16-02-2025

1015CMD303361250005 MD

PHYSICS

1) If energy(E), velocity(V) and time(T) are considered as fundamental quantities then dimension of
mass will be :-

0
(1) [E V–2 T ]
0
(2) [E2 V–2 T ]
(3) [E V2 T]
(4) [E–1 V2 T1]

2) Write down the number of significant figure in 0.04320 N/m2.

(1) 5
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 4

3) Percentage error in measuring the radius and mass of a solid sphere are 1% and 2% respectively.

The error in measurement of moment of inertia (I) about its diameter is :-

(1) 9%
(2) 6%
(3) 5%
(4) 4%

4) Velocity of a body is given by , then dimensional formula of b is :- (t = time)

0 0
(1) [M L T ]
0 0
(2) [M L T ]
0 0
(3) [M L T]
(4) [M L T]

5) A vernier calliper has 10 division on the vernier scale which coincide with 9 division on the main
scale. The least count of the instrument is 0.1 mm. The value of one small division on main scale is :

(1) 0.5 mm
(2) 2 mm
(3) 1 mm
(4) 0.1 mm
6) An experiment measure quantities a, b, c and P is calculated from P = . If percentage error
in a, b, c are 1%, 3%, 2% respectively, the maximum percentage error in P will be :-

(1) 8%
(2) 11%
(3) 6%
(4) 13%

7) What are the dimensions of A/B in the relation , where F is the force, x is the
distance and t is time?

(1) L1/2
(2) L3/2
(3) L–3/2
(4) L–1/2

8) Given that the displacement of an oscillating particle is given by y = A sin[Bx + Ct + D]. The
dimensional formula for C is :-

0 0
(1) [M L–1T ]
0 0 0
(2) [M L T ]
0
(3) [M L–1T–1]
0 0
(4) [M L T–1]

9) The resistance is where V = (100 ± 5) volt and i = (10 ± 0.2) ampere. What is the
percentage error in R ?

(1) 5 %
(2) 7 %
(3) 5.2 %

(4)
%

10) A screw gauge gives the following reading when used to measure the diameter of a wire. Main
scale reading 0 mm, circular scale reading 52 divisions. Given that 1 mm on the main scale
corresponds to 100 divisions on the circular scale. The diameter of the wire from the above data is :

(1) 0.026 cm
(2) 0.005 cm
(3) 0.52 cm
(4) 0.052 cm

11)
Dimension formula of power is [Mx Ly Tz] then x + y + z is equal to :

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 0

12) Charges Q, 2Q and 4Q are uniformly distributed in three dielectric solid spheres 1, 2 and 3 of
radii R/2, R and 2R respectively, as shown in figure. If magnitudes of the electric potentials at point
P at a distance R from the centre of spheres 1, 2 and 3 are V1, V2 and V3 respectively, then

(1) V1 > V2 > V3

(2) V3 > V1 > V2
(3) V2 > V1 > V3
(4) V3 > V2 > V1

13) In a region shown consider an electric field where (A = 9 × 105 Nm2/C). The potential
difference between point x1 and x2 will be :-

(1) 2 × 105 V
(2) 9 × 105 V
(3) 105 V
(4) 1.11 × 105 V

14) Two concentric shells of radii R and 2R have given charges q and –2q as shown in figure. In a
region r < R

(a) E = 0 (b) (c) V = 0 (d) Choose the correct

answer
(1) a and c are true
(2) c is true
(3) a,c,d are true
(4) a,b,c,d are true

15) In figure, a central particle of charge –q is surrounded by two circular rings of charged particles
of radii r and R, with R > r. What is electrostatic force on the central particle due to the other

particles ?

(1)

(2) Zero

(3)

(4)

16) In moving from A to B along an electric field line, the electric field does 6.4 × 10–19 J of work on
an electron. If ϕ1, ϕ2 are equipotential surfaces, then the potential difference (VC – VA) is :-

(1) –4V
(2) 4V
(3) zero
(4) 64V

17) The electric field is V/m. The potential at the point (0, 5 m, 5 m) is ___ if the potential
at coordinate origin is taken as zero.

(1) – 25 V
(2) – 15 V
(3) 0
(4) 15 V
18) The potenial of the electric field produced by a point charge at any point (x, y, z) is given by; V=
3x2 + 5, where x, y, z are in metre and V is in volt. The intensity of the electric field at (–2, 1, 0) is :-

(1) +17 Vm–1

(2) –17 Vm–1
(3) +12 Vm–1
(4) –12 Vm–1

19) Two spherical conductors B and C having equal radii and carrying equal charges in them repel
each other with a force F when kept apart at some distance. A third spherical conductor having
same radius as that of B but uncharged is brought in contact with B, then brought in contact with C
and finally removed away from both. The new force of repulsion between B and C is

(1) F/4
(2) 3F/4
(3) F/8
(4) 3F/8

20) Two spheres of radius a and b respectively are charged and joined by a wire. The ratio of electric
field of the spheres is

(1) a/b
(2) b/a
(3) a2/b2
(4) b2/a2

21) An infinite number of electric charges each equal to 5 nano-coulomb (magnitude) are placed
along X-axis at x = 1 cm, x = 2 cm,
x = 4 cm, x = 8 cm .......... and so on. In the setup if the consecutive charges have opposite sign, then

the electric field in Newton/Coulomb at x = 0 is :-

(1) 12 × 104
(2) 24 × 104
(3) 36 × 104
(4) 48 × 104

22) Three non conducting uniformly charged sheets are placed as shown in figure. Find the electric

field at point P.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

23) A thin plastic rod is bent into a circular ring of radius R. It is uniformly charged with charge
density λ. The magnitude of the electric field at its centre is :

(1)

(2) Zero

(3)

(4)

24) Assertion (A) : Equal amount of positive and negative charges are distributed uniformly on two
halves of a thin circular ring as shown in figure. The resultant electric field at the centre O of the
ring is along OC.

Reason (R) : It is so because the net potential at O is not zero.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A).
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is NOT the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A).
(3) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(4) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is also false.

25) The electric field at a distance from the centre of a charged conducting spherical shell of

radius R is E. The electric field at a distance from the centre of the sphere is :-

(1) E

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero
26) In figure +Q charge is located at one of the edge of the cube, then electric flux through cube due

to +Q charge is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) A, B and C are three points in a uniform electric field. The electric potential is :-

(1) Same at all the three points A, B and C

(2) Maximum at A
(3) Maximum at B
(4) Maximum at C

28) A uniform electric field having strength exists in a region shown in figure. Consider three
points A, B and C having potential VA, VB and VC respectively, then choose the correct option.

