09-02-2025

9610WMDMAJOR40002 MD

PHYSICS

1) Determine the currents I for the network shown below (Fig.) :-

(1) 3A
(2) 1.5 A
(3) 4.5 A
(4) 1A

2) Which of these is a false statement ?

(1) The wheatstone bridge is most sensitive when all the four resistances are of the same order
In a balanced wheatstone bridge, interchanging the positions of galvanometer and cell affects
(2)
the balance of the bridge
Kirchhoff's first law (for currents meeting at a junction in an electric circuit) expresses the
(3)
conservation of charge
(4) The rheostat can be used as a potential divider

3) Voltmeter shown reads 6 V. The resistance of voltmeter is :-

(1) 75 Ω
(2) 12 Ω

(3)

(4) 6 Ω

4) In te combination of resistances shown in fig., the effective resistance between terminals A and B
is 100 Ω. Then the value of X must be :-
(1) 50 Ω
(2) 100 Ω
(3) 200 Ω
(4) 66.7 Ω

5) If n, e, τ and m respectively represent the density, charge relaxation time and mass of the
electron, then the resistance of a wire of length l and area of cross-section A will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) C, Q, V and U are capacitance, charge , potential difference and energy stored in an isolated
parallel plate capacitor respectively. Now a dielectric slab is placed between plates of capacitor, the
quantities that decreases :-

(1) C, Q
(2) C, V
(3) V, U
(4) Q, U

7) What will be the effective capacitance between points X and Y in the given figure. Assuming that

C2 = 10µF and other capacitors are 4µF each.

(1) 4pF
(2) 8µF
(3) 10µF
(4) 4µF

8) An equilateral triangular loop of wire of side ℓ carries a current i. The magnetic field produced at
the circumcenter of the loop is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A closed loop PQRS carrying a current is placed in a uniform magnetic field. If the magnetic
forces on segments PS, SR and RQ are F1, F2 and F3 respectively and are in the plane of the paper
and along the directions shown, the force on the segment QP is :-

(1)

(2) F3 – F1 + F2
(3) F3 – F1 – F2

(4)

10) A charged particle with charge q enters in a region of constant, uniform and mutually orthogonal
fields and with a velocity perpendicular to both and and comes out without any change
in magnitude or direction of . Then :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11)

A closely wound solenoid 80 cm long has 5 layers of windings of 400 turns each. The diameter of the
solenoid is 1.8 cm. If the current carried is 8.0 A. estimate the magnitude of B inside the solenoid
near its centre :–

(1) zero
(2) 8π × 10–3 T
(3) 15π × 10–3 T
(4) π × 10–3 T

12) The direction of magnetic field due to a current element i at a point, distance r from it,
when a current i passes through a long conductor is in the direction :-

(1) of position vector of the point

(2) of current element

(3) Perpendicular to both and

(4) Perpendicular to only

13) The figure gives experimentally measured B vs. H variation in a ferromagnetic material. The
retentivity, co-ercivity and saturation, respectively, of the material are:

(1) 150 A/m, 1.0 T and 1.5 T

(2) 1.0 T, 50 A/m and 1.5 T
(3) 1.5 T, 50 A/m and 1.0 T
(4) 1.5 T, 50 A/m and 1.5 T

14) A coil has an inductance of 2.5 henry and a resistance of 0.5 ohm. If the coil is suddenly
connected across 6.0 volt battery, then the time required for the current to rise to 0.63 of its final
value is :

(1) 3.5 second

(2) 4.0 second
(3) 4.5 second
(4) 5.0 second
15) Which of the following units denotes the dimensions ML2/Q2, where Q denotes the electric
charge :-

(1) Weber
(2) Wb/m2
(3) henry
(4) H/m2

16) A solenoid has 2000 turns wound over a length of 0.3 m. The area of its cross-section is 1.2 ×
10–3m2. Around its central portion a coil of 300 turns is wound. If an initial current of 2 amp in the
solenoid is reversed in 0.25 sec, the emf induced in the coil is about :-

(1) 6 × 10–4V
(2) 48 mV
(3) 6 × 10–2V
(4) 48 kV

17) Find the ratio of electric field due to uniformly charged non-conducting sphere of radius r at
distance 2r and 3r from its centre respectively :

(1) 2/3
(2) 3/2
(3) 9/4
(4) 4/9

18) Find the ratio of torque on electric dipole which is placed in uniform electric field when the
angle between dipole moment vector and electric field vector are 30 degree and 60 degree : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Find the ratio of electric potential due to charged conducting sphere of radius r at distance 2r
and 3r from its centre : -

(1) 2/3
(2) 3/2
(3) 4/9
(4) 9/4

20) Find the most stable situation [where dipole moment vector is and electric field vector is ]:-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Find the magnitude of ratio of electric field and electric potential on the axis of short electric
dipole at distance r : -

(1) 2/r
(2) r/2
(3) 1/1
(4) 1/r

22) Two spheres having equal charges exert F force on each other. Now 40% charge of one sphere is
transferred to another sphere. Then find new force between them in terms of F.

(1) 0.84 F
(2) 0.96 F
(3) 0.65 F
(4) 0.81 F

23) Velocity is given by = at2 + bt + c, where y is time.

What are the dimensions of a,b and c respectively?

(1) [LT–3], [LT–2], [LT–1]

(2) [LT–1], [LT–2], [LT–3]
(3) [LT–2], [LT–3], [LT–1]
(4) [LT–1], [LT–3], [LT–2]

24) Least count of main scale of screw gauge is 1 mm and there are 100 equal calibration on circular
scale, circular scale move 1 part main scale on 1 rotation of circular scale, then what will be the
diameter of ball as shown in diagram (i) and (ii) ?

(1) 8.70 mm
(2) 6.70 mm
(3) 6.50 mm
(4) None

25) Three forces acting on a body are shown in the figure.

To have the resultant force only along the y-direction, the magnitude of the minimum additional
force needed is :

(1)

(2)
(3) 0.5 N
(4) 1.5 N

26) A stone is thrown vertically upward. When the stone is at a height equal to the half of its
maximum height, its speed will be 10m/s, then the maximum height attained by the stone is (take, g
= 10m/s2) :

(1) 5 m
(2) 150 m
(3) 20 m
(4) 10 m

27) Position of particle in meters is given as x = (– 4t3 + t4 + 12), where t is in seconds. How long
does a particle take to come to rest ?
(1) 3s
(2) 1s
(3) 2s
(4) 4s

28) An arrow is shot into air. Its range is 200m and its time of flight is 5s. If g = 10 m/s2 , then
horizontal component of velocity of the arrow is :

(1) 12.5 m/s

(2) 25 m/s
(3) 31.25 m/s
(4) 40 m/s

29) The angle of projection of a projectile with the horizontal direction for which the horizontal
range of the projection for which the horizontal range of the projectile is 4 times the maximum
height attained by the projectile is :

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 76°

30) A particle is moving with a constant speed along a straight line path. A force is not required to :

(1) Increase its speed

(2) Decrease the momentum
(3) Change the direction
(4) Keep it moving with uniform velocity

31) A machine gun fires a bullet of mass 40 g with a velocity 1200 ms–1 . The man holding it can
exert a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can he fire per second at the most ?

