Mind Faces – College Community

(HSC Biology)

SAMPLE PROBABLE QUESTIONS

CHAPTER – 1 : REPRODUCTION IN LOWER AND HIGHER PLANTS

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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS : -
1) The non-motile asexual spores produced by fungi are
(a) Conidia (b) Zoospores (c) Homospores (d) Heterocyst

2) Which one of the following shows more than one ovule ?

(a) Mango (b) Coconut (c) Rice (d) Tomato

3) Male flowers float on the surface of water in plant.

(a)Vallisneria (b) Eichornia (c) Pistia (d) Lotus

4) When pollen tube enters ovule through integuments it is termed as

(a) Porogamy (b) misogamy (c) homogamy (d) chalazogamy

5) Part of the plant the pollen recognition takes place on

(a) Stigma of pistil (b) Stigma of Another (c) style (d) ovary

6) Tip of pollen tube enter in embryo sac through

(a) egg cell (b) central cell (c) antipodal (d) synergid

7) Filiform apparatus is characteristic of

(a)antipodal cells (b) egg (c) secondary nucleus (d) synergids

8) In the ovule the opening of integument is called as

(a) micropyle (b) chalaza (c) Embryo sac (d) secondary nucleus

9) Funicle is attached to body of the ovule at the

(a) nucellus (b) chalaza (c) hilum (d) placenta

10) The mature embryo sac of angiosperms is nucleated.

(a) 4 (b) 6 (c) 8 (d) 10

11) Ovule represents .

(a) megasporangium (b) microsporangium (c) microsporophyll (d) anther
12) In angiosperms functional megaspore develops into
(a)embryo sac (b) endosperm (c) ovule (d) male gamete

13) The bisexual flowers of pea exhibit

(a) geitonogamy (b) allogamy (c) xenogamy (d) autogamy

14) Versatile & exposed anthers producing large numbers of pollen are characteristic features
of plants.
(a) entomophilous (b) anemophilous (c) hydrophilous (d) hypohydrophilous

15) The special type Lever mechanism type of pollination in observed in

(a) China Rose (b) Salvia flower (c) Pea Plant (d)Vincarosea

16) Aquatic plants like Lotus are pollinated by

(a) insects (b) water (c) wind (d) bats

17) The pollination of two flowers are different plants belonging to same species is known
as
(a) dichogamy (b) geitonogamy (c) xenogamy (d) Cleistogamy

18) When pollination occurs on the surface of water it is termed as

(a) hypohydrophily (b) anemophily (c) epihydrophily (d) homophily

19) In bisexual flower when pistil becomes receptive before anther the condition is termed
as
(a) protandrous (b) homogynous (c) heterogynous (d) protogynous

20) Total number of nuclei involved in double fertilization is

(a) two (b) four (c) five (d) six

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS :-

1) What is anemophily?
2) In angiospermic ovule how many cells embryo sacs are present ?
3) At the time of development of embryo sac how many times meiosis occurs ?
4) What is asexual reproduction ?
5) Define reproduction?
6) What is needed for reproduction ?
7) Define micropropagation.
8) Which cell produces male gametes in angiosperms ?
9) Secondary cell fuses to which cell to produce endosperm.
10) How many mitotic divisions are required to form an embryo sac?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) :-
1) Write a note on the structure of microspore.
2) Define megasporogenesis & which type of embryo development in angiosperms?
3) What is Geitonogamy?
4) Which are the adaptations in anemophilous flowers.
5) Which are the adaptations for entomophilous pollination.
6) Write a note on the Lever mechanism in Salvia.
7) Write a note of Dichogamy.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) :-

1) What is double fertilization?
2) What is the meaning of porogamy, mesogamy & chalazogamy?
3) Which are different types of Endosperm development in angiosperms.
4) What is the significance of double fertilization?
5) Describe development of male gametophyte in angiosperms.
6) Differentiate Anemophilous Entomophilous pollination?
7) Which are the outbreeding devices for cross pollination?

8) LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS) :-

1) What is double fertilization? Add a note on its significance.
2) With the help of suitable diagrams explain different types of Endosperm development
in angiosperms .
3) With the help of a suitable diagram describing the development of the dicot embryo.
4) What is apomixis? Which are the main categories of apomixis?
5) What is polyembryony? Explain with different examples.

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 CHAPTER – 2 : REPRODUCTION IN LOWER AND HIGHER ANIMALS
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS :-
1) Test tube baby technique is called ………
(a) in vivo fertilization (b) in situ fertilization
(c) in vitro fertilization (d) artificial insemination

2) The number of nuclei present in the zygote is……..

(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four

3) Rupturing of follicles and discharge of ovum is called as……

(a) ovulation (b) capacitation (c) copulation (d) gestation

4) Attachment of the embryo to the wall of the uterus is known as……

(a) fertilization (b) cleavage (c) implantation (d) gastrulation

5) In the human penis, urethra passes through ..................

(a) corpus cavernosum (b) corpus
spongiosum
(c) corpus luteum (d) corpus albicans

6) In human beings the type of cleavage is ..................

(a) holoblastic and equal (b) meroblastic and equal
(c) holoblastic and unequal (d) meroblastic and complete

7) Onset of the menstrual cycle at the time of puberty is called ...............

(a) menopause (b) menarche (c) menstruation (d) metamerism

8) Which one of the following is not formed from mesoderm?

(a) blood (b) bones & cartilage (c) kidneys (d)nervous system

9) Vaginal orifice, urethral orifice and clitoris are protected by

(a) Labia majora (b) Labia minora (c) Vulva (d) Anus

10) The endodermal derivatives include

(a) Thyroid (b) Pineal gland (c) Spleen (d) Pituitary

11) Foetal ejection reflex in human female is induced by

(a) Release of oxytocin from pituitary (b) Fully developed foetus and placenta
(c) Differentiation of mammary glands (d) Pressure exerted by amniotic fluid

12) Medical Termination of Pregnancy (MTP) is considered safe up to how many weeks of
pregnancy?
(a) Eight weeks (b) Twelve weeks (c) Eighteen weeks (d) Six weeks
VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS :-
1) How many sperms will be produced from 10 primary spermatocytes?
2) Define oogenesis.
3) Identify the labelled part in the given diagram.

4) Name the embryonic layer from which enamel of teeth develops.

5) Which antibiotic is used in treatment of Syphilis ?
7) Name the structure produced by corpus luteum in the absence of fertilization.
8) Name the embryonic layer from which heart, blood and blood vessels develop.
9) Identify the permanent birth control method in the given diagram.

10) Name the enzyme secreted by the prostate gland.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) :-

1) Mention any two goals of the RCH programme ?
2) Name the causal organism of syphilis and mention any two symptoms.
3) Identify the labelled parts in the given diagram.

4) Write a note on the functions of the uterus in the human female reproductive system .
5) Draw a well labelled diagram of the Graafian follicle.
6) Give an account of the proliferative phase of the menstrual cycle.
7) Define labour pains and after birth.
8) Explain the method of contraception shown in the diagram.

9) Enlist various sequential stages of sexual reproduction in humans.

10) Give the composition of prostatic fluid. How does it protect sperms?
11) Explain budding as a method of reproduction in hydra.
12) Name the different layers that are found associated with the graafian follicle (outside to
inside).
13) Describe the structure of the Graafian follicle.
14) Mention any two different goals of the RCH programme.
15) Write a short note on the fallopian tube.
16) Draw a well labelled diagram of human sperm showing: acrosome, mitochondrion,
axoneme and nucleus.
17) Explain any two methods that can be used to overcome infertility.
18) Identify the labels: A, B, C and D in the given figure.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) :-

1) Write a note on external genitalia in the human female reproductive system.
2) Name the structure that produces the acrosome of sperm. Which types of enzymes are
present in acrosomes of sperm?
3) Draw a well labelled diagram of an unfertilized egg.
4) Observe the following diagram and answer the following questions:-

a. Name the hormone secreted by ‘A’.

b. What is the chromosomal status of ‘B’ ?
c. Give the function of ‘C’.
5) Explain the structure of human sperm.
6) Draw a well labelled diagram of V.S. of late gastrula.
7) Write a note on implantation.
8) Describe the histological structure of human testis with the help of a labelled diagram.
9) Explain the process of oogenesis in human females.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS) :-

1) Describe the process of cleavage in embryo development.
2) Identify the labelled parts in the following diagram.

3) Give causative agent, incubation period, symptoms and preventive measure for
Gonorrhoea.
4) Give an account of the uterus and vagina as a part of the duct system in the human female
reproductive system.
5) Explain the ovarian cycle with its different phases.
6) Explain the mechanism of fertilization in humans.

