02-02-2025

9610ZMD801433240014 MD

PHYSICS

1) The resonant frequency of the L-C circuit is f0 before insertion of the dielectric of εr = 4. After

inserting the dielectric, the resonant frequency will be :-

(1)

(2) 2f0

(3)

(4) None of these

2) Match the following

Currents r.m.s values

(A) x0 sinωt (i) x0

(B) x0 sinωt cosωt (ii)

(C) x0 sinωt + x0 cosωt (iii)

(1) (A → i), (B → ii), (C → iii)

(2) (A → ii), (B → iii), (C → i)
(3) (A → i), (B → iii), (C → ii)
(4) None

3) A complex current wave is given by

i = 5 + 5 sin (100 ωt) A. Its average value over one time period is given as :-

(1) 10 A
(2) 5 A
(3) A
(4) 0

4)

The resultant reactance in an L-C-R circuit is :-

(1)

(2) |XL – XC|

(3)

(4)

5) Electromagnetic waves with wavelength

(A) λ1 are used to treat muscular strain.
(B) λ2 are used by a FM radio station for broadcasting
(C) λ3 are used to detect fracture in bones.
(D) λ4 are absorbed by the ozone layer of the atmosphere.
Arrange these wavelengths in decreasing order of magnitude.

(1) λ2 > λ1 > λ4 > λ3

(2) λ1 > λ2 > λ4 > λ3
(3) λ3 > λ4 > λ1 > λ2
(4) λ3 > λ4 > λ2 > λ1

6) Magnetic field in a plane EM wave is given by Bz = 2 × 10–7 sin (0.5 × 103 x – 1.5 × 1011 t)T then
electric field is given by :-

(1) Ez = sin(0.5 × 103 x – 1.5 × 1011 t)V/m

3 11
(2) Ez = 60 sin(0.5 × 10 x – 1.5 × 10 t)V/m
(3) Ey = sin(0.5 × 103 x – 1.5 × 1011 t)V/m
3 11
(4) Ey = 60 sin(0.5 × 10 x – 1.5 × 10 t)V/m

7) The Apparent coefficient of expansion of a liquid when heated in brass vessel is x and when
heated in a tin vessel is y, if α is the coefficient of linear expansion for brass, the linear expansion of
tin is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) A gas at state A changes to state B through path I and II shown in figure. The change in internal
energy is ΔU1 and ΔU2 respectively. Then :-

(1) ΔU1 > ΔU2

(2) ΔU1 < ΔU2
(3) ΔU1 = ΔU2
(4) ΔU1 = ΔU2 = 0

9)

Match the correct :-

Volume is
(a) (p)
constant

Volume is
(b) (q)
increasing

Temperature
(c) (r)
is constant
 Pressure is
(d) (s)
constant

(1) a → q; b → q, r; c → q; d → p
(2) a → r, p; b → q, r; c → q, s; d → p, r
(3) a → q, r; b → q; c → q, s; d → p
(4) None

10) A cyclic process ABCD is shown in the P-V diagram : (BC & DA are rectangular hyperbola)

Which of the following curves represents the same process ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A bullet of mass m moving with speed 200 m/s strikes a target. Assume all the kinetic energy is
converted into heat. Find the rise in temperature of bullet (specific heat of bullet is 500 J/kg°C).

(1) 40°C
(2) 80 °C
(3) 120 °C
(4) 160 °C

12) If 20 cal of heat is accepted by the system and 24 joule of work done by the system then change
in internal energy will be ?

(1) -4J
(2) -60J
(3) +60J
(4) +4J

13) The escape velocity of a body on a planet which is thrice the radius of the earth and double the
mass of the earth is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) A stone is dropped from height 'h' reaches to Earth surface in 1 sec. If the same stone taken to
Moon and dropped freely from same height then it will reach the surface of the Moon in the time
(The 'g' of Moon is 1/6 times of Earth):–

(1) second
(2) 9 second
(3) second
(4) 6 second

15) Assertion (A) :- There is no effect of rotation of earth on acceleration due to gravity at poles.
Reason (R) :- Rotation of earth is about polar axis.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

16) In a capillary tube experiment, a vertical 30 cm long capillary tube is dipped in water. The water
rises upto a height of 10 cm due to capillary action. If this experiment is conducted in a freely falling
elevator, the length of the water column becomes :-

(1) 10 cm
(2) 20 cm
(3) 30 cm
(4) zero

17) The stress versus strain graphs for wires of two materials A and B are as shown in the figure. If

YA and YB are the Young's modulii of the materials, then :-

(1) YB = 2YA
(2) YA = YB
(3) YB = 3YA
(4) YA = 3YB

18) A tank is filled up to height 2H with a liquid v is placed on a platform of height H from the
ground. The distance x from ground where a small hole is punched to get the maximum range R is :-

(1) H
(2) 1.25 H
(3) 1.5 H
(4) 2H

19) Assertion (A) : When a body floats such that its pars are immersed into two immiscible liquids,
then force exerted by liquid 1 is .
Reason (R) : Total buoyant force =

(1) Both are true and R explains A.

(2) Both are true but R doesn't explain A
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is wrong but R is true

20) Match the column - I to II

Column-I Column-II

(i) (A) Total energy per unit mass

= constant

(ii) (B) Total energy per unit weight

= constant

(iii) (C) Total energy per unit volume

= constant
(1) i - A, ii - B, iii - C
(2) i - B, ii - C, iii - A
(3) i - A, ii - C, iii - B
(4) i - B, ii - A, iii - C

21) The equation of a particle executing SHM is . Then, the time period of the body is
:

(1) zero

(2)

(3) π
(4) 2π

22) A particle of mass 1 kg is undergoing SHM, for which graph between force and displacement

(from mean position) as shown. Its time period, in seconds, is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
23) A particle executing a simple harmonic motion has a period of 6s. The time taken by the particle
to move from the mean position to half the amplitude, starting from the mean position is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Four massless springs whose force constants are 2k, 2k, k and 2k respectively are attached to a
mass M kept on a frictionless plane as shown in the figure. If the mass M is displaced in the

horizontal direction, then the frequency of the system is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Figure shown in shape of part of a long string in which transverse waves are produced by
attaching one end of the string to tunning fork of frequency 250Hz. What is the velocity of the waves

(1) 1.0 ms–1

(2) 1.5 ms–1
(3) 2.0 ms–1
(4) 2.5 ms–1

26) A bomb explodes on the moon. How long will it take for the sound to reach the earth ?

(1) 10 s
(2) 1000 s
(3) 1 day
(4) None of these

27) A stretched string of length fixed at both ends can sustain stationary waves of wavelength λ
given by :
(Here, n is an integer number of loops.)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) λ = 2 n

28) The ratio of angle of minimum deviation produced by a thin prism in air to that in liquid

of refractive index is :

(1)

(2) 3

(3)

(4) 4

29) The focal length of a concave mirror is 50 cm. Where an object be placed so that its image is two
times and inverted :-

(1) 75 cm
(2) 72 cm
(3) 63 cm
(4) 50 cm

30)

Find value of magnification in given diagram :-

(1) –3
(2) +3
(3) +2
(4) –2

31) A compound microscope has a magnifying power 30. The focal length of its eyepiece is 5cm.
Assuming the final image to be at the least distance of distinct vision (25cm). The magnification
produced by objective is :-

(1) +5
(2) –5
(3) +6
(4) –6

32) When a biconvex lens of glass having refractive index 1.47 is dipped in a liquid, it acts as a plane
sheet of glass. This implies that the liquid must have refractive index

(1) Equal to that of glass

(2) Less than one
(3) Greater than that of glass
(4) Less than that of glass

33) In Young's double slit experiment how many maximas can be obtained including the central
maxima if λ = 2000Å and d = 7000Å.