(1) VA < VB = VC
(2) VA > VB = VC
(3) VA > VB > VC
(4) VB < VC > VA

29) The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by :

V = –x2y – xz3 + 4
The electric field at that point (0, 0, 1)
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

30) A uniformly charged non-conducting sphere of radius R has a potential V0 at a distance 2R from

the surface of sphere, then find the potential at a distance from center :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) Two identical charged ball of same mass and charge, each of 'q' are suspended from a common
point by equal strings, each of length 'ℓ'. In equilibrium distance between the balls is 'a' then tension
in string is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) For a given figure resultant force on charge q situated at O will be (If side of triangle is a)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero
33) A hollow spherical conducting shell of inner radius r1 and outer radius r2 has a charge Q. A
charge –q is placed at the centre of the sphere. The surface charge densities on the inner and outer
surfaces of the sphere will be respectively :-

(1)
and

(2)
and

(3)
and
0 and
(4)

34) Three charges Q, +q and +q are placed at the vertices of a right-angled isosceles triangle as

shown. The net electrostatic energy of the configuration is zero if Q is equal to -

(1)

(2)

(3) –2q
(4) +q

35) A thin spherical conducting shell of radius R has charge q. Another charge Q is placed at the
centre of the shell. The electrostatic potential at a point P at a distance R/2 from the centre of the
shell is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
–

(4)

36) 3 equal point charges (each of Q) are placed at A, B, C (along arc ABC) if θ = 45° then net force

on B is :-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

37) 15 joule of work has to be done against an existing electric field to take a charge of 0.01 C from
A to B. Then the potential difference (VB – VA) is :-

(1) 1500 volt

(2) –1500 volt
(3) 0.15 volt
(4) None of these

38) Two identical charged balls each of mass m are suspended from a common point. Length of each
string is ℓ. In equilibrium distance between balls is r then what will be tension force in string :-

(1)

(2)

(3) mg

(4)

39)

The angles of inclination of the suspended charged pendulum are 30º & 60º due to electric field of
the infinite sheets of surface charge densities σ1 and σ2 respectively, then σ1/σ2

(1)
(2) 3
(3) 1/
(4) 1/3

40) In the given figure two tiny conducting balls of identical mass m and identical charge q hang
from non-conducting threads of equal length L. Assume that θ is so small that tan θ ≈ sin θ, then for
equilibrium x is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

41)

The electric potential V at any point O (x, y, z all in metres) in space is given by

V = 4x2 volt. The electric field at the point (1m, 0, 2m) in volt/metre is :-
(1) 8 along negative X-axis
(2) 8 along positive X-axis
(3) 16 along negative X-axis
(4) 16 along positive Z-axis

42) Figure shows three circular arcs, each of radius R and total charge as indicated. The net electric

potential at the centre of curvature is:

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
43) Four electric charges + q, +q, – q and – q are placed at the corners of a square of side 2L(see
figure). The electric potential at point A, midway between the two charges +q and +q, is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Zero

44) An elementary particle of mass m and charge +e is projected with velocity v towards a much
more massive particle of charge Ze, where Z > 0. What is the closest possible distance of approach
of the incident particle ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A charge particle is balanced in air by the application of electric field. If the direction of electric
field is reversed then acceleration of the particle is (g = 10 m/s2) :-

(1) 10 m/s2
(2) 20 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2
(4) 40 m/s2

CHEMISTRY

1)

Which of the following may be correct for an exothermic reaction :-

(1) Ea > ΔH
(2) Ea < ΔH
(3) Ea = ΔH
(4) Any of the above

2) What is the threshold energy of reaction (R → P) in represented diagram ?

(all energy in kcal/mol)

(1) 12 kcal/mol
(2) 14 kcal/mol
(3) 50 kcal/mol
(4) 70 kcal/mol

3) In an exothermic reaction X → Y the activation energy is 100 kJ mol–1. The enthalpy change of the
reaction is – 140 kJ mol–1. The activation energy of the reverse reaction Y → X is :-

(1) 40 kJ mol–1
(2) 100 kJ mol–1
(3) 140 kJ mol–1
(4) 240 kJ mol–1

4) Select the correct diagram for an endothermic reaction that proceeds through two steps, with the
second step is rate determining :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

5) For a reaction A → B ; Arrhenius equation is given as logeK = 4 – ; what will be activation

energy for a reaction

(1) 8314 J
(2) 2.5 kcal
(3) 100 J
(4) 500 kcal

6) A reaction takes place in three steps with individual rate constant and activation energy,

Rate constant Activation energy

Step 1 k1

Step 2 k2

Step 3 k3

overall rate constant, overall activation energy of the reaction will be :

(1) 140 kJ/mol
(2) 150 kJ/mol
(3) 130 kJ/mol
(4) 120 kJ/mol

7) Arrhenius equation may not be written as :–

(1)
K = Ae
ℓnK = ℓnA
(2)

(3)
logK = logA

(4)

8) For x → y, K1 = 1010 e–500/T and for w → z, K2 = 1012 e–1000/T at what temperature 'T' both reactions
will have same value of K :-

(1) 500 K
(2) 1500 K
(3) 500/4.606 K
(4) 5000/2.303 K

9) For a chemical reaction temperature increased from 25°C to 55°C then rate of reaction will be
changed by a factor of (Assume µ = 3) :-

(1) 27
(2) 9
(3) 3
(4) 2

10) The energy of activations for forward and backward change for an endothermic reaction ; X → Y
are Ef and Eb respectively which of the following is correct :–

(1) Eb < Ef
(2) Eb > Ef
(3) Eb = Ef
(4) None of these

11) Which of following will be change by catalyst :

(1) ΔH
(2) Ea
(3) Rate constant
(4) Both 2 and 3

12) Rate constant k = 1.2 × 103 s–1 and

Ea = 2.0 × 102 kJ mol–1, when T → ∞ then :

(1) A = 2.0 × 102 s–1

(2) A = 1.2 × 103 s–1
(3) A = 4.2 × 103 s–1
(4) A = 2.4 × 103 s–1

13) Vapour pressure of pure A- = 100 mmHg

Vapour pressure of pure B- = 150 mmHg
A solution containing 2 moles A and 3 moles B will have total vapour pressure, approximately :-

(1) 130 mm Hg
(2) 135 mm Hg
(3) 140 mm Hg
(4) 145 mm Hg

14) At 27° C vapour pressure of pure liquid A is 70 torr. This liquid makes ideal solution with liquid
B. The mole fraction of B in solution is 0.2 and the total vapour pressure of the solution at 27°C has
been found to be 84 torr What is the vapour pressure of pure liquid B at 27°C :-
(1) 14 torr
(2) 140 torr
(3) 56 torr
(4) 70 torr