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 CHAPTER – 3 : INHERITANCE AND VARIATION
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS :-
1) The genotypic and phenotypic ratio are not identical in case of:
(a) Incomplete dominance. (b) Monohybrid test cross
(c) Dihybrid test cross. (d) Complete dominance

2) In humans, the sex chromosome complement is

(a) XX–XY (b) XX–XO (c) ZO–ZZ (d) ZW–ZZ

3) Daughter of a colour-blind father and normal mother marries a colour-blind person. Colour
blindness in the family shall be
(a) 50% sons and 50% daughter (b) All sons and daughters
(c) All daazughters (d) All sons

4) The number of autosomes in human sex cell is------

(a) 22 (b) 12 (c) 44 (d) 23

5) In sickle cell anaemia, F2 generation shows the ratio of carrier to normal is ----
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 3:1 (d) 1:3

6) Nullisomy is rightly explained by the condition -------

(a) 2n-1 (b) 2n+1 (c) 2n+2 (d) 2n-1

7) What will be the ratio of different types of gametes formed by a pea plant with Yy
genotype?
(a) 9:3:3:1. (b) 1:1:1:1. (c) 3:1 (d) 1:1

8) Heredity is
(a) Transmission of characters (b) Mixing of characters
(c) Blending of inheritance (d) Deleting of characters

9) In sickle cell anaemia ,F2 generation shows the ratio of normal to carrier is ----
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2 (c) 3:1 (d) 1:3
10) Monosomy is rightly explained by the condition.......
(a) 2n-1 (b) 2n+1 (c) 2n+2 (d) 2n-2

11) The chromosomes in which centromere is situated close to one end are
(a) Metacritic (b) Acrocentric (c) Telocentric (d) Sub Metacentric

12) The chromosomal denotation for heterogametic female and homogametic males is
(a) ZW and ZZ (b) ZO-ZZ (c) XX-XO .(d) Both (a) and (b)

13) Haploid-diploid mechanism of sex determination (haplodiploidy) takes place in

(a) Bees (b) Wasps (c) Ants (d) All of these

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:-

1) Define euploidy.
2) Give one example of complete linkage
3) Define crossing over.
4) What are X-linked genes?
5) How many linkage groups are present in Drosophila melanogaster ?
6) What is the chromosomal makeup of Turner’s syndrome ?
7) What is centromere?
8) What are X-linked genes?
9) What are Y-linked genes?
10) What is sex linked gene?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) :-

1) State any four reasons for Mendel’s success.
2) Give an account of pleiotropy with suitable examples.
3) Write a note on the mechanism of sex determination in birds.
4) Give reasons: Sex linked characters appear more frequently in men than in women.
5) Explain different types of chromosomes in detail.
6) Give the significance of the test cross.
7) Define the term character with suitable examples.
8) Draw a well labelled diagram of chromosome showing satellite, primary constriction,
telomere and chromomeres.
9) Differentiate between chromosomal disorders and Mendelian disorders.
10) Differentiate between homozygous and heterozygous.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) :-

 1) Describe the structure of sex chromosomes with the help of labelled diagram.
2) Write a note on Down’s syndrome.
3) Define sex linked inheritance. Explain complete sex linkage with examples.
4) Mendel selected a pea plant for his experiment. Several contrasting characters are
present in pea plants. Prepare a table showing characters selected by Mendel with
respect to height of plant, position of flower, shape of pod and colour of cotyledon.
State dominant and recessive forms in each character given.
5) Explain incomplete dominance with suitable examples.
6) Write a note on complete linkage.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS) :-

1) Define inheritance. Give statements for various laws of inheritance.
2) Explain the inheritance pattern of colour blindness.
3) A woman with blood group ‘O’ marries a man with AB blood group.
4) A cross is made between a tall plant having red flowers (TtRr) with one having
flowers (ttrr).What would be the genotypes and phenotypes of plants in the resultant
generation? What kind of cross is this ?
5) Give various characters selected by Mendel for his experiments on pea plants.
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 CHAPTER – 4 : MOLECULAR BASIS OF INHERITANCE
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS :-
1) Histone proteins are rich in ------
(a) Arginine and Leucine (b) Lysine and valine
(c) Methionine and Arginine (d) Arginine and Lysine

2) The main step involved in the process of translation is

(a) Activation of amino acid
(b) Initiation of polypeptide chain synthesis
(c) Termination of polypeptide chain formation
(d) Transfer of polypeptide chain to tRNA

3) The enzyme required for transcription is -----

(a) RNA polymerase (b) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
(c) DNA polymerase (d) DNA dependent DNA polymerase

4) Extranuclear DNA is present in ------

(a) mitochondrion (b) Golgi bodies (c) rough ER (d) ribosome

5) The terminator codons are

(a) UAA, UAG, UGA (b) AUG, UAG, UGA
(c) UAC, AUG, UAG (d) DCC, UAA, CAC

6) The octamer core of nucleosome contains two molecules each of the following histones

(a) H2A, H2B, H3 and H4 (b) H1, H2A, H2B, H3

(c) H1, H2A, H2B, H4 (d) H1, H2B, H3, H4

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS :-

1) Mention the function of non-histone proteins.

2) What is point mutation?
3) Which amino acid is coded by initiation codon?
4) How many base pairs of DNA helix are wound over on a nucleosome approximately?
5) Name the enzyme which nicks DNA strands temporarily at point ‘O’.
6) What is the number of estimated base pairs in the bacterium E.coli ?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) :-

1) Enlist different levels of regulation of gene expression in eukaryotes.
2) Mention any two applications of genomics.
3) Define the terms monocistronic and polycistronic.
4) Draw a well labelled diagram of the nucleosome.
5) Mention any two applications of DNA fingerprinting.
6) Complete the blanks a,b,c and d on the basis of Griffith’s experiment.
S-strain---- injected into mice-----(--a---)
R-strain---- injected into mice-----(-b---)
S-strain(heat kille(d)---- injected into mice-----(--c---)
S-strain(heat kille(d) + live R-strain---- injected into mice-----(--d---)
7) Give any two applications of genomics.
8) Give the role of -galactoside permease and galactoside acetyltransferase.
9) Draw a well labelled diagram of the transcription unit.
10) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ in the following figure,

11) Differentiate between leading strand and lagging strand (any two points).
12) Match the following columns and write the correct answer,
Column(I) Column(II)
(a) UUU i) Leu
(b) AUG ii) Isoleu
(c) AUU iii) Phe
(d) UUA iv) Met
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) :-

1) Three codons on mRNA are not recognised by tRNA.Which are these codons? What
is the general term used for them? What is their role in protein synthesis?

2) Observe the given figure and answer the following questions:-

i) In which direction the new strands will be synthesized?

ii) Which enzyme used to join the fragments of DNA produced in synthesis of lagging
strand ?
iii) Identify ‘a’ in the given figure.
3) Draw a well labelled diagram of the transcription unit.
4) Explain any three properties of the genetic code.
5) Give an account of the Hershey-Chase experiment that proved, ’DNA is the genetic
material’.
6) State any three aims of the human genome project.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS) :-

1) Write a note on processing of hnRNA.
2) Give an account of Hershey-Chase experiment that proved, ’DNA is the genetic
3) Explain various steps of DNA fingerprinting in sequence. Draw a flow sheet diagram for
the same.
4) Describe the experiment that proves, ‘DNA replication is semiconservative’.
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 CHAPTER – 5 : ORIGIN AND EVOLUTION
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS :-
1) Hot dilute soup or primitive broth didn’t contain .
(a) RNA (b) monosaccharides (c) fatty acids (d) purines

2) Which mixture was exposed to electric discharge in Urey – Miller’s apparatus ?

(a) CO2 , NH3 , H2 (b) H2 , CO, NH2 (c) CH4, NH3,H2 (d) NH3 ,H2O, CH4

3) The origin of life on earth is known as .

(a) auto biogenesis (b) abiogenesis (c) protobiogenesis (d) organogenesis

4) Overproduction is the principle of .

(a) Lamarckism (b) panspermia theory
(c) modern theory of evolution (d) theory of organic evolution

5) The most common types of fossils are .

(a) actual remains (b) casts (c) moulds (d) models

6) Gene frequency in a population remains constant due to .

(a) migration (b) mutation (c) random mating (d) non-random mating

7) Archaeopteryx is a missing link between .

(a) fishes & amphibians (b) Annelida&Arthropoda
(c) birds & reptiles (d) Aschelminthes & platyhelminthic

8) is the connecting link between Ape & Man.

(a) Australopithecus (b) Dryopithecus
(c) Homo erectus (d) Homo neanderthalensis

9) Vermiform appendix is an example of .

(a) vestigial (b) sense
(c) homologous (d) analogous

10) was called the Handy man.