(1) 12
(2) 7
(3) 18
(4) 4

34) A single slit of width 0.20 mm is illuminated with light of wavelength 500 nm. The observing
screen is placed 80 cm from the slit. The width of the central bright fringe will be :-

(1) 1 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 4 mm
(4) 5 mm

35) Two beams, A and B, of plane polarized light with mutually perpendicular planes of polarization
are seen through a polaroid. From the position when the beam A has maximum intensity (and beam
B has zero intensity), a rotation of polaroid through 30° makes the two beams appear equally bright.

If the initial intensitites of the two beams are IA and IB respectively, then equals :

(1) 1

(2)

(3) 3

(4)
36) Ratio of intensities of two waves is given by 4 : 1. The ratio of the amplitudes of the waves is :-

(1) 2:1
(2) 1:2
(3) 4:1
(4) 1:4

37) The graph is showing the photo current with the applied voltage of a photoelectric effect

experiment. Then :-

(1) A & B will have same intensity and B & C have same frequency
(2) B & C have same intensity and A & B have same frequency
(3) A & C will have same frequency and B & C have same intensity
(4) A & C will have same intensity and B & C have same frequency

38) The work function of metal is 1 eV. Light of wavelength 3000Å is incident on this metal surface.
The maximum velocity of emitted photo-electrons will be :-

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 1 × 103 m/s
(3) 1 × 104 m/s
(4) 1 × 106 m/s

39) When light source of intensity I, incident on a metal plate of work function 2 eV, then e– will be
emitted. Now intensity becomes 2I then work function will be :-

(1) 4 eV
(2) 0.25 eV
(3) 2 eV
(4) 0.5eV

40)

The binding energies of nuclei X and Y are E1 and E2 respectively. Two atoms of X are fused to give
one atom of Y and an energy Q is released. Then

(1) Q = 2E1 – E2
(2) Q = E2 – 2E1
(3) Q = 2E1 + E2
(4) Q = 2E2 + E1

41) If the binding energies of a deuteron and an alpha particle are 1.125 MeV and 7.2 MeV
respectively, then the more stable of the two is :-

(1) Deuteron
(2) Alpha-particle
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Sometimes deutron and sometimes α-particle

42) In the energy band diagram of a material shown below, the open circles and filled circles denote

holes and electrons respectively. The material is:-

(1) a n-type semiconductor

(2) a p-type semicoductor
(3) a insulator
(4) a metal

43) To make a PN junction conducting :-

(1) The value of forward bias should be more than the barrier potential
(2) The value of forward bias should be less than the barrier potential
(3) The value of reverse bias should be more than the barrier potential
(4) The value of reverse bias should be less than the barrier potential

44) A p-n junction (D) shown in the figure can act as a rectifier. An alternating current source (V) is
connected in the circuit.

The current (I) in the resistor (R) can be shown by:-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

45) In the circuit shown, the current through the ideal diode is :-

(1) 75 mA
(2) 20 mA
(3) 100 mA
(4) 25 mA

CHEMISTRY

1) The maximum number of molecules is present in :

(1) 15 L of H2 gas at STP

(2) 5 L of N2 gas at STP
(3) 0.5 g of H2 gas
(4) 10 g of O2 gas

2) An organic compound contains 49.30 % carbon, 6.84% hydrogen and its vapour density is 73.
Molecular formula of the compound is :

(1) C3H8O2
(2) C6H10O4
(3) C6H9O
(4) C4H10O2

3) 10 litre of O2 gas is reacted with 30 litre of CO gas at STP. The volume of each gas present at the
end of reaction are :

(1) CO (10 litre), CO2 (20 litre)

(2) O2 (10 litre), CO (30 litre)
(3) CO (20 litre), CO2 (10 litre)
(4) O2 (10 litre), CO (10 litre)

4) What will be the longest wavelength line in balmer series of the hydrogen spectrum ?

(1) 566 nm
(2) 556 nm
(3) 546 nm
(4) 656 nm
5) In Bohr’s atomic model, an electron jumps from n = 1 to n = 3, how much energy will be
absorbed? (for H-atom)

(1) 2.15 × 10–11 erg/atom

(2) 0.1936 × 10–10 erg/atom
(3) 2.389 × 10–12 erg/atom
(4) 0.239 × 10–10 erg/atom

6) Which of the following sets of quantum number is correct for an electron in 4f-orbital ?

(1)
n = 4, l = 3, m = +4, s = +

(2)
n = 4, l = 4, m = –4, s = –

(3)
n = 4, l = 3, m = +1, s = +

(4)
n = 3, l = 2, m = –2, s = +

7) For the reaction N2(g) + O2(g) ⇌ 2NO(g), tlie value of Kc at 800° C is 0.1. When the equilibrium
concentrations of both the reactants is 0.5 mol, what is the value of Kp at the same temperature ?

(1) 0.5
(2) 0.1
(3) 0.01
(4) 0.025

8) For the reaction :

N2(g) + 3H2(g) ⇌ 2NH3(g)
Kp = 6.1 ×10–5 at 25° C. ΔG° for the reaction will be:

(1) +24 kJ/mol

(2) –24 kJ/mol
(3) –7.3 kJ/mol
(4) 2 kJ/mol

9) The vapour density of PCl5 is 104.25 but when heated to 230°C, its vapour density is reduced to
62. The degree of dissociaticn of PCl5 at this temperature will be:

(1) 6.8%
(2) 68%
(3) 46%
(4) 64%

10) The hydroxyl ion concentration in a solution having pH value 3 will be:
(1) 10–11 M
(2) 10–7 M
(3) 10–3 M
(4) 10–14 M

11) The pH of a solution that is 0.1 M NaA and 0.1 M HA (Ka = 1 × 10–6) would be:

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 7

12) The solubility of Sb2S3 in water is 1 × 10–5 mol/L at 298 K. What will be its solubility product?

(1) 108 × 10–25

(2) 1.0 × 10–25
(3) 144 × 10–25
(4) 126 × 10–25

13) Standard entropies of X2, Y2 and XY3 and 60, 40 and 50 JK–1 mol–1 respectively. For the reaction :

, ΔH = –30 kJ
to be at equilibrium, the temperature should be :

(1) 750 K
(2) 1000 K
(3) 1250 K
(4) 500 K

14) The oxidation number of Pt in [Pt(C2H4)Cl3]– is : -

(1) +1
(2) +2
(3) +3
(4) +4

15) Consider the following reaction,

5H2O2 + xClO2 + 2OH– → xCl– + yO2 + 6H2O
The reaction is balanced if:

(1) x = 5, y = 2
(2) x = 2, y = 5
(3) x = 4, y = 10
(4) x = 5, y = 5

16) The most stable carbanion among the following is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Among the following the aromatic compound is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

18) In which of the following, resonance will be possible ?

(1) CH2=CH–CH2–CHO
(2) CH2=CH–CH=O
(3) CH3COCH3
(4) CH2=CH–CH2–CH=CH2

19) In which of the following molecules all the effects namely inductive, mesomeric and
hyperconjugation operate?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Assertion (A) :- is more acidic than .

Reason (R):- Electron donating groups (EDG) increase acidity while electron withdrawing groups
(EWG) decrease acidity.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are right but (R) is not right explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(4) If both (A) and (R) are wrong.