(1) One
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Three

32) A 5000 kg rocket is set for vertical firing. The exhaust speed is 800 ms–1 to give an initial
upward acceleration of 20 ms–2 the amount of gas ejected per second to supply the needed thrust will
be :
(g = 10 ms–2)

(1) 127.5 kg s–1

(2) 187.5 kg s–1
(3) 185.5 kg s–1
(4) 137.5 kg s–1
33) The momentum p (in kg ms–1) of a particle is varing with time t (in second) as p = 2 + 3t2. The
force acting on the particle at t = 3 s will be :

(1) 18 N
(2) 54 N
(3) 9 N
(4) 15 N

34) System of three blocks shown in the figure is pulled to the right with a force of 60 N. The values
of T1 and T2 are :

(1) 10 N, 20 N
(2) 20 N, 30 N
(3) 10 N, 30 N
(4) 20 N, 20 N

35) The graph between and : (E = kinetic energy and p = momentum).

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

36) Figure shows the vertical section of frictionless surface. A block of mass 1 kg is released from
the position A; its KE as it reaches the position C is :

(1) 180 J
(2) 70 J
(3) 40 J
(4) 280 J

37) A wheel of radius 1.5 m. is rotating at a constant angular acceleration of 10 rad/s2. Its initial

angular speed is rpm. What will be its angular speed at t = 2.0 sec ?

(1) 22 rad/sec
(2) 44 rad/sec
(3) 54 rad/sec
(4) None of these

38) A thin uniform rod of length ℓ and mass m is swinging freely about a horizontal axis passing
through its end. Its maximum angular speed is ω. Its centre of mass rises to a maximum height of:

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

39)

A proton is rotating along a circular path of radius 0.1 m under a centripetal force of 40 × 10–14N. If
the mass of proton be 1.6 × 10–27 kg, then the angular velocity of rotation is :-

(1) 5 × 107 rad/sec

(2) 1015 rad/sec.
(3) 2.5 × 107 rad/sec.
(4) 5 × 1014 rad/sec.

40) A rotating wheel has a speed of 1200 r.p.m. and then it is made to slow down at a constant rate
at 2 rad/sec2. The number of revolution it makes before coming to rest will be :-

(1) 272
(2) 628
(3) 143
(4) 314

41) A ball of mass 3 kg moving with a speed of 54 km/hr strikes a wall as shown in figure. If time of
contact of ball with the wall is 1.732 s, the magnitude of average force exerted by the wall on the

ball is :-

(1) 54 N
(2) 20 N
(3) 45 N
(4) 90 N

42) Two bodies of mass 10 kg and 5 kg moving in concentric orbits of radii R and r such that their
time periods are the same. Then the ratio between their centripetal acceleration is :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

43) One particle of mass m is at origin and second particle of mass 2m is at the point (3, 3) then co-
ordinate of centre of mass will be :-

(1) (1, 1)
(2) (2, 2)
(3) (3, 3)
(4) None of these

44) Three particles of masses 1 kg, 2 kg and 3 kg are subjected to forces

and respectively. Find the magnitude of the acceleration of
the CM of the system.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

45) A circular disc of radius R is removed from a bigger circular disc of radius 2R such that the
circumferences of the discs coincide. The centre of mass of the new disc is αR from the centre of the
bigger disc. The value of α is : -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

CHEMISTRY

1) Which of the following is example of globular protein ?

(1) Keratin
(2) Collagen
(3) Myosin
(4) Insulin
2) Which of the following acid is a vitamin ?

(1) Aspartic acid

(2) Adipic acid
(3) Saccharic acid
(4) Ascorbic acid

3) Which reaction gives aryl halide as a major product ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Reaction of Haloalkane with AgCN gives isocyanide as the major product not cyanide due to -

(1) C–N bond is more stable than C–C bond

(2) AgCN is mainly covalent and carbon is free to donate electron pair
(3) AgCN is mainly ionic and carbon is free to donate electron pair
(4) AgCN is mainly covalent bond and nitrogen is free to donate electron pair

5) Most reactive towards SN2 is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

6) In which reaction 1° Alcohol is not obtained ?

CH3–COOH
(1)

CH3–COOCH3
(2)

(3)
CH3–CHO + CH3MgBr →
H–CHO + EtMgBr →
(4)

7)
Suitable reagent for above conversation is

⊕
(1) H /KMnO4
⊕
(2) H /K2Cr2O7
(3) CrO3
(4) PCC

8)

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

9) In which reaction amide is not obtained ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

10) H–COOH and CH3–COOH can be differentiated by

(1) NaOH/I2
(2) NaHCO3
(3) Tollen's reagent
(4) NaOH

11) Cross aldol condensation product of is ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4) 1 and 3 both

12) Which reaction does not gives Aldehyde ?

(1)
CH3–C≡CH + H2O

(2) Ph–CH3 + 2Cl2

(3)

(4)

13) Assertion :- Reduction of ester / Acid / acid halide with LiAlH4 gives Alcohol while amide gives
amine.
Reason :- –NH2 has poor leaving tendency

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

14) Assertion : Primary amines have more boiling point than secondary and tertiary amines.
Reason : Primary amines have intermolecular association due to H-bonding.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
Both Assertion and Reason are true and but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

15) Incorrect statement about reaction of amine with HNO2, is

(1) Aliphatic primary amine gives alcohol

(2) Secondary amines gives yellow oily liquid.
(3) Aromatic primary amine gives diazonium salt at room temperature.
(4) Tertiary amine forms salt.

16)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) The IUPAC name of Xe[PtF6] is:

(1) Hexafluoroplatinate(VI)xenon
(2) Xenonhexafluoroplatinate(V)
(3) Xenonhexafluoroplatinate(VI)
(4) Xenoniumhexafluoroplatinum(V)

18) The complex used as an anticancer agent is :

(1) meso-[Co(NH3)3Cl3]
(2) cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2]
(3) cis-K2[PtCl2Br2]
(4) Na2CoCl4

19) PbI4 does not exist because:

(1) Iodine is not a reactive

(2) Pb(IV) is oxidizing and I¯ is strong reducing agent
(3) Pb(IV) is less stable than Pb(II)
(4) Pb4+ is not easily formed

20) The interhalogen which does not exist is:

(1) IF5
(2) ClF3
(3) BrCl
(4) BrCl7

21) Lone pair and π-bonds exist in

(1) XeF2
(2) XeO3
(3) XeF6
(4) XeO4

22) Among the following , the correct order of acidity is

(1) HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4

(2) HClO2 < HClO < HClO3 < HClO4
(3) HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO < HClO3
(4) HClO3 < HClO4 < HClO2 < HClO

23) Oxidation state of Mn in is +7 indicating all electrons paired in Mn but is coloured. It is due to

(1) Charge transfer

(2) Presence of unpaired electron in d-orbital in oxygen
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) None of the above

24) Arrange the following cyano complexes in decreasing order of their magnetic moment.

