05-01-2025

9610ZMD801433240012 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) The density (ρ) versus pressure (P) of a given mass of an ideal gas is shown at two temperatures
T1 and T2

Then relation between T1 and T2 may be :-

(1) T1 > T2
(2) T2 > T1
(3) T1 = T2
(4) All the three are possible

2) If transmission power of a surface is , reflective power is , what is absorptive power?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Assertion (A) : - It is hotter over the top of a fire than at the same distance on the sides.
Reason (R) : - Air surrounding the fire conducts more heat upwards.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.

4) If the amount of heat given to a system is 35 J and the amount work done on the system is 15 J,
then the change in internal energy of the system is : -
(1) –50 J
(2) 20 J
(3) 30 J
(4) 50 J

5) We consider a thermodynamic system. If represents the increase in its internal energy and W
the work done by the system, which of the following statements is true : -

(1) in an adiabatic process

(2) in an isothermal process
(3) in an isothermal process
(4) in an adiabatic process

6) The reflected ray is completely polarized when a ray is incident at a medium of refractive index
1.73, then the value of angle of refraction ?

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 37°

7) A beam of while light is incident of glass-air interface from glass to air such that green light just
suffers total internal reflection. The colors of the light which will come out to air are :-

(1) violet, indigo, blue

(2) All colors except green
(3) Yellow, orange, red
(4) White light

8) The magnifying power of a simple microscope is 6. The focal length of its lens in metres will be, if
least distance of distinct vision is 25 cm.

(1) 0.05
(2) 0.06
(3) 0.25
(4) 0.12

9) Figure given below shows a beam of light converging at point P. When a concave lens of focal
length 16 cm is introduced in the path of the beam at a place O shown by dotted line such that OP
becomes the axis of the lens, the beam converges at a distance x from the lens. The value x will be
equal to

(1) 12 cm
(2) 24 cm
(3) 36 cm
(4) 48 cm

10) A mark at the bottom of a liquid appears to rise by 0.1 m. The depth of the liquid is 1 m. The
refractive index of the liquid is:

(1) 1.33

(2)

(3)

(4) 1.5

11) The image of point P when viewed from top of the slabs will be :-

(1) 2.0 cm above P

(2) 1.5 cm above P
(3) 2.0 cm below P
(4) 1 cm above P

12) A beam of light of wavelength 600 nm from a distant source falls on a single slit 1 mm wide and
the resulting diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 2 m away. The distance between the first
dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe is : -

(1) 1.2 cm
(2) 1.2 mm
(3) 2.4 cm
(4) 2.4 mm

13) A beam of unpolarised light of intensity I0 is passed through a polaroid A and then through
another polaroid B which is oriented so that its principal plane makes an angle of 45° relative to that
of A. The intensity of the emergent light is : -

(1) I0
(2) I0/2
(3) I0/4
(4) I0/8

14) Assertion : To observe diffraction of light, the size of obstacle/aperture should be of the order of
10–7 m.
Reason : 10–7 m is the order of wavelength of visible light.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

15) The colours seen in the reflected white light from a thin oil film or a soap bubble are due to : -

(1) diffraction
(2) interference
(3) polarisation
(4) dispersion

16) Work-function is least for :-

(1) caesium
(2) aluminium
(3) silver
(4) platinum

17) Assertion:- Kinetic energy of photo electrons emitted by a photosensitive surface depends upon
the intensity of incident photon.
Reason :- The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is possible with frequency of incident
photon below the threshold frequency.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) The curves (1), (2), (3) and (4) show the variation between the applied potential difference (V)
and the photoelectric current (i), at two different intensities of light (I1 > I2) from same source. In
which figure is the correct variation shown :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Assertion :- Various beta particles emitted in a decay of nucleus sample disintegrating by β-
decay have different energies.
Reason :- Energy released in a β-decay is shared by daughter nucleus, β-particle and antineutrino.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

20) Circuit given below is that of-

(1) AND gate

(2) OR gate
(3) NAND gate
(4) NOR gate

21) Which of the following energy band diagrams shows the N-type semiconductor :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

22) Photodiode, zenerdiode and solar cell is used in :-

(1) Forward Bias, Reverse Bias, Forward Bias

(2) Reverse Bias, Reverse Bias, UnBias
(3) Reverse Bias, UnBias, Reverse Bias
(4) Reverse Bias, Reverse Bias, Reverse Bias

23) In the given network the value of current I is :-

(1) 1.96 mA
(2) 2.14 mA
(3) 0
(4) None of the above

24) GaAs with band gap 1.5 eV as an LED can emit:-

(1) Blue light
(2) Infrared ray
(3) UV-rays
(4) X-ray

25) 'Output is LOW if and only if all the inputs are HIGH' Indicate the logic gate for which the given
statement in ture :–

(1) AND
(2) OR
(3) NOR
(4) NAND

26) At 300 K there are 6 × 1023 atoms per cubic meter in a pure silicon crystal. If one atom in 107
pure atoms generate an electron - hole pair and mobilities of electrons and holes at this temperature

are 0.32 and 0.08 respectively then answer the following questions.
Total number of charge carriers is :

(1) 6 × 1016 m–3

(2) 6 × 1016 cm–3
(3) 12 × 1016 m–3
(4) 12 × 1016 cm–3

27) A body of mass 5 g is executing SHM about a point O with amplitude 100 cm. If its maximum
velocity is 100 cm/sec. Its velocity will be 50 cm/sec at a distance (in cm) : -

(1) 5
(2)
(3)
(4)

28) The total energy of a vibrating particle in SHM is E. If its amplitude and time period are doubled,
its total energy will be : -

(1) 16 E
(2) 8 E
(3) 4 E
(4) E

29) A transverse wave travels along the Z-axis. The particles of the medium must move : -

(1) along the Z-axis

(2) along the X-axis
(3) along the Y-axis
(4) in the XY-plane
30) The period of oscillation of a mass m suspended from a spring is 2 seconds. If along with this
mass, another mass of 2 kg is also suspended, the period of oscillation increases by one second. The
mass m will be :-

(1) 2 kg
(2) 1.6 kg
(3) 8 kg
(4) 2.6 kg

31)

The energy of a simple harmonic oscillator in the state of rest is 3 joules. If its average kinetic
energy is 8 joules, its total energy will be :-

(1) 16 J
(2) 19 J
(3) 10 J
(4) 11 J

32) The ratio of the velocity of sound in hydrogen (γ = 7/5) to that in helium (γ = 5/3) at the same
temperature is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

33) Two tuning forks have frequency 256 Hz (A) and 262 Hz (B). A produces some beats per second
with unknown tuning fork, same unknown tuning fork produce double beats per second from B
tuning fork then the frequency of unknown tuning fork is (in Hz) :-

(1) 262
(2) 260
(3) 250
(4) 300

34) A simple pendulum is taken to 64 km above the earth’s surface. Its new time period will