21) Which one of the following is the most stable conformer ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) Which among the following compounds will show geometrical isomers ?

(1) CH3—CH=CH2

(2)

(3)

(4) CH3—CH=CHD

23) Assertion (A):- Compounds having restricted rotation around C=C, C=N and N=N bond exhibit
geometrical isomerism.

Reason (R):- does not show geometrical isomerism.

(1) If both (A) and (R) are right and (R) is right explanation of (A).
(2) If both (A) and (R) are right but (R) is not right explanation of (A).
(3) If (A) is right but (R) is wrong.
(4) If both (A) and (R) are wrong.

24) In the following reaction What is X ?

(1) CH3CH2OH
(2) CH3–O–CH3
(3) CH3CH2CHO
(4) CH2=CHOH

25)
A and B are geometrical isomers (R–CH=CH–R) of which type ?

(1) A is trans, B is cis

(2) A and B both are cis
(3) A and B both are trans
(4) A is cis, B is trans

26) Which of the following alkyl bromides may be used for the synthesis of 2, 3-dimethyl butane by
Wurtz reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3) Isobutyl bromide

(4) s-butyl bromide

27) Consider the following reaction

The major product obtained in the reaction is :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

28) The structure of 4-methylpent-2-en-l-ol is:

(1) CH3–CH2–HC=CH–CH2OH

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) Match the Column-I with Column-II.

Column-I Column-II

CH3CH2CH2CH3;
(a) Functional isomers (p)

CH3CH2—CH=CH2;
(b) Position isomers (q)
CH3—CH=CH—CH3

C2H5—O—C2H5 ;
(c) Chain isomers (r)
C3H7—O—CH3

CH3CH2CHO;
(d) Metamers (s)
CH3COCH3
(1) a-s; b-q; c-p; d-r
(2) a-q; b-s; c-p; d-r
(3) a-s; b-p; c-q; d-r
(4) a-s; b-q; c-r; d-p

30) An alkene on ozonolysis gives Ethanal as one of the product. Its structure is :
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) The 71st electron of an element X with an atomic number of 71 enters into the orbital :

(1) 6p
(2) 4f
(3) 5d
(4) 6s

32) Which one of the following is the strongest base ?

(1) AsH3
(2) NH3
(3) PH3
(4) SbH3

33) In the Lothar Meyer curve, which of the following option is incorrect

(1) Alkali metals occupied peak position at curve.

(2) Halogens occupied ascending position at curve.
(3) Alkaline earth elements occupy descending position at curve.
(4) Alkali metals are in the lower curve of graph.

34) Considering the elements F, Cl, O and N, the correct order of their chemical reactivity in terms
of oxidizing property is:
(1) F > Cl > O > N
(2) F > O > Cl > N
(3) Cl > F > O > N
(4) O > F > N >Cl

35) Which of the following statements is correct with respect to the property of elements with
increase in atomic number in the carbon family (group 14)?

(1) Their metallic character decreases.

(2) Their electronegativity decreases.
(3) Their ionization energies increase.
(4) Their atomic size decreases.

36) The transition elements have a characteristic electronic configuration which can be represented
as:

(1) (n–2)s2p6d1–10(n–1)s2p6 ns2

(2) (n–2)s2p6d1–10(n–1)s2p6p1 or 2 ns1
(3) (n–1)s2p6d10ns2np6nd1–10
(4) (n–1)s2p6d1–10ns1 or 2

37) Which one of the following arrangements does not give the correct picture of the trends
indicated against it?

(1) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2: Oxidizing power

(2) Cl2 > F2 > Br2 > I2 : Electron gain enthalpy
(3) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 :Bond dissociation energy
(4) F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 : Electronegativity

38) Which of the following is incorrectly match?

Hybridisation Geometry Orbitals use

(1) sp3d Trigonal bipyramidal s + px + py + pz + dz2
(2) sp3d3 Pentagonal bipyramidal s + px + py + pz + dx −y + dz + dxy
2 2 2

(3) sp3d2 Caped octahedral s + px + py + pz + dx −y + dz

2 2 2

(4) sp3 Tetrahedral s + px + py + pz

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

39) Among KO2, AlO2¯, BaO2 and NO2+, unpaired electron is present in

+
(1) NO2 and BaO2
(2) KO2 and AlO2¯
(3) Only KO2
(4) Only BaO2

40) Melting point is low for

(1) Calcium fluoride

(2) Calcium iodide
(3) Calcium chloride
(4) Calcium bromide

41) The linear combination of atomic orbitals to form molecular orbitals takes place only when the
combining atomic orbitals
A. have the same energy
B. have the minimum overlap
C. have same symmetry about the molecular axis
D. have different symmetry about the molecular axis
Choose the most appropriate from the options given below :

(1) A, B, C only
(2) A and C only
(3) B, C, D only
(4) B and D only

42) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (A):- PH3 has lower boiling point than NH3.
Reason (R):- In liquid state NH3 molecules are associated through vander waal’s forces, but PH3
molecules are associated through hydrogen bonding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(4) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.

43) Given below are two statements :

Statement (I) :- A π bonding MO has lower electron density above and below the inter-nuclear axis.
Statement (II):- The π* antibonding MO has a node between the nuclei.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
44) The compound which does not exist is

(1) PbEt4
(2) BeH2
(3) NaO2
(4) (NH4)2BeF4

45) A hard substance melts at high temperature and is an insulator in both solid and in molten state.
This solid is most likely to be a/an

(1) ionic solid

(2) molecular solid
(3) metallic solid
(4) covalent solid

BIOLOGY

1) Name the blank space A, B, C given in the following table :-

Microbes name Commercial product

A Lactic acid

B Cyclosporin-A

Penicillium notatum C
A-Monascus, B-Trichoderma,
(1)
C-Penicillin
A-Trichoderma, B-Statins,
(2)
C-Penicillin
A-Lactobacillus, B-Trichoderma,
(3)
C-Penicillin
A-Lactobacillus, B-Monascus,
(4)
C-Penicillin

2) Correctly match column I with column II :-

Column I Column II

Trichoderma
(A) (i) Biofertilisers
species

(B) Rhizobium (ii) Clot buster

(C) Cyclosporin A (iii) Biocontrol agents

Trichoderma
(D) Streptokinase (iv)
polysporum
(1) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii), D–(iv)
(2) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(iv), D–(i)
(3) A–(iv), B–(iii), C–(ii), D–(i)
(4) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(iv), D–(ii)

3) Fill up the blanks.

I. Ethanol is produced by .....A..... .
II. Large scale production of beverages in industries is done in very large vessels called ...B.... .
III. Penicillin is discovered by ....C.... .
IV. LAB checks disease causing microbes in ....D.... .
A to D in the above statements refers to

(1) A-virus, B-fermentors, C-Alexander Fleming, D-intestine

(2) A-yeast, B-Fermentors, C-Alexander Fleming, D-stomach
(3) A-bacteria, B-fermentors, C-S Waksman, D-chest
(4) A-bacteria, B-fermentors, C-S Waksman, D-liver

4) Select the incorrect statement among them -

(1) Inflorescences are formed which bear the floral buds and then the flowers in plant.
(2) The proximal end of the filament is attached to the petal of the flower.
(3) The anther is a four-sided (Polyhedral) structure.
(4) Cells of the tapetum possess dense cytoplasm and generally have more than one nucleus.

5)

(1) A-Zygote, B-proembryo, C-Heart shaped embryo, D-Mature embryo.

