Full Test - 04 : RRB Paramedical

Radiographer
Total Time: 1 Hour : 30 Minute Total Marks: 100

Instructions

Sl No. of Maximum Negative Positive

Section Name
No. Question Marks Marks Marks

1 Radiographer 70 70 0.33 1

2 General Awareness 10 10 0.33 1

General Arithmetic, General

3 10 10 0.33 1
Intelligence, and Reasoning

4 General Science 10 10 0.33 1

1.) A total of 90 minutes is allotted for the examination.

2.) The server will set your clock for you. In the top right corner of your screen, a
countdown timer will display the remaining time for you to complete the exam. Once the
timer reaches zero, the examination will end automatically. The paper need not be
submitted when your timer reaches zero.

3.) There will, however, be sectional timing for this exam. You will have to complete each
section within the specified time limit. Before moving on to the next section, you must
complete the current one within the time limits.
 Radiographer

1. The most complex joint of the body is: (+1, -0.33)

a. Hip joint

b. Knee joint

c. Shoulder joint

d. Elbow joint

2. Enteroclysis is synonymous with: (+1, -0.33)

a. Barium meal follow-through

b. Hypotonic duodenography

c. All of the above

d. Small bowel enema

3. How does gadolinium work in MRI? (+1, -0.33)

a. Reduce T1 relaxation time

b. Increase T1 relaxation time

c. Increase T2 relaxation time

d. Reduce T2 relaxation time

4. The X-ray view of choice for lumbar spondylosis is/are: (+1, -0.33)
 a. PA view

b. AP view

c. Left oblique view

d. Right oblique view

5. The major fissure in the lungs is called: (+1, -0.33)

a. Azygos

b. Oblique

c. Horizontal

d. Cardiac

6. Which of the following barium-/air-filled anatomic structures is best (+1, -0.33)

demonstrated in the RAO position?

a. Splenic flexure

b. Hepatic flexure

c. Sigmoid colon

d. Ileocecal valve

7. If the height of lead strips is 2.00 mm and the distance between lead strips (+1, -0.33)
is 0.25 mm, what is the grid ratio?

a. 0.5
 b. 10

c. 8

d. 4

8. Which is NOT true for the latent image formation on X-ray film? (+1, -0.33)

a. Sensitivity specks

b. Silver ion is reduced to silver atoms

c. Latent image forms after exposure of film

d. Latent image forms after development of film

9. Full form of PET is: (+1, -0.33)

a. Position Ejection tomography

b. Positron Emission tomography

c. Position Emission transference

d. Proton Emission tomography

10. The CR imaging plate reader uses a laser to scan the imaging plate, (+1, -0.33)
releasing the energy stored in the conductive layer as ............. light.

a. Red

b. Ultraviolet

c. Blue
 d. White

11. The power loss in a transformer is due to: (+1, -0.33)

a. Cable loss

b. Hysteresis

c. Eddy current

d. All of the above

12. Which is NOT true about rare earth screens? (+1, -0.33)

a. Faster than tungsten screen

b. Cheaper than tungsten screen

c. Less exposure than tungsten screen

d. Conversion efficiency is better than tungsten

13. Blue color on a USG screen refers to: (+1, -0.33)

a. Blood flow towards the transducer

b. Blood flow away from the transducer

c.

d.

14. Which imaging view is most useful for bone age evaluation? (+1, -0.33)
 a. Lateral skull

b. PA chest

c. AP pelvis

d. PA hand

15. Which CT scanner type was used in the fourth generation? (+1, -0.33)

a. Translate-rotate type

b. Stationary-rotate type

c. Rotate-rotate type

d. None of the above

16. The largest bone in the human body is: (+1, -0.33)

a. Tibia

b. Femur

c. Humerus

d. Radius

17. Which component of tobacco smoke is a major cause of respiratory (+1, -0.33)
diseases, including lung cancer?

a. Nicotine

b. Carbon monoxide
 c. Formaldehyde

d. Tar

18. To read out the TLD card in the TL analyzer, how much time does it take? (+1, -0.33)

a. 30 minutes

b. 4 minutes

c. 10 minutes

d. 15 minutes

19. The number of chromosomes in humans is: (+1, -0.33)

a. 44

b. 46

c. 48

d. 50

20. X-rays are formed when electrons hit the: (+1, -0.33)

a. Cathode

b. Anode

c. Heat

d. Water
21. Which is not a member of the electromagnetic spectrum? (+1, -0.33)

