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PREBOARD 2 EXAMINATION
TEST 6 - PHARMACOLOGY AND ANESTHESIOLOGY
May 2023 Philippine Dentistry Licensure Examination Review
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:
1. This test questionnaire contains 100 test questions
2. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes shaded will invalidate your answer.
3. AVOID ERASURES.
4. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set.
5. Write the subject title “Pharmacology and Anesthesiology” on the box provided.

1. In an adult of normal size, penetration to a depth of _____ 9. The following are those properties deemed most desirable
mm places the needle tip in the immediate vicinity of the for a local anesthetic, except _____.
foramina, through which the posterior superior alveolar (PSA) A. It should not be irritating to the tissue to which it is
nerves enter the posterior surface of the maxilla. applied
A. 10 B. It should cause a permanent alteration of nerve
B. 16 structure
C. 20 C. Its systemic toxicity should be low
D. 30 D. It must be effective regardless of whether it is
2. The _____ nerve block is useful for dental procedures injected into the tissue or applied locally to mucous
involving the palatal soft tissues distal to the canine. membranes
A. Nasopalatine (NP) 10. The majority of injectable local anesthetics used today are
B. Greater palatine (GP) _____.
C. Long buccal (LB) A. Tertiary amines
D. Inferior alveolar (IA) B. Secondary amines
3. Elevation of cardiovascular signs with epinephrine, injected C. Primary amines
in a local anesthetic solution in a cardiovascularly compromised D. Esters
patient, occurs at about what threshold? 11. _____ has a shorter half-life than other amides because a
A. 40 μg portion of its biotransformation occurs in the blood by the
B. 100 μg enzyme plasma cholinesterase.
C. 200 μg A. Lidocaine
D. 1000 μg B. Bupivacaine
4. Local anesthetics act on what type of receptor? C. Mepivacaine
A. An ion channel receptor D. Articaine
B. A nuclear receptor 12. Which of the following local anesthetics is marketed for
C. A 7-membrane domain receptor linked to Gs dentistry in the United States in more than one concentration?
D. A 7-membrane domain receptor linked to Gq A. Bupivacaine
E. A membrane receptor with tyrosine kinase activity B. Mepivacaine
5. Local anesthetics act directly on the nerve membrane by C. Lidocaine
_____. D. Articaine
A. Increasing potassium flux 13. The major factor determining whether aspiration can be
B. Increasing nerve membrane permeability to sodium reliably performed is _____.
C. Increasing membrane excitability A. The needle gauge
D. Decreasing nerve membrane permeability to sodium B. The needle length
6. The following are reference for lingual nerve block, EXCEPT C. The injection performed
_____. D. The patient
A. Coronoid notch 14. A 50-year-old man complains of heartburn. Which one of
B. Retromolar triangle the following medications will help prevent acid secretion in
C. Occlusal plane of mandibular molars the stomach?
D. Angle of the mandible A. Omeprazole
7. What blocking technique to anesthetize maxillary molar on B. Cimetidine
one side with the mesio-buccal root of the first molar? C. Famotidine
A. PSAN, ASAN, middle palatine D. Ketoconazole
B. MSAN, ASAN, posterior palatine E. Ranitidine
C. PSAN, MSAN, posterior palatine 15. Accidental ingestion of warfarin can lead to elevated PT
D. MSAN, ION, middle palatine and PTT. Which one of the following is the most appropriate
8. Nitrous oxide alone is not use as a general anesthetic treatment?
because of the _____. A. Vitamin A
A. Adverse effect on the liver B. Vitamin B
B. Difficulty in maintaining an adequate oxygen C. Vitamin C
concentration D. Vitamin D
C. Poor analgestic properties E. Vitamin K
D. Expenses of the agent and its explosive hazard 16. All of the following statement is true regarding NSAIDs,
except:
A. Aspirin irreversibly inhibits cox-1 and cox-2
cyclooxygenases

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 B. All NSAIDs, except aspirin, are reversible inhibitors of D. Mepivicaine
cox-1 and cox-2 cyclooxygenases E. Bupivacaine
C. Prostaglandin synthesis is rarely affected 28. Oropharyngeal candidiasis is an adverse effect most likely
D. They are used for inflammation, analgesia, and with which drug?
antipyrexia A. Inhaled salmeterol
E. Side effects include dyspepsia,GIulcers,and renal B. Inhaled ipratropium
failure C. Inhaled nedocromil
17. The _____ is recommended for palatal soft-tissue D. Inhaled beclomethasone
management from canine to canine bilaterally in the maxilla. E. Inhaled methacholine