(2) A-Zygote, B-Globular embryo, C-Mature embryo, D-Heart shaped embryo.
(3) A-Zygote, B- Heart shaped embryo, C- Globular embryo, D-Mature embryo.
(4) A-Zygote, B-Globular embryo, C- Heart shaped embryo, D-Mature embryo.

6) Statement-I : Aquatic plant may show anemophily.

Statement-II : Zostera is fresh water aquatic plant show hydrophily.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-II is correct but Statement-I is incorrect.

7) Assertion : Pollination does not guarantee the transfer of the right type of pollen.
Reason : Pollination is random process taking place in nature.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Only assertion is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

8) Residual, persistent nucellus present in some plant seed is called perisperm is present in -

(1) Mango
(2) Beet
(3) Guava
(4) Tomato

9) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from given below options.

Column I Column II

i Exine a Integumented megasporangium

ii Ovule b One of the most resistant organic material

iii Pollen banks c 196 ∘C

iv Basal portion of ovule d Micropyle

e Chalaza
(1) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c
(2) i-c, ii-a, iii-e, iv-b
(3) i-b ii-a, iii-c, iv-d
(4) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-e

10) How many statement are correct among them-

A. Parthenocarpic fruit are seed less.
B. In parthenogenesis fruit are seed less.
C. Hybrid plant do not show segregation of characters.
D. During seed dormancy the water content is reduced to 10-15% moisture by volume in seed.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

11) The last chromosome sequenced in Human Genome Project was :

(1) Chromosome 6
(2) Chromosome 1
(3) Chromosome 22
(4) Chromosome 14
12) Name the component that binds to the operator region of an operon and prevents RNA
polymerase from transcribing the operon.

(1) Promoter
(2) Regulator protein
(3) Repressor protein
(4) Inducer

13) With reference to Hershey and Chase experiments. Select the correct statements.
(A) Viruses grown in the presence of radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive DNA.
(B) Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained radioactive proteins.
(C) Viruses grown on radioactive phosphorus contained radioactive protein.
(D) Viruses grown on radioactive sulphur contained radioactive DNA.
(E) Viruses grown on radioactive protein contained radioactive DNA.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (D) and (E) only

(2) (A) and (B) only
(3) (A) and (C) only
(4) (B) and (D) only

14) Assertion : DNA is a long polymer of deoxyribonucleotides.

Reason : The length of DNA is defined by the number of amino acids present in it.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but reason is true.

15) Assertion : The DNA double helix has uniform spacing between its two strands.
Reason : Purines always pair with pyrimidines in DNA.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but reason is true.

16) How many of the following statements about DNA are correct?
A. DNA is composed of deoxyribonucleotides.
B. RNA acts as the genetic material in all viruses.
C. DNA has a free phosphate group at its 3' end.
D. Purines include adenine and guanine.
E. Polynucleotides are linked by phosphodiester bonds.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

17) Match Column-I with Column-II :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Phenylketonuria (i) Complete dominance

(b) Trait of sickle cell anaemia (ii) Pleiotropic gene

(c) Flower colour of snapdragon plant (iii) Incomplete dominance

(d) Pod colour of pea plant (iv) Co dominance

(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), (d)–(i)
(3) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)

18) A test cross enables us to :-

(1) Determine the viability of cross.

(2) Distinguish between homozygous dominant and heterozygous dominant.
(3) Determine whether two species can interbreed.
(4) Determine the similarities in the DNA of two species.

19) The four symbols (A, B, C and D) used in human pedigree analysis given below. Which one of
these is correctly identified in the option given :-

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

(1) C – 5 affected offspring

(2) A – Normal offspring
(3) B – Marriage between relatives
(4) D – Dizygotic twins (affected)

20) A haemophilic man marries a normal homozygous woman. What is the probability that their son
will be haemophilic ?

(1) 100%
(2) 75%
(3) 25%
(4) 0%

21) Statement-I : Mendel’s study involved true-breeding pea lines with pairs of contrasting traits.
Statement-II : True-breeding lines show stable inheritance and expression of traits across
generations.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

22) Statement-I : In a monohybrid cross, the F1 generation always shows a blending of parental
traits.
Statement-II : Mendel observed that one of the parental traits completely dominates in the F1
generation.

(1) Both statements are correct.

(2) Both statements are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

23) How many of the following statements about the double helix structure of DNA are correct?
A. It is made of two polynucleotide chains.
B. The two chains are parallel with the same polarity.
C. Adenine pairs with thymine via two hydrogen bonds.
D. Guanine pairs with cytosine via three hydrogen bonds.
E. The strands are always coiled in a left-handed fashion.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

24) Identify the correct statement about the genetic code:

(1) The genetic code is overlapping.

(2) Each codon is composed of four nucleotides.
(3) AUG is both a start codon and codes for methionine.
(4) UAA codes for an amino acid.

25) Assertion : Sickle-cell anemia is caused by a substitution mutation in the gene encoding globin
chain.
Reason : This mutation leads to the production of abnormally shaped red blood cells under high
oxygen tension.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true, and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true, but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true, but Reason is false.
(4) Assertion is false, but Reason is true.

26) Assertion : In nature, animals, plants and microbes do not and cannot live in isolation.
Reason : For any species, the minimal requirement is one more species on which it can feed.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False

27) The integral form of exponential growth equation is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

28) In the euqation for 'S' shaped population growth , K represent

(1) Carrying capacity

(2) Environmental Resistance
(3) Biotic potential
(4) Population size

29) If 40 individuals in a laboratory population of 400 fruitflies, died during a specified time interval,
say a week, the death rate in population during that period is :-

(1) 1.0
(2) 10
(3) 0.1
(4) 0.01

30) How many organism in the list given below are macroconsumers?
Phytoplankton, Grass, Tree, Grasshopper, Cow, Bird, Fish, Wolf, Diatoms, Bacteria, Fungi.

(1) Two
(2) Ten
(3) Six
(4) Five

31) How many statements are incorrect ?

(a) Predators also help in maintaining species diversity in a community.
(b) Decomposition is largely an oxygen requiring process.
(c) Number of trophic levels in GFC is never restricted.
(d) Some of organisms of DFC are prey to GFC animals.
(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Two
(4) None

32) How much percent of the incident solar radiation (ISR) is a photosynthetically active radiation
(PAR) ?

(1) 1% – 5%
(2) Less than 50%
(3) 2 % – 10%
(4) More than 50%

33) In relation of Gross Primary Productivity (GPP) and Net Primary Productivity (NPP) of an
ecosystem, which one of the following statements is correct?

(1) There is no relationship between Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity.
(2) Gross primary productivity is always less than net primary productivity.
(3) Gross primary productivity is always more than net primary productivity.
(4) Gross primary productivity and Net primary productivity are alway same.

34) Which one of the following is correct regarding decomposition ?

I II

(1) Formation of dark coloured amorphous substance (i) Fragmentation

(2) Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon (ii) Humification

(3) release of inorganic nutrients by microbial activities (iii) Minerlisation

(4) Break down detritus into smaller particles (iv) Leaching

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Which cycle is not a gaseous cycle ?

(1) Carbon cycle

(2) Nitrogen cycle
(3) Phosphorus cycle
(4) Hydrogen cycle

36) Who popularised the term biodiversity?