a. Sound

b. Light

c. Infrared

d. Ultraviolet

22. USG jelly is made of: (+1, -0.33)

a. Water and colorant

b. Propylene glycol

c. Glycerin

d. All of the above

23. The particle of discrete bundles of energy released from the (+1, -0.33)
electromagnetic spectrum is known as?

a. Quantum

b. Radiation

c. Angstrom

d. Frequency

24. The transrectal scanner is best at which frequency? (+1, -0.33)

 a. 5 – 7.5 MHz

b. 3 – 7.5 MHz

c. 3 – 5 MHz

d. 8 – 12 MHz

25. The phosphor that Roentgen used in early experiments with X-rays was (+1, -0.33)
which of the following?

a. Cadmium tungstate

b. Calcium tungstate

c. Rare earth

d. Zinc cadmium sulfide

26. The inferior surface of the foot is known as: (+1, -0.33)

a. Lateral aspect

b. Medial aspect

c. Dorsal aspect

d. Plantar aspect

27. Difference between the right and left lung? (+1, -0.33)

a. Major fissure only in right lung

b. Major fissure only in left lung

 c. Minor fissure only in right lung

d. Minor fissure only in left lung

28. For X-rays to travel, it requires? (+1, -0.33)

a. No medium required

b. Presence of water

c. Presence of oxygen

d. None

29. The device which converts one value of alternating current to another is (+1, -0.33)
known as a:

a. Rectifier

b. X-ray tube

c. Transformer

d. Kenotron

30. The advantage of a 3-phase generator over a single-phase generator is: (+1, -0.33)

a. Short exposure time and high tube rating

b. Large exposure time and high tube rating

c. Large exposure time and low tube rating

d. Short exposure time and low tube rating

31. The filament current in an x-ray tube is about: (+1, -0.33)

a. 5-10 amp

b. 10-15 amp

c. 0-5 amp

d. 8-12 amp

32. What is the function of the myelin sheath? (+1, -0.33)

a. Speed up nerve impulse transmission

b. Produce neurotransmitters

c. Store energy

d. Regulate body temperature

33. Which of the following antitubercular drugs causes peripheral (+1, -0.33)
neuropathy?

a. Dapsone

b. Isoniazid

c. Rifampicin

d. Pyrazinamide

34. In the X-ray tube, how much percentage of the electrical power supplied (+1, -0.33)
is converted to X-rays?
 a. 15%

b. Less than 1%

c. More than 1%

d. 99.90%

35. Regarding scaphoid radiography, which of the following is NOT true? (+1, -0.33)

a. In PA with hand adducted, centering will be midway between radial

and ulnar styloid processes

b. In the anterior oblique view, centering on the ulnar styloid process

c. In posterior oblique view, centering will be on the radial styloid

process

d. In lateral view, centering will be on the radial styloid process

36. The unit used to express kinetic energy released in matter is the: (+1, -0.33)

a. Erg

b. Gray

c. Kerma

d. Rad

37. Lymph contains: (+1, -0.33)

a. RBC
 b. WBC

c. Platelet

d. All of the above

38. The inner ear is also called as: (+1, -0.33)

a. Pinna

b. Auditory ossicle

c. Labyrinth

d. Eardrum

39. What is the function of ADC (Analog to Digital Converter)? (+1, -0.33)

a. It converts analog signals to digital signals

b. It converts digital signals to electric signals

c. It converts light signals to electric signals

d. None of the above

40. The centering point in a standard PA chest view is located at the: (+1, -0.33)

a. 5th thoracic vertebra

b. 6th thoracic vertebra

c. 7th thoracic vertebra

 d. 9th thoracic vertebra

41. What type of joint allows for the widest range of motion? (+1, -0.33)

a. Ball and socket joint

b. Pivot

c. Hinge

d. Saddle

42. HSG is a procedure used to demonstrate: (+1, -0.33)

a. Uterus and fallopian tube

b. Liver and biliary system

c. Gastrointestinal tract

d. Urinary tract

43. CT numbers are otherwise known as: (+1, -0.33)

a. Window width

b. CT dose index

c. Window level

d. Hounsfield units
44. The system of the body that coordinates and controls its activity is known (+1, -0.33)
as the:

a. Organ system

b. Muscular system

c. Nervous tissue

d. Nervous system

45. Which of the following radiations would not penetrate the skin? (+1, -0.33)

a. Gamma

b. Beta particles

c. Alpha particles

d. X-ray

46. Impingement on the wrist's median nerve causing pain and disability to (+1, -0.33)
the affected hand and wrist is known as:

a. Carpal boss syndrome

b. Carpal tunnel syndrome

c. Carpopedal syndrome

d. Radioulnar syndrome

47. What is the unit of absorbed dose in the SI system? (+1, -0.33)
 a. Curie

b. Rad

c. Rem

d. Gray

48. The roentgen relates to which of the following? (+1, -0.33)

a. A dose equivalent

b. A radiation-absorbed dose

c. Ions produced in the air

d. Isotropic emission

49. Geometric blur can be minimized by: (+1, -0.33)

a. Using a small focal spot

b. Increasing the focal-film distance (FFD)

c. Reducing the object-to-film distance

d. All of the above

50. What was the scan format in the second-generation CT scanner? (+1, -0.33)

a. Stationary-Rotate

b. Rotate-Stationary
 c. Translate-Rotate

d. Rotate-Rotate

51. The process of bone formation is called: (+1, -0.33)

a. Resorption

b. Ossification

c. Calcification

d. Periosteum

52. Name the basic structural and functional unit of the nervous system: (+1, -0.33)

a. Neuroglia

b. Glial cells

c. Neurons

d. Perikaryon

53. In PA projection of hand, the hand is in: (+1, -0.33)

a. Pronated

b. Supinated

c. Everted

d. Flexed
54. Heel effect depends on: (+1, -0.33)

a. Anode angle

b. Size of the anode

c. Shape of the anode

d. None of the above

55. Rhee's view is done for the: (+1, -0.33)

a. Patella

b. Optic foramen

c. Petrous pyramids

d. Paranasal sinuses

56. Paranasal sinuses include all of the following except: (+1, -0.33)

a. Mastoid

b. Frontal

c. Maxillary

d. Sphenoid

57. In ionic contrast media, the iodine acts as: (+1, -0.33)

a. Anion
 b. Cation

c. Both

d. None

58. Which part of the tooth closely resembles bone tissue? (+1, -0.33)

a. Enamel

b. Cementum

c. Dentin

d. Gingiva

59. The “Heel Effect” refers to: (+1, -0.33)

a. Intensity of the X-ray beam being higher on the cathode side

b. Intensity of the X-ray beam being higher on the anode side

c. Intensity of the X-ray beam being equal on both sides

d. Intensity of the X-ray beam being lower on the cathode side

60. Which of the following atomic particles is the basis of MRI? (+1, -0.33)

a. Proton

b. Electron

c. Neutron
 d. All

61. The production of sperm in the testes is called: (+1, -0.33)

a. Oogenesis

b. Spermatogenesis

c. Gametogenesis

d. Primary oogonia

62. The tissue that is always exposed to the environment or a cavity or space (+1, -0.33)
is the:

a. Nervous

b. Connective tissue

c. Skin

d. Epithelial tissue

63. Glucagon is secreted by: (+1, -0.33)

a. Alpha cells

b. F cells

c. Beta cells

d. Delta cells
64. The tympanic membrane is also called as: (+1, -0.33)

a. Pinna

b. Auditory ossicle

c. Eardrum

d. None of the above

65. Which of the following laws is applied in radiation protection? (+1, -0.33)

a. Lenz's law

b. Faraday's law

c. Inverse square law

d. Newton's law

66. Dose in CT can be reduced by which of the following parameter (+1, -0.33)
adjustments (assuming other factors constant)?

a. Increasing kV

b. Increasing mAs

c. Increasing Pitch

d. Increasing scan length

67. Full form of NMR is: (+1, -0.33)

 a. Nuclear Magnetic Resolution

b. Nuclear Machine Response

c. Nuclear Magnetic Resonance

d. Non Contrast Magnetisation Resolution

68. The K-shell binding energy of iodine is: (+1, -0.33)

a. 37.3 keV

b. 33.7 keV

c. 19.1 keV

d. 23.9 keV

69. A compound filter is made up of: (+1, -0.33)

a. Copper and aluminium

b. Copper and lead

c. Lead and aluminium

d. Aluminium and tin

70. Which of the following is true about computed radiography images? (+1, -0.33)

a. Narrow exposure latitude

b. Wide exposure latitude

c. Improved contrast resolution

d. Both B & C
 General Awareness

71. Norman Borlaug is known as ‘the father of Green Revolution’ in the world. (+1, -0.33)
He belonged to which country?

a. The US

b. France

c. Germany

d. Poland

72. Who founded the Golconda Dynasty (sultanate)? (+1, -0.33)

a. Adil Shah

b. Mohammad Govam

c. Quli Qutb Shah

d. Bahman Shah

73. Protection of life and liberty is included under which Article of the (+1, -0.33)
Constitution of India?

a. Article 21

b. Article 23

c. Article 24

d. Article 20
74. Which of the following articles of the Indian Constitution states the right (+1, -0.33)
of minorities?