A. Posterior superior alveolar 29. A decrease in glycogenolysis in the liver would be expected
B. Inferior alveolar from which drug?
C. Long buccal A. Albuterol
D. Nasopalatine B. Epinephrine
18. What is the direct effect of local anesthetics on blood C. Glucagon
vessels in the area of injection? D. Insulin
A. Constriction E. Parathyroid hormone
B. Dilation 30. Drug agonists having the same intrinsic activity also have
C. Sclerosis the same _____.
D. Thrombosis A. Maximal effect
19. All of the following describe lidocaine as packaged in dental B. Potency
cartridges except _____. C. Receptor affinity
A. Provided in a 2% solution D. Therapeutic index
B. Provided with or without epinephrine E. Aqueous solubility
C. Has a pKa = 8.1 31. After an injection, which drug would be expected to have
D. Has a rapid onset the longest duration of action? (Assume no vasoconstrictor
20. 25-gauge needles are preferred to smaller-diameter ones was injected with the local anesthetic.)
due to all of the following reasons except _____. A. Bupivacaine
A. Greater accuracy in needle insertion for 25-gauge B. Lidocaine
needles C. Mepivacaine
B. Increased rate of needle breakage for 25-gauge D. Prilocaine
needles E. Procaine
C. Aspiration of blood is easier and more reliable through 32. The following are centrally acting antihypertensive, EXCEPT
a larger lumen _____.
D. There is no difference in pain of insertion A. Terazosin
21. A 1.0-ml volume of a 2% solution contains _____. B. Clonidine
A. 18 mg C. Tolazoline
B. 20 mg D. Methyldopa
C. 36 mg 33. Which of the following has the broadest spectrum of
D. 54 mg action, activity against gram positive and gram-negative
22. During local anesthetic administration, the patient should bacteria?
be placed in a _____ position. A. Tetracycline
A. Trendelenburg B. Clindamycin
B. Supine C. Erythromycin
C. Reclined D. Ampicillin
D. Semi-supine 34. Which of the following patterns on the use of drugs refers
23. According to Malamed, slow injection is defined as the to a decrease response to a drug?
deposition of 1 ml of local anesthetic solution in not less than A. Dependence
_____. B. Cross dependence
A. 15 seconds C. Tolerance
B. 30 seconds D. Withdrawal
C. 60 seconds 35. Which of the most preferable antibiotic form the treatment
D. 2 minutes of non-penicillinase producing gram-positive staphylococcal
24. The _____ nerve block is recommended for management infections?
of several maxillary molar teeth in one quadrant. A. Clindamycin
A. Posterior superior alveolar (PSA) B. Penicillin VK
B. Inferior alveolar (IA) C. Ampicillin
C. Long buccal (LB) D. Cefaclor
D. Nasopalatine (NP) 36. The duration of action of lidocaine would be increase din
25. Which drug lacks the amine group that other anesthetics the presence of which of the following medications?
have and is used only topically? A. Praosin
A. Procaine B. Propranolol
B. Mepivacaine C. Hydrochlorothiazide
C. Lidocaine D. Lisinopril
D. Benzocaine E. Digoxin
E. Prilocaine 37. Local anesthetics block nerve conduction by
26. A 40-pound child presents to your office for a pulpotomy A. Depolarizing the nerve membrane to neutrality
and placement of a stainless steel crown on tooth #L. What B. Increasing membrane permeability to K+
would be the approximate maximum recommended dose of C. Increasing membrane permeability to Na+
2% lidocaine? D. Preventing an increase in membrane permeability to
A. 1 carpule K+
B. 2 carpules E. Preventing an increase in membrane permeability to
C. 3 carpules Na+
D. 4 carpules 38. Local anesthetics theoretically should be less effective in
E. 5 carpules acutely inflamed tissue than in normal tissue than in normal
27. Which of the following local anesthetics is most likely to tissue because in inflamed tissue what happens?
cause an allergic reaction? A. The pH rises, thus inactivating the anesthetic
A. Lidocaine B. The pH rises, thus decreasing available free base
B. Propoxycaine
C. Prilocaine

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 C. The pH decreases, thus decreasing available free 49. After taking Drug X for 5 days, steady free blood levels
base average about 20 ug/mL. Drug Z is then introduced while the
D. The pH remains the same, the extracellular fluid patient continues to take Drug X, and the free blood levels of
dilutea the anesthetic Drug X increase to 100 ug/mL. What could have accounted for