3– 3– 3– 3–
(1) [Cr(CN)6] > [Mn(CN)6] > [Fe(CN)6] > [Co(CN)6]
3– 3– 3– 3–
(2) [Mn(CN)6] > [Cr(CN)6] > [Fe(CN)6] > [Co(CN)6]
3– 3– 3– 3–
(3) [Fe(CN)6] > [Cr(CN)6] > [Mn(CN)6] > [Co(CN)6]
3– 3– 3– 3–
(4) [Co(CN)6] > [Cr(CN)6] > [Mn(CN)6] > [Fe(CN)6]

25) Select correct match :

(1) [Co(ox)(H2O)3(NH3)]Br : Optical isomerism

(2) [Cr(SCN)(H2O)3(en)](C2O4) : Ionization isomerism
–
(3) [ZnBr(CN)(SCN)(NH3)] : Geometrical isomerism
(4) [CoBrCl(H2O)4][Ag(CN)2] : Co-ordination isomerism
26) In which pair of ions both the species contain S―S bond ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

27) In a transition series, as the atomic number increases, paramagnetism:

(1) Increases gradually

(2) Decreases gradually
(3) First increases to a maximum and then decreases
(4) First decreases to a minimum and then increases

28) Which of the following combines with Fe (II) ions to form a brown complex

(1) N2O
(2) NO
(3) N2O3
(4) N2O5

29) When water is added to a salt solution containing chloroform, chloroform layer turns violet. Salt
contains

(1) Cl¯
(2) I¯
(3) NO3¯
(4) S2–

30) Which compound is soluble in NH4OH

(1) PbCl2
(2) PbSO4
(3) AgCl
(4) CaCO3

31) During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane is :

(1) From solution having higher concentration only

(2) From both sides of semipermeable membrane with equal flow rates
(3) From both sides of semipermeable membrane with unequal flow rates
(4) From solution having lower concentration only

32) A Solution has an osmotic pressure of 0.821 atm at 300 K. Its concentration would be :
(1) 0.66 M
(2) 0.32 M
(3) 0.066 M
(4) 0.033 M

33) Which of the following aqueous solution has highest freezing point ?

(1) 0.1 molal Al2(SO4)3

(2) 0.1 molal BaCl2
(3) 0.1 molal AlCl3
(4) 0.1 molal NH4Cl

34) Elevation in boiling point was 0.52°C when 6 g of a compound X was dissolved in 100 g of water.
Molecular mass of the compound X is: (Kb for water is 0.52 per 1000 g of water.)

(1) 120
(2) 60
(3) 600
(4) 180

35) For the reaction 2A + 3B → products, A is in excess and on changing the concentration of B from
0.1 M to 0.4 M, rate becomes doubled, Thus, rate law is :-

(1) R = k[A]2[B]2
(2) R = k[A] [B]
0 0
(3) R = k[A] [B]
(4) R = k[B]1/2

36) Assertion: Rate of reaction depends upon the concentration of the reactants.
Reason: The order of reaction can be negative with respect to a substance present in the reaction.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct
(4) Assertion is not correct but Reason is correct

37) For the reaction between nitric oxide (NO) and hydrogen (H2) 2NO + 2H2 → N2 + 2H2O, the
following rate data were obtained :

Initial concentration
Experiment (mol lit–1) Initial rate
number (mol L–1 s–1)
[NO] [H2]

1. 0.20 0.40 6.40 × 10–3

2. 0.20 0.80 1.28 × 10–2

 3. 0.40 0.40 2.56 × 10–2
Calculate the value of rate constant. :-
(1) 0.1 L–2 mol+2 s–1
(2) 0.2 L+2 mol–2 s–1
(3) 0.30 L+2 mol–2 s–1
(4) 0.4 L+2 mol–2 s–1

38) If = k[H+]n and rate becomes 100 times when pH changes from 2 to 1. Hence order is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 0

39) In a reaction 2A + 3B → 5C + 3D rate of appearance of D is 9 × 10–4 mol L–1sec–1. What will be

–1 –1
rate of disappearance of A (mol L sec ) ?

(1) 3 × 10–4
(2) 6 × 10–4
(3) 9 × 10–4
(4) 2 × 10–4

40) The passage of electricity in the Daniel cell when Zn and Cu electrodes are connected is from :

(1) Cu to Zn in the cell

(2) Cu to Zn outside the cell
(3) Zn to Cu outside the cell
(4) Zn to Cu in the cell

41) The amount of electricity required to produce one mole of copper from copper sulphate solution
will be :

(1) 1 faraday
(2) 2.33 faraday
(3) 2 faraday
(4) 1.33 faraday

42) When one faraday of electric current is passed, the mass deposited is equal to :

(1) one gram equivalent

(2) one gram mole
(3) Electrochemical equivalent
(4) Half gram equivalent
43) Three mole of electrons are passed through three solution in succession containing AgNO3,
CuSO4 and AuCl3 respectively.
The ratio of moles of cations reduced at cathode will be :

(1) 1 : 2 : 3
(2) 2 : 1 : 3
(3) 3 : 2 : 1
(4) 6 : 3 : 2

44) The specific conductance of a salt of 0.01 M concentration is 1.061 × 10–4 Scm–1. Molar
conductance (Scm2mol–1) of the same solution will be :

(1) 1.061 × 10–4

(2) 1.061
(3) 10.61
(4) 106.1

45) Which of the following condition is correct for operation of electrolytic cell ?

(1) ΔG = 0, E = 0
(2) ΔG < 0, E > 0
(3) ΔG > 0, E < 0
(4) ΔG > 0, E > 0

BIOLOGY

1) Animals, mammals and dogs represent :-

(1) Taxa at different levels

(2) Taxa at same level
(3) Different levels of same taxa
(4) All are correct

2) Sexual system of classification was proposed by :-

(1) Father of biology

(2) Father of binomial nomenclature
(3) Father of zoology
(4) Father of cytology

3)

Potato, Brinjal, Lion and Tiger belongs to how many genera:-

(1) Five
(2) Four
(3) Three
(4) Two

4) Five kingdom classification red and brown algae are included in _____ :-

(1) Protista
(2) Plantae
(3) Monera
(4) Animalia

5) Type and number of organisms present in an area can be called as :-

(1) Plant diversity

(2) Flora
(3) (1) and (2) both
(4) Biodiversity

6) Which is common in diatoms and dinoflagellates?

(1) Eukaryotic nature

(2) Unicellular
(3) Holophytic nutrition
(4) All of them

7) Assertion :- Heterocyst of B.G.A are thick walled structures and perform nitrogen fixation.
Reason :- Heterocyst is seen in Nostoc.

(1) (A) is false but (R) is true

(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

8) Assertion :- Deuteromycetes is also called as "fungi imperfecti".

Reason :- Fungi are include in this class in which sexual reproduction is not yet discovered.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

9) The following term may be used to describe the status of sexual development and life cycle in
algae.
(a) Oogamous (b) Isogamous (c) Haplontic (d) Diplontic
Which two of these apply to Ulothrix and Cladophora

(1) (b) & (d)

(2) (a) & (d)
(3) (a) & (c)
(4) (b) & (c)

10) Which of the following is correct for polytrichum :-

(1) Main plant body diploid.