15) The vapour pressure of a pure liquid A is 40 mmHg at 310 K. The vapour pressure of this liquid
in a solution with solid B is 32 mmHg. Mole fraction of A in the solution, if it obeys Raoult's law is :-

(1) 0.8
(2) 0.5
(3) 0.2
(4) 0.4

16) When 100 g glucose is mixed in pure water its vapour pressure decreased to 95% of pure water.
What will be mole Fraction of Glucose :-

(1) 0.95
(2) 1.95
(3) 0.05
(4) 9.5

17) In an aqueous solution mole fraction of solute is 0.2 then molality is :-

(1) 14
(2) 3.2
(3) 1.4
(4) 2

18) If 2 moles of sugar is dissolved in 1 kg of water, the resulting solution will show the boiling
point:-

(1) 100°C
(2) 0.52°C
(3) 1.04°C
(4) 101.04°C

19) The rise in boiling point of a solution containing 1.8 g glucose in 100 g of a solvent is 0.1°C. The
molal elevation constant of the liquid is :- (in K. kg mol–1)

(1) 0.01
(2) 0.1
(3) 1.0
(4) 0.11
20) Which solution have highest elevation in boiling point :

(1) H2O
(2) Solution I
(3) Solution II
(4) Solution III

21) 5g of a substance when dissolved in 50g water lower's the Freezing point by 1.2ºC. Calculate
molecular mass of the substance. If molal depression constant of water is 1.86 K kg mole– ?

(1) 155
(2) 255
(3) 490
(4) 602

22) The osmotic pressure of a solution at 0°C is 4 atm. What will be its osmotic pressure at 546 K
under similar conditions ?

(1) 4 atm
(2) 9 atm
(3) 8 atm
(4) 6 atm

23) 1.8% glucose solution has osmotic pressure:

(1) 0.1 RT
(2) 1.8 RT
(3) 0.01 RT
(4) RT

24) If the mole fraction of the solvent in the solution decreases, then :-

(1) Vapour pressure of solution increases

(2) Boiling point of solution decreases
(3) Osmotic pressure increases
(4) All of the above are correct

25) Two different solutions containing respectively 0.60 g of urea (mol. wt. = 60) and 1.2 g of
compound X in 100 gm water, freezes at the same temperature. Calculate molecular weight of X.
(1) 100
(2) 120
(3) 140
(4) 160

26) Liquids A and B form an ideal solution. If XA and YA are the mole fractions of A in the solution and
0 0
in vapour phase in equilibrium, then (Given PA > PB )

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27)

In the freezing point depression experiment, it is found that :-

(a) Vapour pressure of solution is less than that of pure solvent (b) Vapour pressure of solution is
more than that of pure solvent
(c) Only solute molecules solidify at the freezing point.
(d) Only solvent molecules solidify at the freezing point. Correct statement are :-
(1) a, d
(2) c, a
(3) b, d
(4) b, c

28) According to Henry's law, the partial pressure of gas (Pg) is directly proportional to mole fraction
of gas in liquid solution, Pgas = KH.Xgas, where KH is Henry's constant. Which is incorrect ?

(1) KH is characteristic constant for a given gas-solvent system

(2) Higher is the value of KH, lower is solubility of gas for a given partial pressure of gas
(3) KH has temperature dependence
(4) KH decreases with increase of temperature

29) The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethyl alcohol is less than that of
theoretical value of water and alcohol mixture. Hence the mixture shows :

(1) that solution is highly saturated

(2) positive deviation from Raoult's law
(3) negative deviation from Raoult's law
(4) none of these

30) Which statement is true for non-ideal solution having positive deviation ?
(1) A–B interaction is stronger than A-A and B-B interaction
(2) ΔVmix > 0, ΔSmix > 0
(3) ΔVmix = 0, ΔSmix > 0
(4) ΔHmix < 0, ΔSmix > 0

31) A solution of two volatile liquids form maximum boiling azeotrope at a particular composition,
then select the incorrect statement :-

(1) This solution shows negative deviation from Raoult's law

(2) HNO3 and H2O may form this type of solution.
(3) Vapour pressure of solution at azeotrope composition is maximum
(4) At this composition, components cannot be seperated by fractional distillation.

32) Consider the following vapour pressure composition graph, SP is equal to :-

(1) PQ + RS
(2) PQ + QR
(3) SR + SQ
(4) PR + QS

33) At a given temperature, the vapour pressure of a solution of two volatile liquids A and B is given
by the equation
PS = 120 – 80XB (XB = mole fraction of B)
Vapour pressure of pure A and B at the same temperature are respectively :-

(1) 120, 80
(2) 120, 200
(3) 120, 40
(4) 80, 40

34) Vapour pressure of a liquid depends upon

(1) Temperature
(2) Surface area
(3) Both
(4) None

35) Which of the following changes with increase in temperature ?

(I) Molality (II) Molarity
(III) % W/V (IV) Normality

(1) I, II
(2) I, II, III, IV
(3) II, III, IV
(4) None of above

36) An X molal solution of a compound in benzene has mole fraction of solute equal to 0.2. The value
of X is :-

(1) 14
(2) 3.2
(3) 1.4
(4) 2

37) If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in blood is 0.9 g L–1, what will be the molarity of glucose
in blood ?

(1) 5 M
(2) 50 M
(3) 0.005 M
(4) 0.5 M

38) A solution is prepared by adding 5 g of a solute 'X' to 45 g of solvent 'Y'. What is the mass
percent of the solute 'X' ?

(1) 10%
(2) 11.1%
(3) 90%
(4) 75%

39) How many gram of sodium chloride are present in 200 cm3 of 0.2 M NaCl solution. (Na = 23, Cl
= 35.5)

(1) 2.34 g
(2) 5.85 g
(3) 1.17 g
(4) 0.04 g

40) Mole fraction of the solute in a 1.00 molal aqueous solution is :-

(1) 1.7700
(2) 0.1770
(3) 0.0177
(4) 0.0344
41) The volume of water which must be added to 40cc of 0.25 M oxalic acid solution to make it
exactly decimolar (0.1 M) is :-

(1) 40 cc
(2) 30 cc
(3) 60 cc
(4) 25 cc

42) What is the molarity of 0.4 N Na2CO3 solution:-

(1) 0.2 M
(2) 0.1 M
(3) 0.8 M
(4) 0.6 M

43) When sugar is added to water its :-

(1) Vapour pressure decreases

(2) Boiling point increases
(3) Freezing point increases
(4) Both (1) & (2)

44) Henry's Law constants for aqueous solution of CO, O2, CO2 and C2H2 gases are respectively at
25°C as 58 × 103, 43 × 103, 1.61 × 103 and 1.34 × 103. The solubility of these gases decreases in the
order :

(1) CO > O2 > CO2 > C2H2

(2) O2 > CO2 > CO > C2H2
(3) C2H2 > CO2 > O2 > CO
(4) O2 > CO2 > C2H2 > CO

45) Which characterises the strong intermolecular forces of attraction of liquid ?