(1) increases by 1%
(2) decreases by 1%
(3) increases by 2%
(4) decreases by 2%

35) Two waves of intensity I1 and I2 propogate in a medium in same direction. Then sum of maximum
and minimum intensity is :-

(1)

(2) 2(I1 + I2)

(3) I1 + I2

(4)

SECTION-B

1) A thermodynamic system is taken through the cycle PQRSP process. The net work done by the

system is:

(1) 20 J
(2) –20 J
(3) 400 J
(4) –374 J

2) If 2 moles of diatomic gas and 1 mole of monoatomic gas are mixed, then the ratio of specific
heats at constant pressure to constant volume will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) A cyclic process ABCD is shown in the figure P-V diagram. Which of the following curves

represent the same process : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Two thin lenses, when in contact, produce a combination of power +10D. When they are 0.25m
apart, the power is reduced to + 6D. The power of the lenses in dioptres, are

(1) 1 and 9
(2) 2 and 8
(3) 4 and 6
(4) 5 each

5) Variation of angle of deviation (δ) versus angle of incident (i) for a prism is given in the figure.

The value of refractive index of prism material.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Magnification produced by astronomical telescope for normal adjustment is 10 and length of

telescope is 1.1 m. The magnification when the image is formed at least distance of distinct vision (D
= 25 cm) is -

(1) 14
(2) 6
(3) 16
(4) 18

7) Where should an object of height 5cm be placed In front of a concave mirror of focal length 10cm
so that a real Image of height 1cm is obtained :-

(1) 48 cm
(2) 60 cm
(3) 15 cm
(4) 30 cm

8) Assertion : - It is not possible to have interference between the waves produced by two violins.
Reason : - For interference of two waves the phase difference between the waves must remain
constant.

(1) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) If both assertion and reason are false.

9) Work-function for a metal will change :-

(1) if it is heated
(2) if it is cooled
(3) if it is coated
(4) All of these

10) In an experiment similar to Young’s experiment, interference is observed using waves associated
with electrons. The electrons are being produced in an electron gun. In order to increase the fringe
width-

(1) Electron gun voltage be increased

(2) Electron gun voltage be decreased
(3) The slits be moved away
(4) The screen be moved closer to interfering slits

11) A waveform shown when applied to the following circuit will produce which of the following
output waveform ? Assuming ideal diode configuration and R1 = R2.
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) For given circuit potential difference VAB is-

(1) 10 V
(2) 20 V
(3) 30 V
(4) None

13)

The motion of a particle varies with time according to the relation y = a (sin ωt + cos ωt)

(1) the motion is oscillatory but not S.H.M

(2) the motion is S.H.M. with amplitude a
(3) the motion is S.H.M. with amplitude a
(4) the motion is S.H.M. with amplitude 2a

14)

A stationary wave

y = 0.4 sin x cos 100 πt

is produced in rod fixed at both end. The minimum possible length of the rod is given by :-

(1) 10 m
(2) m
(3) 20m
(4) 28m

15) A simple pendulum is executing simple harmonic motion with a time period T. If the length of the
pendulum is increased by 21%, the percentage increase in the time period of the pendulum of
increased length is

(1) 10%
(2) 21%
(3) 30%
(4) 50%

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) In which of the following stability of carbanion is maximum.

(1)
(2)
(3)

(4)

2) Among the following the correct order of C—C bond length is :

(1) C2H4 > C6H6 > C2H2

(2) C6H6 > C2H4 > C2H2
(3) C2H4 > C2H2 > C6H6
(4) C2H2 > C6H6 > C2H4

3) Total No. of electron withdrawing group :

—COOH, —CONHCH3, —NHCOCH3, —COCl, —CN, —O—CH=CH2, —OCOCH3

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 7

4) The shape of is :
(1) Linear
(2) Trigonal planar
(3) Tetrahedral
(4) V-shaped

5) In which of the following pairs A is more stable than B ?

A B

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Which order is correct regarding stability of intermediates.

(1) I = II = III
(2) I < II < III
(3) III = II > I
(4) I > II > III

7) Select the most stable intermediate.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) In which of the following molecules π-electron density in ring is minimum.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

9) Which of the following compound is non aromatic.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Select the least acidic compound.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Which of the following is weakest acid ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) Which of the following compound is having highest pH value :

(1) Phenol
(2) Ethyl alcohol
(3) Formic acid
(4) Benzoic acid

13) Consider the basicity of the following aromatic amines :

(I) aniline (II) p-nitroaniline (III) p-methoxyaniline (IV) p-methylaniline
The correct order of decreasing basicity is :

(1) III > IV > I > II

(2) III > IV > II > I
(3) I > II > III > IV
(4) IV > III > II > I

14) Which one of the following is least basic in character ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Which one of the following molecules has all the effect, namely inductive, mesomeric and
hyperconjugation ?

(1) CH3Cl
(2) CH3–CH=CH2

(3)

(4) CH2=CH–CH=CH2

16) Hyperconjugation is best described as :

(1) Delocalisation of π-electrons into a nearby empty orbital.

(2) Delocalisation of σ-electrons into a nearby empty orbital.
The effect of alkyl groups donating a small amount of electron density inductively into a
(3)
carbocation.
(4) The migration of a carbon or hydrogen from one carbocation to another.

17) Arrange following compounds in decreasing order of electrophile substitution.

(1) i > ii > iii > iv

(2) iii > iv > ii > i
(3) i > iv > ii > iii
(4) i > ii > iv > iii

18) Which of the following pairs of structures does not represent the phenomenon of resonance ?
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) The bond between carbon atom (1) and carbon atom (2) in compound

Involves the hybridisation as

(1) sp2 and sp2

(2) sp3 and sp
(3) sp and sp2
(4) sp and sp

20) The hybridisation of carbon atoms in C—C single bond H—C≡C—CH=CH2 is

(1) sp3–sp3
(2) sp2–sp3
(3) sp–sp3
(4) sp–sp2

21) Which of the following acids has the smallest dissociation constant ?

(1) CH3CHFCOOH
(2) FCH2CH2COOH
(3) BrCH2CH2COOH
(4) CH3CHBrCOOH

22) The correct acidity order of the following :

(1) (III) > (IV) > (II) > (I)

(2) (IV) > (III) > (I) > (II)
(3) (III) > (II) > (I) > (IV)
(4) (II) > (III) > (IV) > (I)

23) major product [P] of the reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24)
Major product [A] of the above Reaction :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

25) Which of the following has the lowest boiling point

(1) CH3(CH2)4CH3

(2)
(3)

(4)

26) , Product B is:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) Antimarkovnikoff’s addition of HBr is not observed in-

(1) Propene
(2) But-2-ene
(3) Butene
(4) Pent-2-ene

28) Which of the following reagents will be able to distinguish between 1-butyne and 2-butyne ?