(2) Roots, seed are absent
(3) Endosperm is haploid
(4) Seeds sorrounded by ovary wall.

11) How many egg cells could present in Archegonium of Bryophytes :-

(1) Always one

(2) Two
(3) Variable
(4) Three

12) Presence of two equal flagella in apical region of spores is the feature of :-

(1) Rhodophyceae
(2) Pheophyceae
(3) Chlorophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

13) Assertion : Equisetum is homosporous in nature.

Reason : Equisetum belongs to sphenopsida.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

14) Statement-I: The casparian strip, composed of suberin, is present in the endodermis of plant
roots and acts as a barrier to the passive flow of water and solutes into the vascular system.
Statement-II: The pericycle is a layer of cells located between the endodermis and the vascular
tissue, responsible for the initiation of lateral root formation.

(1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.

(2) Statement-I is correct, but Statement-II is incorrect.
(3) Statement-II is correct, but Statement-I is incorrect.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

15) Assertion : Both apical and intercalary meristems are primary meristems.
Reason : Both appear early in the life of a plant and contribute to the formation of the primary plant
body.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

16) Among the following anatomical features

a. Pericycle as semi-lunar patches of sclerenchyma.
b. Endodermis is referred to as the starch sheath.
c. The phloem parenchyma is absent.
d. Collenchymatous hypodermis.
How many are correct for dicot stem?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

17) Select the correct matching:

Column I Column II

(1) Parenchymatous cells present

(A) Tracheids
between xylem and phloem

(2) Elongated and tube like cells

(B) Conjuctive
with thick and lignified wall and
tissue
tapering ends

(3) Ability to form secondary

(C) Cambium
xylem and phloem

(4) Tube like structure made up

of many cells, each cell with
(D) Vessels
lignified wall and large central
cavity

(1) A - 2, B - 1, C - 4, D - 3
(2) A - 4, B - 3, C - 2, D - 1
(3) A - 1, B - 2, C - 3, D - 4
(4) A - 2, B - 1, C - 3, D - 4

18) Which of the following statement is correct.

(1) The direct elongation of the radicle leads to formation of adventitious root.
(2) Stem of maize produces roots from the lower nodes, called climbing roots.
A bud is present in the axil of petiole in both simple and compound leaves, but not in the axil of
(3)
leaflets of the compound leaf.
In a pinnately compound leaf, incision of leaf lamina is directed from lamina margin to apex of
(4)
the petiole and all leaflets are attached at a common point.

19) Assertion :- In Solanaceae, Axile placentation is present.

Reason :- Floral formula of Solanaceae is

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

20) Which one of the following option gives correct categorisation of flowers according to the
position of gynoecium on the thalamus :-

Hypogynous Perigynous Epigynous

Chinarose, Plum, Peach,

1
Brinjal Guava cucumber

Chinarose, Plum, Guava,

2
Rose Peach Cucumber

Mustard, Rose, Cucumber,

3
Brinjal Plum Ray florets of sunflower

Mustard, Rose, Cucumber,

4
Apple Peach Ray florets of sunflower
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

21)

List of some plants is given below :-

Indigofera, Muliathi, Petunia, Soyabean, Atropa, Colchicum, Gloriosa, Aloe.

How many of the above plants have tricarpellary and syncarpous gynoecium, trilocular ovary with
many ovules and axile placentation.
(1) Three
(2) Two
(3) Five
(4) Four

22) Read the following statement.

Statement I: The walls of ventricles are much thicker than that of the atria.
Statement II: The valves of heart allows the flow of blood only in one direction.

(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

23) In an standard ECG, depolarisation of ventricles is represented by

(1) P- wave
(2) T- wave
(3) QRS complex
(4) None of the above

24) Read the following statement.

Statement I: The cardiac cycle is formed by sequential events in the heart which is cyclically
repeated.
Statement II: About 70 ml of blood is pumped out by each ventricle during a cardiac cycle and is
called cardiac output.

(1) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and II are incorrect.

25) Adrenal medullary hormones can also -

(1) Decrease the rate of heart beat

(2) Decrease speed of conduction
(3) Decrease cardiac output
(4) None of the above

26) Assertion (A): Erythroblastosis foetalis causes anaemia and jaundice to the baby.
Reason(R): Rh antibodies from the mother can leak into the blood of the foetus and destroy the
foetal RBCs.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are false.
(4) A is true but R is false.

27) Assertion (A): At electrical synapse, the membranes of pre- and post-synaptic neurons are in
very close proximity.
Reason (R): Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always faster than that across a
chemical synapse.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) Both A and R are false.

28) Which of the following are the functions of midbrain?

(1) Interconnecting different regions of brain.
(2) Controls all involuntary activities.
(3) Receives and integrates visual, tactile and auditory inputs.
(4) Gastric secretion, body temperature, Memory and communication.

29) The neurons found in cerebral cortex and retina of eye are respectively -

(1) Multipolar neurons, Bipolar

(2) Bipolar neurons, Multipolar
(3) Unipolar neurons, Pseudo unipolar
(4) Pseudo unipolar, Multipolar

30) Which of the following statements is incorrect?

(1) The gap between two adjacent myelin sheaths are called node of Ranvier.
Nerve impulse is conducted along the axon membrane in the form of a wave of depolarisation
(2)
and repolarisation.
(3) Unmyelinated nerve fibre is commonly found in autonomous and somatic neural systems.
(4) Dendrites are small fibres which transmit impulses away from the cell body.

31) Assertion (A): The posterior pituitary is under the direct neural regulation of the hypothalamus.
Reason(R): Hormones released by anterior pituitary reach the posterior pituitary through a portal
circulatory system.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) Both A and R are false.
(4) A is true but R is false.

32) Which one of the following four glands is correctly matched with the accompanying description?

(1) Thyroid – Located on the either side of trachea.

(2) Thymus – Located between lungs behind sternum on the dorsal side of aorta.
(3) Parathyroid – On the back side of gland which secretes TCT hormone.
(4) Adrenal gland – On the anterior side of each kidney.

33) Which of the following is correctly matched with following description -

Gland Hormones Function

(1) Pineal gland MSH Pigmentation of the skin

(2) Hypothalamus Oxytocin Responsible for relaxation of smooth muscles

(3) Parathyroid gland Parathyroid hormone Hypocalcemic hormone

(4) Ovary Progesterone Support pregnancy

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) How many of the following is not a steroidal hormone?

Insulin, Cortisol, Testosterone, Epinephrine, Estradiol, Progesterone

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Five

35) Which of the following pairs is not antagonistic?

(1) Insulin- Glucagon

(2) MSH- Melatonin
(3) Thyrocalcitonin- Parathormone
(4) Epinephrine- Norepinephrine

36) Choose the correct statement only :-

(1) Phylum Mollusca is the largest phylum of animalia which includes insects.
(2) The body of arthropods is covered by chitinous endoskeleton.
(3) Limulus is a living fossil.
(4) In snails excretion takes place through malpighian tubules.

37) Choose the features associated with Balanoglossus.

I. Marine animals
II. Diploblastic and coelomate
III. No excretory organ
IV. External fertilization

(1) Only I
(2) I and III
(3) I and IV
(4) II, III and IV

38) Match the list-I with list-II.