(a) Australopithecus (b) Homo erectus
(c) Homo habilis (d) Neanderthal man

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS :-

1) What is the Theory of Abiogenesis ?
2) What are Protobionts ?
3) Define Organic Evolution.
4) Who proposed the Mutation Theory ?
5) What are Chromosomal Aberrations ?
6) Give an example of Hybrid Sterility.
7) Define Bottleneck Effect.
8) Give an example of Adaptive Radiation.
9) What are Monotremes ?
10) Define Sympatric speciation.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) :-

1) Differentiate between Darwinism and Mutation Theory.
2) Match the columns :
PROSIMI PLACENTAL MAMMALS
HYALOBATIDAE BABOONS
EUTHERIANS LEMURS
OLD WORLD MONKEYS GIBBONS

3) What are connecting links ? Give one example.

4) What are Vestigial Organs ? Give 2 examples of each.
5) Why is Archaeopteryx a connecting link between reptiles and birds ?
6) What is Genetic Drift ? What is it also called ?
7) Describe the characteristics of a Homo erectus man.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) :-
1) Describe the evidence of Darwinism.
2) Write the objections to Mutation Theory.
3) Explain Post – zygotic Barriers.
4) Enlist the factors responsible for changing gene frequency.? Give one example.
5) What are Analogous organs? Give one example.
6) What are Homologous organs ? Give one example.
7) Explain Adaptive Radiation with examples.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS) :-

1) Describe Miller-Urey’s Experiment in support of Chemical Evolution.
2) Give any five main postulates of Darwinism.
3) Which are the different types of Isolating Mechanisms ? Elaborate.
4) Prove that Industrial Melanism is one of the best examples of natural selection.
5) What is the significance of Planetology ?
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 CHAPTER – 6 : PLANT WATER RELATIONS
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS :-
1) Cell wall is --------
(a) Selectively permeable (b) freely permeable (c) Impermeable (d)non permeable

2) Most plant cells and tissues constitute ------ water.

(a) 0-20% (b) 10-25% (c) 75-90% (d) 90-95%

3) Plasma membrane and tonoplast are------

(a) Selectively permeable (b) freely permeable
(c) Impermeable (d) non permeable

4) The labelled marked in diagram is made up of-----

(a) Cellulose (b) lignin (c) Starch (d) pectin

5) Process of water oozing out from specific pore along leaf margins, is called as …………
(a) photosynthesis (b) guttation (c) transpiration (d) bleeding

6) Water available for absorption to the terrestrial plants is….

(a) capillary water (b) hygroscopic water
(c) gravitational water (d) chemically bound water

7) The osmotic potential and water potential of pure water are respectively….
(a) 100 and zero (b) zero and zero (c) 100 and 100 (d) zero and 100
8) The space between the plasma membrane and cell wall of a plasmolysed cell is occupied
by ………
(a) isotonic solution (b) hypertonic solution
(c) hypotonic solution (d) water

9) If the solution outside the cell has higher concentration than cytoplasm, then the solution
is...
(a) isotonic (b) hypotonic (c) acidic (d) hypertonic

10) The osmotic potential and water potential of pure water are respectively .........................
(a) 100 and zero (b) Zero and zero (c) 100 and 100 (d) Zero and 100

11) A plasmolysed cell can be deplasmolysed by placing it in .......

(a) concentrated solution (b) saturated solution
(c) hypertonic solution (d) Pure water or hypotonic solution

12) In woody plants or old trees, very little transpiration also occurs through .........................
(a) Stomata (b) Lenticels (c) Bark (d) Roots

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS :-

1) From which type of cell root hair originates ?

2) What is the composition of the inner wall layer of root hair ?

3) Name the compound which connects the physical world with biological processes.

4) Name the tissue present in epiphytic roots for absorption of water.

5) Which type of solution will bring out deplasmolysis?

6) What is the function of velamen tissue?

7) What is root pressure?

8) What is the function of velamen tissue?

9) Define wall pressure.

10) What is stoma?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) :-
1) Why is water called the ‘Elixir of Life’?
2) Explain the structure of root hair.
3) How the root can act as a water absorbing organ.
4) Mention any four properties of water.
5) Identify A, B, C and D in the following diagram.

6) What are the different types of water available to roots for absorption?
7) What are the properties of water which help in capillarity?
8) Enlist various objections to root pressure theory.
9) Mention any two/four points of advantages of transpiration.
10) Draw a well labelled diagram of the structure of the stomata.
11) What are the various factors affecting water absorption?
12) Explain the terms imbibant and imbibate.
13) Match the columns:-
 Column ‘A’ Column ‘B’
1.epistomatic a.nerium
2.hypostomatic b.grass
3.amphistomatic c.potamogeton
4.astomatic d.lotus
14) Mention two disadvantages of transpiration.
15) Draw a well labelled diagram of root hair.
16) State any two factors affecting water absorption.
17) Write a note on the significance of plasmolysis.
18) Explain facilitated diffusion in detail.
19) Give an account of osmosis

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) :-

1) Explain the mechanism of sugar transport through phloem.
2) Write an account of diffusion in detail.
3) Explain various types of transpiration.
4) Differentiate between active and passive absorption.
5) Explain root pressure theory.
6) Draw a well labelled diagram of opened and closed stomata.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS) :-

1) Give an account of transpiration in pull theory.
2) Discuss the path of water across the root with the help of a suitable diagram.
3) Give an account of transpiration in pull theory.
4) Explain the concept of permeability with its types.
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 CHAPTER – 7 : PLANT GROWTH AND MINERAL NUTRITION
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:-
1) The Pfr form of phytochrome
(a) retards flowering in LDP (b) promotes flowering in LDP
(c) promotes flowering in SDP (d)promotes flowering in DNP

2) NPK denotes
(a) Nitrogen, protein and kinetin (b) nitrogen, protein and potassium
(c) nitrogen, potassium and kinetin (d) nitrogen, phosphorus and potassium

3) Which naturally occurring plant growth regulator was initially named as dormin?
(a) IAA (b) GA (c) Kinetin (d) ABA

4) Nitrogen fixing enzymes found in root nodules are …….

(a) nitrogen esterase(b) nitrogenase (page no.149) (c) nitrase(d) Nitrosomonas

5) Which of the following is the effect of ethylene ?

(a) epinasty (b) Richmond-Lang effect
(c) antitranspirant (d) inhibits growth of apical bud

6) The hormone that induces flowering in Litchi is -----

(a) kinetin (b) dormin (c) IAA (d) NAA

7) Single maize root apical meristem cell can give rise to more than-
(a) 17500 new cells/min (b) 17500 new cells/day
(c) 17500 new cells/hour (d) 17500 new cells/year

8) Malformed leaves is the deficiency effect of -------

(a)Cl- (b) Cu2+ (c) Zn2+ (d) Mg2+

9) In lettuce and tobacco seeds ....acts like a substitute to red light for breaking seed
dormancy.
(a) Auxins (b) ABA (c) Gibberellins (d) Cytokinin

10) The only gaseous hormone is………

(a) Auxins (b) CK (c) Gibberellins (d) Ethylene

11) Gibberellins promote synthesis of hydrolytic enzymes in

(a) dry seeds. (b) soaked, germination seeds.
(c) dormant buds and other organs (d) all of these.

12) Which of the following acts as a precursor for IAA synthesis in plants?
(a) Acetic acid (b) Methionine
(c) Tryptophan (d) Acetyl Co-A

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS :-

1) Define absolute growth rate.
2) Give the mathematical equation for arithmetic growth.
3) What is bolting?
4) What is the effect of deficiency of boron in plants?
5) What is necrosis?
6) Write a mathematical equation for geometric growth.
7) What is the effect of agent orange on plants?
8) Define bolting.
9) What is apical dominance?
10) Which hormone plays an important role in callogenesis in tissue culture ?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) :-

1) Explain the role of water and nutrients in growth.
2) Define the terms dedifferentiation and redifferentiation.
3) Write a note on plasticity. Draw suitable diagrams for the same.
4) Differentiate between LDP and SDP.
5) Give an account of amino acid synthesis in plants.
6) Define devernalization and give two points of significance of vernalization.
7) What is apical dominance? Which hormone controls apical dominance?
8) Explain any two physiological roles of gibberellins.
9) What is epinasty? Which hormone causes epinasty?
10) Explain the role of ABA in reducing water loss by plants.
11) What is the Richmond Lang effect? Name the hormone that causes the Richmond Lang
effect.
12) Give the role of auxin in relation to flowering and fruit.
13) Explain any two roles of cytokinin.
14) Differentiate between Auxin and Gibberellin with respect to movement, effect of light,
root initiation and tissue culture.
15) Identify A,B,C and D in the given diagram,

16) Write a note on denitrification.