a. Article 21

b. Article 12

c. Article 30

d. Article 14

75. Which organization developed the Bio-Decomposer used for stubble (+1, -0.33)
burning management?

a. Indian Council of Agricultural Research (ICAR)

b. Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI)

c. National Bureau of Plant Genetic Resources (NBPGR)

d. Central Soil Salinity Research Institute (CSSRI)

76. Identify the person who was the first to start the individual Satyagraha (+1, -0.33)
and was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award for Community
Leadership in 1958.

a. Mahatma Gandhi

b. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

c. Jawahar Lal Nehru

d. Vinoba Bhave
77. Which river rises in Tibet, near Mansarovar Lake? (+1, -0.33)

a. Ganga

b. Brahmaputra

c. Kaveri

d. Beas

78. The BRICS Bank would have its headquarter in? (+1, -0.33)

a. India

b. Russia

c. China

d. South Africa

79. Which organization has launched Ugram, the indigenous assault rifle for (+1, -0.33)
the Indian armed forces?

a. Tata Advanced Systems Limited (TASL)

b. Defence Research and Development Organisation

c. Dvipa Armour India Private Limited

d. Ordnance Factories Institute of Learning, Ishapore

80. What does the SPARSH system in Project NAMAN handle? (+1, -0.33)

a. Recruitment and training of armed forces personnel

b. Pension sanction and disbursement requirements for Armed Forces

c. Procurement and logistics for defense equipment

d. Battlefield management and strategic operations

 General Arithmetic, General Intelligence, and Reasoning

81. Mr Z who is facing east takes a left turn and walks 5 km to reach point A. (+1, -0.33)
Then he takes a left turn and walks 4 km to reach point B. Thereafter he
takes a right turn and travels 3 km to reach point C. Again turning right he
travels 10 km to reach point D. In which direction is Mr Z from his starting
position?

a. West

b. North West

c. North

d. North east

82. In a code language, if “SIMPLE” is coded as ‘20101417136’ then how will (+1, -0.33)
“TRENDY” be coded in the same language?

a. 2119615526

b. 2118615525

c. 2111716526

d. 2120171825

83. If cos(A - B) = 2
3 ​

​ and cot(A + B) = 1
3
​

​
, Where A - B and A + B are acute (+1, -0.33)
angles, then (2A - 3B) is equal to:

a. 60°

b. 15°
 c. 45°

d. 30°

84. An item is sold for ₹ 649 with a profit of 18%, what will be the loss (+1, -0.33)
percentage if that item is sold for ₹ 418?

a. 24.5

b. 24

c. 25

d. 22.5

85. What is 80% of 50% of 90? (+1, -0.33)

a. 30

b. 34

c. 32

d. 36

86. The age of a mother 10 years ago was thrice the age of her son. 10 years (+1, -0.33)
hence, the mother’s age will be twice that of her son. The ratio of their
present ages is:

a. 12 : 5

b. 6 : 1

c. 7 : 3
 d. 4 : 2

87. Two vehicles which are 100 km apart are running towards each other in a (+1, -0.33)
straight line. In how much time will they met each other provided they
follow a uniform speed of 45 km per hour and 80 km per hour
respectively?

a. 60 minutes

b. 55 minutes

c. 48 minutes

d. 45 minutes

88. Akanksha starts walking from point F in the west direction and walks 9 m, (+1, -0.33)
then takes a right turn and walks 20 m to reach point G. From G, she takes
two consecutive right turns and walks 10 m and 12 m respectively to
reach point H. Finally, she turns towards the north and walks 4 m to reach
point Z. In which direction is point Z with respect to point G?

a. South-west

b. North-east

c. South-east

d. East

89. Find the next number in the series. (+1, -0.33)

4, 9, 20, 43, ?

a. 100
 b. 92

c. 82

d. 90

90. If the area of a square is 529 cm2, then what is the length of its diagonal? (+1, -0.33)

a. 23 cm

b. 26√3 cm

c. 23√2 cm

d. 46 cm
 General Science

91. The audible range of sound for human beings extends from about (+1, -0.33)
_______.

a. 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz

b. 10 Hz to 10,000 Hz

c. 40 Hz to 40,000 Hz

d. 30 Hz to 30,000 Hz

92. Clouds looking white in colour are due to the phenomenon of _____. (+1, -0.33)

a. Reflection of light

b. Scattering of light

c. Refraction of light

d. Radiation

93. The Cells were first discovered by which of the following? (+1, -0.33)

a. Robert Hooke

b. Robert Brown

c. Sir Alexander Fleming

d. Louis Pasteur

94. Momentum = ________ (+1, -0.33)

 a. mass × Acceleration

b. Mass / Volume

c. Mass × Velocity

d. Mass × Density

95. Roots, stems and leaves of some plants develop into new plants through (+1, -0.33)
the process of _______.

a. Fragmentation

b. Multiple fragmentation

c. Vegetative propagation

d. Uplift

96. Which one of the following is used as an explosive? (+1, -0.33)

a. Mercuric acid

b. Phosphorus trichloride

c. Nitroglycerine

d. Graphite

97. Breathing in about 900 parts of _____ in a million parts of air for a short (+1, -0.33)
time causes fatigue, dizziness, and headache.

a. pesticides
 b. asbestos particles

c. chloroform

d. arsenic

98. Which of the following groups are called 'cryptogamae'? (+1, -0.33)

a. Thallophyta, Bryophyta and angiosperms

b. Bryophyta, Peteridophyta and Angiosperms

c. Gymnosperms, angiosperms and Thallopyta

d. Thallophyta, Pteridophyta and Bryophyta

99. When you stretch a rubber band, the energy transferred is stored in the (+1, -0.33)
form of ________-

a. Potential energy

b. Muscular energy

c. Mechanical energy

d. Kinetic energy

100. NaCl is a salt which is made up of: (+1, -0.33)

a. Strong acid and weak base

b. Weak acid and weak base

c. Strong acid and strong base

d. Weak acid and strong base
 Answers

1. Answer: c

Explanation:

The shoulder joint (glenohumeral joint) is considered the most complex joint due to
its wide range of motion and structural intricacies.