39. Which of the following drugs is a bronchodilator? this?
A. Epinephrine A. Drug Z is a liver microsomal enzyme inducer
B. Albuterol (Proventil) B. Drugs X and Z formed a chelation product in the
C. Salmeterol (Serevent) intestine
D. Metaproterenol (Alupent) C. Drug Z increased the glomerular filtration rate
E. All of the above D. Drug Z has a positive inotropic and chronotropic
40. A type of regional anesthesia wherein local anesthetic effect
solution is deposited in close proximity to larger terminal E. Drugs X and Z are highly bound to plasma proteins
branches and relies in the diffusion of LA: 50. Many people use herbal supplements as alternate therapy
A. Nerve block for a variety of conditions. It is important for physicians and
B. Field block dentists to know what medications their patients are taking,
C. Local Infiltration including herbal supplements. St. John’s Wort is an example of
D. Topical a supplement commonly used to relieve depression. The
41. A dentist administers 1.8 ml of a 2% solution of lidocaine. simultaneous ingestion of the herbal St. John’s Wort has been
How many mg of lidocaine did the patient receive shown to decrease the half-life of oral contraceptives because
A. 3.6 St. John’s Wort:
B. 9 A. Blocks the active secretion of oral contraceptive
C. 18 B. Induces CYP-3A4 in the gut and liver
D. 36 C. Increases stomach acidity
E. 180 D. Blocks both estrogen and progesterone receptors
42. Which drugs tend to concentrate in body compartments of E. Decreases serotonin levels in the brain
high pH? 51. A patient presents to your office with the following current
A. Permanently charged drugs medication list: warfarin, aspirin, and clotrimazole. Before
B. Drugs that are not charged beginning the procedure you had planned, you decide it is
C. Weak organic acids worthwhile to look up further information on these drugs.
D. Weak organic bases Warfarin is metabolized in the liver and has a volume of
E. Inorganic ions distribution of approximately 0.14 L/kg. You are slightly
43. The medical uses of a drug having adrenergic agonist concerned that this patient may experience increased bleeding
actions would include which of the following? because of these properties along with the concomitant
A. Reverse an anaphylactic reaction medications he is taking. Which of the following properties of a
B. Treat hypertension drug is the least likely to contribute to a significant adverse
C. Prevent angina pectoris interaction with another drug?
D. Reduce anxiety A. The drug has a low therapeutic index
E. All of the above B. The drug has minimal protein binding
44. Which drug used in the therapy for Parkinsonism does not C. The drug undergoes extensive cytochrome P450
cross the blood–brain barrier? metabolism
A. Amantadine D. The drug is an enzyme inducer
B. Carbidopa E. The drug has a low volume of distribution
C. L-dopa 52. You received a call from the emergency department at
D. Selegiline your local hospital concerning a pediatric patient that you
E. Tolcapone recently treated. The patient is a 6-year-old boy who was
45. Which one of the following is true regarding paroxetine? brought to the emergency department in a comatose state. His
A. It specifically inhibits serotonin reuptake parents state that he recently visited your office for extraction
B. It is used to treat mania of a grossly decayed primary tooth. The parents state that
C. It can be safely taken with monoamine oxidase they had given him a few pain pills to help with the discomfort
inhibitor (MAOI) following the extraction. Physical examination of the boy
D. GI upset is not a common side effect revealed “comatose, hepatomegaly, and yellow sclera.” A
E. Sexual dysfunction is rarely reported computerized tomography (CT) scan revealed cerebral edema.
46. Continuous infusion of medication A is given to a 65-kg Laboratory results showed elevated alanine aminotransferase
patient. The pharmacokinetic parameters are as follows: (ALT), aspartate aminotransferase (AST), and prothrombin
clearance = 9mL/min/kg, volume of distribution =65 L, half- time (PT). The emergency department physician believes that
life=4 hours. How long will it take for the medication level to treatment with the antidote N-acetylcysteine is necessary but
reach 93.75% of steady state? has called you to confirm whether you prescribed any