(1) NaNH2
(2) HCl
(3) O2
(4) Br2

29) Consider the following reaction and identify the product [P].
3-Methyl butan-2-ol

(1) CH3—CH=CH—CH3

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Identify compound Y in the following reaction

CH3—C ≡ CH + Na → X Y + NaCl

(1) CH3–C ≡ C–CH2–CH2–CH3

(2) CH3–CH2–C ≡ C–CH2–CH3
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3
(4) CH3–CH=CH–CH=CH2

31) Assertion [A] :- Methane can be obtained by Wurtz Reaction.

Reason [R] :- Wurtz reaction leads to the formation of symmetrical alkane having an even number
of carbon atom.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

32) In the following reaction ‘X’ is

(1) CH3(CH2)4CH2Cl
(2) Cl–CH2–(CH2)4–CH2–Cl

(3)

(4)
33) The major product of the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

34) 2-hexene Products

The two products formed in above reaction are-

(1) Butanoic acid and acetic acid

(2) Butanal and acetic acid
(3) Butanal and acetaldehyde
(4) Butanoic acid and acetaldehyde

35) X is :

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

SECTION-B

1) Which have maximum stable enol form :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) Identify the product B in the reaction sequence :

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

3) Consider the following chemical reaction :-

Product C is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Select correct order of HOH following compounds

(1) I > II > III > IV
(2) IV > II > III > I`
(3) III > I > II > IV
(4) IV > III > II > I

5) Among the following, the least stable resonance structure is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Match List-I with List-II

List-II
List-I (Reaction)
(Reagents)

A CH3–CH=CH2 → CH3–CHBr–CH3 P HBr

B CH3–CH=CH2 → CH3–CH2–CH2Br Q Br2/CCl4

C CH3–CH=CH2 → BrCH2–CH=CH2 R HBr/Peroxide

D CH3–CH=CH2 → CH3–CHBr–CH2Br S NBS

(1) A(P), B(Q), C(R), D(S)
(2) A(P), B(R), C(Q), D(S)
(3) A(Q), B(S), C(R), D(P)
(4) A(P), B(R), C(S), D(Q)

7) Match the column

Column-I Column-II
(A) RCOONa R–R (P) Wurtz-Fitting Reaction
(B) R–CH2–COONa R–CH3 (Q) Kolbe’s Electrolysis

(C) R–X + R–X R–R (R) Decarboxylation

(D) R–X + Ph–X (S) Wurtz Reaction

(1) A(Q), B(R), C(S), D(P)

(2) A(R), B(Q), C(P), D(S)
(3) A(P), B(S), C(R), D(Q)
(4) A(Q), B(R), C(P), D(S)

8) Assertion [A] :-Iodination of alkane is made in presence of HIO3

Reason [R] :-Iodination is very slow and reversible process.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

9) Rate of dehydration when given compound are treated with con. H2SO4

(1) P > Q > R >S

(2) Q > P > R > S
(3) R > Q > P > S
(4) R > Q > S > P

10) The major product obtained in the photo catalysed bromination of 2-methylbutane is :

(1) 1-bromo-2-methylbutane
(2) 1-bromo-3-methylbutane
(3) 2-bromo-3-methylbutane
(4) 2-bromo-2-methylbutane

11)
Product “A” in the above chemical reaction is

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

12) In the given reaction identify A and B

CH3—C≡C—CH3 + H2 ”B”

(1) A : n-Pentane B : Cis-2-butene

(2) A : 2-Pentyne B : Cis-2-butene
(3) A : n-Pentane B : trans-2-butene
(4) A : 2-Pentyne B : trans-2-butene

13) The major product obtained from the following reaction is :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

14) The correct order of reactivity in electrophile substitution reaction of the following compounds
is:

(1) B > C > A > D

(2) D > C > B > A
(3) A > B > C > D
(4) B > A > C > D

15) Benzene on nitration gives nitrobenzene in presence of HNO3 and H2SO4 mixture, where :

(1) Both H2SO4 and HNO3 act as a bases

(2) HNO3 acts as an acid and H2SO4 acts as a base
(3) Both H2SO4 and HNO3 act as an acids
(4) HNO3 acts as a base and H2SO4 acts as an acid

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) Statement-I : Amazon rain forest is estimated to produce 20% of the total oxygen in the earth's
atmosphere.
Statement-II : Wildlife Safari are an example of In situ conservation.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but statement-II is incorrect
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but statement-II is correct
(4) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect

2) Which one the following is correct about habitat loss and fragmentation ?

(1) This is the most important cause driving animals and plants to extinction.
(2) The most dramatic examples of habitat loss comes from temperate rain forests.
(3) Forest cover more than 14% of the earth's surface.
(4) Less than 25% of drugs currently sold in the market world wide are derived from plants.
3) If an animal or plant is endangered or threatned and needs urgent measures to save it's extinction
which type of conservation would be useful?

(1) Ex –situ conservation

(2) In – situ conservation
(3) Making Biosphere Reserve
(4) Making sanctuary

4) In India we find mangoes with different flavours, colours, fibre content, sugar content and even
shelf-life. This large variation is on account of :-

(1) Genetic diversity

(2) Species diversity
(3) Ecological diversity
(4) Biomes diversity

5) We have a moral duty to care for biodiversity, well being and pass on our biological legacy in good
order to future generation, this biodiversity conservation argument is considered in :-

(1) Narrowly utilitarian

(2) Ethical argument
(3) Broadly utilitarian
(4) All of the above

6) Stratification is more clear in :

(1) Deciduous forest

(2) Tropical rain forest
(3) Temperate forest
(4) Tropical savana

7) If a number of herbivores feeds on one large tree. The herbivores are attacked by ectoparasites,
the pyramid of energy shall be:-

(1) Spindle shaped

(2) Upright
(3) Inverted
(4) Irregular

8) Bamboo plant is growing in a far forest then what will be the trophic level of it ?

(1) First trophic level

(2) Second trophic level
(3) Third trophic level
(4) Fourth trophic level

9)
Net primary productivity is :

(1) NPP - R
(2) GPP - NPP
(3) GPP - R
(4) NPP + R

10) If decomposers are removed what will happen to the ecosystem ?

(1) Energy cycle is stopped

(2) Mineral cycle is stopped
(3) Consumers cannot absorb solar energy
(4) Productivity increased

11) Total amount of energy fixed in an ecosystem (in producers) in unit time is called :-

(1) Net primary productivity

(2) Gross secondary productivity
(3) Net secondary productivity
(4) Gross primary productivity

12)

Fill in the blank.

The _________ productivity results in the accumulation of plant biomass, which serves as the food of
herbivores.
(1) Gross primary
(2) Net primary
(3) Secondary
(4) Net community

13) The annual net primary productivity of the whole biosphere is :-

(1) 190 billion tons

(2) 160 billion tons
(3) 170 billion tons
(4) 170 million tons

14) Primary productivity depends on all, except :

(1) Plant species inhabiting a particular area

(2) Variety of environmental factors
(3) Availability of nutrients and photosynthetic capacity of plants
(4) Animal diversity of the area

15) Pyramid of numbers show number of :-

(1) Individuals in a community
(2) Species in an area
(3) Individuals in a trophic level
(4) Individuals in a biosphere

16) Assertion : The number of trophic levels in the grazing food chain is restricted.
Reason : Only 10 percent of the energy is transfered to the lower trophic level from the higher
tropic level.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) Assertion :- Humus serves as reservoir of nutrients.