2. Answer: d

Explanation:

Enteroclysis is synonymous with small bowel enema.

It is a diagnostic medical procedure used to examine the small intestine. During

enteroclysis:

1. A contrast material (such as barium or a water-soluble contrast agent) is

introduced directly into the small intestine through a tube inserted into the nose
or mouth and advanced to the duodenum.
2. X-rays or fluoroscopy are then used to visualize the small intestine, helping to
diagnose conditions like blockages, Crohn's disease, tumors, or malabsorption
syndromes.

It's a specialized imaging test performed less frequently now due to advancements
in CT and MRI enterography.

3. Answer: a

Explanation:
 Gadolinium shortens the T1 relaxation time, resulting in enhanced contrast in MRI
images.

4. Answer: b

Explanation:

The AP view is the preferred X-ray projection for evaluating lumbar spondylosis.

5. Answer: b

Explanation:

The oblique fissure is the major fissure that separates the lobes of the lungs.

6. Answer: b

Explanation:

The hepatic flexure is best demonstrated in the RAO position during a barium enema
procedure.

7. Answer: c

Explanation:

The grid ratio is calculated as the height of the lead strips (2.00 mm) divided by the
distance between them (0.25 mm), resulting in a grid ratio of 8:1.
8. Answer: d

Explanation:

The latent image forms after exposure to X-rays or light, not after development.

9. Answer: b

Explanation:

PET stands for Positron Emission Tomography, a nuclear imaging technique used to
observe metabolic processes in the body.

10. Answer: c

Explanation:

The CR imaging plate reader releases the stored energy as blue light during the
scanning process.

11. Answer: d

Explanation:

Power loss in a transformer occurs due to cable loss, hysteresis, and eddy currents.

12. Answer: b

Explanation:
 Rare earth screens are more expensive than tungsten screens due to their higher
efficiency and speed.

13. Answer: b

Explanation:

Blue on a Doppler ultrasound image indicates blood flow away from the transducer.

14. Answer: d

Explanation:

The PA hand view is commonly used for bone age evaluation, particularly in
pediatric patients.

15. Answer: b

Explanation:

The fourth-generation CT scanners used a stationary-rotate design, where the

detectors were stationary, and only the X-ray tube rotated around the patient.

16. Answer: b

Explanation:

The femur is the largest bone in the human body, found in the thigh.
17. Answer: d

Explanation:

Tar is a major component of tobacco smoke responsible for respiratory diseases,

including lung cancer.

18. Answer: b

Explanation:

It typically takes about 4 minutes to read out a TLD card in a Thermoluminescent

Analyzer.

19. Answer: b

Explanation:

Humans have 46 chromosomes, arranged in 23 pairs.

20. Answer: b

Explanation:

X-rays are produced when high-speed electrons hit the anode in the X-ray tube.

21. Answer: a

Explanation:
 Sound is not part of the electromagnetic spectrum; it is a mechanical wave, while
light, infrared, and ultraviolet are part of the electromagnetic spectrum.

22. Answer: d

Explanation:

Ultrasound gel typically contains water, propylene glycol, and glycerin, which allow
sound waves to transmit effectively.

23. Answer: a

Explanation:

The quantum is the particle of discrete energy bundles, commonly referred to as

photons in the context of electromagnetic radiation.

24. Answer: a

Explanation:

Transrectal ultrasound scanners operate best at frequencies between 5 – 7.5 MHz,

offering good resolution and depth penetration.

25. Answer: b

Explanation:

Calcium tungstate was the phosphor used by Roentgen in his early experiments
with X-rays.
26. Answer: d

Explanation:

The plantar aspect refers to the bottom or inferior surface of the foot.

27. Answer: c

Explanation:

The right lung has a minor (horizontal) fissure, while the left lung does not.

28. Answer: a

Explanation:

X-rays do not require a medium to travel and can propagate through a vacuum,
unlike sound waves.

29. Answer: c

Explanation:

A transformer is used to convert one value of alternating current (AC) to another,

such as in X-ray machines where voltages need to be increased or decreased.

30. Answer: a
 Explanation:

A 3-phase generator provides short exposure times and high tube ratings,
improving efficiency.

31. Answer: a

Explanation:

The filament current in an x-ray tube typically ranges from 5 to 10 amperes to

achieve thermionic emission.

32. Answer: a

Explanation:

The myelin sheath increases the speed at which nerve impulses are transmitted
along the axon.

33. Answer: b

Explanation:

Isoniazid can cause peripheral neuropathy due to its effect on vitamin B6

metabolism.

34. Answer: b

Explanation:
 Less than 1% of the electrical power supplied to an X-ray tube is converted into X-
rays, while most is lost as heat.

35. Answer: b

Explanation:

In anterior oblique scaphoid views, the centering is on the radial styloid process, not
the ulnar styloid process.

36. Answer: c

Explanation:

Kerma (Kinetic Energy Released in Matter) is the unit used to express the energy
transferred from radiation to matter.

37. Answer: b

Explanation:

Lymph contains white blood cells (WBCs) but does not contain red blood cells or
platelets.

38. Answer: c

Explanation:

The inner ear is referred to as the labyrinth due to its complex structure.
39. Answer: a

Explanation:

The function of the ADC is to convert analog signals into digital signals for
processing and storage.

40. Answer: c

Explanation:

In a standard PA chest view, the central ray is directed at the level of the 7th
thoracic vertebra (T7), which is at the level of the inferior scapular angle.

41. Answer: a

Explanation:

Ball and socket joints, such as the shoulder and hip joints, allow for the widest range
of motion in multiple directions.

42. Answer: a

Explanation:

Hysterosalpingography (HSG) is a procedure used to demonstrate the uterus and

fallopian tubes.
43. Answer: d

Explanation:

CT numbers are measured in Hounsfield units (HU), which represent the density of
tissues in comparison to water.

44. Answer: d

Explanation:

The nervous system coordinates and controls the activities of the body through
electrical signals.

45. Answer: c

Explanation:

Alpha particles cannot penetrate the skin due to their large mass and high charge;
they are only hazardous when ingested or inhaled.

46. Answer: b

Explanation:

Carpal tunnel syndrome is caused by impingement on the median nerve in the

wrist, leading to pain and disability.
47. Answer: d

Explanation:

The gray (Gy) is the SI unit of absorbed dose, measuring the amount of radiation
energy absorbed by a tissue.

48. Answer: c

Explanation:

The roentgen is a unit that measures the amount of ionization produced in the air
by X-rays or gamma rays.

49. Answer: d

Explanation:

All these factors help reduce geometric blur by improving image sharpness and
reducing magnification.