A. 8 hours medications. What agent is most likely involved in the
B. 10 hours symptoms of this patient?
C. 14 hours A. Aspirin
D. 16 hours B. Acetaminophen
E. 18 hours C. Codeine
47. Which one of the following benzodiazepines does not D. Celecoxib
require Phase I metabolism by the liver? E. Ibuprofen
A. Alprazolam 53. Your patient presents to your office and reports
B. Oxazepam thatherecentlycompleteda2-monthcourseof the following
C. Midazolam medications: isoniazid, rifampin, ethambutol, and
D. Triazolam pyrazinamide. He states that a few months back, he acquired
E. Diazepam an infection while working at a homeless shelter in the nearby
48. A patient presents to your office for a surgical extraction. city and was admitted to the hospital after developing
Following the procedure, you prescribe the patient tylenol #3 pneumonia. His most recent chest x-ray was negative, but he
(acetaminophen + codeine). The patient is taking several other still has a positive skin test. On the basis of the disease, this
drugs concurrently. Which of the following drugs is most likely patient has been treated for and the intraoral image taken
to inhibit the effectiveness of codeine? during the examination, what oral mucosal lesion does this
A. Terazosin patient have?
B. Glipizide A. Linea alba
C. Lisinopril B. Nonhealing ulcer
D. Fluoxetine C. Perioral vesicles
E. Lithium

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 D. Hairy leukoplakia 62. Which class of antihypertensive drug most effectively
E. Lichen planus reduces the release of renin from the kidney?
54. Your 55-year-old male patient is scheduled for three A. β-adrenergic receptor blockers
quadrants of periodontal surgery. Each surgical procedure is B. ACE inhibitors
scheduled 4 weeks apart. This patient is allergic to penicillin C. α-adrenergic receptor blockers
and has a history of a mitral valve prolapse. On the basis of D. Calcium channel blockers
the current guidelines, which prescription would be most E. Angiotensin II receptor blockers
appropriate to adequately premedicate this patient for all of his 63. The use of H2 histamine receptor blockers is most clinically
visits? useful at what cell type?
A. Amoxicillin 2-g tablets; Disp: 3 tablets; Sig: take 1 A. Beta cells of the pancreas
tablet 30–60 minutes prior to dental procedure B. Basophils
B. Amoxicillin 2-g tablets; Disp: 6 tables; Sig: take 2 C. Mast cells
tablets 30–60 minutes prior to dental procedure D. Juxtaglomerular cells
C. Clindamycin600-mgtablets; Disp: 3 tablets; Sig: take E. Parietal cells
1 tablet 30–60minutespriortodental procedure 64. What is the clinical setting for the use of ketorolac by the
D. Clindamycin600-mgtablets; Disp: 6 tablets; Sig: take oral route?
2 tablets 30–60 minutes prior to dental procedure A. For severe pain
E. No prescription necessary B. For initial treatment of pain
55. N-acetylcysteine is used as an antidote for overdose of C. To continue therapy after an IV or IM dose of
which of the following medications? ketorolac
A. Acetaminophen D. Only in combination with an opioid
B. Ibuprofen E. Only in combination with an NSAID
C. Celecoxib 65. What is the mechanism of the analgesic action of aspirin?
D. Indomethacin A. Stimulates μ opioid receptors
E. Naproxen B. Blocks histamine H2 receptors
56. A 55-year-old female patient was referred to your office by C. Inhibits cyclooxygenase
her physician because she is preparing to receive an infusion D. Inhibits lipoxygenase
of zoledronic acid. Her physician told her to see a dentist to E. Blocks sodium channels in nerves
determine if she has any teeth that may need to be extracted 66. Naloxone antagonizes the therapeutic and toxic effects of
in the near future. If so, these should be extracted prior to the which drug?