Reason :- Humus is colloidal in nature.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

18) Assertion :- Warm and moist environment favour decomposition.

Reason :- Anaerobiosis inhibit decomposition.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

19) The given ecological pyramid can't be related to :-

(1) Pyramid of biomass in tree ecosystem

(2) Pyramid of biomass in a grassland
(3) Pyramid of number in a grassland
(4) Pyramid of biomass in aquatic ecosystem

20) An inverted pyramid of number and an inverted pyramid of biomass are respectively seen in :-

(1) Grassland & Tree ecosystem

(2) Sea & Tree ecosystem
(3) Tree & Sea ecosystem
(4) Sea & Grassland ecosystem

21) How many characteristics in the list given below are functional aspects of ecosystem?
Productivity, Decomposition, Dominance, Energy flow, stratification

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) One

22)
Above graph represents pyramid of energy. If the energy input in the form of ISR (Incident Solar
Radiation) is 1,400,000 J, then how much energy will be present at secondary consumer level :-

(1) 14
(2) 140
(3) 1400
(4) 14000

23) Plant → Rabbit → Wolf → Lion

In above food chain if plant produce 1000 Kcal energy during photosynthesis than how much
amount of energy available for wolf in given food chain ?

(1) 100 Kcal

(2) 1 Kcal
(3) 10 Kcal
(4) 0.1 Kcal

24) Statement-I : Energy flow in an ecosystem is bidirectional.

Statement-II : Species composition and stratification are the two main structural features of an
ecosystem.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.

25) Identify the correct match from the column-I and II :-

Column-I Column-II
 i. Producer a. Herbivore

Biotic component of
ii. Primary consumer b.
Ecosystem

All producers
iii. c. Plants
and consumers

iv. Micro consumer d. Bacteria

(1) i - a, ii - b, iii - c, iv - d
(2) i - d, ii - c, iii - a, iv - b
(3) i - c, ii - a, iii - b, iv - d
(4) i - d, ii - b, iii - c, iv - a

26) Statement-I : All herbivores are primary consumer.

Statement-II : Carnivores depend directly on producers for their food.

(1) Statement-I and II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only statement-I is correct.
(4) Only statement-II is correct

27) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : Shorter food chain provides less energy.
Statement II : Ecological pyramids are also called Eltonian pyramids.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Both Statement I & Statement II are incorrect.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

28) Statement 1 : Producers are called transformer in nature.

Statement 2 : They transform solar energy into chemical energy by a process called productivity.

(1) Both statement are true

(2) Both statement are false
(3) Statement 1 is true and statement 2 is false
(4) Statement 1 is false and statement 2 is true

29) Given below are two statements :

Statement-I : Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the consumption to
heterotrophs (herbiviores and decomposers).
Statement-II : Water soluble inorganic nutrients go down into the soil horizon by the process of
leaching and get precipitated as unavailable salts.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :
(1) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement- II is correct
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect
(4) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect

30) Read the following statement (a) to (d) :

(a) An ecosystem can be visualised as a functional unit of nature.
(b) Ecosystem varies greatly in size from a small pond to a large forest or a sea
(c) Crop field and an aquarium may also be considered as natural ecosystem
(d) Many ecologist regard the entire biosphere as a global ecosystem
How many of the above statement are correct.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) All are correct

31) Read the following statements carefully and choose the correct option.
Statement-I : Sun is the only source of energy for all ecosystems on earth without any exception.
Statement-II : Plants capture only 2-10 percent of the PAR.

(1) Both the Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both the Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

32) Which of the following food chain is correct

(1) Grass → Wolf → Deer → Cow

(2) Bacteria → Grass → Rabbit → Wolf
(3) Grass → Insect → Bird → Snake
(4) Grass → Snake → Insect → Deer

33) Which type of ecological pyramid would be obtained with the following data :-
Secondary consumer — 50 J
Primary consumer — 500 J
Primary producer — 5000 J
Tertiary consumer — 5 J

(1) Upright pyramid of energy

(2) Inverted pyramid of energy
(3) Upright pyramid of number
(4) This pyramid is not possible

34) An ecosystem which can be easily damaged but can recover after some time if damaging effect
stops will having.
(1) High stability and low resilience
(2) Low stability and low resilience
(3) High stability and high resilience
(4) Low stability and high resilience

35) Identify the labels A, B , C in the given diagram of species diversity of vertebrates :-

(1) A-Mammals, B-Reptiles, C-Amphibians

(2) A-Reptiles, B-Amphibians, C-Birds
(3) A-Mammals, B-Birds, C-Reptiles
(4) A-Reptiles, B-Birds, C-Amphibians

SECTION-B

1)

Match the column I and II :-

Column-I Column-II

(a) Global animal diversity (%) (i) 2.4

(b) Global plant diversity (%) (ii) 8.1

(c) Species diversity in India (%) (iii) 22

(d) World's land area in India (%) (iv) 70

(1) (a)-iii, (b)-iv, (c)-i, (d)-ii
(2) (a)-iv, (b)-ii, (c)-iii, (d)-i
(3) (a)-iv, (b)-iii, (c)-ii, (d)-i
(4) (a)-iii, (b)-ii, (c)-i, (d)-iv

2) Statement-I : When a species becomes extinct, the plant and animal species associated with it in
an obligatory way also become extinct.
Statement-II : In ex-situ conservation, threatened animals and plants are taken out from their
natural habitat and placed in special conditions where they can be protected.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
(4) Statement-I & Statement-II both are incorrect.

3) Read the following statements carefully and mark the correct option given below :
Statement-I : The historic convention on biological diversity held in Rio de Janeiro in 1992.
Statement-II : The world summit on sustainable development held in 2002 in Johannesburg, South
Africa.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I & Statement-II both are incorrect.
(3) Only Statement-I is correct.
(4) Only Statement-II is correct.

4) Agenda–21 was concerned with :-

(1) Climate change

(2) Ozone depletion
(3) Biodiversity conservation
(4) SPM

5) Which of the following is an example of alien species invading a new ecosystem resulting in
biodiversity losses ?

(1) Introduction of Nile Perch into lake victoria in east Africa.

(2) Introduction of Water Hyacinth into India.
(3) Introduction of African Catfish into Indian rivers.
(4) All of the above

6) Among the animals which of the following taxonomic group is most species-rich ?