(1) David Tilman

(2) Edward Wilson
(3) Paul Ehrlich
(4) Alexander van humboldt

37)

Tropical areas are having greatest biodiversity because :-

(1) More solar energy is available in tropics

(2) They have less seasonal changes
(3) They had a long undisturbed evolutionary time
(4) All of these

38) Above given pie chart is showing number of vertebrate species. In above pie chart
identify S :-

(1) Reptiles
(2) Amphibians
(3) Birds
(4) Fishes

39) Match the following interactions

(a) + / + (i) Predation
(b) – / – (ii) Amensalism
(c) + / – (iii) Competition
(d) – / 0 (iv) Mutualism

(1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv)

(2) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv)
(3) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)
(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(ii), d(i)

40) In the rockey interidal shores of Scotland J.H. Connel studied the competition among two species
of Barnacles, he observed that -
A. Chathamalus and Balanus competiting for shelter.
B. Balanus is competitively superior than Chathamalus.
C. Removal of Chathamalus leads to competitive releases of Balanus.
D. Removal of Balanus leads to competitive released of Chathamalus.
Choose the correct observations -

(1) A, B, C
(2) B, C, D
(3) A, B, D
(4) A, D, C
41) Assertion : Bell shape age pyramid confirms a stable population.
Reason : The proportion of individuals in reproductive age-group is greater than the individuals in
pre-reproductive age-group.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

42) Solar energy converted to chemical energy by plant and chemical energy get converted into
kinetic or heat energy in animals, it shows :-

(1) 1st law of thermodynamic in food chain

(2) 2nd law of thermodynamic in food chain
(3) Above both laws in food chain
(4) Zeroth law of thermodynamic in food chain

43) For many taxonomic group, species inventories are more complete in temperate than in tropical
countries, because -

(1) water is not less in tropical area

(2) species diversity is less in temperate as compared tropical area.
(3) More solar energy in temperate
(4) less solar energy in tropical

44) The flat discs like structures formed due to condensation of gaseous clouds after big-bang were
called as :

(1) Planets
(2) Sun
(3) Nebula
(4) Galaxy

45) Darwin's theory states that :-

(1) Characters are acquired through inheritance

(2) Species change morphologically with time
(3) Nature selects organisms which are better fit
(4) Evolution is due to effect of environment

46) The chronological order of human evolution from early to the recent is :-

(1) Ramapithecus → Homo habilis → Australopithecus → Homo erectus

(2) Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Ramapithecus → Homo erectus
(3) Australopithecus → Ramapithecus → Homo habits → Homo erectus
(4) Ramapithecus → Australopithecus → Homo habilis → Homo erectus

47) Panspermia, an idea that is still a favourite for some astronomers, means :

(1) Creation of life from dead and decaying matter

(2) Creation of life from chemicals
(3) Origin of sperm in human testes
(4) Transfer of spores as unit of life from other planets of Earth

48) The introduction of t-DNA into plants involves :

(1) Allowing the plant roots to stand in water

(2) Infection of the plant by Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(3) Altering the pH of the soil, then heat shocking the plants
(4) Exposing the plants to cold for a brief period

49) Spooling is :-

(1) Amplification of DNA

(2) Cutting of separated DNA bands from the agarose gel
(3) Transfer of separated DNA fragments to synthetic membranes
(4) Collection of isolated DNA

50) Insertional inactivation results into inactivation of which enzyme ?

(1) Transacetylase
(2) Permease
(3) Taq polymerase
(4) β-galactosidase

51) Golden rice is a promising transgenic crop. When released for cultivation, it will help in

(1) Alleviation of vitamin A deficiency

(2) Pest resistance
(3) Herbicide tolerance
(4) Producing a petrol-like fuel from rice

52) Which one of the following is a case of wrong matching ?

(1) Micropropagation-in-vitro production of plants in large numbers

(2) Callus-Unorganised mass of cells produced in tissue culture
(3) Somatic hybridization - Fusion of two diverse cells
(4) Vector DNA- Site for t-RNA synthesis

53) With regard to insulin choose correct options.

(a) C-peptide is not present in mature insulin.
(b) The insulin produced by rDNA technology has C-peptide.
(c) The pro-insulin has C-peptide.
(d) A-peptide and B-peptide of insulin are interconnected by disulphide bridges.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (b) and (d) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a) and (d) only

54) An example of gene therapy is

(1) Production of injectable Hepatitis–B vaccine

(2) Production of vaccines in food crops like potatoes which can be eaten
Introduction of gene for adenosine deaminase in persons suffering from severe combined
(3)
immuno-deficiency (SCID)
(4) Production of test tube babies by artificial insemination and implantation of fertilized eggs

55) Who called water of primitive sea as pre biotic soup :

(1) Haldane
(2) Oparin
(3) Fox
(4) Huxley

56) Match the following columns and find correct combination :

Column I Column II

a Darwin p Mutation theory

b De Vries q Protobionts

c Pasteur r Origin of species

d Fox s Special Creation

Swan-Necked Flask
t
Experiment
(1) a = r, b, = p, c = t, d = q
(2) a = p, b = q, c = r, d = s
(3) a = t, b = r, c = q, d = p
(4) a = r, b = t, c = p, d = q

57) The scientific name of Homo erectus erectus has been given to :

(1) Cromagnon man

(2) Neanderthal man
(3) Java ape man
(4) Peking man

58) Homology is based upon -

(1) Convergent evolution

(2) Divergent evolution
(3) Retrogressive evolution
(4) Both (1) and (2)

59) Industrial melanism is an example of :-

(1) Natural selection

(2) Mutation
(3) Racial difference
(4) Predation

60) In Hardy-Weinberg equation, the frequency of homozygous dominant individual is represented

by:-

(1) q2
(2) p2
(3) 2pq
(4) pq

61) Homo habilis refers to :

(1) Wandering species

(2) Ancient man
(3) Modern man
(4) Tool-maker

62) Which of the following enzyme is used in case of fungus to cause release of DNA along with
other macromolecules?

(1) Lysozyme
(2) Cellulase
(3) Chitinase
(4) Amylase

63) Cry-gene which synthesize crystal protein isolated from :-

(1) Bacillus thuriengensis

(2) Rhizobium
(3) Bacillus polymyxa
(4) Clostridium
64) The head of a mature sperm is mainly composed of :-

(1) elongated nucleus and acrosomal material.

(2) mitochondria, cytoplasm & nucleus.
(3) two centriole & the axial filament.
(4) all of the above.

65) Which of the following are diploid cells ?

(1) Secondary spermatocytes

(2) Spermatozoa and ova
(3) Spermatogonia, oogonia and primary spermatocytes
(4) Secondary oocytes

66) Follicular phase of menstrual cycle is also known as :-

(1) proliferative phase

(2) secretory phase
(3) luteal phase
(4) menstruation phase

67) Which of the following is responsible for division in fertilised egg :

(1) Centriole of ovum

(2) Proximal centriole of sperm
(3) Distal centriole of sperm
(4) Mitochondria of sperm

68) Which of the following is not true about parturition process ?

(1) Secretion of oxytocin hormone by posterior pituitary

(2) Narrowing of pelvic cavity by relaxin hormone
(3) Secretion of progesterone hormone is stopped
(4) General position of foetus is occipito-anterior

69) Match the following columns and select the correct option

Column-I Column-II

(a) Placenta (i) Androgens

Human Chorionic
(b) Zona pellucida (ii)
Gonadotropin(hCG)

Bulbo-urethral
(c) (iii) Layer of the ovum
glands

Lubrication of
(d) Leydig cells (iv)
the Penis
 (a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)

(3) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)

(4) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

70) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: The release of sperms into the seminiferous tubules is called spermiation.
Statement II: Spermiogenesis is the process of formation of sperms from spermatogonia.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct

71) Tubectomy is a method of sterilization in which :

(1) small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up.

(2) ovaries are removed surgically.
(3) small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up.
(4) uterus is removed surgically.