50. Answer: c

Explanation:

The second-generation CT scanner used a translate-rotate format, where the X-ray

tube and detectors moved linearly and then rotated to the next position.
51. Answer: b

Explanation:

The process of bone formation is called ossification, during which new bone tissue is
formed.

52. Answer: c

Explanation:

Neurons are the basic structural and functional units of the nervous system,
responsible for transmitting signals throughout the body.

53. Answer: a

Explanation:

In the PA projection of the hand, the hand is placed in the pronated position.

54. Answer: a

Explanation:

The heel effect is influenced by the angle of the anode in the x-ray tube.

55. Answer: b

Explanation:
 Rhee's view is used to evaluate the optic foramen, commonly in cases of optic
nerve compression.

56. Answer: a

Explanation:

The mastoid is not a paranasal sinus; it is a part of the temporal bone involved in
the mastoid air cells.

57. Answer: a

Explanation:

In ionic contrast media, iodine acts as an anion, while other components of the
contrast media may serve as cations.

58. Answer: c

Explanation:

Dentin is the part of the tooth that closely resembles bone tissue and lies beneath
the enamel.

59. Answer: a

Explanation:

The heel effect refers to the variation in X-ray intensity, with the cathode side having
higher intensity due to the geometry of the anode.
60. Answer: a

Explanation:

Protons are the basis of MRI, as they align with the magnetic field and produce
signals used to generate images.

61. Answer: b

Explanation:

Spermatogenesis is the process of sperm production in the testes.

62. Answer: d

Explanation:

Epithelial tissue is always exposed to the environment or internal cavities, providing

a protective barrier.

63. Answer: a

Explanation:

Glucagon is secreted by alpha cells in the pancreas and raises blood glucose
levels.

64. Answer: c
 Explanation:

The tympanic membrane is commonly referred to as the eardrum.

65. Answer: c

Explanation:

The inverse square law is applied in radiation protection to calculate how radiation
intensity decreases with increasing distance from the source.

66. Answer: c

Explanation:

Increasing the pitch in CT scanning reduces the dose by scanning more tissue per
gantry rotation, decreasing scan overlap and exposure.

67. Answer: c

Explanation:

NMR stands for Nuclear Magnetic Resonance, the technique behind MRI (Magnetic
Resonance Imaging).

68. Answer: b

Explanation:
 The K-shell binding energy of iodine is approximately 33.7 keV, contributing to its
use in contrast media for radiographic imaging.

69. Answer: a

Explanation:

A compound filter in x-ray tubes typically consists of copper and aluminium to

absorb low-energy radiation.

70. Answer: d

Explanation:

Computed radiography provides both wide exposure latitude and improved

contrast resolution.

71. Answer: a

Explanation:

The correct answer is The US.

Key Points

Norman Borlaug is known as ‘the father of Green Revolution’ in the world.

He belonged to the US.
Norman Ernest Borlaug American agricultural scientist, plant pathologist,
and winner of the Nobel Prize for Peace in 1970.
Nobel Prize is given in six categories only Physics, Chemistry, Medicine or
Physiology, Economics, Literature, and Peace. So no point in Agriculture so
eliminates this option.
 The Borlaug Award is an award recognition for outstanding Indian scientists for
their research and contributions in the field of agriculture and the environment.
The award was created in 1972 and named in honour of Nobel Laureate Norman
E. Borlaug.

Additional Information

Revolutions:

REVOLUTION RELATED TO

Blue Fish Production

Green Agriculture Production

Black Petroleum Production

Grey Fertilizer Production

Pink Onions, Prawn Production

Red Meat, Tomato Production

Silver Egg Production

Silver Fibre Cotton Production

72. Answer: c

Explanation:

The Correct Answer is Quli Qutb Shah .

Important Points

Quṭb Shah declared his independence from the Bahamani Kingdom in 1518 and
moved his capital to Golconda.
The "Qutb Shahi" dynasty was established in 1518 AD by Quli Qutb Mulk who
assumed the title of "Sultan".
The dynasty came to an end in 1687 when Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb seized
Golconda fort and occupied the kingdom.

Additional Information

Adil Shah founded the Adil Shahi dynasty (1489–1686).

He ruled the Sultanate of Bijapur, which had declared independence from the
Bahamani Kingdom.
Bahman Shah was the founder of the Bahmani sultanate.

73. Answer: a

Explanation:

The correct answer is Article 21.

Key Points

Article 21: Protection of Life and Personal Liberty

This article declares that no person shall be deprived of his life or personal
liberty except according to the procedure established by law.
This right is available to both citizens and non-citizens.
 The right to life is not merely confined to animal existence or survival but also
includes the right to live with human dignity and all those aspects of life which
go to make a man’s life meaningful, complete, and worth living.
Thus, we can say that Article - 21 of the Indian Constitution entitles the Right to
Life.

Additional Information

Articles 12-35 of the Indian Constitution deal with Fundamental Rights.

These human rights are conferred upon the citizens of India for the
Constitution tells that these rights are inviolable.
Right to Life, Right to Dignity, Right to Education , etc. all come under one of
the six main fundamental rights.
Equality Before Law: Article 14 says that no p erson shall be denied treatment
of equality before the law or the equal protection of the laws within the territory
of India.
Article 25 guarantees the freedom of conscience, and the freedom to profess,
practice, and propagate religion to all citizens.
Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32 – 35) - The Constitution
guarantees remedies if citizens’ fundamental rights are violated.
The government cannot infringe upon or curb anyone’s rights.
When these rights are violated, the aggrieved party can approach the courts.
Citizens can even go directly to the Supreme Court which can issue writs for
enforcing fundamental rights.

74. Answer: c

Explanation:

The correct answer is Article 30.

Article 30 states the Right of minorities to establish and administer

educational institutions in the country.
All minorities (religion or language) have equal rights to administer and
establish educational institutions of their choice within the country.
 Key Points

If the state makes any law that provides the compulsory possession of any
property of an academic institution that is established and administered by a
minority.
The State has to make sure that the quantity fixed for the acquisition of such
property under such law should not restrict or interfere with the right
guaranteed to them.
The State has no right to discriminate among any educational institution
which is managed by a minority in granting aid.

Important Points

Article It provides the right to equality before the law.

14 This right of equality applies to all foreigners and Indians.

Article
It defines the State for Part III of the Constitution.
12

It provides that any section of the citizens residing in any part of

Article
India having a distinct language, script, or culture of its own, shall
29
have the right to conserve the same.