(1) Mammals
(2) Amphibians
(3) Insects
(4) Fishes

7) In the nature Cuscuta and Raflessia is :-

(1) Decomposer
(2) Primary consumer
(3) Secondary consumer
(4) Primary producer

8) Tree —→ insects —→small bird —→ large birds

In this food chain energy flow will be :-

(1) Decreasing at successive trophic level.

(2) Increasing at successive trophic level.
(3) First decreasing then increases.
(4) First increases then decreases.

9) Insectivorous plants grow in soil which is deficient in :-

(1) N2
(2) Ca
(3) Mg
(4) H2O

10)

Which of the following statement(s) are correct:-

(a) The boundaries of ecosystems do not overlap over each other
(b) A single drop of distilled water is also an example of ecosystem
(c) Grassland ecosystems are self regulating and self sustaining

(d) Cropland ecosystems are permanent ecosystems

(1) a, b and c
(2) b and c
(3) b, c and d
(4) c only

11) How many terms in the list given below are related to producers of an ecosystem ?
Transducer, Converter, Reducers, Saprotroph, Osmotroph, Phagotrophs, Decomposers, Holozoic

(1) Six
(2) Two
(3) Four
(4) Three

12)
Above pyramid reperesent.

(1) Pyramid of grassland on the basis of biomass.

(2) Pyramid of grassland on the basis of number.
(3) Pyramid of aquatic ecosystem on basis of biomass.
(4) Pyramid of energy.

13) "They need a constant supply of energy to synthesise the molecules they require, to counteract
the universal tendency towards increasing disorderliness". Above lines indicates:-

(1) First law of Thermodynamics in food chain.

(2) Second law of Thermodynamics in food chain
(3) Surface volume ratio
(4) Internal homeostasis of organism

14) Example of Secondary consumer are :-

(1) Man, Lion, Phytoplanktons

(2) Snake, Liverfluke, Wolf
(3) Zooplanktons, Grass hopper, Cow
(4) Phytoplanktons, Grass, trees

15) Assertion :- Detritus food chain may be connected with grazing food chain at some levels.
Reason :- Some of the organisms of DFC are prey to the GFC animals and some of the organisms
are of Omnivorous nature.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(3) Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Tropical areas are having greatest biodiversity because :-

(1) They had a long undisturbed evolutionary time

(2) They are less seasonal
(3) More solar energy is available in tropics
(4) All of these

2) How many of the following are broadly utilitarian reasons for Conserving biodiversity ?
(a) Firewood
(b) Fibres
(c) Pollination
(d) Product of medicinal importance

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

3) Loss of biodiversity in a region may lead to

(1) Decline in plant production

(2) Lowered resistance to environmental perturbations such as drought
Increase variability in certain ecosystem processes such as productivity, water use, pest and
(3)
disease cycles.
(4) All of these

4) In general species diversity increases :

(1) From equator to poles

(2) From poles to equator
(3) From low altitude to high altitude
(4) None of these

5) How much of global biodiversity is present in India?

(1) 2.4%
(2) 8.1%
(3) 22%
(4) 12%

6) Assertion : Biologists are not sure about how many prokaryotic species are present on earth.
Reason : Conventional taxonomic methods are not suitable for identification of microbial species.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

7) Assertion (A) :- Habitat loss and fragmentation is the most important cause driving animals and
plants to extinction.
Reason (R) :- The illegal introduction of the African catfish clarias gariepinus for aquaculture
purpose is posing a threat to the indegenous catfishes.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is not correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

8) Identify the likely A, B, C, D in the following life cycle of Plasmodium :

Options :-

A B C D
 Salivary
(1) Gametocyte Liver Sporozoites
gland
Salivary
(2) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland
Salivary
(3) Sporozoites Liver Gametocyte
gland
Salivary
(4) Sporozoites Liver Gametocytes
gland
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

9) Which of the following sets includes the bacterial diseases only?

(1) Cholera, typhoid, common cold

(2) Tetanus, tuberculosis, malaria
(3) Malaria, mumps, poliomyelitis
(4) Diphtheria, plague, dysentery

10) Column-I lists the components of body defence and column-II lists the corresponding
descriptions. Match the two columns and choose the correct option :

Column-I
Column-II
(components of
(Description)
body defence)
(A) Active natural immunity (I) Injection of gamma globulins
(B) First line of defence (II) Interferons
Direct contact with the pathogens
(C) Passive natural immunity (III)
that have entered inside
(D) Second line of defence (IV) Surface barriers
Antibodies transferred through the
(V)
placenta
(1) A-IV, B-III, C-V, D-II
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-V
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-V, D-II
(4) A-V, B-III, C-II, D-I

11) Each antibody for an antigen is a _______ molecule consisting of ________ polypeptide chains :-

(1) I shaped, 4
(2) Y shaped, 4
(3) Y shaped, 2
(4) I shaped, 2

12) Match the following

Column-I Column-II
 A Natural active immunity I Vaccination

B Natural passive immunity II Anti-rabies serum

C Artificial active immunity III Smallpox infection

D Artificial passive immunity IV Colostrum

The correct match is :-
(1) A–IV, B–III, C–I, D–II
(2) A–III, B–I, C–IV, D–II
(3) A–III, B–IV, C–I, D–II
(4) A–III, B–IV, C–II, D–I

13) Match List - I with List - II :-

Column - I Column - II

(a) Ascariasis (i) Plasmodium vivax

Haemophilus
(b) Pneumonia (ii)
influenzae

(c) Ringworm (iii) Epidermophyton

(d) Malaria (iv) Ascaris

Choose the correct answer from the options given below :-
(1) (a) - (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii)
(2) (a) - (ii); (b) - (iv); (c) - (i); (d) - (iii)
(3) (a) - (iv); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (i); (b) - (ii); (c) - (iii); (d) - (iv)

14) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): Cancer patients are given substances called biological response modifiers such as ∝-
interferon which activates their immune system and helps in destroying the tumor.
Reason (R): Tumor cells have been shown to avoid detection and destruction by immune system.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are incorrect.
15) See the following diagram. Responses
shown after Ist Antigen exposure (A) & IInd antigen exposure (B) are respectively?

(1) Secondary & Primary

(2) Anamnestic & Primary
(3) Primary & Secondary
(4) Primary & Primary

16) Study the diagram given and choose the incorrect statement:

(1) A: retrovirus replicates outside the cell

(2) B: viral DNA is produced by the host Reverse transcriptase
(3) C: viral DNA incorporates into the host genome
(4) D: New viral RNA is produced by the infected cell

17) Which statement is false ?

(1) Benign tumors normally remain confined to their original location.
(2) Contact inhibition is not shown by normal cells.
(3) Metastasis is the most feared property of malignant tumours.
(4) Antibodies against cancer-specific antigens are also used for detection of certain cancers.