List-I List-II

A Hemidactylus i Pigeon

B Chelone ii Wall lizard

C Columba iii Cat

 D Felis iv Turtle
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(2) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
(3) A-i, B-iv, C-ii, D-iii
(4) A-iv, B-ii, C-iii, D-i

39) Statement I - Cyclostomes are the members of gnathostomata and bears jaw.
Statement II – Cyclostomes are marine but migrate for spawning to fresh water.

(1) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

40) Statement I - Main function of simple cuboidal epithelium is to provide protection against
chemical and mechanical stress.
Statement II – Salivary gland is a type of unicellular exocrine gland.

(1) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect and statement II is correct.
(3) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect.
(4) Both statement I and statement II are correct.

41) Connective tissue includes –

A. Areolar tissue
B. Blood
C. Tendons
D. Ligaments

(1) A and B
(2) A, B and D
(3) B, C and D
(4) A, B, C and D

42) Select the correct statement regarding Rana tigrina.

(1) A very long tail is present in posterior part of the body.

(2) Frog is homeothermal animal.
(3) Bidder’s canal is found in the kidney.
(4) Dorsal part is generally pale yellow.

43) The ureters act as _______and opens into cloaca.

(1) Urinogenital duct

(2) Uriniferous tubule
(3) Urinary bladder
(4) Oviducts

44) Male reproductive system (Cockroach) consists of a pair of testes one lying on each _______ side
in the ________ abdominal segments.

(1) Ventral side, 5th to 8th segment

(2) Lateral side , 4th to 6th segment
(3) Dorsal side, 7th to 9th segment
(4) Ventral side, 4th to 6th segment

45) In the primary structure of protein -

(1) Left end represents → 1st amino acid (C-terminal amino acid)
(2) Right end represents → Last amino acid (N terminal amino acid)
(3) Left end represents → 1st amino acid (N-terminal amino acid)
(4) Right end represents → 1st amino acid (C-terminal amino acid)

46) Select the incorrect statement from the following:

(1) N2 -bases (A, G, C, T, U) have heterocyclic rings.

(2) In most of the organisms, the DNA is genetic material.
(3) Adenylic acid is nucleoside.
(4) The rise per base pair in B-DNA is 3.4A°.

47) Match the Column -

Column I Column II
(Category) (Secondary Metabolites)

A Pigments i Concanavalin A

B Terpenoids ii Monoterpenes, Diterpenes

C Alkaloids iii Morphine, Codeine

D Lectins iv Carotenoids, Anthocyanin

E Toxins v Abrin and Ricin

F Drugs vi Vinblastin, Curcumin

(1) A–i, B–ii, C–vi, D–iv, E–v, F–vi
(2) A–iv, B–ii, C–iii, D–i, E–v, F–vi
(3) A–iii, B–iv, C–vi, D–v, E–i, F–ii
(4) A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–vi, E–v, F–vi

48) The activation energy for given reaction is (i.e., reactant → product):

(1) Energy of transition state – Energy of substrate

(2) Energy of transition state – Energy of product
(3) Threshold energy – Energy of transition state
(4) All are correct

49) Given below are two statements:

Statement I : In bacteria, the mesosomes are formed by the extensions of plasma membrane.
Statement II : The mesosomes, in bacteria, help in DNA replication and cell wall formation.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below:

(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.

(2) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

50) Which of the following statements are correct with respect of Golgi apparatus ?
(A) It is the important site of formation of glycoprotein and glycolipids.
(B) It produces cellular energy in the form of ATP.
(C) It modifies the protein synthesized by ribosomes on ER.
(D) It facilitates the transport of ions.
(E) It provides mechanical support.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (B) and (C) only

(2) (A) and (C) only
(3) (A) and (D) only
(4) (D) and (E) only

51) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
Centromere
situated close to
the end forming
(a) Metacentric (i)
one extremely
short and one
very long arms
Acrocentric Centromere at
(b) (ii)
chromosome the terminal end
Centromere in
the middle
(c) Sub-metacentric (iii) forming two
equal arms of
chromosomes
 Centromere
slightly away
Telocentric from the middle
(d) (iv)
chromosome forming one
shorter arm and
one longer arm
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
(1) (a)-(i),(b)-(iii),(c)-(ii),(d)-(iv)
(2) (a)-(ii),(b)-(iii),(c)-(iv),(d)-(i)
(3) (a)-(i),(b)-(ii),(c)-(iii),(d)-(iv)
(4) (a)-(iii),(b)-(i),(c)-(iv),(d)-(ii)

52) Which of the following statements with respect to Endoplasmic Reticulum is incorrect?

(1) SER is devoid of ribosomes

(2) In prokaryotes only RER are present
(3) SER are the sites for lipid synthesis
(4) RER has ribosomes attached to ER

53) Which type of substance would face difficulty to pass through the cell membrane?

(1) Substance with hydrophobic moiety

(2) Substance with hydrophilic moiety
(3) All substance irrespective of hydrophobic and hydrophilic moiety
(4) Substance soluble in lipids

54) Identify A, B, C and D in the below diagram:

(1) A–G1, B–S, C–G2, D–M Phase

(2) A–G2, B–M Phase, C–G1, D–S
(3) A–S, B–G2, C–G1, D–M Phase
(4) A–M Phase, B–G1, C–G1, D–S

55) Identify A, B, C and D in the below mitosis diagram.

(1) A–Transition to Metaphase, B–Metaphase, C–Early Prophase, D–Late Prophase
(2) A–Late Prophase, B–Transition to Metaphase, C–Metaphase, D–Early Prophase
(3) A–Early Prophase, B–Late Prophase, C–Transition to Metaphase, D–Metaphase
(4) A–Metaphase, B–Early Prophase, C–Late Prophase, D–Transition to Metaphase

56) Select the order of toxicity.

A. Ammonia
B. Urea
C. Uric acid

(1) A > B > C

(2) B > A > C
(3) C > A > B
(4) C > B > A

57) The correct dimensions of human kidney are -

Length Width Thickness Weight

(1) 10–12 cm 5–7 cm 2–3 cm 120–170 gm

(2) 10–12 cm 2–3 cm 5–7 cm 120–140 gm

(3) 12–14 cm 5–7 cm 2–3 cm 120–140 gm

(4) 12–14 cm 2–3 cm 2–3 cm 120–170 gm

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

58) Counter current mechanism maintains the concentration gradient in the medullary interstitium.
It helps in -

(1) Easy passage of water from PCT

(2) Easy passage of water from DCT
(3) Easy passage of water from HL
(4) Easy passage of water from collecting duct

59) Arrange the following steps in order -

(A) Excessive loss of fluid.
(B) Stimulation of osmoreceptor.
(C) Stimulation of Hypothalamus.
(D) Release of ADH or Vasopressin.
(E) ADH facilitate water reabsorption from distal tubules.
(F) Increase in body fluid switch off osmoreceptor and suppress the release of ADH.