Additional Information

There are six Fundamental Rights-

 Article 14 – 18 Right to Equality

Article 19-22 Right to Freedom

Article 23-24 Right against Exploitation

Article 25-28 Right to Freedom of Religion

Article 29-30 Cultural & Education Rights

Article 32 Right to Constitutional Remedies

75. Answer: b

Explanation:

Why in the news?

"Delhi Government to Use Bio-Decomposer on 5,000 Acres to Combat Stubble

Burning”

The Bio-Decomposer, an alternative to stubble burning, was developed by the

Indian Agricultural Research Institute (IARI). It is a microbial spray that decomposes
agricultural residues into compost, enhancing soil health and supporting plant
growth.

76. Answer: d
 Explanation:

The correct answer is Vinoba Bhave.

Key Points

Vinoba Bhave was the first person to start the individual Satyagraha.
The centrepiece of Individual Satyagraha was Non-violence .
The first Satyagrahi selected for this Satyagraha was Vinoba Bhave who was
sent to jail when he spoke against the war.
He was followed nearly by 25,000 individual satyagraha.
The demand of the Satyagrahi was to use freedom of speech against the war
through an anti-war declaration .
In December 1940, Gandhi suspended the movement and the campaign
started again in January 1941 .
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru and Brahma Dutt were the second and third selected
Satyagarhi respectively
The campaign started again and this time thousands of people joined and
around 20,000 people were arrested in January 1941.
Pt. Jawaharlal Nehru and Brahma Dutt were also sent to jail for violating the
Defence of India Act .

Additional Information

Some important Life Facts of Vinoba Bhave -

He started the Sarvodaya Movement which meant ‘Progress for all’.
In 1951, Bhave started the Bhoodan Movement in Pochampally,
Telangana.
He was awarded the Ramon Magsaysay Award for Community
Leadership in 1958 .
In 1983, he received the Bharat Ratna posthumously.

77. Answer: b

Explanation:
The Correct Answer is the Brahmaputra.

Key Points

The river Brahmaputra originates from the Angsi Glacier in Burang County,
Tibet.
The Brahmaputra has its origin in the Chemayungdung glacier of the Kailash
range near the Mansarovar lake.
Brahmaputra River:
The source of the Brahmaputra is the Chemayungdung Glacier, which
covers the Himalayan slopes about 60 miles (100 km) southeast of
Mapam Lake in southwestern Tibet.
The Kubi, Angasi, and Chemayungdung are the three major streams that
originate there.
From its source, the river runs in a generally easterly direction for about
700 miles (1,100 km) between the Great Himalayan Range in the south and
the Kailas Range in the north.
Throughout its upper course, the river is generally referred to as
the Tsangpo ("purifier").
It is also known by its Chinese name (Yarlung Zangbo) and other local
Tibetan names.
Additional Information

Ganga River
The Ganga basin covers about 8.6 lakh sq. km area in India alone.
The Ganga river system is the largest in India and has a number of
perennial and non-perennial rivers originating in the Himalayas in the
north and the Peninsula in the south, respectively.
The Son is its major right-bank tributary.
The important left-bank tributaries are the Ramganga, the Gomati, the
Ghaghara, the Gandak, the Kosi, and the Mahananda.
The river finally discharges itself into the Bay of Bengal near Sagar Island.
Kaveri
The Kaveri river basin falls in how 3 states and a union territory of India.
It falls in Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, and Kerala.
It originates in the foothills of the Western Ghats at Talakaveri.
Shimshal, the Hemavati, the Arkavati, Kabini, the Bhavani River,
Lokapavani, the Noyyal, and the Amaravati River. are some of the
 tributaries of the Kaveri river.

Beas
Beas is part of the Indus river system and one of the tributaries of the
Indus river.
The Beas originates near the Rohtang Pass on the southern end of the Pir
Panjal Range.
It is 460 km and flows within the Indian territory.
It crosses the Dhaola Dhar range and it takes a south-westerly direction
to meet the Satluj river at Harike in Punjab.

78. Answer: c

Explanation:

The correct answer is China.

The BRICS Bank would have its headquarter in China.

Key Points

New Development Bank:

The New Development Bank (NDB), formerly referred to as the BRICS
Development Bank, is a multilateral development bank established by the
BRICS states (Brazil, Russia, India, China and South Africa).
The bank is headquartered in Shanghai, China .
 Additional Information

BRICS:

The full form of BRICS is Brazil, Russia, India, China, and South Africa.
Initially, in 2009 there were only four countries .
South Africa joined in 2010.
It is associated with five emerging economies of the world that have a
significant influence on regional affairs .
It was formed in 2009 and since then the governments of these 5 countries
met annually at formal summits.
For the year 2020, Russia hosted the 12th BRICS summi t.
In 2021 , India will be the host 13th BRICS summit .
The headquarters of the BRICS is in Shanghai .

79. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is Defence Research and Development Organisation.

In News

DRDO launched ‘Ugram’, indigenous assault rifle for armed forces.

Key Points

The launch of Ugram, a state-of-the-art assault rifle, that has been

indigenously manufactured for the operation requirements of the armed
forces, paramilitary, and state police entities.
This rifle has been launched by the Defence Research and Development
Organisation (DRDO), which is an Indian autonomous research agency
responsible for the development of military technologies and weapons
systems.
The 7.62 x 51 mm calibre rifle has been named Ugram, signifying 'ferocious'.
 DRDO's Pune-based facility Armament Research and Development
Establishments (ARDE) developed Ugram in collaboration with Hyderabad-
based Dvipa Armour India Private Limited.
The first operational prototype of the rifle was unveiled in Pune by Dr.
Shailendra V Gade, the Director General of the Armament and Combat
Engineering Systems of the DRDO.

Additional Information

DRDO:
The Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) is India's
premier agency responsible for military research and development. It
operates under the Department of Defence Research and Development in
the Ministry of Defence of the Government of India.
DRDO was formed in 1958 through the merger of the Technical
Development Establishment and the Directorate of Technical
Development and Production of the Indian Ordnance Factories, along with
the Defence Science Organisation.
The organization is headquartered in New Delhi and it has a network of 52
laboratories engaged in developing defence technologies, making it
India's largest and most diverse research organisation.
The fields of development covered by DRDO include aeronautics,
armaments, electronics, land combat engineering, life sciences,
materials, missiles, and naval systems.
The organization comprises around 5,000 scientists belonging to the
Defence Research & Development Service (DRDS) and about 25,000 other
subordinate scientific, technical, and supporting personnel.
A unique Department of Defence Research and Development was formed
in 1980, which later started administering DRDO and its almost 30
laboratories and establishments. The number of labs has grown to 52
after merging.