17) Mention advantages of vernalization.
18) Draw a well labelled diagram of S- shaped growth curve.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) :-

1) Explain stunting, chlorosis and necrosis as deficiency symptoms for mineral elements in
plants.
2) Match the columns based on the element and its role in plants.
Column ‘a’ Column ‘b’
1. Molybdenum a. grey spots on leaves
2. Zinc b. Brown heart disease
3. Copper c. slight retardation of growth
4. Boron d. Dieback of shoots
5. Chlorine e. Poor growth of plant
6. Manganese f. malformed leaves.
3) Write an account of nitrification.
4) Give the term for the following
a. Parenchyma in hydrophytes develops schizogenous interspaces for support and aeration-
b. Development of interfascicular cambium
c. Formation of secondary xylem and secondary phloem
5) What is phytochrome? What is its role in flowering?
6) Nitrogen is one of the major elements required by the plants. Give its roles in plants and
also mention its deficiency symptoms.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS) :-

1) Explain various phases of growth. Draw sigmoid growth curves corresponding to
phases of growth.
2) Explain role of cytokinin with respect to:-
(a) apical dominance (b) Richmond-Lang effect
(c)secondary growth (d) seed germination
3) Describe the process of amino acid synthesis.

******************
 CHAPTER – 8 : RESPIRATION AND CIRCULATION
....................................................................................................
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS :-
1) Much developed larynx of the human male is called .
(a) Aristotle’s lantern (b) Syrinx (c) Adam's apple (d) Muller's organ

2) Left lung of human has

(a) 2 lobes (b) 4 lobes (c) 3 lobes (d) 5 lobes

3) Partial pressure of oxygen in inspired and expired air is ....... and......... mm of Hg.
(a) 100, 46 (b) 158, 40 (c) 158, 90 (d) 100, 95

4) Approximate amount of Oxygen in air expelled through nose is:

(a) 16% (b) 4.6% (c) 19% (d) <1%

5) Total lungs capacity is approximately:

(a) 1200 ml (b) 2400 ml (c) 4000 ml (d) 5800 ml

6) Although much CO2 is carried in blood, yet blood does not become acidic, because:
(a) It is absorbed by the leukocytes.
(b) Blood buffers play an important role in CO2 transport.
(c) It combines with water to form H2CO3 which is neutralised by NaHCO3
(d) It is continuously diffused through tissues and is not allowed to accumulate.

7) The covering of lungs is called:

(a) Pleura (b) Pericardia (c) Peritoneum (d) Mediastinum

8) In the given figure, label A and B represent._

(a) A- Trachea, B- Bronchus (b) A- Alveolus, B- Bronchiole

(c) A- Bronchiole, B- Trachea(d) A- Trachea, B- Bronchiole

9) Match the respiratory disorders given in column-I with symptoms in column-II.

Choose the answer which gives the correct combination of alphabets with numbers.
 Column-I Column-II
A. Asthma I. Inflammation of nasal tract
B. Bronchitis II. Spasm of bronchial muscles
C. Rhinitis III. Fully blown out alveoli
D. Emphysema IV. Inflammation of bronchi
V. Cough with blood strained
sputum

(a) A-IV, B-II, C-V, D-I (b) A-V, B-III, C-II, D-I
(c) A-III, B-I, C-V, D-IV (d) A-II, B-IV; C-I, D-III

10) In expiration, diaphragm becomes .

(a) Flattened (b) Contract (c) Straightened (d) Arched

11) Asthma is caused due to:

(a) Infection of lungs (b) Spasm in bronchial muscles
(c) Bleeding into pleural cavity (d) Infection of trachea

12) Book lungs are respiratory organs of:

(a) Molluscs (b) Mammals (c) Arachnids (d) Earthworm

13) The disease that occurs when the haemoglobin content of the blood goes down is:
(a) Pleurisy (b) Emphysema (c) Anaemia (d) Pneumonia

14) Amount of air in the lungs that remains after deep breathing is called .
(a) Dead space (b) Residual volume (c) Vital capacity (d) Ventilation rate

15) The amount of air a person takes in during normal, restful breathing is called the .
(a) Dead space (b) Tidal volume (c) Vital capacity (d) Ventilation rate

16) Match the following and mark the correct options

Animal Respiratory Organ
A) Earthworm i. Moist cuticle
B) Aquatic Arthropods ii. Gills
C) Fishes iii. Lungs
D) Birds/Reptiles iv. Trachea
(a) A-ii, B-i, C-iv, D-iii (b) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(c) A-i, B-iii, C-ii, D-iv (d) A-i, B-ii, C-i.v, D-iii

17) Which one of the following types of cells lack a nucleus?

(a) RBC (b) Neutrophils (c)Eosinophils (d) Monocytes
18) Which one of the following blood cells is involved in antibody production?
(a) B-Lymphocytes (b) T-Lymphocytes (c) RBC (d) Neutrophils

19) Calculate the cardiac output of a person having 72 heart beats per minute and a stroke
volume of 50 ml.
(a) 360 mL (b) 3600 mL (c) 7200 mL (d) 5000 mL

20) The normal pH of the arterial blood is:

(a) 6.8 (b) 7.8 (c) 7.4 (d) 8.8

21) Match the various Blood cells in column-I with their respective functions in column-II
and choose the correct option. Choose the correct option showing the correct combination.
Column-I Column-II
A. Basophils I. Phagocytes
B. Neutrophils II. Secrete histamine, serotonin, heparin and involved in
inflammatory response
C. Monocytes III. Resist infections and are also involved in allergic
reaction
D. Eosinophils IV. Immunity
E. Lymphocytes V.

(a) A- II; B and C- I; D- III; E- IV (b) A- II; B and C- III; D- I; E-

IV
(c) A- III; B and C- I; D- II; E- IV (d) A-IV; B and C-III; D-I; E-II

22) The given diagram represents human heart with four chambers labelled as 1, 2, 3
& 4 ? Which chamber receives carbon dioxide rich blood from the body ?

(a) 1-Left atrium (b) 2-Left ventricle (c) 3- Right atrium (d) 4- Right ventricle

23) Which of the following structures of the lymphatic system acts primarily as a filter for
detecting and destroying microorganisms in lymph traveling through major lymph vessels?
(a) Lymph nodes (b) Thymus (c) Lymph capillaries (d) Tonsil, but not the appendix
24) Haematocrit value is the expression of:
(a) Ratio of oxyhaemoglobin and reduced haemoglobin in blood.
(b) Ratio of normal and abnormal haemoglobin in blood.
(c) Ratio of red blood corpuscles to plasma in blood.
(d) None of the above.

25) Which one of the following blood vessels is without valves?

(a) Artery (b) Pulmonary aorta (c) Vein (d) Systemic aorta

26) A vein possesses a large lumen because:

(a) Tunica media and tunica externa form single layer.
(b) Tunica media and tunica interna form single layer.
(c) Tunica interna, tunica media and tunica externa are thin.
(d) Tunica media is a thin layer.

27) The pacemaker of the human heart is:

(a) SA node (b) Tricuspid valve (c) AV node (d) All of these

27) Papillary muscles are associated with:

(a) Ventricles (b) Auricles (c) Dorsal aorta (d) Sinus venosus

28) Which layer of the wall of blood vessels is made up of circular smooth muscles?
(a) Outer (b) Middle (c) Inner (d) Innermost

29) Tunica externa is the:

(a) Outermost fibrous layer of the artery.
(b) Middle vascular layer of the artery.
(c) Outermost covering of the stomach.
(d) Innermost layer of fine blood capillaries.