infusion because of the risk of poor bone healing A. Acetaminophen
(osteonecrosis) that sometimes occurs in patients receiving B. Aspirin
infusions of zoledronic acid. Prior to the infusion, the patient C. Carbamazepine
was taking an oral form of this type of drug. What is another D. Fentanyl
major side effect of the oral form that her physician may have E. Ibuprofen
warned her about? 67. What is the approximate elimination half-time for penicillin
A. Anemia V?
B. Xerostomia A. 0.5 hour
C. Edema B. 2 hours
D. Esophageal perforation C. 4 hours
E. Orthostatic hypotension D. 8 hours
57. Which of the following organisms is usually sensitive to E. 12 hours
clindamycin? 68. Pick the organism that is usually clinically sensitive to
A. Candida albicans clarithromycin but not to penicillin V.
B. Klebsiella pneumoniae A. Streptococcus viridans
C. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus B. Leptotrichia buccalis
D. Streptococcus viridans C. Mycoplasma pneumoniae
E. Pseudomonas aeruginosa D. Streptococcus pneumoniae
58. Which drug is often combined with sulfamethoxazole for E. Streptococcus pyogenes
the treatment of respiratory tract and urinary tract infections? 69. Methicillin-resistant Staphylococci are most likely to be
A. Amoxicillin inhibited by which drug?
B. Ciprofloxacin A. Amoxicillin
C. Clindamycin B. Clarithromycin
D. Metronidazole C. Clindamycin
E. Trimethoprim D. Vancomycin
59. Identify the enzyme whose inhibition is most responsible E. Penicillin V
for the cell wall synthesis inhibitory effect of penicillin G. 70. Stimulation of gluconeogenesis and lipolysis are most
A. β-lactamase characteristic of which hormone?
B. DNA gyrase A. Calcitonin
C. Nitro reductase B. Cortisol
D. Transglycosylase C. Insulin
E. Transpeptidase D. Parathyroid hormone
60. Clavulanic acid offers an advantage therapeutically because E. Progesterone
it has what action? 71. Which drug is most selective as a glucocorticosteroid?
A. It inhibits Streptococci at a low minimum inhibitory A. Aldosterone
concentration (MIC). B. Dexamethasone
B. It inhibits transpeptidase. C. Fludrocortisone
C. It inhibits penicillinase. D. Hydrocortisone
D. It inhibits anaerobes at a low MIC. 72. Which of the following drugs blocks the aldosterone
E. It inhibits DNA gyrase. receptor?
61. what effect on blood vessel smooth muscle? A. Amiloride
A. Increase in the level of intracellular calcium B. Triamterene
B. Increase in the level of cyclic guanosine C. Losartan
monophosphate (cGMP) D. Spironolactone
C. Antagonism at α1-adrenergic receptors E. Furosemide
D. Antagonism at β-adrenergic receptors
E. Inhibition of L-type calcium channels

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73. Inhibiting a-glucosidase and reducing glucose absorption C. Heart
from the gastrointestinal tract is the mechanism of action of D. Liver
which drug? E. Lung
A. Acarbose 83. A prescription for which of the following drugs requires a
B. Acetoheximide valid DEA number on the prescription?
C. Glyburide A. Amoxicillin
D. Metformin B. Carbamazepine
E. Pioglitazone C. Dexamethasone
74. Which one of the following drugs enters the target cell and D. Diphenhydramine
acts on a nuclear receptor? E. Oxycodone
A. Diazepam 84. What would be the effect of prior administration of a
B. Epinephrine competitive drug antagonist on the concentration–response
C. Insulin profile of a drug agonist on a graded concentration–response
D. Prednisone curve? (Assume that both drugs act at the same receptor.)
E. Heparin A. The agonist curve would shift to the left.
75. Which antihypertensive drug also increases bradykinin B. The agonist curve would shift to the right.
levels? C. The agonist curve would not change.
A. Candesartan D. The agonist curve would not shift but would reach a
B. Furosemide lower maximal effect than the curve with agonist
C. Lisinopril alone.
D. Metoprolol E. The agonist curve would both shift to the left and
E. Nifedipine have a lower maximal effect.
76. A patient is administered haloperidol. Along with the 85. Most drug molecules are absorbed into the tissue by way
haloperidol, the patient also receives benztropine. What is the of _____.
most likely reason for administering the benztropine? A. Blood circulation
A. To reduce the effects of histamine release B. Lipid solubility
B. To aid in the therapeutic response to haloperidol C. Water solubility
C. To reduce the motor adverse effects of haloperidol D. Carrier specificity
D. To overcome a decrease in salivary flow resulting 86. What is the reaction of drugs that cannot be explained by
from haloperidol known mechanism?