80. Answer: b

Explanation:
 Why in the news?

“Indian Army Launches First Phase of Project NAMAN to Enhance Services for
Defence Pensioners and Veterans”

The SPARSH system in Project NAMAN handles the pension sanction and
disbursement processes for Armed Forces personnel. It aims to streamline and
manage the financial benefits for pensioners, veterans, and their families efficiently.

81. Answer: d

Explanation:

We know that:

The diagram is given below:-

 Mr. Z is North east from his starting position.

Hence, "option 4" is the correct answer.

82. Answer: a

Explanation:

The pattern followed here is:

 Similarly,

Hence, the correct answer is “2119615526”.

83. Answer: c

Explanation:

Given:

Cos(A – B) = 2
3 ​

Cot(A + B) = 1
3
​

Formula used:

3
Cos 30° = 2
​

1
Cot 60° = 3
​

Calculation:

According to the question

Cos(A – B) = 2
3 ​

​
 ⇒ (A – B) = 30° ......(1)

Cot(A + B) = 1
3
​

⇒ (A + B) = 60° .....(2)

Now, adding both the equations we get,

⇒ (A – B) = 30° + (A + B) = 60°

⇒ 2A = 90°

⇒ A = 45°

Putting the value of A in equation (2)

⇒ 45° + B = 60°

⇒ B = (60° – 45°)

⇒ B = 15°

Now,

⇒ (2A – 3B) = (2 × 45° – 3 × 15°)

⇒ (90° – 45°)

⇒ 45°

So, the value of (2A - 3B) is 45°

84. Answer: b

Explanation:

Given :

An item is sold for ₹ 649 with a profit of 18%

 Concept used :

Selling price = Cost price + profit on cost price

Selling price = Cost price - loss on cost price

Calculations :

According to the question

649 = Cost price + 18% of cost price

Cost price = 550

Now loss percent at selling price of Rs.418

Let they loss percent be 'x'

So,

418 = Cost price - Loss percent on cost price

418 = 550 - x% of 550

⇒ x% of 550 = 550 - 418

⇒ x% of 550 = 132

⇒ x = 24

∴ Loss per cent at the selling price of Rs.418 will be 24%

85. Answer: d

Explanation:

Concept:

Follow BODMAS rule to solve this question, as per the order given below.
Step - 1: Parts of an equation enclosed in 'Brackets' must be solved first, and
 following BODMAS rule in the bracket -
Step - 2: Any mathematical 'Of' or 'Exponent' must be solved next.
Step - 3: Next, the parts of the equation that contain 'Division' and 'Multiplication' are
calculated.
Step - 4: Last but not the least, the parts of the equation that contain 'Addition' and
'Subtraction' should be calculated.

Calculation:

⇒ (50%) of 90

⇒ (50/100) × 90

⇒ 45

(80%) of 45

⇒ (80/100) × 45

⇒ 36

86. Answer: c

Explanation:

let age of her son 10 years ago was be x

So, age of mother 10 years ago = 3x

According to the question

(3x + 20)/(x + 20) = 2/1

3x + 20 = 2x + 40

3x - 2x = 40 - 20

x = 20
 Age of her son 10 years ago was x = 20 years

Present age of her son = 20 + 10 = 30

Age of mother 10 years ago was = 3x = 3 × 20 = 60 years

Present age of mother = 60 + 10 = 70 years

Ratio of ages of mother to her son = 70 : 30 = 7 : 3

Hence, 7 : 3 is the correct answer.

87. Answer: c

Explanation:

Given,

Two vehicles which are apart from each other = 100 km

Speed of first vehicle = 45 km/hr

Speed of second vehicle = 80 km/hr

Formula:

If the speed of two trains are x km/hr and y km/hr respectively, then

Relative speed, if both train running opposite directions = (x + y) km/hr

Speed = Distance/Time

Calculation:

Relative speed if both vehicles running opposite directions = 45 + 80 = 125 km/hr

Let both vehicles meet each other after x hrs.

125 = 100/x
 ⇒ x = 100/125

⇒ x = 4/5 hrs

⇒ x = 4/5 × 60

⇒ x = 48 min

∴ Both vehicles meet each other after 48 min.

88. Answer: c

Explanation:

Drawing the diagram as per the given information:

 Thus, clearly point Z is in the south-east direction with respect to point G.

Hence, the correct answer is "South-east".

89. Answer: d

Explanation:

The pattern followed here is,

 Hence, “90” is the correct answer.

Alternate Method

4 × 2 +1 = 9

9 × 2 + 2 = 20

20 × 2 + 3 = 43

43 × 2 + 4 = 90

90. Answer: c

Explanation:

Given:

Area of square = 529 cm2

Formula:

Area = (side)2

Diagonal = √2 × side

Calculation:

⇒ Side = √(529) = 23 cm

⇒ Diagonal = 23 ×√2) cm

Hence, the length of the diagonal is 23√2 cm.

91. Answer: a

Explanation:

The correct answer is 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.

Key Points

The audible range refers to the range of human hearing.

When it comes to pitching, the human hearing range begins low at about 20 Hz
for someone with normal hearing.
The highest frequency that can be heard without discomf ort is 20,000 Hz.
While the absolute limits of human hearing are 20-20,000 Hz.
The audiogram is used by the professional to determine your hearing loss and
as a tool for fitting, hearing aids.

Additional Information

Human infants can actually hear frequencies slightly higher than 20 kHz .
Some species of bats are sensitive to tones as high as 200 kHz, but their lower
limit is around 20 kHz.
Sounds below 20 Hz are called infrasounds and sounds above 20,000 Hz are
called ultrasounds.
Infrasounds can be perceived by animals like elephants (14 Hz to 12,000 Hz) and
ultrasounds can be heard by animals like bats (10,000 Hz to 2000,000 Hz).

92. Answer: b

Explanation:

The correct answer is option 2 i.e. Scattering of light

Clouds are white because light from the Sun is white.

 As light passes through a cloud, it interacts with the water droplets, which are
much bigger than the atmospheric particles that exist in the sky.
When sunlight reaches an atmospheric particle in the sky, blue light is
scattered away more strongly than other colours, giving the impression that
the sky is blue.
But in a cloud, sunlight is scattered by much larger water droplets.
These scatter all colours almost equally meaning that the sunlight continues to
remain white and so make the clouds appear white against the background of
the blue sky.
Light entering the Earth's atmosphere gets scattered by coming in contact with
atmospheric particles.
This phenomenon is called thescattering of light.

93. Answer: a

Explanation:

The correct answer is Robert Hooke.

Key Points

Cells were discovered in 1665 by Robert Hooke.