30) Chordae tendinae are found in:

(a) Joints of legs (b) Atria of heart (c) Ventricles of brain (d) Ventricles of heart

31) Mitral valve guards the opening between:

(a) Left auricle and left-ventricle (b) Pulmonary vein and left auricle
(c) Stomach and intestine (d) Liver and spleen

32) Cardiac cycle in man takes about:

(a) 0.5 seconds (b) 1.0 second (c) 1.2 seconds (d) 0.8 seconds

33) The left atrio-ventricular aperture in man is guarded by:

(a) Tricuspid valve (b) Semilunar valve (c) Bicuspid valve (d) Sphincter valve
34) Match the blood vessels of the human heart listed under column-I with the functions
given under column-II; choose the answer which gives the correct combination of both
columns.
Column-I Column-II
A. Superior vena cava I. Carries deoxygenated blood to lungs
B. Inferior vena cava II. Carries oxygenated blood to lungs
C. Pulmonary artery III. Brings deoxygenated blood from lower Part
of the body to the right atrium
D. Pulmonary vein IV. Brings oxygenated blood to the left atrium
V. Brings oxygenated blood from upper parts
of the body into the right atrium

(a) A-V; B-I; C-III; D-II (b) A-V; B-III; C-I; D-IV
(c) A-IV; B-V; C-III; D-I (d) A-V; B-I; C-II; D-III

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:-

1. Define the following terms?
a. Tidal volume b. Residual volume
2. A fluid filled double membranous layer surrounds the lungs. Name it and mention its
important function.
3. Name the primary site of exchange of gases in our body?
4. Cigarette smoking causes emphysema. Give a reason.
5. What are Purkinje fibres?
6. What is serum?
7. Name any two types of granulocytes present in the blood
8. Complete the missing terms-
a. Inspiratory Capacity (I(c) = +IRV b. = TV + ERV
c. Functional Residual Capacity (FR(c) = ERV +
9. Name the important parts involved in creating a pressure gradient between lungs and the
atmosphere during normal respiration.
10. Name the blood component which is viscous and straw-coloured fluid.
11.Complete the missing word in the statement given below:
a. Plasma without factors is called serum.
b. and monocytes are phagocytic cells.
c. Eosinophils are associated with reactions.
d. ions play a significant role in clotting.
e. One can determine the heart beat rate by counting the number of in an ECG.
12. Given below is the diagrammatic representation of a standard ECG. Label its different
peaks.
13. Name the vascular connection that exists between the digestive tract and liver.
14. Given below are the abnormal conditions related to blood circulation.
15. Name the disorders.
a. Acute chest pain due to failure of O2 supply to heart muscles
b. Increased systolic pressure
16. Which coronary artery diseases are caused due to narrowing of the lumen of arteries?
17. Define the following terms and give their location?
a. Pacemaker b. Bundle of His
18. State the function of the following in blood components:
a. Fibrinogen b. Globulin c. Neutrophils d. Lymphocytes
19. What is the significance of the time gap in the passage of action potential from SA node
to the ventricle?
20. What physiological circumstances lead to erythroblastosis fetalis?
21. Explain the consequences of a situation in which blood does not coagulate.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2/3 MARKS) :-

1. State the different modes of CO2 transport in blood.
2. Compared to O2, diffusion rate of CO2 through the diffusion membrane per unit difference
in partial pressure is much higher. Explain.
3. Differentiate between
a. Inspiratory and expiratory reserve volume
b. Vital capacity and total lung capacity
c. Emphysema and occupational respiratory disorder
4. The walls of ventricles are much thicker than atria. Explain.
5. Differentiate between
a. Blood and Lymph
b. Basophils and Eosinophils
c. Tricuspid and bicuspid valve
6. Arrange the following terms based on their volumes in an increasing or ascending order
a. Tidal Volume (TV)
b. Residual Volume (RV)
c. Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV)
7. Briefly describe the following:
a. Angina Pectoris b. Atherosclerosis c. Hypertension d. Erythroblastosis fetalis
8. Explain the advantage of the complete partition of ventricle among birds and mammals and
hence leading to double circulation.
9. What is the significance of the hepatic portal system in the circulatory system?
10. Explain the functional significance of the lymphatic system?
11. Write the any two features that distinguish between the following
a. Open and Closed circulatory system
b. Sino-atrial node and Atrio-ventricular node
12. ‘Thrombocytes are essential for coagulation of blood.’ Comment.
13. Answer the following
a. Name the major site where RBCs are formed.
b. Which part of the heart is responsible for initiating and maintaining its rhythmic activity?
c. What is specific in the heart of crocodiles among reptilians?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS) :-

1) Explain the exchange of O2 and CO2 at the alveoli and tissue with a diagram.
2) Explain the mechanism of breathing with neat labelled sketches.
3) Explain the role of the neural system in the regulation of respiration.
4) Explain Rh-incompatibility in humans.
5) Describe the events in the cardiac cycle. Explain “double circulation”.
6) Explain different types of blood groups and donor compatibility by making a table.
7) Write notes on: a. Hypertension b. Coronary artery disease
8) Describe the main types of WBCs based upon the presence of granules in their cytoplasm.
9) describe the internal structure of the human heart.

******************
 CHAPTER – 9 : CONTROL AND COORDINATION
....................................................................................................................................................
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS :-
1) Plants are phototropic. Phototropism is the response to .
(a) Light (b) Chemical
(c) Sound (d) Touch

2) Sense organs are lacking in .

(a) Hydra (b) Planaria
(c) Crab (d) Snail

3) What is homeostasis?
(a) Maintaining constancy of the internal environment of the body.
(b) Keeping the body temperature constant in any situation.
(c) Continuous and constant secretion of essential hormones.
(d) Quick response of the body to escape from danger.

4) Identify the image.

(a) Microglia (b) Astrocyte

(c) Schwann cell (d) Satellite cell

5) Select the correct statement.

(a) Axon receives information.
(b) Dendron receives information.
(c) Axon carries information towards Cyton.
(d) Dendron carries information towards Cyton.

6) Select the correct sequence of meninges from outermost to innermost cover of the human
brain.
(a) Dura mater Pia mater Arachnoid mater
(b) Arachnoid mater Pia mater Dura mater
(c) Pia mater Dura mater Arachnoid mater
(d) Dura mater Arachnoid mater Pia mater

7) What is the function of olfactory lobes?

(a) To detect the sense of smell.
(b) To transfer information to the midbrain.
(c) To detect the sense of touch.
(d) To transfer information to the hindbrain.

8) Visual area in the cerebrum is located in lobe.

(a) Frontal (b) Parietal
(c) Temporal. (d) Occipital

9) Ventricle number is present in the diencephalon.

(a) I (b) II (c) III (d) IV

10) Which of the following helps in controlling posture and muscle tone?
(a) Red nucleus (b) Corpus striatum.
(c) Corpus callosum (d) Basal nucleus.

11) Which of the following is called dentist's nerve.

(a) Glossopharyngeal. (b) Facial
(c) Occulomotor (d) Trigeminal

12) Adrenergic fibres are found in .

(a) Sympathetic nervous system
(b) Peripheral nervous system.
(c) Parasympathetic nervous system
(d) Central nervous system

13) Which part of the human eye determines its colour?

(a) Pupil (b) Iris (c) Lens (d) Cornea

14) Which of the following is not a protein hormone ?

(a) Insulin (b) Glucagon (c) Relaxin (d) Estrogen

15) Which of the following hormones is secreted by the hypothalamus and is released
through the pituitary gland ?
(a) GnRH (b) GRP (c) GIP (d) ADH
16) Hyposecretion of growth hormone in childhood causes .
(a) Gigantism (b) Dwarfism (c) Cretinism (d) Goitre

17) Melatonin, the sleep hormone, is secreted by .

(a) Pituitary gland (b) Pineal gland
(c) Prostate gland (d) Parathyroid gland

18) What is parathyroid tetany ?

(a) Low blood calcium level
(b) High blood sodium level
(c) High blood calcium level
(d) Low blood sodium level

19) Which of the following hormones secreted by adrenal cortex helps in balancing
sodium-potassium levels ?
(a) Aldosterone (b) Cortisol
(c) Estradiol. (d) Adrenaline

20) Which hormone secreted by the ovary is produced at the end of the gestation period?
(a) Estrogen (b) Progesterone
(c) Relaxin (d) Inhibin

21) Identify the active form of vitamin D3 secreted by kidneys.

(a) Renin (b) Calcitriol (c) Secretin (d) Cortisol

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS :-

1) What is the cause of Alzheimer’s disease?
2) Name the part of the brain that decodes the sound in the hearing process.
3) State the function of the conjunctiva of the human eye.
4) Which receptors sense the changes in B.P.?
5) State the function of mammillary bodies.
6) Which type of hormones need a membrane receptor to find entry into the cell?
7) What is the chemical nature of hormones secreted by hypothalamus?
8) Pars nervosa secretes ADH and oxytocin. State whether true or false.
9) Write the chemical name of thyroxine.
10) Which cells in pancreas produce somatostatin?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) :-
1) What is the function of adrenal medulla?
2) Name the gonadotropins produced by adenohypophysis and state their function in human
females.
3) Parafollicular cells are also called ‘C’ cells. What does ‘C’ stand for? What is the
function of these cells?
4) Explain the role of placenta as a temporary endocrine organ.
5) Name any 4 applications of hormone therapy.
6) Write a note on blind spot
7) Complete the following table of cranial nerves
NUMBER NAME TYPE
A VI --------- Motor
B -------- Optic Sensory
C VIII --------- Sensory
D X Vagus ---------

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) :-

1) Copy the following diagram and answer the questions.

(a) Identify the diagram and state its functions.