(1) Low vapour pressure

(2) Low boiling point
(3) Low heat of vapourisation
(4) High kinetic energy of molecules

BIOLOGY

1) In case of polygenic inheritance, if a trait is controlled by four genes, then in F2-generation, what
will be the number of dominant alleles in the organism that obtained in maximum number :-

(1) 8
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

2)

A B

(1) polygenic qualitative polygenic quantitative

(2) monogenic quantitative monogenic qualitative

(3) monogenic quantitative monogenic quantitative

(4) monogenic qualitative monogenic qualitative

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) What will be the probability of non parental offsprings in the F2 generation of a quantitative
character regulated by two genes ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) If a mulato man (AaBbCc) marries with a mulato woman (AaBbCc) :-

(1) Seven types of genotypes will be obtained

(2) Only mulato will be produced
(3) Offsprings with 3 dominant alleles will be maximum
(4) 1 : 2 : 6 : 2 : 1 phenotypic ratio will be obtained

5) A tetrahybrid plant produces fruits of 1 kg while minimum weight is 400 g. What will be the
maximum weight of a fruit :-

(1) 600 g
(2) 1600 g
(3) 1200 g
(4) 1800 g

6) In Pisum sativum , seed shape and size of starch grains, these two characters are controlled by :-

(1) 2 genes
(2) 1 gene
(3) 7 genes
(4) 4 genes

7) Sickle cell anaemia is an example of

(1) Transition
(2) Transversion
(3) Duplication
(4) Inversion

8) In pea plant which of the following is correctly matched :-

(1) BB – Round and small sized starch grain

(2) Bb – Round and large sized starch grain
(3) bb – Wrinkled and large sized starch grain
(4) Bb – Round and intermediate sized starch grain

9) The disease sickle-cell anaemia is caused by the substititution of (i) by (ii) at the (iii) position of
(iv) globin chain of haemoglobin molecule. Which of the following correctly fills the blanks in the
above statement :-

(1) i-valine, ii-glutamic acid, iii-sixth, iv-beta

(2) i-glutamic acid, ii-valine, iii-sixth, iv-beta
(3) i-glutamic acid, ii-valine, iii-fifth, iv-beta
(4) i-valine, ii-glutamic acid, iii-fifth, iv-beta

10) Which is not always true for genes in diploid organisms ?

(1) They occur in pairs

(2) They segregate at the time of gamete formation
(3) Only one of each pair is transmitted to a gamete
(4) One pair segregates independently of another pair

11) The figure below shows three steps (A,B,C) of meiosis. Select the option giving correct
identification.
(1) C- Meiosis I Anaphase showing segregation of homologus chromosomes.
(2) A -Meiosis I Prophase showing crossing over
(3) B- Meiosis II Anaphase showing separation of chromatids
(4) A- Meiosis II Zygotene stage showing pairing of chromosomes.

12) Sutton & Boveri noted that behaviour of chromosome was parallel to that of genes because :-

(1) Both occurs in pairs

(2) Two alleles of a gene pair are located on homologous chromosome
(3) Both separate during meiosis
(4) More than one options are correct

13) Independent assortment of genes occurs due to the orientation of chromosomes at :

(1) Metaphase of mitosis

(2) Metaphase I of meiosis
(3) Metaphase II of meiosis
(4) Any phase of the cell division

14) Morgan used Drosophila as experimental material because :-

(1) It cannot be reared and breed under lab conditions

(2) A single mating produces very few offsprings
(3) It has high number of morphologically similar chromosomes
(4) It has a short life span

15) Experimental verification of chromosomal theory of inheritance was given by :-

(1) Morgan
(2) Mendel
(3) Hugo de Vries
(4) Watson

16) 3 : 6 : 3 : 1 : 2 : 1 phenotypic ratio obtained as a result of :

(1) Selfing of hetrozygous for two polygene.

(2) Selfing of double hetrozygous in which one show dominance and other show codominance.
Selfing of double hetrozygous in which one show incomplete dominance and other show co-
(3)
dominance.
Selfing of triple hetrozygous in which one show incomplete dominance 2nd show dominance and
(4)
other show co-dominance.

17) In which of the following inheritance phenotype of F1–hybrid does not resemble with either of
it's parents :-

(1) Incomplete dominance

(2) Codominace
(3) Polygenic inheritance
(4) All of above

18) In Mirabilis jalapa tall (DD) is dominant over dwarf (dd) and red flowers (RR) are incompletely
dominant over white (rr). What percentage of tall-pink offspring on selfing of a hybrid tall-pink
flowered plant :–

(1) 12.5%
(2) 37.5%
(3) 6.25%
(4) 25%

19) ____i____ coined the term ____ii____ to describe the physical association of gene on same
chromosome.
Select the correct option to fill i & ii.

(1) i-Sutton, ii-Recombination

(2) i-Carl correns, ii-Allele
(3) i-Tschermak, ii-Epistasis
(4) i-Morgan, ii-Linkage

20) Presence of single allele of a character in diploid organism is known as :-

(1) Homozygous
(2) Heterozygous
(3) Hemizygous
(4) Hybrid vigour

21) Mr. and Mrs. Jones are carriers of sickle cell anaemia disease. What is their chance of having a
child with sickle cell anaemia ?

(1) 25%
(2) 0%
(3) 50%
(4) 100%

22) Which of the following characters of Drosophila is not suitable for genetical studies ?
(a) They could be grown on simple synthetic medium in laboratory
(b) They complete their life cycle in about 2-weeks
(c) Single mating produces few number of progeny flies.
(d) They have many types of hereditary variations that can be seen with low power microscope.
(e) Male & Female flies are not easily distinguishable

(1) a, b and d
(2) a, b, c, d and e
(3) Only d and e
(4) Only c and e

23) How many zygotic combinations are possible between a cross AaBBCcDd × AAbbCcDD ?

(1) 32
(2) 128
(3) 64
(4) 16

24) Assertion : Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils.

Reason : The intine of pollen grain is composed of cellulose and pectin.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & reason is the correct explain of assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are correct & reason is not correct explain of assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are incorrect

25) Statement I : In papaya and date palm, only xenogamy occurs autogamy and geitonogamy
cannot occur.
Statement II : Papaya and date palm are dioecious plants.

