LAW ENFORCEMENT ADMINISTRATION

1. A directorial staff which was activated on November 1, 1993mpursuant to C. PNP letter of

directive dated October 28, 1993 and tasked to formulate training programs and directives
necessary to attain professionalism of PNP uniformed and non- uniformed personnel
operational readiness of PNP units
A. Directorate for police personnel and records management
B. Directorate for human resource and doctrine development
C. PNP program management office
D. Office of the Deputy Chief for administration
2. The following are the regional training course to be conducted under PNP program training
structure EXCEPT:
A. Public safety senior leadership course (PSSLC)
B. Public safety officer basic course (PSOBC)
C. Public safety basic recruit course (PSBRC)
D. Public safety officer candidate course (PSOCC)
3. This is the status change of a policeman amounting o dynamic elevation of qualified and
deserving members as opportunities occurs to assignment and duties of greater importance:
A. Improvement
B. Award
C. Promotion
D. Reward
4. The following are the policies governing promotions EXCEPT:
A. It shall be base on fair and selected process that shall endeavor to valuate selected
individual
B. No promotion shall be extended for past performances and services
C. All promotion shall be base properly evaluated by the PNP promotion Dard unless
exempted by the Director General
D. All promotions shall be based on promotional vacancies
5. Police Inspector and Police Senior Inspector shall require undergoing appropriate training
for promotion:
A. Public safety officer's candidate course
B. Public safety junior leadership course
C. Public safety officer's senior executive course
D. Public safety officer's basic course
6. The PNP shall prioritize the recruitment and training of women who shall serve in the
women's desk. Pursuant to this requirement, the PNP shall reserve of its annual requirement,
training and education quota for women:
A. 20% C. 10%
B. 30% D. 40%
7. Any PNP member who shall be dismissed under waiver program shall be eligible to re-apply
for appointment to the PNP provided that she/he possessed the minimum qualifications under
section 14 of Republic Act 8551:
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. Maybe TRUE
D. Maybe FALSE
8. Any PNP member has not been given any assignment within two (2) years and there are
available positions commensurate to his/her rank shall be subjected to:
A. Attrition by cause
B. Attrition by relief
C. Attrition by just
D. Attrition by non-promotion
9. Upon accumulation of at least twenty (20) years of satisfactory active service, an officer
or non-officer at his own request and with the approval of the commission shall be retired from
the service and entitled to receive benefits provided by law:
A. Compulsory retirement
B. Optional retirement
C. Early retirement
D. Special retirement
10. The PNP staff services which shall perform personnel functions for the commission,
administer the entrance and promotional examinations for policemen and provide necessary
services relating to records, utilization of facilities and development of employees’ welfare:
A. Crime prevention and coordination service
B. Legal Affairs service
C. Personnel and administrative service
D. Inspection, Monitoring administrative service
11. The National Appellate Board of the PNP shall decide cases on appeal from the decision
rendered by:
A. PLEB
B. Chief PNP
C. IAS
D. Ombudsman
12. The internal affair service (IAS) shall conduct motu-prorio on its own investigation of the
following cases EXCEPT:
A. incidents where death, serious physical injury and any violation of human rights occurred
in the conduct of police operation
B. Incidents in which evidence was compromised, tampered with obliterated or lost while in
custody of police personnel
C. Incidents in which violation of Miranda doctrine have been violated
D. Incidents in which a suspect in the custody of the police was seriously injured
13. This shall have the jurisdiction to hear and decide citizen's complaints and cases filed before
it against erring member of the PNP:
A. IAS
B. PLEB
C. Regional Director
D. Chief PNP
14. Compulsory retirement for police officer and non-officer shall be upon the attainment of age
fifty-six (56) provided that in case of any officer with the rank of chief superintendent, director or
deputy director general, the commission may allow his/her retention in the service for un-
extendable period of:
A. Six (6) months
B. One (1) year
C. Two (2) years
D. Three (3) years
15. This has exercise administrative control and supervision over the PNP under Republic
Act 4864:
A. NAPOLCOM
B. DILG
C. PNP IAS
D. OMBUDSMAN
16. This shall provide the commission with staff advice and assistance on budgetary and
financial matters including the overseeing of the processing and disbursement of funds
pertaining to the scholarship program and surviving children of deceased and or permanently
incapacitated PNP personnel:
A. Logistics service
B. Personnel Scholarship program
C. Financial service
D. Disciplinary appellate service
17. Any complaint or a charge filed against a PNP member shall be heard and decided
exclusively by the disciplining authority who has acquired original authority over the case and
notwithstanding the existence of concurrent power as regards to the offense:
A. Legal service
B. Exclusive jurisdiction
C. Internal Affair, service
D. Any of the above
18. Who shall have the power to dismiss any respondent PNP members when he charged is
serious and the evidence of guilt is strong?