(b) Label ependyma, anterior median fissure.
2) Write a note on functional areas of the cerebrum.
3) Name and explain any 3 properties of nerve fibres.
4) Explain the mode of hormone action shown in the figure with an example.
5) Explain the structure of gland lodged in Sella turcica
6) Write a note on diabetes and its types.
7) Enlist hormones secreted by the gastrointestinal tract and state their functions.
8) Make a flowchart explaining the process of image formation in human beings.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS) :-

1) Label A, B, C and D in the above diagram.

2) Explain the structure of the human middle ear.
3) With the help of a suitable diagram, explain the formation of a typical spinal nerve.
4) Explain the histological structure of the largest endocrine gland with the help of a suitable
diagram.
5) Rooma has developed a severe allergy.
(a) Which hormone can be administered to control it?
(b) Name the gland and the specific region of the gland that produces this hormone.
(c) State the position of the gland.
(d) What is the other function of this hormone?
******************

CHAPTER - 10 : HUMAN HEALTH & DISEASES

………………………………………………………………………………………………
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:-
1) ……………..is a branch of science which deals with the study of the immune system,
immune responses to foreign substances & their role in resisting infection by pathogens.
(a) Histology (b) Immunology (c) Pathology (d) Physiology

2) ............are a class of cytokines or soluble proteins released by cells infected with viruses &
certain WBCs to stimulate other cells to protect themselves from viral infection.
(a) Plasma proteins (b) acute phase proteins
(c) Interferons (d) membrane proteins

3) Which one of the following is NOT an Acute Phase Protein ?

(a) C Reactive protein (b) Mannose Binding Proteins
(c) Alpha -I acid glycoproteins (d) cytokines proteins

4) Match the pair & choose the correct answer.

 Type of immunity source
1.natural acquired active (a)antibodies transferred
immunity from mother
2.artificial acquired active (b)infection
immunity
3.natural acquired passive (c)previously prepared
immunity antibodies
4.artificial acquired passive (d) vaccine induced antibody
immunity formation
(a) 1---b , 2--c , 3--a , 4—d (b) 1--d , 2--a , 3--b , 4-- c
(c) 1--b , 2--d , 3--a , 4---c (d) 1--d , 2---c , 3--b , 4---a

5) This type of T-cells produce lymphokines on coming in contact with an antigen…….

(a) suppressor T cells (b) memory T cells (c) killer T cells (d) Helper T cells

6) Which one of the following is not the function of free antibodies ?

(a) Neutralization (b) agglutination (c) sensitization (d) opsonization
7) Antibodies or Immunoglobulins are chemically… ..............molecules.
(a) Glycoproteins (b) lipoproteins (c) lipids (d) enzymes

8) Each immunoglobulin molecule is made up of .............. polypeptide chains.

(a) one (b) two (c) three (d) four

9) How many heavy & light chains are present in the antibody structure ?
(a) One H -chain & one L- chain (b) One H -chain & two L- chain
(c) Two H -chain & two L- chain (d) Two H -chain & one L- chain

10) Four polypeptide chains in an antibody are held together by ............ bond /bonds.
(a) Disulfide bonds (b) Dipeptide bonds
(c) Single sulfide bond (d) Single peptide bond

11) Most antibodies are said to be… ..............according to antigen binding sites they carry.
(a) Monovalent (b) bivalent (c) trivalent (d) polyvalent

12) Blood group AB has ............... antigens.

(a) only antigen A (b) only antigen B (c) both antigen A &B (d) no antigen

13) Which of the following is NOT a synonym for common cold ?

(a) Nasopharyngitis (b) Acute viral rhinopharyngitis
(c) Acute coryza (d) Emphysema

14) Cancer of cartilage is also called ……………………

(a) Osteosarcoma (b)Myosarcoma (c) Chondrosarcoma (d) Liposarcoma

15) Epstein -barr virus or EBV is a virus causing ---- disease.

(a) AIDS (b) Cancer (c) Dengue (d) Pneumonia

16) The HIV virus which is a retrovirus shows centrally located ----- molecule/molecules.
(a) 1 single stranded DNA molecule (b) 1 single stranded RNA molecule
(c) 2 single stranded DNA molecules (d) 2 single stranded RNA molecules
17) ......................... is confirmatory test for AIDS.
(a) ELISA (b) Southern Blot (c) Western blot (d) Hemogram

18) Which type of drugs affect the cardiovascular system on their inhalation & ingestion
?
(a) Opioids (b) Cannabinoids (c) Cocaine (d) Alkaloids

19) … ........ is an addictive drug extracted from latex of poppy plant i.e. Papaver somniferum.
(a) Cocaine (b) Marijuana (c) Hashish (d) Heroin

20) Anorexia nervosa is a condition of mental illness which means

(a) Loss of memory (b) Emotional aversion to food
(c) Extreme overindulgence in food (d) hallucination

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:-

 1) Define antigen.
2) What are Acute Phase Proteins(APP) ?
3) What is meant by Bursal or B – lymphocytes ?
4) Define Serology.
5) Which biocontrol method can be used to control Malaria ?
6) What is onychomycosis ?
7) Which is the causative organism of Amoebiasis ?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) :-

1) What is the Rh-factor in human blood? Explain.
2) What is meant by congenital & acquired diseases ?
3) What is Pneumonia ? Does anyone state a causative pathogen?
4) What is the treatment for Filariasis ? How can it be prevented ?
5) Define the term : 1.neoplasm 2. Metastasis
6) What is Radiotherapy for the treatment of cancer ? Explain.
7) Match the pair
carcinogen Organ affected in cancer
1.cadmium oxide Urinary bladder
2.Mustard Gas Prostate gland
3.Vinylchloride (V(c) Skin
4. 2- naphthylamine Lungs
Liver
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) :-
1) What are the three main functions of free antibodies ?
2) Explain any three unique features of Acquired immunity.
3) Describe the formation of the Antigen -Antibody complex.
4) What is erythroblastosis fetalis ?
5) Explain the terms .1.Pathogen 2.Vector 3.Parasite
6) State the signs & symptoms of Malaria .
7) Explain any three causes of cancer.
8) State & explain any three clinical manifestations of AIDS ?

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS) :-

1) Describe the life cycle of Plasmodium in Malari
(a) Draw a neat & labelled diagram of the life cycle of Plasmodium.
2) Explain the signs & symptoms of Typhoid disease. Describe the diagnosis & treatment of
typhoid.
3) Describe the structure of antibodies.
4) Explain the structure of HIV.
5) State & explain any four types of cancer based on the type of tissue affected.
6) Describe the types of tumors.
7) Explain the types of Acquired immunity.

******************

CHAPTER – 11 : ENHANCEMENT OF FOOD PRODUCTION

…………………………………………………………………………………………………
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:-
1) Emasculation is achieved by....
(a) removal of stamens (b) removal of stigma
(c) removal of entire gynoecium (d) removal of petals and sepals

2) Mule is the outcome of....

(a) inbreeding (b) outbreeding
(c) interspecific hybridization (d) intraspecific hybridization

3) Apis mellifera is ....

(a) little bee (b) rock bee (c) European bee (d) Indian bee

4) Aquaculture does not include ......

(a) prawns (b) fishes (c) oysters (d) silkworm

5) Propolis is.......
(a) beeglu (b) royal jelly (c) bee venom (d) bee wax

6) MOET technique is used for......

(a) inbreeding (b) outbreeding (c) production of hybrids (d) outcrossing
7) Lac insect is a native of......
(a) China (b) India (c) Africa (d) Europe

8) ........ variety of wheat is resistant to Hill bunt disease.

(a) Himgiri (b) PusaSwarnim (c) KalyanSona (d) Pusa A-4

9) Hisardale is a breed of sheep obtained by crossing........

(a) bikaneri awes and merino rams
(b) merino awes and bikaneri rams
(c) deccani awes and bikaneri rams
(d) merino awes and apennine rams

10) In the dairy industry Surti and Mehsana are breeds of.......
(a) cow (b) buffalo (c) goat (d) sheep

11) The antibiotic Chloromycetin is prepared from....

(a) Penicilliumchrysogenum (b) Streptomyces erythreus
(c) Streptomyces griseus (d) Streptomyces venezuelae

12) In tissue culture differentiation of callous into different organs is called ...........
(a) embryogenesis (b) micropropagation
(c) totipotency (d) morphogenesis

13) Ethanol is commercially produced through a particular space of …….

(a) Aspergillus(b) Saccharomyces (c) Clostridium (d) Trichoderma

14) Nif and Nod genes are present in ......

(a) Rhizobium (b) Penicillium (c) Aspergillus (d) Streptococcus

15) .............. in biogas production hydrolysis is performed by

(a) Methanococcus (b) Clostridium (c) Methanobacillus (d) Azotobacter

16) Bombyx mori obtained.........