(1) Both statement I & II are correct

(2) Both statement I, II are Incorrect
(3) Statement I is correct & Statement II incorrect
(4) Statement I is Incorrect & Statement II correct

26) Examine the figure given below and select the right option giving all the four parts A, B, C and D
correctly identify :-

(1) A-Antipodal cells, B-Polar nuclei, C-Oospore, D-Filiform apparatus

(2) A-Egg apparatus, B-Central cell, C-Egg, D-Synergid cells
(3) A-Synergid cells, B-Polar nuclei, C-Oogonium, D-Antipodal cell
(4) A-Antipodal cells, B-Polar nuclei, C-Egg, D-Filiform apparatus

27) Statement-I : Pollination by wind is quite rare in grasses.

Statement-II : Transfer of pollen grains from stigma to anther is known as pollination.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

28) Statement-I : Flowers are the seat of sexual reproduction in angiosperms.

Statement-II : A typical anther is bilobed, dithecous and tetrasporangiate.

(1) Statement-I & Statement-II both are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct & Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-I is incorrect & Statement-II is correct.
(4) Both Statement-I & Statement-II is incorrect.

29)

Select the mismatched pairs

(i) Ovule – Megasporangium
(ii) Monoecious plants – Papaya, Date palm
(iii) Cleistogamy – Castor

(iv) Tapetum – Nutritive layer

(1) i, iii
(2) ii, iii
(3) ii, iii, iv
(4) i, ii, iii

30) Match the Column I with Column II :-

Column I Column II
 A. Funicle I. Mass of cells within ovule with more food

B. Hilum II. Basal part of ovule

C. Integument III. One or two protective layers of ovule

D. Chalaza IV. Region where body of ovule fuses with funicle

E. Nucellus V. Stalk of ovule

(1) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV, E-V
(2) A-V, B-IV, C-III, D-II, E-I
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III, E-V
(4) A-I, B-III, C-V, D-II, E-IV

31)

The microsporangia develops further and become

(1) Pollen sacs

(2) Megasporangia
(3) Megaspore
(4) Pollen grain

32) Select incorrect statement :-

(1) Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils because of the presence of sporopollenin
(2) In some cereals such as rice and wheat seed lose viability within 30 minutes.
The process of formation of microspores from a pollen mother cell through meiosis is called
(3)
microsporogenesis
(4) The residual, persistant nucellus in seed is known as perisperm.

33) Pick the wrong one with respect to pollen viability in months.

(1) Rosaceae
(2) Solanaceae
(3) Leguminosae
(4) Wheat

34) (A) Light and non-sticky pollen grain.

(B) Well exposed stamens.
(C) Large often – Feathery stigma.
(D) Always have many ovule in each ovary. (E) Large, colourful and rich in nectar flowers. How many
above features favour anemophily?

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Five
(4) Four
35) Find out number male gametes produced in 10 flower of mustard, if each microsporangia have
10 megaspore mother cells-

(1) 1600
(2) 3200
(3) 19200
(4) 800

36) Read the following statements :-

(i) Geitonogamy can occur in monoecious plant
(ii) Autogamy can occur in Bisexual flower
(iii) Xenogamy can occur in monoecious plants
How many statement are correct ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) All are incorrect

37) Micropyle in a seed is helpful in entry of :

(1) Pollen tube

(2) Water
(3) Male gamete
(4) Zygote

38) The most reduced male gametophyte is found in :-

(1) Pea
(2) Pinus
(3) Pteridium
(4) Cycas

39)

Hydrophily is found in -

(1) Zostera
(2) Hydrilla
(3) Vallisneria
(4) All

40) An organic substance that can withstand environmental extremes and cannot be degraded by
any enzyme is :-

(1) Lignin
(2) Cellulose
(3) Cuticle
(4) Sporopollenin

41) What will be the ploidy of the cells of the nucellus, MMC, functional megaspore and female
gametophyte in angiosperm?

(1) 2n, n, n, n
(2) 2n, 2n n, n
(3) 2n, 2n, 2n, n
(4) n, 2n, n, n

42) In over 60% of angiosperms pollen grains are shed at ........

(1) One celled stage

(2) Three nuclei stage
(3) Two celled stage
(4) Three celled stage

43) How many meiotic and mitotic divisions are required for the formation of mature embryo sac
from megapore mother cell?

(1) One meiotic and two mitotic divisions

(2) One meiotic and three mitotic division
(3) Two meiotic and two mitotic division
(4) Two meiotic and three mitotic division

44) For the formation of 200 functional microspore, how many microspore mother cells are required
:-

(1) 200
(2) 100
(3) 50
(4) 400

45) If antipodal cell, possesses 28 chromosomes, the number of chromosomes will be in synergid cell
?

(1) 28
(2) 14
(3) 7
(4) 21

46)

Which of the following provide nutrition to developing micropores ?

(1) Tapetum
(2) Nucellus
(3) Embryo
(4) Endosperm

47) Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement 1: Inside Seminiferous tubules, male germ cells (spermatogonia) are present and these
male germ cells undergo meiotic divisions finally leading to sperm formation.
Statement 2: The regions outside the seminiferous tubules called interstitial spaces, contain small
blood vessels and interstitial cells and immunologically competent cells.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement 1 is correct
(4) Only statement 2 is correct

48) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): The secondary oocyte retains bulk of the nutrient rich cytoplasm of the primary
oocyte.
Reason (R): The secondary oocyte further develops into ovum that undergoes fertilization and
formation of the zygote where the nutrition in bulk is required for growth of embryo.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect

49) In a regularly menstruating female, menstrual bleeding started on 1st January and continued till
5th January. Now she wants to participate in some sports event from 24th January to 3rd February. As
a gynecologist, what advice would you give her to avoid menstrual bleeding during sports events?

(1) She does not have to do anything because bleeding will happen only after 5th February
Menstrual bleeding may occur during sports event, advise her to take synthetic progesterone
(2)
from 25th January to till the date she wants to avoid menstruation
Menstrual bleeding may occur during sports event, advise her to take synthetic progesterone
(3)
from 15th January to till the date she wants to avoid menstruation
Menstrual bleeding may occur during sports event, advise her to take synthetic progesterone
(4)
from 25th January to 29th January

50) How many of the following cells are haploid

Oogonia, primary oocyte, secondary oocyte, ootid

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Zero
51) A 51-year-old woman is experiencing symptoms such as hot flashes, sexual dysfunction, poor
sleep, mood changes, irritability, and depression. Her gynecologist recommended her to undergo
some blood tests, and upon receiving the results, informed her that she is suffering from post-
menopausal syndrome. What would you expect on the blood test and how would you manage this
patient?

Blood test report

Management
FSH LH Estrogen Progesterone
1. Low Low High High Give Synthetic FSH & LH
2. Low Low Low Low Give synthetic Estrogen & Progesterone
3. High High High High Give Estrogen and Progesterone inhibitors
4. High High Low Low Give synthetic Estrogen & Progesterone
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) In which one of the following options Column I is correctly matched with Column II w.r.t. male
reproductive system?