72) In case of a couple where the male is having a very low sperm count, which technique will be
suitable for fertilisation ?

(1) Gamete intracytoplasmic fallopian transfer

(2) Artificial Insemination
(3) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
(4) Intrauterine transfer

73)

Which of the following approaches does not give the defined action of contraceptive ?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) Lippe's loop is a type of contraceptive used as :

(1) Vault barrier

(2) Non–Medicated IUD
(3) Copper releasing IUD
(4) Cervical barrier

75)

Which is the particular type of drug that is obtained from the plant whose one flowering branch is
shown below:-

(1) Hallucinogen
(2) Depressant
(3) Stimulant
(4) Pain - killer

76)

Match each disease with its correct type of vaccine:

 (a) tuberculosis (i) harmless virus

(b) whooping cough (ii) inactivated toxin

(c) diphtheria (iii) killed bacteria

(d) polio (iv) harmless bacteria

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)

(2) (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(4) (ii) (i) (iii) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

77) Name the chronic respiratory disorder caused mainly by cigarette smoking :-

(1) Emphysema
(2) Asthma
(3) Respiratory acidosis
(4) Respiratory alkalosis

78)

Match the following sexually transmitted diseases (Column-I) with their causative agent (Column-II)
and select the correct option :

Column-I Column-II

(a) Gonorrhea (i) HIV

(b) Syphilis (ii) Neisseria

(c) Genital Warts (iii) Treponema

(d) AIDS (iv) Human papilloma-Virus

(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) iii iv i ii

(2) iv ii iii i

(3) iv iii ii i

(4) ii iii iv i
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

79) Humans have acquired immune system that produces antibodies to neutralize pathogens. Still
innate immune system is present at the time of birth because it

(1) is very specific and uses different macrophages.

(2) produces memory cells for mounting fast secondary response.
(3) has natural killer cells which can phagocytose and destroy microbes.
(4) provides passive immunity.

80) Match List - I with List -II.

List-I List-II

(a) Filariasis (i) Haemophilus influenzae

(b) Amoebiasis (ii) Trichophyton

(c) Pneumonia (iii) Wuchereria bancrofti

(d) Ringworm (iv) Entamoeba histolytica

Choose the correct answer from the options given below.
(a) (b) (c) (d)

(1) (iv) (i) (iii) (ii)

(2) (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)

(3) (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

(4) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

81) AIDS does not spread due to :-

(1) Mere touch

(2) Physical touch
(3) Body fluids
(4) Both (1) and (2)

82) Withdrawal syndrome is characterised by:-

(a) Anxiety (b) Shakiness
(c) Nausea (d) Sweating

(1) a, c only
(2) b, c only
(3) a, c, d only
(4) a, b, c and d

83) Antibodies in our body are complex –

(1) Lipoproteins
(2) Steroids
(3) Prostaglandins
(4) Glycoproteins

84) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : The edge of the infundibulum posses finger like projections called fimbriae, which
helps in collection of ovum after ovulation.
Statement-II : Uterus is supported by tendons attached to the pelvic wall.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both Statement-I and II both are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

85) Match the column-A with column-B.

Column A Column B
A Mons pubis i Fleshy folds of tissue
B Labia majora ii Paired folds of tissue
C Labia minora iii Finger-like structure
D Clitoris iv Cushion of fatty tissue
(1) A-iv, B-i, C-ii, D-iii
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-iii
(4) A-iii, B-iv, C-ii, D-i

86) In following structure, identify A & B and their respective functions.

Function of
A B
A B
(1) Trophoblast Inner cell mass Attachment with endometrium Differentiation as embryo
(2) Trophoblast Inner cell mass Differentiation as embryo Attachment with endometrium
(3) Mesoderm Inner cell mass Differentiation as embryo Attachment with endometrium
(4) Ectoderm Mesoderm Attachment with endometrium Differentiation as embryo
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

87) Given below are two statements:

Statement-I : hCG, hPL and relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy.
Statement-II : By end of about 12 weeks, the body of foetus is covered with hairs, eye-lids separate,
and eye lashes are formed.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement-I and II both are incorrect.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect and Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

88) IUDs are small objects made up of plastic or copper that are inserted in the uterine cavity.
Which of the following statements are correct about IUDs ?
(a) IUDs decrease phagocytosis of sperm within the uterus.
(b) The released copper ions suppress the sperm motility.
(c) IUDs do not make the cervix hostile to the sperm.
(d) IUDs suppress the fertilization capacity of sperm.
(e) The IUDs require surgical intervention for their insertion in the uterine cavity.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (d) and (e) only

(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (b) and (d) only
(4) (d) only

89) Match the following diseases with the causative organism and select the correct option.

Column - I Column - II

(a) Typhoid (i) Wuchereria

(b) Pneumonia (ii) Plasmodium

(c) Filariasis (iii) Salmonella

(d) Malaria (iv) Haemophilus

(1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iii)
(2) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iv)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii)
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)

90) In higher vertebrates, the immune system can distinguish self-cells and non-self. If this property
is lost due to genetic abnormality and it attacks self-cells, then it leads to :-

(1) Allergic response

(2) Graft rejection
(3) Auto-immune disease
(4) Active immunity
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 2 2 2 1 4 2 3 3 1 1 3 1 1 4 3 4 3 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 2 2 2 1 4 3 2 1 2 2 1 2 3 2 1 1 4 3 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 2 2 1 1 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 1 2 1 4 2 3 2 1 2 1 2 1 1 2 2 4 1 2 3 3
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 4 2 4 1 2 1 2 1 2 3 2 4 2 2 4 3 3 3 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 2 4 3 3 4

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 4 2 3 4 3 1 2 4 1 2 3 2 3 1 3 2 2 3 4
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 2 3 3 1 1 1 3 4 2 2 3 3 3 2 4 1 3 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 2 3 3 4 4 2 4 4 1 4 3 3 1 1 3 2 1 2
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 1 1 3 1 2 2 1 2 1 2 4 2 1 2 1 4 3 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 4 4 2 1 1 2 3 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1) f =
C become 4C.

2)

(1) Equation x = x0 sinωt

rms value
(2) Equation x = x0 sinωt cosωt

rms value
(3) x = x0 sinωt + x0 cosωt
=

rms value =

3)

i = 5 + 5 sin (100 ωt)

average value
< i > = 5 + 5 < sin (100 ωt) >
In one time period <sin(100ωt) > = 0
<i> = 5A

4)

X = XL – XC or XC – XL
because potential drop across L and C are in opposite phase

5) (1) λ1 infra-red
(2) λ2 radio-waves
(3) λ3 x-rays
(4) λ4 ultra-violet rays ⇒ λ2 > λ1 > λ4 > λ3

6)

E = B × C = 2 × 10–7 × 3 × 108 = 60 V/m

So, = 60 sin (0.5 × 103x – 1.5 × 10"t) V/m

7) let r = real expansion

r = x + 3αbrass
r = y + 3αtin
x + 3αbrass = y + 3αtin

αtin =

8) Internal energy is a state function.

9) (a) V , T = Constant , P↓
(b) P V
(c) P = Constant, V
(d) P , V = Constant

10) AB → constant P, T will be increasing with increasing V

BC → constant T, P will be decreasing with increasing V
CD → constant V, decreasing P, hence decreasing T
DA → constant T, decreasing V, increasing P
Also, BC is at a higher temperature than AD.

11)

ΔT = = = 40

12) FLOT

Q = 20 × 4.2 = 84J
W = 24 J

13)

14) ,
 ⇒

15)

g' = g – Rω2 cos2 λ

at poles λ = 90°
g' = g

16) In free falling condition water column rises upto full length i.e. 30 cm.