A. Chief PNP
B. PLEB
C. PNP IAS
D. OMBUDSMAN
19. The following are considered as minor offenses EXCEPT:
A. Insubordination
B. Simple misconduct
C. Habitual drunkenness
D. Malingering
20. People's Law Enforcement Board the jurisdiction to trial cases in which offenses is
punishable by:
A. Withholding privileges
B. Restriction to specified limits
C. Suspension or forfeiture of salary
D. Any of the combination for a period exceeding 30 days
21. Any PNP member who shall give deliberate false testimony against or in favor of a person
facing criminal administrative and disciplinary charges shall be liable of:
A. Grave dishonesty
B. Disloyalty to the Government
C. Grave Misconduct
D. Serious Neglect of duty
22. Any member of the PNP who shall maliciously intrigues against honor of a co- police
officer's and indulge in idle gossip and spread rumors that tent to discredit members may be
charge of:
A. Grave Misconduct
B. Less Grave Misconduct
C. Less Grave Irregularity in the Performance
D. Serious Misconduct
23. The following are the power of Chief PNP EXCЕРТ:
A. To direct and control tactical/strategic movements, deployment, placement, utilization of
PNP units and personnel including its equipment facilities and other resources
B. To issue detailed implementing policies to entire regions
C. To give instructions regarding personnel, funds, properties, records correspondence and
other matters
D. To supervise and control the training and operation of security agencies
24. Interpol completely stands for -
A. International Police
B. International Police Organization.
C. International Criminal Police
D. International Organization of Police Officers
25. Their primary duty is to protect the emperor of Japan and its family.
A. Imperial Police
B. Imperial security
 C. Imperial guard
D. Imperial agency
26. They are distinguished by a strong adversarial system where lawyer interprets & judges
are bound by precedent and exist most English- speaking countries of the world.
A. Anglo-American justice
B. Civil law system
C. Socialist system
D. None of the above
27. They symbolized the capacity of the State to intervene and the concern of the state for
the affairs of the citizenry.
A. International bill of human rights
B. Interpol
C. International covenant on civil and political rights
D. Police
28. This is known as the package of transnational flows of people, production, investment,
information and authority.
A. Globalization
B. International Regime
C. Networking
D. All of these
29. In comparative correctional system, corporal punishment means?
A. Beatings
B. Firing squad
C. Lethal injection
D. Gas chamber
30. This kind of society has a system of laws, police who tend to keep busy handling political
crime and terrorism, and a system of punishment characterized by civilization and
overcrowding.
A. Folk-communal society
B. Urban-commercial society
C. Urban-industrial society
D. Bureaucratic society
31. Which police organization applies the "iron fist, velvet glove" in the enforcement of law?
A. Switzerland Police
B. Japan Police
C. Ireland Police
D. Egypt Police
32. Which of the following system, where there had been a communist revolution or the
remnants of one.
 A. Socialist system
B. Common law system
C. Civil law system
D. None of the above
33. This is a system of policing that emerged during the Anglo-Saxon period. Under this
system, all male residents were required to guard the town to preserve peace and protect the
lives and properties of the people
A. Tun policing
B. Royal judge
A. Hue and cry
C. Frankpledge system
34. The law enacted that classified offenses against the King and the individuals, made
policemen public officials, empowered the police and the citizens to conduct arrest and
assigned grand jury to inquire on the facts of law refers to
A. Leges Henrici
B. Statute of Winchester
C. Magna Carta
D. Statute of 1295
35. What French term is claimed as the origin of the term peace officer
A. Officer de la paix
B. Sergent de ville
C. Sergent de arm
D. Carabineros de seguridad publico
36. The police forces organization that primarily manifests global or international cooperation in
addressing transnational crime.