18) The disorder in which immune system works against self cells is :-

(1) Innate immune system

(2) Autoimmune disorder
(3) Specific immunity
(4) None of the above

19) Assertion : High fever and chills recurr every three to four days in Malaria patient.
Reason : A toxic substance, haemozoin, is released by the rupture of liver cells.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is the not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

20) Match the following diseases with their symptoms

Column-I Column-II

a Common cold i Fever, chills, cough & headache

Constipation, abdominal pain and cramps,

b Typhoid ii
stool with excess mucous and blood clots

Nasal congestion & discharge, sore throat,

c Pneumonia iii
hoarseness, cough, headache, tiredness

Stomach pain, constipation headache, loss

d Amoebiasis iv
of appetite
(1) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(2) a - ii, b - i, c - iv, d - iii
(3) a - iii, b - iv, c - i, d - ii
(4) a - iv, b - iii, c - ii, d - i

21) Find the incorrect match

(1) Epidermophyton → Ringworm

(2) Wuchereria → Filariasis
(3) Flatworm → Ascariasis
(4) Protozoan → Amoebic dysentery

22) Arrange the stages in the life cycle of Plasmodium in sequence:-

(a) Rupture of RBCs.
(b) Parasites initially multiply inside the liver cells.
(c) Sporozoites are stored in Anopheles salivary glands.
(d) Release of haemozoin.
(e) Parasite enters the human body as sporozoites through mosquito bite.
(f) Attack the red blood cells.
(g) High fever and chills.

(1) (e) → (f) → (b) → (d) → (a) → (g) → (c)

(2) (c) → (e) → (b) → (f) → (a) → (d) → (g)
(3) (c) → (e) → (f) → (b) → (a) → (d) → (g)
(4) (c) → (b) → (f) → (g) → (a) → (d) → (e)

23) Statement-I : Lymphoid tissue is located within the lining of the major tracts called MALT.
Statement-II : It constitutes about 70 percent of the lymphoid tissue in human body.

(1) Both statement-I and statement-II are correct.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is correct and statement-II is incorrect.
(4) Statement-I is incorrect and statement-II is correct.

24) Transformation of normal cells into cancerous neoplastic cells may be induced by physical,
chemical or biological agents. These agents are called _________.

(1) α - interferon
(2) Metastasis
(3) Carcinogens
(4) Leukemias

25) Match column-I with column-II

Column-I Column-II

a Spleen i Solid structures which trap antigens

Lines respiratory, digestive and

b Lymph nodes ii
urogenital tract

Large bean shaped organ, reservoir of

c MALT iii
erythrocytes

Sites of interaction of lymphocytes

d Secondary lymphoid organs iv
with the antigen.
(1) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(2) a - i, b - iii, c - ii, d - iv
(3) a - ii, b - iv, c - iii, d - i
(4) a - iii, b - i, c - ii, d - iv

26) Assertion : Allergy is the exaggerated response of immune system to certain antigens present in
the environment.
Reason : Mast cells release chemicals like histamine and serotonin.
(1) Both assertion and reason are false.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(4) Assertion is true but reason is false.

27) Find the incorrect match

(1) Antibodies - Humoral immune response

(2) Colostrum - IgA
(3) T-lymphocytes - CMI
(4) Allergy - IgG

28) Match the following :

Column-I Column-II

a X-rays i Biological carcinogen

b UV rays ii Ionising radiation

c Tobacco smoke iii Chemical carcinogen

d Oncogenic virus iv Non-ionising radiation

(1) a - iv, b - ii, c - i, d - iii
(2) a - ii, b - iv, c - iii, d - i
(3) a - i, b - ii, c - iii, d - iv
(4) a - iii, b - iv, c - ii, d - i

29) A person (10 yrs of age) without thymus would not be able to -

(1) Receive a tissue transplant

(2) Reject a tissue transplant
(3) Develop an inflammatory response
(4) Produce antibodies

30) Metastasis is connected with :-

(1) Benign tumour

(2) Malignant tumour
(3) Both benign and malignant tumour
(4) Crown gall tumour

31) Which of the following option match the drug with the impact they have on body function :
 X Y Z

(1) Cardiovascular activity Depressant CNS

(2) CNS Cardiovascular activity Depressant

(3) Depressant CNS Cardiovascular activity

(4) CNS Depressant Cardiovascular activity

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

32) Which of the following organisation is mainly related to AIDS?

(1) NACO
(2) DOTS
(3) RCH
(4) WHO

33) Interferons are synthesized in response to -

(1) Mycoplasma
(2) Bacteria
(3) Virus
(4) Fungi

34) Aggregates of lymphoid tissue present in the distal portion of small intestine are known as :

(1) Villi
(2) Peyer's patches
(3) Rugae
(4) Appendix

35) Intestinal perforation is the characteristic symptom of -

(1) Pneumonia
(2) Plague
(3) Typhoid
(4) Amoebiasis

SECTION-B

1)
How many statements are correct in relation to the given energy flow diagram :-
(a) A and B are herbivores.
(b) C and D are herbivores.
(c) G and H are top carnivores.
(d) A and B are producers.

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

2) Identify the likely organisms (A), (B), (C) and (D) in the food web shown below :-

Option:-

A B C D

(1) Snake Dog Deer Lion

(2) Snake Grasshopper Rabbit Deer

(3) Rabbit Grasshopper Snake Cat

(4) Deer Crow Pigeon Tortoise

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Which of the following is an incorrect match ?

P Q R
 Breaking detritus
(1) into small Fragmentation Earthworm
particles

Water
soluble organic nutrients Precipitation
(2) Leaching
go down to the horizone of as unavailable salts
soil

Degradation of
Enzymes released
(3) detritus into Catabolism
by bacteria and fungus
inorganic matter

Accumulation of Highly resistant

(4) Humification
dark coloured substance to microbial activity
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) Entamoeba histolytica is a parasite in the :

(1) Small intestine of man

(2) Large intestine of man
(3) Stomach of man
(4) Salivary glands of man

5) Select the pair of disease that are not transmitted by mosquitoes.

(1) Malaria and Chikungunya

(2) Ascariasis and Amoebiasis
(3) Ascariasis and Elephantiasis
(4) Dengue and Elephantiasis

6) The person showing in the picture are affected by certain disease. Identify the incorrect about
these disease :-

a - caused by Wuchereria bancrofti and W.malayi, b – caused by Epidermophyton and

(1)
Microsporum
(2) a – Elephantiasis, b – ringworm
(3) a – caused by nematode, b – caused by fungi
(4) a is spread by soil, b is by mosquito

7) They can enter our body by various means, multiply and interfere with normal vital activities
resulting in morphological and functional damage :-

(1) Allergen
(2) Toxins
(3) Antigen
(4) Pathogen

8) Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option

Column I Column II
(A) Lymph nodes (i) Production of all blood cells
(B) Spleen (ii) Small solid structures
(C) Bone marrow (iii) Reservoir of erythrocytes
(D) MALT (iv) 50 percent of the lymphoid tissue
(1) (A) - (i), (B) - (ii), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv)
(2) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iii), (C) - (i), (D) - (iv)
(3) (A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (i), (D) - (iii)
(4) (A) - (i), (B) - (iii), (C) - (iv), (D) - (ii)

9) Artificial passive immunity for immediate relief from tetanus symptoms will require the use of -

(1) Tetanus toxoids

(2) DPT Vaccine
(3) Anti-tetanus serum
(4) Epitopes of tetanus bacteria

10)

Which type of lymphoid organs are lymph nodes and spleen ?