E. To reduce the rate of kidney excretion of haloperidol A. Idiosyncracy
77. Motor adverse effects from phenothiazine antipsychotic B. Allergic reaction
drugs are due to drug effects in what region of the brain? C. Teratogenic effects
A. Chemoreceptor trigger zone D. Adverse effects
B. Cerebrum 87. Adrenergic neuron blocking drugs, such as guanethidine,
C. Cerebellum are useful primarily in the treatment of _____.
D. Nigro-striatal pathway A. Cholinergic crisis
E. Mesolimbic pathway B. Paroxysmal tachycardia
78. The administration of which compound will give C. Essential hypertension
“epinephrine reversal” (drop in blood pressure from D. Cardiac arrest
epinephrine) if given prior to administration of epinephrine? 88. What is the contraindication of metronidazole?
A. Atropine A. SABE
B. Guanethidine B. Tachycardia
C. Propranolol C. Hypertension
D. Phenoxybenzamine D. Trichomoniasis
E. Tyramine 89. What is the common complication of infra orbital nerve
79. Which of the following effects is a typical effect of an block?
antimuscarinic drug? A. Hematoma
A. Bronchoconstriction B. Edema
B. Lacrimation C. Blindness
C. Miosis D. Ecchymosis
D. Sweating 90. What anesthetic technique is used when the solution is
E. Urinary retention deposited in the pterygomandibular space?
80. Which is a nicotinic receptor? A. Inferior alveolar nerve block
A. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the skeletal– B. Local infiltration
neuromuscular junction C. Intraosseous
B. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction D. Mandibular nerve block
between the postganglionic sympathetic nerve and 91. The following are possible reasons why some local
sweat glands anesthetic preparations have a longer duration of action than
C. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction others, EXCEPT ______
between the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve A. degree of lipid solubility
and the parotid gland B. concentration of local anesthetic solution
D. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction C. presence of vasoconstrictor
between the postganglionic sympathetic nerve and D. percent of protein binding
blood vessels 92. Each of the following is a good reason for using sedation,
E. Receptor for the neurotransmitter at the junction EXCEPT to ____.
between the postganglionic parasympathetic nerve A. Decrease the amount of local anesthesia that is
and the heart required
81. How many human drug testing phases are carried out B. Alleviate stress in a severely medically compromised
before a drug is marketed? patient
A. One C. Allay apprehension, anxiety or fear
B. Two D. Accomplish certain procedures to an anxious patient
C. Three 93. The following method can be used to control pain, EXCEPT
D. Four A. Cortical depression
82. Tight capillary cell junctions resulting in an added barrier to B. Raising the pain threshold
the entry of drugs is most characteristic of which organ or C. Psychosomatic (hypnosis) method
tissue? D. Depression of the autonomic nervous system
A. Adrenal gland
B. Brain

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94. In PSAN block, the needle approximates _____.
I. Posterior to posterior surface of maxilla
II. Anterior to external pterygoid muscles
III. Anterior to pterygoid plexus of veins
IV. Posterior to external pterygoid muscles
A. I, II, III
B. I, III, IV
C. II, III, IV
D. I, II, IV
95. What is the maximum safe dose of epinephrine that can be
administered to patient with history of significant
cardiovascular impairment?
A. 1cc, 1:50,000
B. 1cc, 1:100,000
C. 2cc,1: 50,000
D. 2cc, 1:100,000
96. What is the pH value of mepivacaine HCL 2 % ?
A. 4.5 – 6.8
B. 5.5 – 7
C. 2.5 -3.3
D. 3.3 - 5.5
97. The following side effects as vomiting, chills, headache,
restlessness, back pain, sexual dysfunction are seen on _____.
A. Prilocaine
B. Mepivacaine
C. Bupivacaine
D. Lidocaine
98. What does HAART stands for?
A. Highly Accurate Antiretroviral therapy
B. Human Activated Antiretroviral Therapy
C. Histiocyte Active Antiretroviral Treatment
D. Highly Active Antiretroviral Therapy
99. Which of the following are treatment for acetaminophen
poisoning?
I. Oral N-acetylcysteine
II. IV N- acetylcysteine
III. Active charcoal
IV. IV normal saline solution
A. I, II, III,
B. III, IV
C. I, IV
D. II, III, IV
100. In therapeutic doses, Digitalis acts primarily on cardiac
muscles by increasing the:
A. Rate of impulse conduction
B. Refractory period of atrial muscles
C. Refractory period of ventricular muscles
D. Force of contraction

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