17)
stress = Y.strain
slope = Y = tan θ

YA = 3YB

18)

So,
Hence, R = vt =

for R to be maximum,

19) Buoyance force will be but force will be .

20)

21) The equation of SHM is given by

On comparing with standard equation

we get,

∴ ω2 = 16 ⇒ ω = 4 ⇒ T =

22) Slope of F-x curve gives K

Slope =
F = –Kx ⇒ K = 9

23) Equation for simple harmonic motion,

⇒ ⇒

24) Left two spring are in series hence

keq = k
Now keff of this left equivalent and right two spring will be
keq = k + k + 2k = 4k

25) λ = 0.4 cm
v=λ·f
⇒ v = 1 m/s

26) There is no atmosphere around the moon. Since, sound wave need a medium for
propagation therefore, sound produced by the bomb explosion will never reach the earth.

27) If number of loops in string is n, then,

28)
29) m =

–2 =
u = –75 cm

30)

0
31) m.p = m

m0 = –5

32)

Here So ∴

33)

dsinθ = nλ

sinθ =
n can be 0,1,2,3 because sinθ cannot be more than 1 so total 7 maxima are formed (central
maxima, 2 first maxima 2 second maxima, 2 third maxima)

34) Width of central bright fringe.

= 4 × 10–3 m = 4 mm.

35)

IA cos2 30 = IB cos2 60

36)

I ∝ a2

So,
37) Saturation current is proportional to intensity while stopping potential increases with
increase in frequency. Hence A & B same intensity. B & C same frequency. Therefore, the
correct option is (1)

38) mv2 = E –ϕ

= ev
v = 106 m/s

39)

Work function depends on nature of metal it does not change with intensity of light incident on
it.

40) Q = (B.E.)f – (B.E.)i

41)
∴ α is more stable

42)
Nh >> Ne
So, p–type semiconductor

43)

Theory Based

44)

In +ve half cycle of input signal, D is FB it will conduct & we get output.
In –ve half cycle, D → RB → O/C, no current will flow
So, it will be H.W.R.

45)
∵ 20 Ω resistor is short circuited by FB ideal diode.
CHEMISTRY

46) Number of molecuels in 15 L H2 = × NA = 0.669 NA

Number of molecuels in 5 L N2 = × NA = 0.223 NA

Number of molecuels in 0.5 g H2 = × NA = 0.25 NA

Number of molecuels in 10 g O2 = × NA = 0.312 NA

47) Molecular mass = 2 × 73 = 146

Molecular formula = C6H10O4

Molecular mass = 12 × 6 + 10 × 1 + 16 × 4 = 146

48)

CO(g) + O2(g) → CO2(g)

t=0 30L 10L 0
After reaction (30–20)L 0 20L

49)

= 656 × 10–9 m = 656 nm

50) ΔE = (E3–E1)

= 0.1936 × 10–10 erg/atom

51) For 4 f, n = 4, l = 3, m = –3, –2, –1, 0, +1, +2, +3

s= or

52) Kp = Kc(RT)Δn g

Since, Δng = 0, hence, Kp = Kc, = 0.1

53) ΔG°= –2.303 RT log10 Kp,

= –2.303 × 8.314×298 1og 6.1×10–5
= +24048 J/mol = +24 kJ/mol

54) The reaction is:

PCl5(g) ⇌ PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)
n=2

Percentage dissociation = 0.68 × 100 = 68%

55) pH + pOH = 14
pOH = 14 – pH = 14 – 3 = 11
[OH¯] = 10–pOH = 10–11 M

56)

57)
Ksp = [Sb3+]2 [S2–]3 = [2S]2 [3S]3 = 108 S5
Ksp = 108 × (10–5)5 = 108 × 10–25

58)
ΔS = ΣSProducts – ΣSReaction

= 50 – (30 +60) = –40 JK–1 mol–1

At equilibrium, ΔG = ΔH – TΔS = 0
i.e., ΔH = TΔS

59) [Pt (C2H4)Cl3]–

x + 0 – 3 = –1
x = +2

60)

5H2O2 + 2ClO2 + 2OH– → 2Cl– + 5O2 + 6H2O

61) –NO2 is –M group, which stabilise benzyl carbanion.

62)

63)

64)

66)
both-CH3 are anti to each other.

67)
70)

71)

72)

75)

76)

Electronic configuration of element X with atomic number 71 is [Xe]6s24f145d1.

The last electron will enter in 5d orbital.

77) Down the group size of atom increases, the electron density gets diffused over a large
region and hence the ability to donate the electron pair decreases. Therefore, the basic nature
decreases.

78) According to Lothar Meyer curve.

79)

The chemical reactivity in terms of oxidizing property is directly related to the

electronegativity and the ability of an element to accept electrons (act as an oxidizing agent).
But due to half-filled stable configuration of N will have least oxidizing property.

80) Down the group electronegativity decreases.

81) (n–1)s2p6d1–10ns1 or 2
82) In general, the bond dissociation energy decreases as the bond length increases, but the
bond dissociation energy of F2 is less than that of Cl2. It is due to greater inter electronic
repulsions between the lone pair of electrons on the two bonded fluorine atoms. Hence, the
order of bond dissociation energy is as:
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2

83)

In capped octahedral, the hybridization is also sp3d3.

So orbitals involved are s + px + py + pz + dxy + dz + dx –y .
2 2 2

84)

Molecular orbital electronic configuration are

has one unpaired electron in orbital

has both oxygen in state, therefore, no unpaired electron is present.

has no unpaired electron

has bonding, hence no unpaired electron.

85)

Greater the size of anion, greater is its polarizability. Hence, higher is the covalent character.
And lower is the melting point.
According to fajan's rule calcium iodide will be having highest covalent character because of
large size of iodide ion.
so, melting point of calcium iodide will be lowest in all given options.

86)

* Molecular orbital should have maximum overlap

* Symmetry about the molecular axis should be similar

87) Unlike NH3, PH3 molecules are not associated through hydrogen bonding in liquid state.
That is why the boiling point of PH3 is lower than NH3.

88) A π bonding molecular orbital has higher electron density above and below inter nuclear
 axis.

89) Sodium superoxide is not stable.

90)

Covalent or network solid have very high melting point and they are insulator in their solid and
molten form.
If a substance is an insulator in both solid and molten phases, then it cannot be ionic or
metallic solid.
∴ It should be covalent network solid.

BIOLOGY

92)

NCERT XII Pg. # 183

93) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 181-182

94) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 3-5

95) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 18

96) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 12

97) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 15

98) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 20

99) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 5-15

100) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 20-23

104) Assertion is true, but reason is false; length is defined by base pairs, not amino acids.

110) xhy xx
Man Woman
Then all sons will be normal.

111) Mendel used true-breeding lines to ensure the traits were consistent across generations,
which formed the foundation for his laws of inheritance.

112) Mendel’s experiments showed that traits do not blend but exhibit dominance, where one
trait masks the other in the F1 generation.

114) Other statements are incorrect as the code is non-overlapping, codons have three
nucleotides, and UAA is a stop codon

115) This mutation leads to the production of abnormally shaped red blood cells under low
oxygen tension.

116)

In nature, animals, plants and microbes do not and cannot live in isolation. For any species,
the minimal requirement is one more species on which it can feed.