(a) Tassar silk (b) Mulberry silk (c)Eri silk (d) Muga silk

17) VAM is........

(a) symbiotic bacteria (b) saprophytic bacteria
(c) saprophytic fungi (d) symbiotic fungi

18) The ectomycorrhizae form ...................on the root surface.

(a) root tuber (b) mantle (c) root hair (d) arbuscles

19) The weed Senecio jacobeae is controlled by..........

(a) Cactoblastiscactarum (b) Bacillus thuringiensis
(c) Xanthomonas spp. (d) Tyrea moth

20) Nosema locustae is.... pathogen

(a) bacteria (b) viral (c) protozoan (d) fungal

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:-

1) What is biofortification?
2) Name the microbe that is grown for use as protein rich food.
3) What is the meaning of totipotency ?
4) Gibberellin was first isolated from which plant ?
5) What is the microbial source of vitamin B12 ?
6) Name any one better yielding varieties of rice developed in India
7) Name any one freshwater fish.
8) Which part would be most suitable for raising plants for micro propagation ?
9) Write one quality of Saccharum officinarum (sugarcane) grown in south India
10) Define estuary.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) :-

1) Write a short note on biocontrol agents.
2) State any two advantages of SCP.
3) What is the heterocyst ?
4) What are the advantages of producing plants by micro propagations ?
5) What are the different requirements of dairy farm management ?
6) Explain the economic importance of fisheries.
7) What is artificial insemination ? What are the advantages of this technique ?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) :-

1) Give any three types of poultry disease.
2) Which are the microbial sources of vitamin B2, vitamin B12 and vitamin C.
3) Write a note on lac culture.
4) Describe in brief the procedure involved in the sewage treatment .
5) Give the benefits of bio fertilizers.
6) Explain the role of microbes in energy generation.
7) Give an account of mutation breeding with examples.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS) :-

1) What is sericulture ?Explain the important aspects ?
2) Write the sequential steps of hybridization.
3) Explain the role of microbes in industrial productions.
4) Write the flowchart for tissue culture technique.
5) Write about any four biofertilizer microorganisms.

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CHAPTER – 12 : BIOTECHNOLOGY
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:-
1) The are molecular scissors that are used to recognize and cut DNA at
specific sequences.
(a) plasmids (b) cloning vectors
(c) restriction enzymes (d) lysozymes

2) In vitro amplification of DNA or RNA segment is known as

(a) chromatography (b) polymerase chain reaction
(c) southern blotting (d) gel electrophoresis

3) In Anaemia the Recombinant protein is produced by r- DNA technology.

(a) Relaxin (b) Insulin
(c) erythropoietin (d) antitrypsin

4) The Ti plasmid being used for introducing genes in plants obtained from
(a) Agrobacterium rhizogenus (b) Agrobacterium T20
(c) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (d) E.coli
5) Identify the plasmid from the following,
(a) Eco RI (b) Sal I (c) pACYC 121 (d) Sac I

6) Important objective of biotechnology in agriculture is ----

(a) produce pest resistant varieties of plants (b) increase nitrogen content
(c) decrease the seed number (d) increase plant weight

7) How many fragments will be generated on digestion of a closed circular DNA

molecule with a specific restriction enzyme having six same types of recognition sites on the
DNA ?
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 6 (d) 9

8) Recombinant protein ................. is used to dissolve blood clots present in the body.
(a) insulin (b) tissue plasminogen activator (c) relaxin (d) erythropoietin

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS :-

1) What is a Palindromic sequence?
2) Give the role of Ca++ ions in the transfer of a recombinant vector into a bacterial host cell.
3) What does the abbreviation HGP stand for?
4) Name the organism that shows tumour inducing plasmid?
5) What is the long form of GEAC?
6) What are nucleases?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) :-

1) Enlist the basic steps involved in r- DNA technology.
2) Give an account of oral vaccines.
3) What is Biopiracy ? Mention any two examples.
4) Give importance to transgenic animals in medical research and pharmaceuticals.
5) Give an account of any two proteins obtained through transgenic plants.
6) Give any two applications of gene therapy.
7) Name the organisms that produce Restriction enzymes Alu I and BamHI.
8) Name any two transgenes involved in iron fortification of rice.
9) Explain germ line therapy.
10) Give an account of transgenic plants producing edible vaccines.
11) Give the advantages of transgenic animals in molecular biology and animal husbandry
programmes.
12) Give an account of the effect of biotechnology on human health with respect to allergies.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) :-

1) Give an account of somatic cell gene therapy.
2) Write an account of the main objectives of improved animal breeding programs coupled
with gene transfer techniques.
3) Explain the effects of Biotechnology on Human health with respect to allergies, long term
effects and new proteins .
4) Identify A,B and C in the given diagram and also mention the temperature range suitable
for them.

5) Explain the roles of enzymes like DNA ligase , reverse transcriptase and alkaline
phosphatases in recombinant DNA technique.
6) Write an account of the main objectives of improved animal breeding programs coupled
with gene transfer techniques.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS) :-

1) Describe PCR technique with a labelled diagram.
2) Explain the following terms with respect to recombinant DNA technology.
(a) passenger DNA
(b) chimeric DNA
(c) transformed cells
(d) restriction site
3) Describe common characteristics of Vectors.
4) Give an account of oral vaccine

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 CHAPTER – 13 : ORGANISMS AND POPULATION
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:-
1) is the basic unit of ecological hierarchy.
(a) Organism (b) Populations (c) Communities (d) Biomes.
2) Organisms of the same kind inhabiting a geographical area constitute .
(a) Organism (b) Populations (c) Communities (d) Biomes.
3) Several populations of different species in a particular area form .
(a) Organism (b) Populations (c) Communities (d) Biomes.
4) In an interaction if both the species are benefited then it is called .
(a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism (c) Parasitism (d) Competition
5) Interactions are called when they are existing between organisms of same
population
(a) interspecific (b) intraspecific (c) competition (d) intergeneric
6) A population growing in a habitat with limited resources shows initially a
phase.
(a) lag (b) log (c) Diminishing (d) Stationary
7) Lichen is an example of .
(a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism (c) Parasitism (d) Competition
8) Insects visit flowers to collect nectar and unknowingly pollinate their flowers. This is an
example of .
(a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism (c) Parasitism (d) Competition
9) Association between sea anemone and Hermit crab in gastropod shell is an example of
................
(a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism (c) Parasitism (d) Competition
10) The cattle egret and grazing cattle in close association, is a classic example of .
(a) Mutualism (b) Commensalism (c) Parasitism (d) Competition

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:-

1) Define Habitat.
2) What is migration?
3) What is dormancy of seeds?
4) Name the special photosynthetic pathway shown by xerophytic plants.
5) How does the fat below the skin help seals to survive in a cold climate?
6) What is Natality?
7) What is Mortality?
8) Fig 13.4 Identify the type of growth curve
9) Fig 13.5 Identify the type of growth curve
10) What is commensalism?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) :-
1) How will you differentiate between the terms Habitat and Niche?
2) Define Habitat. Give any two examples.
3) State any two characteristics of soil that decides the vegetation of an are(a)
4) What is migration? Why do some birds show migration?
5) State any two ways by which bad season can be avoided by animals which do not migrate?
6) How does the desert lizard manage to keep its body temperature constant?
7) State any two basic physical characteristics of a population.
8) What is commensalism? Give any one example.
9) What is Mutualism? Give any one example.
10) Fig 13.7 Identify A(alg(a) and B(Fungus)
11) What is Parasitism? Give any one example of an ectoparasite.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) :-
1) Enlist the three types of niches found in an environment.
2) State various methods by which plants and animals can overcome bad seasons.
3) Population is divided into three age groups. Name those groups.
4) Fig 13.5 labels A,B,C--- Identify the phase
5) What is commensalism? Explain with the help of any one example.
6) What is Mutualism? Explain with the help of any one example.
7) What is resource partitioning?
8) What is ectoparasite? Give one example of each plant and animal

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS) :-

1) State any four adaptations shown by plants growing in deserts.
2) ‘Cuscuta is called an ectoparasite’. Justify the statement.
3) Explain how the human population in your locality is affected by Immigration and
Emigration.
4) Explain an interaction between sea anemone and the clown fish. Name the type of an
interaction.
5) Prey species have evolved various defenses to reduce the impact of predation. Give any
four examples to support the above statement

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 CHAPTER – 14 : ECOSYSTEM AND ENERGY TRANSFER
…………………………………………………………………………………………………
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:-
1) Earthworms are …….
(a) decomposer (b) secondary consumer
(c) Detrivore (d) tertiary consumers

2) The letter ‘R’ given in the following equation represents-------

GPP – R = NPP
(a) respiration (b) regeneration
(c) respiratory losses (d) rate of reproduction

3) A constant input of......is the basic requirement for any ecosystem to function and sustain.
(a) soil (b) water
(c) nutrient (d) solar energy

4) Identify the type of food chain depicted below and choose the correct option.
Grass------------------------------Deer --------------------------- Leopard
(Producer) ( Primary consumer ) ( Secondary consumer )
(a) detritus food chain (b) parasitic food chain
(c) grazing food chain (d) predatory food chain

5) Which of the following represents Net Primary Productivity (NPP ) of an ecosystem?