In addition, Hooke enhanced the configuration of the pre-existing compound
microscope, which enlarged and illuminated specimens with the use of three
lenses and a stage light.
Under his invention, a British scientist examined cells in a slice of cork. After
noticing what appeared to be honeycomb-like compartments, Hooke gave
them the name "cells," which derives from the Latin word cellula, which means
"a hollow space".

Important Points

Robert Brown made the discovery of the cell nucleus.

The discovery of penicillin is credited to Scottish physician-scientist Alexander
Fleming.
 Significant chemical discoveries were also made by Louis Pasteur, chief
among these being the understanding of the molecular causes of
racemization and the asymmetry of some crystals.

94. Answer: c

Explanation:

The correct answer is option 3 i.e Mass × Velocity

Momentum: It is defined as the quantity of motion of the body.

It is measured by mass × velocity.
Momentum depends on both speed and direction
Momentum is a vector quantity as mass is scaler and velocity is vector
Momentum = Mass X Velocity(p=mv).
SI unit Kg-m.s - 1

95. Answer: c

Explanation:

The correct answer is Vegetative propagation.

Roots, stems, and leaves of some plants develop into new plants through the
process of Vegetative propagation.

Key Points

Vegetative reproduction:
It is any form of asexual reproduction occurring in plants in which a new
plant grows from a fragment or from the cuts off of the parent plant or a
specialized reproductive structure.
The roots, stems, and leaves of some plants develop into new plants
through the same process.
96. Answer: c

Explanation:

The correct answer is Nitroglycerin.

Key Points

Nitroglycerine is a liquid chemical substance used for making Dynamite by

mixing highly sensitive Nitroglycerine with sawdust & powered Silica.
 The chemical used in the manufacturing of dynamite is Glycerol trinitrate.
Nitroglycerin, also called glyceryl trinitrate, a powerful explosive and an
important ingredient of most forms of dynamite.
The process begins with a compound liquid such as nitroglycerin (explosive
oil), a "dope" substance, and an antacid.
Ethylene glycol dinitrate, composing approximately 25-30% of the explosive oil,
is used to depress the freezing point of the nitroglycerin.
This allows the dynamite to be safely used at low temperatures. In fact,
nitroglycerin in a semi-frozen state with both liquid and solid present is
actually more sensitive and unstable than either frozen or liquid state alone.
In that semi-solid state, nitroglycerin is extremely dangerous to handle.

Additional Information

Phosphorus Trichloride is a chemical substance generally used as an

intermediate in the production of phosphate ester insecticides, converting
alkyl alcohols to alkyl chlorides and organic acids to organic acid chlorides.
Mercuric Oxide is a slightly crystalline, water-soluble, poisonous compound
used chiefly as a pigment in paints and as an antiseptic in pharmaceuticals.
Graphite is generally used for refractory, battery, steel, expanded graphite,
brake linings, foundry facings, and lubricants as well as pencils and Anodes of
the Batteries.

97. Answer: c

Explanation:

The correct answer is option 3, i.e., chloroform.

Key Points

Breathing in about 900 parts of chloroform in a million parts of air for a short
time causes fatigue, dizziness, and headache .
Chloroform is a colorless, pleasantly-smelling liquid with a slightly sweet taste.
Chloroform breaks down in the air to form two toxic substances phosgene and
hydrogen chloride . These contaminate air and water.
 Breathing or ingesting chloroform over a long time can cause damage to the
liver and kidney s .
The toxic chemicals used for killing pests are termed as pesticides .
Asbestos is silicate mineral that are hazardous to health as they can lead to
various serious lung conditions, including asbestosis and cancer.
Arsenic is a metalloid used in making pesticides, herbicides, and insecticides.
But due to the toxicity of arsenic, its use is declining.

Additional Information

P esticides

Pesticides are compounds used to prevent, destroy, and control pests.

Pesticides, though non-biodegradable, are both beneficial and harmful for
agriculture. They alter nitrogen metabolism, so less protein content in plants
Pesticides reduce the chlorophyll content of the plant and hence affect
photosynthesis. They reduce plant growth.
In some cases, the soil, water, turf, and other vegetation could all become
contaminated by pesticides and the pesticides can be toxic to some non-
target plants and animals.

Arsenic

Arsenic contamination is frequently brought on by naturally existing high

quantities of arsenic in deeper layers of groundwater.
Arsenic-contaminated water contains arsenic acid and derivatives of arsenic.
They are not aggressive acids and are found in underlying rocks that encircle
the aquifer.

Asbestos particles

It is a hazardous substance that can cause lung cancer.

Asbestos is made up of microscopic fibers that can easily become airborne
and inhaled.
When a person breathes asbestos, the microscopic fibers can become lodged
in their lung tissue which causes lung cancer.
 Over many years, the fibers cause enough genetic and cellular damage to the
lung which turns to cancer.

98. Answer: d

Explanation:

The correct answer is Option 4, i.e Thallophyta, Pteridophyta and Bryophyta.

The groups of thallophytes, bryophytes and pteridophytes are called as

cryptogamae.
They have naked embryos that are called spores.
The reproductive organs of plants in all these three groups are not clearly
visible, and they are therefore called cryptogamae.
A Cryptogamae is a plant that reproduces by spores, without flowers or seeds.
The meaning of Cryptogamae is "hidden reproduction".

99. Answer: a

Explanation:

The correct answer is Potential energy.

Key Points

When you stretch a rubber band, the energy transferred is stored in the form of
potential energy.
When elastic is stretched, it's loaded with potential energy, when released
there is a shift to kinetic energy.
This is especially true if the elastic is transporting another object, such as
with a rock being flung from a slingshot.
Potential energy is the energy held by an object because of its position
relative to other objects, stresses within itself, its electric charge, or other
factors.
 Additional Information

Muscular energy is the conscious movement of energy along the lines of the
body, drawing muscle to bone and connecting limbs to joints as the energy
moves ever inward to the body's core.
Mechanical energy, the sum of the kinetic energy, or energy of motion, and the
potential energy, or energy stored in a system by reason of the position of its
parts.
Neglecting friction at the pivot and air resistance, the sum of the kinetic
and potential energies of the pendulum, or its mechanical energy, is
constant.
Kinetic energy is a form of energy that an object or a particle has by reason of
its motion.
Kinetic energy is a property of a moving object or particle and depends
not only on its motion but also on its mass.

100. Answer: c

Explanation:

NaCl is a common salt which is formed by the reaction of HCl and NaOH.
Both HCL and NaOH are strong acid and base.
When a strong acid and a strong base react together the resultant is salt and
water.