119)

Death rate =

121)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 233,243,246

124)

NCERT-XII, Page # 208, 209

129)

a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii)

130)

NCERT Pg. No. 233

132)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 245

134)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 111

135)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 118-119

136)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 124-125

137)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 111

138)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 170

139)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 171

140)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 170

141)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 179

142)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 178

143)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 181-182

144)
 NCERT-XII, Pg. # 182

145)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 111

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

A. As the earth cooled down, the water vapour fell as torrential rain, to fill all the depressions and
form primitive oceans. Meanwhile, molecules continued to react with each other and formed
various simple and complex organic compounds.
B. Now, the water of oceans became a rich mixture of macromolecules/complex organic

compounds. Haldane called it Hot dilute sop/ pre-biotic soup.

146)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 111,118,119

Solution/Explanation:
- **a = Darwin** → **r = Origin of Species**
Charles Darwin is most famously associated with the book *"On the Origin of Species"*, where
he proposed the theory of natural selection as the mechanism of evolution.
- **b = De Vries** → **p = Mutation Theory**
Hugo de Vries is known for his work on the **mutation theory** of evolution, where he
proposed that mutations (sudden, random genetic changes) contribute to the variability upon
which natural selection acts.
- **c = Pasteur** → **t = Swan-Necked Flask Experiment**
Louis Pasteur is famous for his **swan-necked flask experiment**, which provided evidence
against the theory of spontaneous generation and supported the idea of biogenesis, showing
that life only comes from pre-existing life.
- **d = Fox** → **q = Protobiosis**
Stanley Miller and Sidney Fox worked on the origins of life, and Fox is associated with
**protobiosis**, the study of the earliest forms of life, especially the idea of how simple
molecules might form the basis of life.
### Therefore, the correct combination is: **a = r, b = p, c = t, d = q**.

147)

**3. Java ape man**

### Explanation : **Homo erectus erectus** is the scientific name given to the **Java ape
man**, whose fossils were discovered on the island of Java, Indonesia, by Eugene Dubois in
1891. This hominid is an extinct subspecies of **Homo erectus** and is believed to have lived
approximately **1.5 to 1.8 million years ago**.
- The Java ape man exhibited traits such as a prominent brow ridge, a low sloping forehead,
and a brain capacity larger than earlier hominids like **Australopithecus**.
- It is an important link in the study of human evolution, demonstrating the spread of early
humans from Africa to Asia.

148)
NCERT-XII, Pg. # 114-115

149)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 116

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Industrial melanism is an example of Natural selection.

150)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 121

151)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 124

**4. Tool-maker**
### Explanation : **Homo habilis** is an extinct species of early humans that lived
approximately 2.4 to 1.4 million years ago. The name "habilis" means "handy" or "skillful," and
they are referred to as **tool-makers** because they were among the first to create and use
simple stone tools. This ability marked an important step in human evolution, signifying the
development of intelligence and problem-solving skills.

152)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 111

153)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 179

154)

SOLUTION-The head of a mature sperm is primarily composed of:

A. Nucleus: The nucleus contains the genetic material (DNA) that will combine with the
egg's DNA during fertilization.

B. Acrosome: The acrosome is a cap-like structure that covers the front of the sperm's
head. It contains enzymes, such as hyaluronidase, which help the sperm penetrate the
egg's protective layers during fertilization.

155)

Problem Statement: Asking About:

 Diploid cells are-

Solution/Explanation:

Spermatogonia / Oogonia / Primary Spermatocyte

156)

The follicular phase of the menstrual cycle is also known as the proliferative phase.
Here's a breakdown of why:

A. Follicular phase: This is the first phase of the menstrual cycle, where follicles in the ovary
begin to mature.
B. Proliferative phase: During this phase, the lining of the uterus (endometrium) thickens in
preparation for a potential pregnancy. This thickening is due to the proliferation (growth) of
cells in the endometrium.

Therefore, the follicular phase and the proliferative phase are essentially the same phase of the
menstrual cycle, just marlord de described from different perspectives.

157) SOLUTION-The proximal centriole of the sperm is responsible for initiating the division
process in the fertilized egg. After fertilization, the sperm's proximal centriole plays a crucial
role in organizing the microtubules needed for the first cell division (mitosis) of the zygote.

160) SOLUTION /EXPLANATION:

NCERT-based

A. Statement I (Correct): The release of sperm from the seminiferous tubules is called
spermiation. This is when the mature sperm are released from the Sertoli cells into the
seminiferous tubules, which is an important step in sperm development.
B. Statement II (Incorrect): Spermiogenesis is the process by which spermatids (immature
sperm) mature into sperm. It is not the process of the formation of sperm from
spermatogonia. The formation of sperm starts from spermatogonia, which undergoes mitotic
and meiotic divisions to form spermatocytes, then spermatids, and finally sperm through
spermiogenesis.

Thus, the correct answer is Option 2: Statement I is correct but Statement II is

incorrect.

161) Tubectomy - A small part of the fallopian tube is removed or tied up through a small
incision in the abdomen or through vagina.

162) Artificial insemination - If male is unable to inseminate the semen into vagina or if
there is very low sperm count in the semen then semen is artificially introduced either into
vagina or into the uterus of the female (intrauterine insemination) IUI.

163) A) Barrier method - In these methods ovum (egg) and sperms are prevented from
physically meeting with the help of barriers.
B) Intrauterine devices -
 IUDs are contraceptive devices that are inserted by doctors orexpert nurses in the uterus
through vagina.

A. IUDs are an ideal contraceptive for the females who who want to delay pregnancy or space
between children.
B. It is one of most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.

C) hormonal contraception- These are most widely used and most effective methods (almost
100% effective). In this method oral pills, injections and implants are used.
D) Vasectomy - A small part of the vas deferens is removed or tied up through a small incision on
the scrotum.

170) Question is Asking About:

Match the column

Solution/Explanation:
Filariasis – W, Bencrofti
Amoebiasis – E. histolytic
Pneumonia – H. in Fluen Z al
Ring worm – Trichophyton

172) Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Solution:
Withdrawal syndrome occurs when a person who is dependent on a substance, such as alcohol
or drugs, stops or reduces its use. Symptoms include:

A. Anxiety
B. Shakiness
C. Nausea
D. Sweating

173)

Antibodies in our body are complex glycoproteins.

177)

Solution/Explanation:
Statement-l: hCG, hPL, and relaxin are produced in women only during pregnancy.
This statement is correct.
■ hCG (human chorionic gonadotropin), hPL (humanı placental lactogen). and relaxin are
indeed produced during pregnancy and play crucial roles in maintaining pregnancy and
preparing the body for childbirth.
Statement-II: By the end of about 12 weeks, the body of the fetus is covered with hairs, eyelids
separate, and eyelashes are formed.
This statement is incorrect.
■ While lanugo (fine hair) does begin to appear around 16 weeks of pregnancy, by 12
weeks, the fetus has not yet developed fully formed eyelashes and the eyelids have not
completely separated. Eyelid separation and more defined features, including lashes, typically
occur after 16 weeks.
 So, Option 2 is correct because Statement-I is accurate, but Statement-Il is not correct in
terms of the timing and development milestones.

Conclusion:
Correct Answer: Option 2: Statement-l is correct but Statement-ll is incorrect.
Hence, option (2) is correct.

178) Intra Uterine Devices (IUDS) :

A. IUDs are contraceptive devices that are inserted by doctors or expert nurses in the uterus
through vagina.
B. IUDs are an ideal contraceptive for the females who want to delay pregnancy or space
between children.
C. It is one of most widely accepted methods of contraception in India.IUDs, promote the
phagocytic cells of uterus to phagocytosis of sperms within the uterus.