A. Scotland yard
B. Interpol
C. International Development and Crisis Management
D. Texas Rangers
37. What is regarded as the totally gun less police force, except for its attack team? special
A. New York Police District
B. Japan National Police Agency
C. Scotland Yard
D. Texas Rangers
38. The following are cases of warrantless search and seizures in which photographed be
made at the nearest police station EXCEPT:
A. within 24 hours submitted to PEDEA or Crime Lab
B. Within 24 hours depending on the volume shall initial result b released
C. Filing criminal case with-pertinent reports and document
D. Conduct body search
39. The following are bases of the uota for regular recruitment EXCEPT:
A. Police to population ratio
B. Actual demands in the exigency of the service
C. Peace and order condition in the different geographical areas
D. Based on annual personnel loses of PNP units
40. In the process of PNP application the personality test shall be conducted by a PNP
psychologist and shall be recorded in an audio video recorder. Applicants shall be rated as:
A. Passed or Failed
B. Recommended or Not Recommended
C. Approved or Not Approved
D. Accepted or Not Accepted
41. In the process of PNP application in the event that the number of candidates is more than
the quota for appointment shall be selected through a raffle system also known as:
A. Drawing of slots
B. Raffle system
C. Matirang Matibay
D. Matirang maswerte
42. The attestation section of the recruitment office shall prepare the attestation folder of the
candidates for appointment containing the following EXCEPT:
A. CSC Personal Data Sheet (Revised 2005)
B. NSO Birth certificate
C. Diploma and transcript of record
D. NBI (Authenticated by issuing office)
43. Any PNP member may be applied for a sick leave in advance in cases where personnel will
undergo medical examination or operation or advise to rest in view of ill health duly supported
by:
A. Medical history
B. Certificate of Admission
C. Medical certificate
D. Recommendation from his/her physician
44. Any PNP personnel with ten (10) days or more vacation leave earned shall be allowed to
go on vacation leave whether continuous or intermittent for a minimum of:
A. Seven (7) working days annually
B. Five (5) working days annually
C. Three (3) working days annually
D. Six (6) working days annually
45. The following are requirements to avail study leave to any member of the PNP for purposes
of taking the bar/board examination EXCEPT:
A. Must have no pending administrative and criminal charges
 B. Must be physically and mentally fit
C. Must be atleast on his/her probationary period in the PNP
D. Must have rendered at least two years in the service
46. Any PNP personnel travelling abroad need written travel authority from NAPOLCOM and
must be submitted at least:
A. Fifteen (15) days before the intended leave
B. Thirty (30) days before the intended leave
C. Ten (10) days before the intended leave
D. Five (5) days before the intended leave
47. Maternity leave of those who have rendered on one (1) year or more but less than two (2)
years of service shall be computed in proportion to their length of service provided that those
who have served for less than one (1) year shall be entitled:
A. Thirty (30) days with half pay
B. Sixty (60) days with full pay
C. Sixty (60) days with half pay
D. One hundred twenty (120) days with full pay
48. When a hostage crisis arises in your area of responsibility, who shall be designated to act
as negotiator?
A. Board Negotiator
B. Primary Negotiator
C. Negotiation Team Leader/ Coordinator
D. Ground Commander
49. Which of the following is INCORRECT in following the proper guidelines during hostage
negotiations?
A. Police officers without proper training shall not be allowed to participate in hostage
negotiation
B. All activities on the scene even delivery of food to the stronghold, must have tactical
coordination with the ground commander
C. Situation must be stabilized first and contained before the start of the negotiation
D. Do not introduce outsiders into the negotiation process unless their presence is
extremely necessary in the solution of the crisis
50. The line and staff type of organization is so far the best model for police organizations. Of
the following, which is not of its advantages?
A. POLICE staff or specialists can provide expert advice to line officers in special
knowledge areas as demonstrated by the opinions of legal advisers.
B. Line personnel and officers are not relieved from tasks which they prefer and/ or least
qualified to do like training and scientific analysis of physical evidence.