Column I Column II
(1) Uterus Inverted pear shape
(2) Interstitial space Sertoli cells
(3) Seminiferous tubules Spermatogenesis
(4) Vas deferens formation of sperm
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

53) Read the following statements-

(A) Secondary spermatocytes have only 23 chromosomes.
(B) Spermatogenesis starts at the age of puberty due to significant increase in the secretion of
gonadotropin releasing hormone.
(C) LH acts at the sertoli cells and stimulates synthesis and secretion of androgens.
(D) Sperms released from the seminiferous tubules, are transported by the accessory ducts.
How many of the above statements are correct?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Only One
(4) Two

54) Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option

Sperm formation continues even in old men, but formation of ovum ceases in women around the age
of ___________ years.

(1) 11-13 years

(2) 50 years
(3) 60 years
(4) 80 years

55) Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) and choose the correct option
Assertion (A): All copulations do not lead to fertilisation and pregnancy.
Reason (R): Fertilisation can only occur if the ovum and sperms are transported simultaneously to
the isthmic region of oviduct.

Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and Reason (R) is the correct explanation of
(1)
Assertion (A)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but Reason (R) is not the correct explanation of
(2)
Assertion (A)
(3) Assertion (A) is correct but Reason (R) is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are incorrect

56) A diagram showing human foetus within the uterus is given below. Identify the structure which
connects the placenta to the embryo and choose the correct option.

(1) B - it contains both foetal and maternal blood

(2) A - it contains both foetal and maternal blood
(3) A - it contains only foetal blood
(4) D - it contains only foetal blood

57) A pregnant woman who used to regularly feel fetal movements suddenly noticed the absence of
fetal movements. She underwent ultrasonography, which revealed that the fetus was dead, with no
heartbeat. The dead fetus was removed from her uterus, and it was observed that eye lashes were
not formed. Based on these findings, what could be the probable gestational age of the fetus?

(1) One month

(2) Three months
(3) Five Months
(4) Seven Months

58) The female is experiencing luteal phase defect (LPD), which leads to decreased secretion of the
corpus luteum. As a result, she is unable to conceive, and has had several spontaneous abortions. As
an obstetrician what advice would you like to give to this woman so that she can conceive properly?

(1) She should take the help of a surrogate mother for the development of the fetus
(2) Estrogen supplementation
(3) Progesterone supplementation
(4) She cannot conceive, so legal adoption is best option.

59) Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement 1: The signals for parturition originate from the fully developed foetus and the placenta
which induce strong uterine contractions called foetal ejection reflex.
Statement 2: Oxytocin acts on the uterine muscle and causes stronger uterine contractions.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement 1 is correct
(4) Only statement 2 is correct

60) Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement 1: Indian population which was approximately 350 million at the time of our
independence reached close to the billion mark by 2000 and crossed 1.2 billion in May 2011.
Statement 2: According to the 2011 census report, the population growth rate was less than 2 per
cent, i.e., 20/100/year, a rate at which our population could increase rapidly.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement 1 is correct
(4) Only statement 2 is correct

61) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendment) Act, 2018 was enacted by the government
(1)
of India to reduce the incidence of illegal abortion, maternal mortality and morbidity.
Nearly 45 to 50 million MTPs are performed in a year all over the world which accounts to 1/4th
(2)
of the total number of conceived pregnancies in a year.
If the pregnancy has lasted for 12 weeks to 24 weeks, for MTP, opinion from two registered
(3)
medical practitioners must be taken.
(4) More than one options are wrong

62) How many of the following processes are used in test tube baby programme
IVF, ET, GIFT, ZIFT, IUT, IUI, AI,

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) Five

63) Identify the following contraceptive devices and choose the correct option

(A)

(B)

(C)

(D)

(A) Condom for male Prevent the physical meeting of ovum & sperm
1.
(B) Diaphragm Prevent the physical meeting of ovum & sperm
(A) Condom for male Prevent the physical meeting of ovum & sperm
2.
(D) Implants Suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity
(B) Condom for female Prevent the physical meeting of ovum & sperm
3.
(C) LNG 20 Make the cervix hostile to the sperms
(C) Copper T Suppress sperm motility and the fertilising capacity
4.
(D) Implants Inhibit ovulation and implantation
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

64) Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option

During fertilisation, a sperm comes in contact with ____________ layer of the ovum and induces
changes in the membrane that block the entry of additional sperms.

(1) Zona Pellucida

(2) Plasma membrane of sperm
(3) Corona Radiata
(4) Granulosa cell layer
65) Which of the following structure becomes embedded in the endometrium of the uterus by the
process called implantation which leads to pregnancy?

(1) Morula
(2) Blastula
(3) Gastrula
(4) Zygote

66) During menstrual bleeding, females need to change sanitary napkins or homemade pads after
every

(1) 4–5 hrs

(2) 8–9 hrs
(3) 12 hrs
(4) 1–2 hrs

67) During pregnancy the levels of many hormones is increased several folds in the maternal blood.
Increased production of these hormones is essential for

(1) Supporting the fetal growth

(2) Metabolic changes in the mother
(3) Maintenance of pregnancy
(4) All of these

68) After implantation, finger-like projections appear on the trophoblast called chorionic villi which
are surrounded by

(1) Uterine tissue

(2) Maternal blood
(3) Myometrium
(4) Both 1 and 2

69) Which of the following contraceptive method is very effective with lesser side effects and are
well accepted by the females?

(1) IUDs
(2) Pills
(3) Tubectomy
(4) Vasectomy

70) A Female cannot produce ovum, but can provide suitable environment for fertilisation and
further development. This couple is looking for parenthood. Best method is

(1) GIFT
(2) IVF
(3) ZIFT
(4) Legal adoption

71) Read the following statements and choose the correct option
Statement 1: Mammary glands have only functional integration with ovaries, oviducts, uterus,
cervix, vagina, and the external genitalia.
Statement 2: Each ovary is covered by a dense connective tissue which encloses the ovarian
stroma.

(1) Both the statements are correct

(2) Both the statements are incorrect
(3) Only statement 1 is correct
(4) Only statement 2 is correct

72) A new drug has been developed by scientists to block FSH receptors. During animal trials, the
drug was injected into a female monkey. What are the expected effects of the drug on the female
monkey?