(a) GPP – R = NPP (b) GPP + R = NPP
(c) GPP – NPP = R (d) R -NPP = GPP

6) After a volcanic eruption has covered an area with lava, which of the following is the most
likely order of succession in the repopulation of the area?
(a) Mosses—Herbs---Shrubs---Lichens---Trees
(b) Shrubs---Trees---Lichens---Moses --- Herbs
(c) Lichens---Moses---Herbs---Shrubs --- Trees
(d) Grasses---Shrubs---Trees---Lichens -- Herbs
7) Identify the diagram given below
(a) Pyramid of number (b) Pyramid of biomass
(c) Inverted pyramid of biomass (d) Pyramid of energy

8) Which of the following would appear as the pioneer organisms on bare rocks?
(a) Mosses (b) Green algae
(c) Lichens (d) Liverworts

9) Which group of living organisms given below is a link in the food chain between green
plants and hawks?
(a) grasshopper, frog and snake (b) grasshopper, fox and snake
(c) millipedes, centipedes and sparrow (d) earthworms, hen and rat

10)--------- have the greatest amount of energy

(a) insectivores (b) carnivores
(c) herbivores (d) autotrophs

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:-

1) What do you mean by pioneer species?
2) Name the nutrient cycles you studied.
3) Mention the different types of ecological pyramids you studied.
4) How many types of food chain are present in nature and which are they?

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:-

1) Give the important step in the process of decomposition.
2) Write a note on the spatial pattern.
3) Describe the function of the ecosystem.
4) What do you mean by ecological succession?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 / 3 MARKS) :-

1) Give the sequential steps in the process of succession.
2) Write a note of the pond ecosystem.
3) Explain the following terms with reference to ecological succession- Hydrosere, Xerosere,
Pioneer and Serial stages
4) Draw a well labelled diagram of the energy pyramid.
5) Give provisioning services to the ecosystem.
6) Explain the carbon cycle.
7) Define PAR and state how much PAR is used by plants for photosynthesis?
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 CHAPTER – 15 : BIODIVERSITY, CONSERVATION AND ENVIRONMENTAL
ISSUES
……………………………………………………………………………………………
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:-
1) -------------------- of the following is not included under in situ conservation??
(a) National Park (b) Sanctuary
(c) Botanical garden (d) Biosphere reserve

2) Announcing Kanha Forest as tiger reserve is an example of

(a) Ex situ conservation (b) in situ conservation
(c) Both (d) Tourism development

3) is one of the most common sources of water pollution everywhere in India.

(a) Industrial Effluents (b) Domestic sewage
(c) Maritime traffic (d) Livestock farming

4) Thermal pollution of water is caused due to rise in temperature of water. The main source
of thermal pollution is
(a) industrial effluents (b) Domestic sewage
(c) Deforestation (d) the thermal and nuclear power plants

5) What is the name of the species whose population has been reduced to a critical level?
(a) Endangered (b) Indeterminate (c) Rare (d) Vulnerable

6) The phenomenon through which certain pollutants get accumulated in tissues in increasing
concentration along the food chains (successive trophic levels) is called
(a) Natural Eutrophication (b) Accelerated Eutrophication.
(c) Thermal pollution (d) Biomagnification

7) are used to clean air for both dust and gases by passing it through
dry or wet packing material.?
(a) Exhaust gas Scrubbers (b) Fabric Collectors.
(c) Mist collectors. (d) Dynamic precipitators

8) The sacred groves are found in Khasi and Jaintia hills from
(a) Meghalaya (b) Maharashtra (c) Gujrat (d) Kerala

9) Cryopreservation of gametes, cells, tissues, means preservation at low temperature

used to protect endangered species.
(a) - 10˚C (b) - 36˚C (c) - 78˚C (d) - 196˚C

10) Atlantic uses 35 tonnes of and releases 70 tonnes of .

(a) Oxygen, Carbon dioxide (b) Carbon dioxide, Carbon monoxide.
(c) Carbon dioxide, Oxygen (d) Oxygen, Carbon monoxide.
11) India, at present has biosphere reserves.
(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 14 (d) 20

12) CO2 and are commonly called greenhouse gases.

(a) O2 (b) CH4 (c) SO2 (d) NO2

13) In the stratosphere is generated by absorption of short wavelength UV radiations.

(a) Ozone (b) Oxygen (c) Methane (d) Nitrous oxide

14) Saalumara Thomeka is an Indian environmentalist from noted for her work
in planting and tending banyan trees.
(a) Orissa (b) Maharashtra (c) Kerala (d) Karnataka

15) The plantation drive is in line with National Forest Policy aims at maintaining
forest cover in the country.
(a) 5 % (b) 10 % (c) 33 % (d) 50 %

16) During the past century, the temperature of the Earth has increased by most of it
during the last three decades.
(a) 0.1oC (b) 0.2 oC (c) 0.4 oC (d) 0.6 oC

17) Introduction of predator fish -Nile perch in Lake Victoria, proved deleterious for 200
local species of
(a) Elephant fish (b) Killifish (c) Marbled lungfish (d) Cichlid fish

18) India boasts a handsome share of of total biodiversity wealth of the earth.
(a) 5.4 % (b) 8.1% (c) 13.2 % (d) 15.0 %

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS:-

1) Name the unit used to measure the thickness of the ozone in a column of air from the
ground to the top of the atmosphere.
2) Explain the concept of Cultural or Accelerated Eutrophication.
3) Define Natural Eutrophication.
4) Name the predator fish from Lake Victoria which is proved deleterious for 200 local
species of Cichlid fish.
5) Which fish species introduced for aquaculture purpose in Indian has proved harmful to
endemic catfish varieties?
6) Define In- situ conservation?
7) Define Ex -situ conservation?
8) What is Bioprospecting?
9) Define a Pollutant?
10) What does the abbreviation NBA stand for in the field of Ecology?
 11) What is the full form of IUCN?
12) What is the major Effect of Deforestation?
13) What is algal bloom?
14) Name the Hypothesis put forth by Paul Ehrlich to explain the significance of diversity.
15) How many national parks are there in Maharashtra?
16) Identify the device used in vehicles for Controlling Vehicular Air Pollution.

17) Name the plant which is commonly called ‘Terror of Bengal’.

18) Which is the most common source of water pollution?

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (2 MARKS) :-

1) Give the full form of BOD. What does high BOD indicate?
2) Enlist common sources of noise pollution.
3) Give any two advantages of CNG usage over other fuels.
4) Explain the algal bloom and its adverse effects.
5) How many world’s biodiversity hotspots are there in India? Enlist the names of those.
6) Give one significance or importance of each of the following:
(a) Seed banks. (b) tissue culture
7) What do you understand by Over exploitation of resources? Give any two examples of it.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS) :-

1) What do e-wastes mean by e-wastes and comment on its recycling.
2) Explain the following terms.
a) Ecological sanitation
b) Greenhouse effect
c) Global warming
3) Distinguish between In- situ conservation and Ex -situ conservation.
4) Complete the given flow chart for the process of eutrophication.
Stinking eutrophic lake with coloured and turbid water
↓
Loss of species diversity
↓

↓
Increase in organic loading of lake.
↓
 Death of submerged plants due to reduced light
↓
Biological enrichment of water (algal bloom, planktonic algae and higher plants)
↓

5) Write a note on Thermal pollution.

6) Discuss the adverse effects of various Gaseous pollutants.
7) Give an account of Habitat loss and fragmentation.
8) Match the following and rewrite the matched pairs.
A (ACT) B (Year of Application)
i. Environment Protection Act P) 1974
ii. Air (Prevention and control of pollution) Act Q) 1987
iii. Montreal Protocol R) 1986
iv. Water (prevention and control of pollution) Act S) 1981

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (4 MARKS) :-

1) Distinguish between Mitosis and Meiosis.
2) Describe Noise pollution with respect to its causes and its effects on human health.
3) (a) Write a note on Ozone depletion.
(b) Discuss Major Effects of Deforestation in brief.
4) Explain the major causes Biodiversity loss.
5) Describe Global warming.
6) Give an account of Mission Harit Maharashtra
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