C. Special problems like police corruption are reduced or eliminated because of the greater
expertise they bring to bear on the issue and the greater the amount of time they do to
devote to the problem.
 D. Channels of responsibility and authority are left intact because the specialists
responsibility is to "think and provide expertise" for the offenders who is responsible for
"doing".
51. Structuring the police as a functional organization would contribute to the following
disadvantages, EXCEPT:
A. Coordination of efforts becomes complicated since the employees or personnel
responsible for the results may be subject to the functional direction of several persons.
B. Discipline is difficult to administer because of multi-headed leadership.
C. Existence of considerable conflict among the line administrators resulting in confusion
among line personnel.
D. None of these
52. Biblical accounts mentioned about temple guards and watchmen. The latter's duty was to?
A. Protect the king and other members of the royal family
B. Protect the city and arrest offenders
C. Patrol around the city and report for offenders
D. Patrol around the temple and detect law violators
53. These are work programs of line divisions which related to the nature and extent of the
workload and the availability of resources:
A. administrative plan
B. strategic plan
C. operational plan
D. tactical plan
54. All of the following are members of the People as Law Enforcement Board (PLEB) EXCEPT:
A. Three G"H members chosen by the 3eace and order Council from among the respected
members of the community
B. Any barangay Captain of the city or municipality concerned chosen by the association of
the Barangay Captains.
C. Any member of the sangguniang panglungsod / pambayan
D. A bar member chosen by the integrated bar of the Philippines
55. In the debriefing the intelligence agent is asked to discuss which of the following:
A. his educational profile and schools attended
B. his personal circumstances such as his age religious affiliation address etc
C. his political inclination and8or party affiliation
D. his observations and experiences in the intelligence
56. Which of the following is considered as the most important factor in formulating an effective
patrol strategy?
A. training of station commander
B. rank of the patrol commander
C. adequacy of resources of the police station
D. salary rates of police personnel
57. You are the patrol supervisor for the morning shift. You don't have enough men to cover all
the patrol beats. Which of the following will you implement?
A. Assigned roving mobile patrol with no foot patrol
B. Assigned mobile patrols only in strategic places
C. maintained your patrolmen at the station and 6ust wait for calls for police assistance
D. Assigned foot patrol in congested and busy patrol beats but assigns a roving mobile
patrol to cover beats which are not covered by foot patrol
58. Some of the instructions in foot surveillance are the following EXCEPT:
A. Stop quickly looks behind
B. Window shop watch reflection
C. Drop paper never mind what happens to the paper
D. Retrace steps
59. Pedro is a thief who is eying at the handbag of Maria. PO1 Santos Reyes is standing a few
meters from Maria. The thief desire to steal is not diminished by the presence of the police
officer but the of: for successful theft is a form
A. ambition
B. intention
C. feeling
D. opportunity
60. The operational plan which is designed to meet every day or year-round needs is called:
A. Meeting unusual needs
B. regular operating programs
C. Extra office
D. special operating programs
61. What is the principle of organization suggesting that communication should ordinarily go
upward and downward through establish channels in the hierarchy?
A. Chain of Command
B. Unity of command
C. Span of Control
D. Delegation of Authority
62. Physical security is a system of barriers placed between the potential intruder and the
object matter to be protected. As criminologist this is simply a denial of:
A. Opportunity to commit the offense
B. Access to the object of protection
C. Opportunity to the object of protection
D. Criminal instinct to surface in the potential offender
63. Whether to put up its own security guard organic to the firm or hire contractual agency
guards have their individual merits and disadvantages. To determine which type of guarding
system an industrial firm will require management must consult:
 A. A security consultant not connected to or owning a security agency
B. A military intelligence officer
C. A police officer who is not active in the service
D. A security agency operator
64. The main reason for a personnel security investigation is:
A. To weed out undesirable employees
B. To check loyalty of employees to the organization
C. To determine the character and reputation of certain employees secretly tagged as risks.
D. Preclude assignment to sensitive positions for those who are security risks
65. A plan that includes the mapping out in advance all operations involved in the organization
management of personnel and material and in the procurement and disbursement of money,
etc.