(1) Multiple ova are released from the ovary

(2) Ovulation will not occur
(3) Low concentration of estrogen in blood
(4) More than one options are correct

73) Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option

Column I Column II
(A) Interstitial spaces (i) Immunologically competent cells
(B) Male sex accessory ducts (ii) Lubrication of the penis
(C) Loose fold of skin (iii) Rete testis
(D) Bulbourethral glands (iv) Foreskin

A B C D

1 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

2 (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

3 (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

4 (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

74) Match the Column I with Column II and choose the correct option

Column I Column II
(A) 8 to 16 blastomeres (i) Cleavage
(B) Implantation (ii) Morula
(C) Mitotic division in zygote (iii) Isthmus
(D) Initiation of cleavage (iv) Blastocyst

(A) (B) (C) (D)

1 (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)

2 (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)

3 (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)

4 (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

75) Which of the following statement is incorrect?

Immediately after implantation, the inner cell mass (embryo) differentiates into an outer layer
(1)
called ectoderm and an inner layer called endoderm.
Inner cell mass contains certain cells called stem cells which have the potency to give rise to all
(2)
the tissues and organs.
The first sign of growing foetus may be noticed by listening to the heart sound carefully through
(3)
the stethoscope.
(4) By the end of seven months of pregnancy, the foetus is fully developed and is ready for delivery.

76) Read the following events of menstrual cycle and arrange them in correct order
(A) Rapid secretion of LH (LH surge)
(B) Breakdown of endometrial lining of the uterus
(C) Secretion of gonadotropins (LH and FSH) increases gradually
(D) Secretion of large amounts of progesterone
(E) Graafian follicle transform as the corpus luteum
Choose the correct option

(1) A, C, D, E, B
(2) B, C, A, E, D
(3) B, E, C, A, D
(4) B, C, D, E, A

77) Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
(A) The process of fusion of a sperm with an ovum is called fertilisation.
(B) The second meiotic division is unequal and results in the formation of a first polar body and a
haploid ovum (ootid).
(C) Parturition is induced by a complex endocrine mechanism.
(D) The stimulatory reflex between the uterine contraction and oxytocin secretion continues,
resulting in stronger and stronger contractions.
(1) Only (A), (C) and (D) are correct
(2) Only (B) and (C) are correct
(3) Only (C) and (D) are correct
(4) Only (A) and (D) are correct

78) Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option

_____________ provide nutrition to the germ cells.

(1) Leydig cells

(2) Interstitial cells
(3) Sertoli cells
(4) Follicular cells

79) How many mammary lobes are present in a female?

(1) 15-20
(2) 25-30
(3) 30-40
(4) 5-10

80) Which of the following stimulates the secretion of some factors which help in the process of
spermiogenesis?

(1) LH
(2) Androgens
(3) FSH
(4) GnRH

81) In which of the following follicle secondary oocyte forms a new membrane called zona pellucida?

(1) Primary follicle

(2) Secondary follicle
(3) Tertiary follicle
(4) Graafian follicle

82) In which one of the following options Column I is incorrectly matched with Column II w.r.t
menstrual cycle?

Column I Column II
(1) Average interval 28/29 days
(2) Menstrual flow Lasts for 5-7 days
(3) LH and FSH attain peak level Middle of cycle
(4) Menstrual cycles ceases 50 years of age
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

83) After fusion of the male and female gametes the zygote would carry either XX or XY depending
on

(1) Whether the ovum carrying X or Y fertilised the sperm.

(2) Whether the sperm carrying X or Y fertilised the ovum.
(3) Whether the sperm carrying X or Y fertilised the zygote.
(4) Whether the ovum carrying X or Y fertilised the zygote.

84) Which of the following gets differentiated as the embryo?

(1) Trophoblast
(2) Inner cells mass
(3) Either 1 or 2
(4) Cell of rauber

85) By the end of the which month of pregnancy, the foetus develops limbs and digits?

(1) Second month

(2) First month
(3) Third months
(4) Sixth month

86) Which of the following is expelled out of the uterus, soon after the infant is delivered?

(1) Amniotic fluid

(2) Placenta
(3) Only umbilical cord
(4) Urine of the fetus

87) Which of the following is not a ground for Medical termination of pregnancies?

The continuation of the pregnancy would involve a risk to the life of the pregnant woman or of
(1)
grave injury physical or mental health.
There is a substantial risk that of the child were born, it would suffer from such physical or
(2)
mental abnormalities as to be seriously handicapped.
(3) To get rid of any unwanted pregnancies either due to casual unprotected intercourse
(4) Failure of the contraceptive used during coitus

88) Which of the following STDs does not affect the reproductive organs?

(1) Syphilis
(2) Trichomoniasis
(3) Genital warts
(4) Hepatitis B

89) Which of the following is a complication of STDs?

(1) Fluid discharge in genital region

(2) Swellings in genital region
(3) Ectopic pregnancies
(4) All of these

90) In which one of the following options Column I is incorrectly matched with Column II w.r.t.
follicles?

Column I Column II
(1) Theca layer appear Secondary follicle
(2) Appearance of zona pellucida Graafian follicle
(3) Completion of meiosis I Graafian follicle
(4) At the time of birth (In ovary) Primary follicle
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 4 4 1 3 2 2 4 2 4 4 4 1 1 1 2 4 3 4 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 2 3 4 3 3 1 1 2 2 3 3 2 4 3 1 2 4 1
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 1 1 3 1 2

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 3 4 4 1 1 2 3 1 1 4 2 1 2 1 3 1 4 3 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 1 3 1 3 2 2 1 4 2 2 3 3 3 1 3 2 3 1 1 3
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 4 3 1

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 4 3 2 2 2 4 2 4 3 4 2 4 1 2 4 2 4 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 4 4 2 1 4 4 1 2 2 1 2 4 2 3 3 2 1 4 4
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 3 2 3 1 1 1 1 2 1 4 3 1 2 3 3 3 3 4 3
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 3 4 1 2 1 4 4 2 4 2 4 4 3 4 2 4 3 3 3
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 2 2 2 1 2 3 4 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

m ∝ E x Vy Tz
0
M1L T0 ∝ [ML2T–2]x [LT–1]y [T]z
0 0
M1L T ∝ Mx L2x + y T–2x–y + z
x=1 solving
2x + y = 0 x=1
–2x – y + z = 0 y = –2
z=0

2) By rule – 4 & 5

3) I =
I = MR2

= 2% + 2(1%)
= 4%

4)

5) LC =

0.1 mm = M
M = 1 mm
Hence option (3) is correct

6)

P=
% P = 3% Ea + 2% Eb + % EC
% E 'P' = (3 × 1) + (2 × 3) + 2

= 3 + 6 + 2 = 11 %

7) According to Law of homogeneity

9)

⇒ % error is 7% in R.

10) LC =
Reading = [MSR + CSR × LC]
= 0 + 52 (0.01)
= 0.52 mm = 0.052 cm

11)

[P] = [M1 L2 T–3]

x=1
y=2
z = –3
⇒x+y+z =1+2+3=0

12)

V3 > V2 > V1

13) Δv =

=A

14)

Potential at r
V=0

Electric field inside conductor will be zero.