(1) Primary
(2) Secondary
(3) Tertiary
(4) Both (1) and (2)

11) How many of the below are incorrect about given diagram ?
 (a) Mediator of CMI
(b) T-cells themselves do not secrete but help B-cell produce them
(c) H2L2 molecule
(d) Glycoprotein molecule

(1) one
(2) two
(3) three
(4) four

12) Choose the wrong statement regarding AIDS :-

(1) AIDS is an immunodeficiency disease

(2) It is caused by retrovirus
(3) HIV selectively infects and kill cytotoxic T-lymphocytes
(4) Viral RNA genome is converted in to DNA copy by reverse transcriptase

13)

Mark incorrect about healthy person :

(a) More efficient
(b) High productivity
(c) Longevity of people
(d) Increases infant and maternal mortality

(1) (a) and (b)

(2) only (d)
(3) (c) and (d)
(4) All are correct

14) MRI uses strong magnetic field and ____ radiations to detect pathological and physiological
changes.

(1) Ionizing
(2) Non-ionizing
(3) LASER
(4) X-ray

15)
Mark the correctly matched options :-

(A) Leaves of Cannabis sativa –

(B) Opium poppy –

(C) Flowering branch of Datura –

(1) A and B
(2) B and C
(3) A, B and C
(4) Only C
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 2 2 3 4 1 1 3 1 4 3 4 4 3 1 2 1 4 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 2 1 2 4 3 3 4 4 2 2 3 3 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 2 3 1 2 1 1 2 1 4 2 4 1 3 3 1

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 4 2 3 2 4 4 1 4 2 4 2 2 1 1 3 2 3 4 3 4
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 3 3 1 2 1 4 1 4 3 2 1 3

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 2 1 1 1 1 4 1 2 3 4 3 4 1 4 4

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 1 1 1 2 2 2 1 3 2 4 2 3 4 3 3 1 2 4 3
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 1 2 1 1 3 3 3 2 2 3 3 3 1 4 3

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 1 1 3 4 3 2 1 1 4 2 3 2 2 4

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 4 2 2 1 2 3 4 3 2 3 3 1 3 1 2 2 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 3 2 3 3 4 3 4 2 2 2 4 1 3 2 3

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 2 2 2 2 4 4 2 3 2 1 3 2 2 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

According to ideal gas equation PV = nRT

PV = or or

Here, represent the slope of graph. Hence T2 > T1

2) t + r + a = 1

a=1– =

3) Heat is carried away from a fire sideways mainly by radiations. Above the fire, heat is
carried by both radiation and by convection of air. The later process carries much more heat.

4) According to first law of thermodynamics

ΔQ = ΔU + ΔW
ΔU = ΔQ – ΔW
Here ΔQ = 35 J, ΔW = – 15J
∴ ΔQ = 35 J – (–15J) = 50J
Note : ΔW is negative because work is done on the system.

5) According to the first law of thermodynamics

In adiabatic process , hence

6) From Brewsters law tanθp = µ = 1.73 =

θp = 60°
r = 90 – θP = 30°

7) We know that sin θC = and µ ∝

⇒ sin θC ∝ λ for more λ, θC is more

8) m = 1 + ⇒ 6 = 1 +
f = 5 cm = 0.05 m

9)
 v = 48 cm

10)

Shift = 0.1 m, dAC = 1 m

shift = dAC

11) Normal shift

x=
x = 1 cm above P

12) Distance between the first dark fringes on either side of the central bright fringe,

= 24 × 10–4 m = 2.4 mm.

13) The intensities at different stages are as shown.

14) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
Diffraction is prominent when the size of the obstacle or the aperture is comparable to the
wavelength of light used.

15) The colours of a thin oil film are due to interference.

16)

The work function of platinum is the highest

(ϕ0 =5.65eV) while it is the lowest (ϕ0 =2.14 eV) for caesium.

17)

KE of photon depends upon frequency

&
For electron ejection
18) I1 > I2 (given) ⇒ i1 > i2 (∴ i I)
and stopping potential does not depend upon intensity. So its value will be same (V0).

19)

Theory based

20)

= Output of NAND gate.

21)

In N-type semiconductor impurity energy level lies just below the conduction bond.

22)

conceptual

23)

24) ∵ λ = = 8266.66 Å = Infrared region

25)

Characteristics of NAND gate.

26) Total no. of charge carries

= ne + nh = 2ni

=
= 12 × 1016 m–3

27) vmax = Aω ⇒ 100 = 100 × ω ⇒ ω = 1

v2 = ω2 (A2 – x2)
(50)2 = ω2A2 – ω2x2 ⇒ (50)2 = (100)2 – 1 × x2
x2 = 104 – 25 × 102 = 102 × 75 ⇒ x = cm

28)

=E

29) Particle must move perpendicular to the wave motion. So xy-plane.

30)

⇒
⇒9m=4m+8
⇒ m = 1.6 kg

31)

KE at mean position = 2 × Average kinetic energy

KE at mean position = 2 × 8 = 16 J
Total energy = 16 + 3 = 19 J

32)

V= ⇒v∝

33)

Let frequency of A, n < 256

⇒ (256 – n) 2 = 262 – n
⇒ n = 512 – 262 = 250 Hz

34)

T ∝ (R + h)

or
35)

Imax + Imin =
= 2(I1 + I2)

36) W = Area of rectangle

= –100 × 103 × 200 × 10–6
= –20 J
–ve sign is taken because the cycle is anticlockwise.

37) (for monoatomic gas) and (for diatomic gas)

from formula

38) AB is isobaric process, BC is isothermal process, CD is isometric process and DA is

isothermal process.
These process are correctly represented by graph (1).

39) Case I When lenses are in contact,

⇒ ....(i)
Case II When lenses are d = 0.25 m apart

⇒ ....(ii)
From Eq. (i),

or

⇒ ....(iii)
∴ P1P2 = 16
Hence, from Eq. (iii), only option (2) satisfies this relation.
Hence, P1 and P2 is 2 and 8.

40) From graph ρmin = 30°; i = 45° & e = 45°

As ρmin = i + e – A
⇒ A = 45 + 45 – 30 = 60°
 0
41) ; f + fe = 1.1 m = 110 cm
10 fe + fe = 110 cm
fe = 10 cm
f0 = 10fe = 100cm

MP=

42)

10 + u = – 50
u = – 60 cm

43) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the
assertion. The waves produced by the two violins are not coherent.

44) The work function (ϕ0) depends on the properties of the metal and the nature of its surface.
The work function depends on presence of surface impurities and it also depends on
temperature of the surface.