A. management of plans
B. Extra office plans
C. operational plans
D. characteristics of plans
66. What activity requires the duty of a superior officer of any unit of the Philippine National
Police and its units subordinates to establish rapport or good relationship with other law
enforcement agencies of the government?
A. Police Executive Training
B. Coordination and Cooperation
C. Business like Activity
D. Socialization
67. The division that shall accomplish the primary responsibility of safeguarding the community
through protection of persons and property, the suppression of criminal activities, the
apprehension of criminals, the enforcement of laws and ordinances and regulations of conduct,
and performing necessary services and inspections is:
A. Traffic Division
B. Patrol Force
C. Theft and Robbery Division.
D. Juvenile Delinquency Control Division
68. The staff service of the NAPOLCOM who renders legal opinion arising from the
administration of the PNP is referred to as:
A. Personnel Administration Service
B. Legal Affairs Service
C. Planning and Research Service.
D. People's Law Enforcement Board
69. The PNP shall be organized to ensure accountability and uprightness in the police exercise
of discretion as well as to achieve:
A. Reformation and rehabilitation
 B. Organization and Administration
C. Efficiency and effectiveness
D. None of the above
70. The reorganization of the PNP is made by the NAPOLCOM who shall conduct management
audit, and prepare a proposed reorganization plan to be approved by:
A. DILG Secretary
B. Chief PNP
C. Congress
D. President
71. This will act on referrals or instructions made by the members of the PNP Command Group
or disciplinary authority concerned:
A. Internal Affair Service
B. Administrative Office
C. Legal Service
D. Office of the Operation
72. Any PNP members having non-assignment for continuous of two (2) years for any valid
reasons is an example of:
A. Attrition system
B. Attrition by not having commensurate position
C. Attrition by relief
D. Attrition by promotion
73. Which of the following is not a false key?
A. A picklock or similar tool
B. a duplicate key of the owner
C. A genuine key stolen from the owner
D. Any key other than those intended by the owner
74. The following are the purposes of security survey, EXCEPT:
A. To determine degree of protection needed by the installation
B. To locate weakness in defense
C. To recommend security program
D. None of them
75. The structuring of the PNP organization into a workable pattern refers to
A. Functional principle
B. Principle of organizational hierarchy
C. Line and staff principle
D. Principle of flexibility
76. The following are true about quality planning, EXCEPT:
A. It improves analysis of the problem
B. It provides better information for decision making
 C. It helps to clarify goals, objectives and priorities
D. None of these
77. A good police operational plan is characterized by the following, EXCEPT:
A. It includes the advises or every organic personnel involved in planning:
B. It disperses the ideas or opinions of the staff officer
C. It contains the conclusion of the crime analyst
D. It reflects the experience of the line officer
78. The type of plan that compares past and present accomplishments to assess performance
and to determine the proper measures to be undertaken to improve performance. It refers to
A. Long range plan
B. Medium range plan
C. Operational efficiency and productivity plan
D. Strategic plan
79. Which of the following is NOT true about Patrol?
A. IT is the backbone of the police department
B. It is the essence of police operation
C. It is the single largest unit in the police department that can be eliminated
D. It is the operational heart of the police department
80. Going right while patrolling upon reaching every intersection until reaching the point of origin
is following what pattern?
A. Clockwise
B. Zigzag
C. Counter clockwise
D. Crisscross
81. A highway intersection designed to route traffic without interference, by means of system of
curving ramps form one level to another in the form of a four leaf clover refers to
A. Sector
B. Rotunda
C. Cloverleaf intersection
D. Cloverform Intersection
82. The large dog with drooping ears and sagging jowls and keenest smell among all dogs,
formerly used for tracking purpose is known as
A. German shepherd
B. Bloodhounds
C. Doberman pinscher
D. Alaskan malamute
83. Doubled firepower and physical protection is an advantage of
A. Foot patrol
B. Helicopter Patrol
 C. Two-man automobile patrol
D. Motorcycle patrol
84. Which of the following statement concerning the promotion policy of the PNP is
INCORRECT?
A. A member of the PNP shall not be eligible for promotion to a higher position or rank
unless he has successfully passed the corresponding promotional examination.
B. …
C. …
D. …