(1) A, B, C, D, E, F
(2) A, C, B, D, E, F
(3) F, A, B, C, D, E
(4) B, C, D, A, E, F

60) Select the correct statement among them

(A) The breaking of the C-C bonds of complex compounds through oxidation within the cells, leading
to release of considerable amount of energy is called respiration.
(B) Respiration is catabolic process.
(C) Some macromolecule are oxidised in respiration to yield energy.
(D) Lactic acid fermentation produce less energy.
(E) Plant require organ like animal for respiration.

(1) (A), (B) and (C)

(2) (A), (C), (D) and (E)
(3) (B) and (E)
(4) (A), (C) and (D)

61) In glycolysis how many oxygen molecules are used to oxidise glucose -

(1) Six
(2) Two
(3) Twelve
(4) Zero

62) Statement I: Complete oxidation of pyruvate took place in mitochondria.

Statement II: In mitochondria link reaction and kreb cycle took place.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.

63) Among them how many statements are correct regarding tricarboxylic acid cycle?
(i) Three times decarboxylation took place in kreb cycle.
(ii) First acceptor molecule is oxaloacetic acid for acetyl Co-A.
(iii) This process is performed in stroma.
(iv) In one cycle three times reduction of NAD+ took place.

(1) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (i) and (iii)
(4) (i), (ii) and (iv)

64) Select the incorrect statement among them -

(1) Joseph Priestley identified that plant produce oxygen during photosynthesis.
(2) Jan Ingenhousz showed that photosynthesis took place during the daytime and not in night.
(3) Oxygen in photosynthesis is produced due to splitting of water.
(4) Biosynthetic phase is also dependent on product of light reaction.

65) Match the column I with column II and select the correct option from given below options.

Column I Column II

i Light reaction a ATP and NADPH2

ii Colour in Leaf b Due to single pigment

iii PS-I, PS-II c Due to four pigment

iv Phosphorylation d Z-Scheme

e Mitochondria, Chloroplast
(1) i-a, ii-c, iii-d, iv-e
(2) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-c
(3) i-c ii-a, iii-d, iv-b
(4) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c

66) Statement I: In C4-plant first stable product of carboxylation is transferred into bundle sheath
cell for further process.
Statement II: When the concentration of CO2 is 360 µlL-1 inside the cell in C4 plant it will shows
saturation for photosynthesis.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.

67) Assertion : At low light intensities we observe linear relationship between incident light and
CO2 fixation rates.
Reason : Factor which is nearest to its minimal value will effect the rate of photosynthesis.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is a correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are correct and reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Only assertion is correct.
(4) Both assertion and reason are incorrect.

68)
With respect to given diagram select the correct answer.

(1) A- responsible of organic matter transfer

(2) B – Hydrogen acceptor
(3) C- maxima is at 700nm
(4) D- AMP

69) Read the following property for plant growth regulator and select the most appropriate answer
to which these property belongs.
I. Have specific effects on cytokinesis.
II. Synthesised in regions where rapid cell division occurs.
III. Help in lateral shoot growth.
IV. Promote nutrient mobilisation in leaf.

(1) Ethylene
(2) Cytokinins
(3) Auxin
(4) Gibberellins

70) Select the correct option for given diagram-

(1) Relative growth of leaf A is equal to relative growth of leaf B.
(2) Relative growth of leaf A is less then to relative growth of leaf B.
(3) Absolute growth of leaf A is greater then absolute growth of leaf B.
(4) Relative growth of leaf A is greater then relative growth of leaf B.

71) Statement I: plant growth and further development is intimately linked to the water status of
the plant.
Statement II: The plant cells grow in size by cell enlargement which in turn requires water.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
(3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(4) Statement II is correct but Statement I is incorrect.

72) Which of the following is correct about skeletal muscles?

(1) Non-striated muscle

(2) Involuntary muscle
(3) Located in inner walls of hollow visceral organs of the body
(4) They work under will of a person

73) Select the incorrect statement:

(1) A-band is made up of thick myosin filament

(2) H-zone is present in the middle of A-band.
(3) Actin and myosin are polymerized protein with contractility.
(4) Region between 2M lines comprises a sarcomere.

74) Binding of Ca2+ with _____ in the skeletal muscles leads to the exposure of the binding site for
_____ on the filament _____.

(1) Troponin, myosin, actin

(2) Troponin, actin, myosin
(3) Actin, myosin, troponin
(4) Tropomyosin, myosis, actin

75) Match the following and mark the correct option:

Column I Column II

(A) Fast muscle fibres (i) Myoglobin high

(B) Slow muscle fibres (ii) Lactic acid

(C) Actin filament (iii) Contractile unit

(D) Sarcomere (iv) I-band

(1) A – i, B – ii, C – iv, D – iii
(2) A – ii, B – i, C – iii, D – iv
(3) A – ii, B – i, C – iv, D – iii
(4) A – iii, B – ii, C – iv, D – i

76) Which one of following options is incorrect?

(1) Hinge joint – Present between humerus and pectoral girdle

(2) Pivot joint – Present between atlas and axis.
(3) Gliding joint – Present between the carpals
(4) Saddle joint – Present between carpal and metacarpal of thumb

77) Assertion: Osteoporosis is characterised by increase in bone mass.

Reason: Its common cause is increased level of oestrogen.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true and the reason is not a correct explanation of the assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but the reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

78) Name the ribs that connect with coastal cartilage of the 7th ribs.

(1) True ribs

(2) Vertebrochondral ribs
(3) Floating ribs
(4) Vertebrosternal ribs

79) Which of the following statements is correct?

(1) Inspiration is an active process

(2) Inspiration is a passive process
(3) Expiration is an active process
(4) Both expiration and inspiration are passive processes

80) Match the following:

 Column I Column II

1. Tidal Volume A. 2500-3000 ml of air

2. Inspiratory reserve volume B. 1000-1100 ml of air

3. Expiratory reserve volume C. 500 ml of air

4. Residual volume D. 3500-4600 ml of air

5. Vital capacity E. 1100-1200 ml of air

(1) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A, 5-E
(2) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E, 5-D
(3) 1-C, 2-A, 3-D, 4-E, 5-B
(4) 1-E, 2-A, 3-B, 4-E, 5-D

81) Select the incorrect statement from the following:

(1) Diffusion of O2 occurs from alveoli to tissue.

(2) Diffusion of CO2 occurs from tissue to alveoli.
Amount of CO2 diffused per unit partial pressure difference across diffusion membrane is higher
(3)
than O2.
(4) Partial pressure of O2 is higher in pulmonary artery than that of pulmonary vein.

82) When partial pressure of CO2 rises, the oxygen dissociation curve of haemoglobin at 37°C will

(1) Shift towards right

(2) Shift towards left
(3) Become irregular
(4) Remains unchanged

83) Rough Endoplasmic reticulum (RER) :-

(a) Mainly composed of ER with 80s ribosomes.
(b) Abundantly occurs in cells concerned with lipid metabolism.
(c) Are extensive and continuous with outer nuclear membrane.
(d) Provide site for protein synthesis.
Find out the incorrect statements :-

(1) b, c
(2) Only b
(3) Only c
(4) a, d

84) Vacuole in a plant cell :-

(1) Lacks membrane and contains air

(2) Lacks membrane and contains water and excretory substances
(3) Is membrane-bound and contains storage proteins and lipids
(4) is membrane-bound and contains water and excretory substances
85)

Given below the diagrammatic sketch of Chloroplast. Identify the parts labelled A,B,C and D select
the right option about it.

