
system?
A. Constriction of the bladder neck
B. Decreased urine flow
C. Relaxation of the bladder neck and prostate
D. Increased bladder contractions
55. Which of the following is a direct-acting cholinergic drug used to treat
urinary retention?
A. Bethanechol
B. Atropine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Prazosin
56. What is the effect of cholinergic agonists on the cardiovascular system?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Decreased heart rate
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Increased blood pressure
57. Which Alpha-1 adrenergic antagonist is commonly used to treat BPH?
A. Phentolamine
B. Tamsulosin
C. Dobutamine
D. Clonidine
58. A nurse is about to administer an Alpha-1 agonist to a patient in shock.
Which action should the nurse anticipate?
A. Decreased heart rate
B. Increased blood pressure
C. Bronchodilation
D. Increased urine output
59. A patient taking Prazosin should be monitored for which potential side
effect?
A. Hypertension
B. Reflex tachycardia
C. Urinary retention
60. What is the primary pathophysiological cause of glaucoma?
A. Increased intraocular pressure (IOP)
B. Increased production of aqueous humor
C. Decreased production of aqueous humor
D. Retinal detachment
61. Which type of glaucoma is characterized by a gradual increase in intraocular
pressure without noticeable symptoms?
A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
B. Open-angle glaucoma
C. Congenital glaucoma
D. Secondary glaucoma
62. A patient presents with sudden eye pain, headache, nausea, and halos around
lights. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Open-angle glaucoma
B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma
C. Retinal detachment
D. Diabetic retinopathy
63. Which medication is commonly used to reduce intraocular pressure in
glaucoma?
A. Atropine
B. Pilocarpine
C. Phenylephrine
D. Scopolamine
64. What is the primary goal of treatment for glaucoma?
A. Cure the disease completely
B. Lower intraocular pressure
C. Increase aqueous humor production
D. Reduce inflammation in the retina
65. Beta-blockers like timolol are used in glaucoma treatment because they:
A. Increase the outflow of aqueous humor
B. Decrease aqueous humor production
C. Cause pupil dilation
D. Increase intraocular pressure
66. Which of the following best describes Myasthenia Gravis (MG)?
A. A genetic disorder affecting the peripheral nerves
B. An autoimmune disorder that destroys acetylcholine receptors
C. A degenerative disease causing demyelination of neurons
D. A metabolic disorder affecting neurotransmitter synthesis
67. The hallmark symptom of Myasthenia Gravis is:
A. Tremors and rigidity
B. Progressive muscle weakness with activity
C. Numbness and tingling
D. Sudden involuntary muscle contractions
68. The gold standard diagnostic test for MG is:
A. Lumbar puncture
B. CT scan of the brain
C. Electromyography (EMG)
D. Edrophonium (Tensilon) test
69. Which of the following is the first-line pharmacologic treatment for MG?
A. Corticosteroids
B. Cholinesterase inhibitors
C. Immunosuppressants
D. Anticonvulsants
70. Pyridostigmine (Mestinon) works by:
A. Increasing dopamine levels in the brain
B. Blocking calcium channels
C. Inhibiting acetylcholinesterase
D. Enhancing myelin regeneration
71. A myasthenic crisis is caused by:
A. Overmedication with cholinesterase inhibitors
B. Sudden withdrawal from corticosteroids
C. Exacerbation of MG symptoms due to infection or stress
D. Excessive cholinergic activity at the neuromuscular junction
72. Which of the following is a distinguishing feature of cholinergic crisis?
A. Muscle weakness improves with edrophonium
B. Muscle weakness worsens with edrophonium
C. Increased blood glucose levels
D. Hyperreflexia
73. Which medication is contraindicated in MG?
A. Beta-blockers
B. Corticosteroids
C. Anticholinesterase drugs
D. Immunosuppressants
74. The nurse should instruct a patient taking pyridostigmine to:
A. Take the medication before bedtime
B. Take the medication 30–60 minutes before meals
C. Take the medication with antacids
D. Skip doses if symptoms improve
75. What is the most common side effect of pyridostigmine?
A. Dry mouth
B. Bradycardia and diarrhea
C. Hyperglycemia
D. Hypertension
76. Which of the following best describes Multiple Sclerosis (MS)?
A. A neurodegenerative disorder affecting dopamine levels
B. An autoimmune disease causing demyelination in the CNS
C. A disorder of the peripheral nervous system
D. A genetic disorder affecting motor neurons
77. Which of the following is a common early symptom of MS?
A. Resting tremors
B. Progressive cognitive decline
C. Blurred vision and muscle weakness
D. Difficulty breathing
78. The main goal of disease-modifying therapy (DMT) in MS is to:
A. Cure the disease
B. Reverse nerve damage
C. Reduce the frequency of relapses and slow progression
D. Improve neurotransmitter function
[Link] of the following is a first-line disease-modifying drug for MS?
A. Prednisone
B. Interferon beta-1a
C. Levodopa
D. Diazepam
[Link] symptom is managed using Baclofen in MS patients?
A. Spasticity
B. Bladder dysfunction
C. Tremors
D. Fatigue
81-90 Explain briefly the pathophysiology of myasthenia gravis and multiple
sclerosis.
91-100. Discuss your concerns and expectations on your Pharmacology course.