15)

16)

–e (VA – VB) = 6.4 × 10–19

VA – VB = –4V
VB – VA = 4V
VC – VA = 4V (∵ VB = VC)

17)

V = 15 Volt

18) V = 3x2 + 5

∴
Intensity of the electric field at x = –2
= –6(–2) = +12 Vm–1

19) Initially (fig. A). Finally when a third spherical conductor comes in contact
alternately with B and C then removed, so charges on B and C are Q / 2 and 3Q / 4 respectively
(fig. B)
Now force

20) Joined by a wire means they are at the same potential. For same potential ⇒

Further, the electric field at the surface of the sphere having radius R and charge Q is

21)

22)
23) Zero

24) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.

25) Zero (electric field inside conductor is zero.)

26)

27) Potential decreases in the direction of field.

28) B and C lies on same level so potential will be equal and potential will be less at point A.

30)

Potential at a distance 2R from surface

Potential at a distance r < R

where

So

31)

From Figure
Tsinθ = Fe

⇒
32)

33) Due to induction charge induced on shell

Before Induction After Induction

inner σ =

outer σ =

34)

35) Given, charge on spherical conducting shell (q1)=q

Radius of shell (r1) = R
Second charge (q2) = Q

Distance of point P from the centre (r2) =

We known that electrostatic pootential at P due to the spherical conductor.

Similarly, electrostatic potential at P due to second charge,

=
There, net electrostatic potential at P,
 V = V1 + V2 =

36)
From the figure,

f=

r= R⇒F=
Net force on charge at

B – FB = F =

37)

W = q ΔV
15 = 0.01 (VB – VA) ⇒ VB – VA = 1500 V

38)

At equilibrium T cosθ = mg
39)

40)

At equilibrium, tan θ =

(∵ tan θ sin θ = )

⇒x=

41)

at x=1,

so, 8 V/m along negative x axis.

42)

V = V1 + V2 + V3

=
 43)

VA =

44) Conservation of mechanical energy :-

KEf – KEi = – (Uf – Ui)

(0 – mv2) =

45) qE = mg
Initially charge is balanced in air means electrostatic force is equal and opposite to
gravitational force, when direction of E is reversed
Fnet = mg + qE = mg + mg = 2mg

so acceleration a = = 2g = 20 m/s2

CHEMISTRY

46)

For an exothermic reaction

47)

Threshold energy = energy of reactants + activation energy

∴ Threshold energy = 18 + 32 = 50 kcal/mol
49)

As reaction is endothermic so final product would be above than reactant. Second step is rate
determining step so its height or activation energy would be more than first step.

50)

Ea = 1000 R

51)

54)

rnew = rold × µΔT/10

ΔT = 55 – 25 = 30

59)

Ps = P°A XA + P°BXB
84 = 70 × 0.8 + P°B × 0.2
P°B = 140 torr

62)

m = 13.88 m = 14

63) ΔTb = Kb × m
ΔTb = 0.52 × 2 = 1.04
∴ Boiling point = 101.04°C

64) ΔTb = Kb.m

 Kb = 1

65) V.P. ∝
Solution III has lowest
Value of V.P. so highest b.p.

66)

Mw = 155

70) We have : For urea

...(1)

For X ...(2)
Equating (1) and (2)

73)

NCERT (2019) Page No. # 41(Theory)

75) NCERT XIIth Pg.#46 Para-I

76) At maximum boiling point composition, vapour pressure of solution will be minimum.

78)

Ps = 120 – 80 XB
For pure B, XB = 1, Ps = p°B = 40

For pure A, XB = 0, Ps = p°A = 120

86) M1 V1 = M2 V2

∴ V2 – V1 = 100 – 40 = 60 cc

89) NCERT, Pg.No.39

BIOLOGY
100) NCERT-XII, Page # 66

101) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 81

105) NCERT XII Pg.# 83 (E), Pg.# 91 (H)

110)

5 Module

111)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 74

112) NCERT XII pg.# 67

114)

NCERT-XII, Pg. # 07

115) NCERT-XII, Pg # 12

116)

NCERT, Pg. # 10

117) NCERT, Pg # 11, 13

118) NCERT XII Pg # 5, 39

119)

NCERT, Pg. # 5, 9, 12

120) NCERT XII Page No. # 9

121)

NCERT, Pg. # 5

122) NCERT, Pg. # 6, 7, 8, 20

123)

NCERT, Pg. # 8

124) NCERT Pg.#12, 13

126) NCERT, Pg. # 28

127)

NCERT, Pg. # 20

129)

NCERT, Pg. # 13

130)

NCERT, Pg. # 7

131)

NCERT, Pg. # 10

132)

NCERT, Pg. # 7

133)

NCERT, Pg. # 9, 10

134) NCERT, Pg. # 6

135)

NCERT, Pg. # 10

136)

NCERT, Pg. # 5

137) NCERT, Pg. # 27

138)

NCERT, Pg. # 33

139) NCERT, Pg. # 34

140) NCERT, Pg. # 32,33

141) NCERT, Pg. # 34

142) NCERT, Pg. # 27

143) NCERT, Pg. # 31,32

144) NCERT, Pg. # 26

145) NCERT, Pg. # 35

146) NCERT, Pg. # 37

147) NCERT, Pg. # 38

148) NCERT, Pg. # 35

149) NCERT, Pg. # 38

150) NCERT, Pg. # 43

151) NCERT, Pg. # 46

152) NCERT, Pg. # 48

153) NCERT, Pg. # 44,45

154) NCERT, Pg. # 35

155) NCERT, Pg. # 37

156) NCERT, Pg. # 35

157) NCERT, Pg. # 37

158) NCERT, Pg. # 37

159) NCERT, Pg. # 45

160) NCERT, Pg. # 48

161) NCERT, Pg. # 28

162) NCERT, Pg. # 35

163) NCERT, Pg. # 27, 28

164) NCERT, Pg. # 36, 37

165) NCERT, Pg. # 37, 38

166) NCERT, Pg. # 34, 35

167) NCERT, Pg. # 35, 36, 38

168) NCERT, Pg. # 27

169) NCERT, Pg. # 30

170) NCERT, Pg. # 32

171) NCERT, Pg. # 33

172) NCERT, Pg. # 33, 34, 35

173) NCERT, Pg. # 36

174) NCERT, Pg. # 37

175) NCERT, Pg. # 38

176) NCERT, Pg. # 38

177) NCERT, Pg. # 46

178) NCERT, Pg. # 47

179) NCERT, Pg. # 47

180) NCERT, Pg. # 32, 33