Part-A Part-B Part-C Part-D

1 Inner membrane Stroma Granum Ribosome

2 Stroma Inner membrane Granum Ribosome

3 Stroma Granum Inner membrane Ribosome

4 Ribosome Granum Inner membrane Stroma

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

86) Match the column-I and II select the correct option:-

Column-I Column-II

Proteinaceous
a Cisternae I structure in
cytoplasm

Infolding of inner
b Thylakoid II mitochondrial
membrane

Flattened
c Cristae III membranous
sac

Membranous
d Microtubule IV structure in
Golgi complex
(1) a-IV, b-III, c-II, d-I
(2) a-II, b-IV, c-III, d-I
(3) a-I, b-II, c-IV, d-III
(4) a-IV, b-III, c-I, d-II

87) Statement-I : Lysosomes are membrane less structures formed by the process of packaging in
the golgi apparatus.
Statement-II : Lysosomes contain enzymes that are capable of digesting carbohydrates, proteins,
lipids and nucleic acids.
(1) Statement-I and II both are correct
(2) Statement-I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement-I is correct
(4) Only Statement-II is correct

88) Which of the following is not a function of mitochondria?

(1) Oxidative phosphorylation

(2) Light reaction
(3) Generation of ATP
(4) Produce cellular energy

89) Pairing of homologous chromosomes is accompained by the formation of :-

(1) Cell plate

(2) Nuclear membrane
(3) Synaptonemal complex
(4) Metaphase plate

90) Splitting of centromere and hence separation of chromatids occurs during :-

(1) Prophase-II
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Anaphase-II
(4) Metaphase-II
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 2 2 3 1 3 4 3 4 2 2 3 2 4 3 2 3 1 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 1 1 3 3 4 1 4 2 4 4 2 1 3 3 2 1 4 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 1 2 1 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 4 4 4 3 3 4 2 1 3 4 1 1 1 3 4 2 2 2 4
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 1 1 1 4 3 3 2 2 3 3 4 4 2 4 2 4 2 2 2
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 1 4 3 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 1 2 4 2 4 4 2 1 4 2 1 3 2 1 1 2 4 3 2 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 1 3 3 1 4 1 2 3 1 4 4 2 4 2 4 3 3 2 2 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 3 1 2 3 3 2 1 3 2 4 2 2 1 3 1 1 3 1 4
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 4 1 2 1 1 2 1 3 2 4 1 4 4 1 3 1 4 2 1 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 4 1 2 4 1 1 4 2 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

2) In balanced Wheatstone bridge, the arms of galvanometer and cell can be interchanged
without affecting the balance of the bridge.

3)

V24 = 30 – 6 = 24V

i= = =1A

VV = 6V = i(R) = (1)
2RV = 12 + RV ⇒ RV = 12Ω

4)

x = 200Ω

5)
 So

6)
Since capacitor is isolated, its charge remains same.
Q' = Q, C' = KC, C' > C
Q' = Q C' V' = CV

KCV' = CV, V' = , V' < V

7) The circuit is redrawn. As the two arms are balanced, no current flows through C2,

equivalent capacitance = 2 + 2 = 4µF

8) Apply the formula

where n → (number of sides) = 3

9)
F4 sin θ = F2
F4 cos θ = (F3 – F1)

∴
For a closed lop there is no translation

10) Where and are perpendicular and velocity has no changes, then qE = qub i.e.

υ= .
The two forces oppose each other if is ⊥ to both and i.e.,
As and are perpendicular to each other,

0
11) Apply B = 5µ nI = 4π × 10–7 × 5 ×

12) According to Biot-Savart's law, the magnetic induction due to a current element is given by
:

This is perpendicular to both and .

13)
Retentivity = 1.0 T
Co-ercivity = 50 A/m
Saturation = 1.5 T

14)

Time required =

=
= 5 second

15)
This is equal to henry

16)

e=

e= ×
e = 48 mV

17)

18)

τ = pEsinθ
τ ∝ sinθ

19)

20) & for stable equilibrium Umin = –pE

21)

22) Let us assume initially both the sphere were having equal charge q so, Force between
them can be written as -

When 40% charge is transferred from one the another then new force F’ -

(0.84) = 0.84 F.

23) Dimensions of velocity are [ ] = [L] [T–1]

So, dimensions of [at2] = [LT–1]
⇒ [a] [T1] = [LT–1]
⇒ [a] = [LT–3]
Dimensions of [bt] = [LT–1]
⇒ [b] [T] = [LT–1]
[b] = [LT–2]
Dimensions of [c] = [LT–1]

24) From diagram (i) zero error

= + [2.00mm + 20(0.01 mm)] = + 2.20 mm
From diagram (ii)
Reading = 8.00 mm + 0.01(70) = 8.70 mm
But true reading or diameter of sphere is
= 8.70 mm – 2.20 mm
D = 6.50 mm

25) According to problem, there should be

In the given figure net force along x-axis

= 1 cos60° + 2sin30° – 4 sin 30°

To cancel this force minimum additional force needed is 0.5N along the positive direction of x-
axis.

26)

∴ (102) = u2 – 2 × 10 ×

⇒ 100 = U2 –10h ....(i)

Again at height h,
⇒ O2 = u2 – 2 × 10 × h (∵ )
2
⇒ u = 20h
So from Eqs. (i) and (ii)
100 = 20h –10h ⇒ h = 10m

27)
when = 0 = –12t2 + 4t3 or 12t2 = 4t3 or t = 3s

28) Range is the product of horizontal component of velocity of and time of flight.
R=u×T
⇒ 200 = u × 5 ⇒ u = 40m/s

29) As tan θ and given is R = 4R

So, ⇒ tan θ = 1 ⇒ = θ = 45°

30)

Force is not required to keep a particle to moving with uniform velocity.

31) Mass of bullet (mB) × Bullets fired per sec (N)

Maximum force that man can exert F = u

∴ F = u × mB × N

32)

33)
at t = 3 s,

34)

60 – T2 = 30 × 1 T2 = 30 N
T1 = 10 × 1 = 10 N

35)

36) From mechanical energy conservation,

mg(14) + 0 = mg(7) + KEC

KEC = 70 J

37)

ωf = ωi + αt

= + [10 × (2)]
= 2 + 20 = 22 rad/s

38)

or h=

39) Fe = mω2r
40 × 10–14 = (1.6 × 10–27) ω2 (0.1)

ω2 = = 25 × 1014
ω = 5 × 107 rad/sec.