45) β =

β ∝

46)

For positive cycle Diode R.B.

For negative cycle diode F.B.

[as voltage will be dropped at R1 & R2 both]

47) pn-junction in forward biased

 ≡≡

48) By graph

Anet = a

49) λ =
λ = 40 cm

minimum length of rod =

50)

⇒
⇒ T' = 1.1 T

= 10%

CHEMISTRY

51) Maximum –I power.

52)

53) Groups which have —M are electron withdrawing group.

54)

55) is more stable than because of resonance stabilisation.

56)

Stability of carbocation ∝ Resonance, ⊕ charge is stable at Less E.N. centre.

57)

Stability of carbocation ∝ +H effect.

58)

–NO2 is Electron withdrawing group.

59)

60)

Acidic strength ∝
61)

Acidic strength ∝

62)

↑ Acidic strength ∝

63)

Basic strength ∝

64)

65) ∵ All three effect are present.

66)

Hyperconjugation is delocalisation of σ-electron into a nearby empty orbital.

67)

Electrophilic substitution ∝ Electron density on ring.

68)

In Resonance atom should not removed.

69)

70)

71)

Acidic strength ∝ Ka ∝ ∝

72)

Acidic strength ∝

73)

74)

75) Boiling point ∝ ∝ surface area.

76)

77) Symmetrical in nature.

79)
80)

81) Wurtz reaction

R–X + 2Na + X–R R–R + 2NaX

82) n-alkanes on heating in this presence of anhydrous AlCl3 and hydrogen chloride gas
isomerise to branched chain alkanes. The major product has one methyl side chain.

83)

84)
It is oxidative ozonolysis.
85)

86)

87)

88)

89)

Heat of Hydrogenation ∝

90) , same charge repulsion, destablize the structure.

93)

CH4 + I2 ⇌ CH3–I + HI
HI is strong reducing agent, therefore, iodination is made in presence of HIO3.

94) Rate of dehydration ∝ stability of Carbocation.

95)

The order of substitution in different alkanes is:

3° > 2° > 1°
Thus, the bromination of 2-methylbutane mainly gives 2-bromo-2-methylbutane.

96)

97) A : 2 – Pentyne B : trans-2-butene

98)

99) B > A > C > D

–CH3 will show +I and +H

–Cl will show –I and +M effect but inductive effect will be more influential.
 –NO2 will show –I and –M effect.

100) Reagent for nitration of benzene

H2SO4 + HNO3 ⇌
(Acid) (Base)

BIOLOGY-I

101) NCERT-XII, Page # 222,225

102)

NCERT-XII, Page # 222

103)

NCERT-XII, Page # 225

104)

NCERT-XII, Pg.# 217

105)

NCERT-XII, Page # 224

106)

NCERT-XII, Page # 206

107)

NCERT-XII, Page # 213

108)
NCERT-XII, Page # 212

109)

NCERT-XII, Page # 207

110)

NCERT-XII, Page # 206

111)

NCERT-XII, Page # 207

112)

NCERT-XII, Page # 207

113)

NCERT-XII, Page # 207

114)

NCERT-XII, Page # 207

115)

NCERT-XII, Page # 212

116) NCERT-XII, Page # 211

117) NCERT-XII, Page # 208

118) NCERT-XII, Page # 208

119)

NCERT-XII, Page # 213

120)

NCERT-XII, Page # 212

Tree ecosystem the pyramid of number is inverted because birds (herbivores) depend on the
tree (producer) and parasites (consumer) depend on birds, therefore with increase in the
number of trophic levels the number of the organisms increases.

121) NCERT-XII, Page # 206

122) NCERT-XII, Page # 213

123)

NCERT-XII, Page # 211

124) NCERT-XII, Page # 206, 214 (Summary)

125)

NCERT XII Pg. # 209, 210

126)

NCERT-XII, Page # 209

127)

NCERT-XII, Page # 211

First of all, pyramid was formed by Charis Elton, so called as Eltonian pyramids.

128)

NCERT-XII, Page # 207

129)

NCERT-XII, Page # 207

130) NCERT-XII, Page # 205

(a, b, d → correct)

131) NCERT-XII, Page # 209

132)

NCERT-XII, Page # 209

133) NCERT-XII, Page # 213

134) NCERT-XII, Page # 220

135) NCERT-XII, Page # 218

136)

NCERT XII, Page # 218-219

137) NCERT Pg. # 223, 225

138) NCERT XII Page No. # 225

139) Hint : Earth summit also known as Agenda-21 is concerned with biodiversity
conservation.

140)

NCERT-XII, Page # 223

141)

NCERT-XII, Page # 218

142)

NCERT-XII, Page # 209

143)

NCERT-XII, Page # 211

144) Hint : Insectivorous plants grow in nitrogen deficient soil.

145)

NCERT-XII, Page # 205

146)

Producers are also called transducers or converters.

 147) NCERT-XII, Page # 212

148)

NCERT-XII, Pg # 209

149)

NCERT-XII, Page # 209

150)

NCERT-XII, Page # 210

BIOLOGY-II

151) NCERT-XII, Page # 219-220

152) NCERT-XII, Page # 223-224

153) NCERT-XII, Page # 222

154) NCERT-XII, Page # 219

155) NCERT-XII, Page # 219

156) NCERT-XII, Page # 218

157) NCERT-XII, Page # 222,223

158)

NCERT Page # 132

159)

NCERT Page # 131

161)

NCERT Pg. 135

162) NCERT XI Pg.#136

163) NCERT - XII Pg. No. # 131 - 133

164) NCERT PAGE : 142

165)

NCERT Pg. 135

166)

NCERT Pg. 139

167)

NCERT Pg. 141

168)

NCERT Pg. 137

169)

NCERT Pg. 135

170)

NCERT Pg. 130-132

171)

NCERT Pg. 132-133

172)

NCERT Pg. 131-132

173)

NCERT Pg. 138

174)
NCERT Pg. 141

175)

NCERT Pg. 138

176)

NCERT Pg. 137

177)

NCERT Pg. 137

178)

NCERT Pg. # 141

179)

NCERT Pg. # 135-136

180)

NCERT Pg. # 141

181)

NCERT Pg. # 142-143

182)

NCERT Pg. # 140

183)

NCERT Pg. # 135

184)

NCERT Pg. # 138

185)

NCERT Pg. # 130

186)

NCERT-XII, Page # 209

187)

NCERT-XII, Page # 209

188) NCERT-XII, Page # 207,208

189)

NCERT Page # 132

190)

NCERT Pg. # 132,133

191)

NCERT Pg. # 133

192)

NCERT Pg. 130

193) NCERT PAGE : 138

194)

NCERT Pg. 136

196)

Mediator of AMI. NCERT Pg. No. 135

197)

NCERT Pg. 140

198)

NCERT Pg. 130

199)

NCERT Pg. 141

200)

NCERT Pg. 142-143