40) ωi = 1200 r.p.m or 20 r.p.s

or ωi = 20 × 2π rad/s

θ = 400 π2 = 2πn
n = 200 π = 628

41)

m = 3kg, u = 54 km/hr or 15 m/s

F=

42) T1 =

T2 =
T1 = T2

⇒ V1 =

43)
ycm = 2

44)

45)

, distance αR =
CHEMISTRY

46)

Globular protein → Insulin, Albumins

Fibrous protein → Keratin (present in Hair, wool, silk)
→ Myosin (present in Muscles)

47) Vit. C → Ascorbic acid

48)

49)

50)

Reactivity towards SN2 ∝

51)

52)

53)

54)

55)
H COOH + CH3 COOH
Formic acid reduces Tollen’s reagent and give silver mirror test.
CH3 COOH not give silver mirror test.

56)

57)
58)

59) Boiling point of isomeric amine decreases as 1° Amine > 2° Amine > 3° Amine

60) Aromatic primary amine form diazonium salt with HNO2 at 0–5°C temperature.

61)

62) The IUPAC name of Xe[Pt6] is Xenon hexafluoroplatinate(V)

63) cis-platin, i.e., cis-[PtCl2(NH3)2] is anticancer agent. It destroys cancer cells. So, used as
antitumour agent.

64) Pb(IV) is oxidizing and I¯ is strong reducing agent

65) Bromine is not large enought to accomodate seven chlorine around it.

66)
Three π-bonds and one lone pair.

67)

As the oxidation state of halogen, i.e. – Cl in this case increase, acidity of oxyacid increases.
HClO : Oxidation state of Cl = +1
HClO2 : Oxidation state of Cl = +3
HClO3 : Oxidation state of Cl = +5
HClO4 : Oxidation state of Cl = +7
Therefore, the correct order of acidity would be
HClO < HClO2 < HClO3 < HClO4

68)

Fact based

69) [Cr(CN)6]3– Cr3+ in strong ligand field = = 3 unpaired electron

[Mn(CN)6]3– Mn3+ in strong ligand field = = 2 unpaired electron.

[Fe(CN)6]3– Fe3+ in strong ligand field = = 1 unpaired electron.

[Co(CN)6]3– Co3+ in strong ligand field = = Zero unpaired electron.

70)

⇒ [Co(ox)(H2O)3(NH3)]Br : Does not exhibit structural and optical isomerism but it can exhibit
geometrical isomerism.
⇒ [Cr(SCN)(H2O)3(en)](C2O4) : It can exhibit linkage and geometrical isomerism.
⇒ [ZnBr(CN)(SCN)(NH3)]– : It exhibits optical isomerism.
⇒ [CoBrCl(H2O)4][Ag(CN)2] and [CoCl(CN)(H2O)4]AgBr(CN)] are co-ordination isomerism.

71)

72) In a transition series, as the atomic number increases, paramagnetism first increases to a
maximum and then decreases.

73)

FeSO4 + NO → FeSO4·NO
(Brown)

74)

When KI is treated with dil H2SO4, CHCl3, CCl4 and Chlorine water, Chlorine replaces iodine
which dissolve in CHCl3 layer giving it violet colour
2KI + Cl2 → 2KCl + I2
I2 + CHCl3 → violet layer

75) AgCl is soluble in NH4OH

76)

During osmosis, flow of water through a semipermeable membrane occurs from both sides of
semipermeable membrane with unequal flow rates.

77)

π = CRT

78) For NH4Cl, i = 2 which is lowest among the given solute. Hence depression in freezing
point will be least for it.

79)

80) 2A + 3B → product A is in excess then Rate law

Rate = k[B]n given Rate1 = k[0.1]n
given Rate2 = 2Rate1 = k[0.4]n

From (1) and (2) n =

then Rate law

81)

Rate ∝ [Concentration]n
Where n is the order of reaction
(Expect for zero order reaction)

82)

rate = k [NO]x [H2]y

From experiment no. 1 & 3
r1 = 6.40 × 10–3 = k (0.20)x (0.40)y
r3 = 2.56 × 10–2 = k (0.40)x (0.40)y
1÷3

⇒x=2
Similarly from experiment 1 & 2
y=1
∴ rate = k[NO]2 [H2]
From experiment no.1
6.40 × 10–3 = k (0.20)2 (0.40)
k= = 0.4 L2 mol–2 s–1

83)

r3 = k[H+]n
r1 = k(10–2)n ...(1)
r2 = 100r1 = k(10–1)n ...(2)
2÷1

∴n=2

84)

Given :

= = 6 × 10–4 mol L–1 s–1

85)

The passage of electricity in the Daniel cell when Zn and Cu electrodes are connected is
from Cu to Zn outside the cell

86) Cu2+ + 2e¯ → Cu(s)

1 mole copper requires 2 mole electron, i.e., 2 faraday charge.

87)

When one faraday of electric current is passed through the solution, the mass deposited is
equal to one gram equivalent.

88)

Ag Cu Au
Equivalent ratio 1 : 1 : 1

Molar ratio : :
6 : 3 : 2

89)
 = 10.61 Scm2mol–1

90)

For operation of electrolytic cell ; ΔG > 0 ; E < 0 because electrolytic cell requires an external
source of energy to drive a non-spontaneous reaction.

BIOLOGY

105) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 85 (E) (H)

106) NCERT pg- 75

108)

NCERT-XI, Page # 65, 67, 70

109) NCERT-XI Page No. # 80

110) NCERT Pg. # 73

111) NCERT XI, Page # 81

112) NCERT-XI Pg. # 199

113) NCERT-XI Pg. # 201

114) NCERT-XI Pg. # 203

115) NCERT-XI Pg. # 202

116) NCERT-XI Pg. # 196

117) NCERT-XI Pg. # 234

118) NCERT-XI Pg. # 237

119) NCERT-XI Pg. # 232

120) NCERT-XI Pg. # 232

121) NCERT-XI Pg. # 240

122) NCERT-XI Pg. # 244, 242, 243

123) NCERT-XI Pg. # 240, 242, 243, 246

124) NCERT-XI Pg. # 248

125) NCERT-XI Pg. # 242-245

126) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 44

127) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 45

128) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 49, 50, 51

129) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 47

130) Old NCERT-XI, Pg. # 102

131) Old NCERT-XI, Pg. # 103, 104

132) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 80, 83

133) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 82

134) Old NCERT-XI, Pg. # 114

135)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 111

136)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 106

137)
NCERT-XI, Pg. # 108

138)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 114-115

144)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 121

145)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 123

147)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 206

148)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 210-211

149)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 212

150) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 153-158

151) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 160

152) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 158

153) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 159

154) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 134-135

155) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 136-142

156) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 143

157) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 145

158) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 145

159) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 176

160) NCERT-XI, Pg. # 167

161) NCERT-XII, Pg. # 171-172

162)

NCERT XI, Page # 218

163)

NCERT XI, Page # 220

164)

NCERT XI, Page # 222

165)

NCERT XI, Page # 220,223

166)

NCERT XI, Page # 227

167)

NCERT XI, Page # 227

168)

NCERT XI, Page # 227

169)

NCERT XI, Page # 185

170)

NCERT XI, Page # 187

171)

NCERT XI, Page # 188

173)

NCERT XI, Page # 95

174)

NCERT XI, Page # 96

175)

NCERT XI, Page # 98

177) NCERT XI, Page # 96

178)

NCERT-XI, Page 97,102

179)

NCERT XI Page # 126

180)

NCERT XI Page # 127