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De Thi, Dap An

This document is an official exam paper for an English proficiency test for 8th-grade students in Quang Xuong for the 2023-2024 academic year. It includes sections on listening, phonetics, vocabulary and grammar, reading comprehension, and writing, with various types of questions to assess students' language skills. The exam is structured to cover multiple aspects of the English language, including listening comprehension, pronunciation, grammar, and written expression.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
215 views9 pages

De Thi, Dap An

This document is an official exam paper for an English proficiency test for 8th-grade students in Quang Xuong for the 2023-2024 academic year. It includes sections on listening, phonetics, vocabulary and grammar, reading comprehension, and writing, with various types of questions to assess students' language skills. The exam is structured to cover multiple aspects of the English language, including listening comprehension, pronunciation, grammar, and written expression.

Uploaded by

lethaogiangxu
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as DOCX, PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

PHÒNG GDĐT QUẢNG XƯƠNG ĐỀ THI GIAO LƯU SINH GIỎI

TIẾNG ANH 8 NĂM HỌC 2023 - 2024


ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
Ngày thi …. tháng …. năm 2024
Thời gian làm bài 120 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
Đề thi có 05 trang
Họ và tên: …………………………….. Lớp …… Trường THCS …………….

SECTION A: LISTENING (15 pts)

Bài nghe gồm 3 phần, mỗi phần được nghe 2 lần, mở đầu và kết thúc mỗi phần có tín
hiệu nhạc. Mọi hướng dẫn cho thí sinh (bằng tiếng Anh) đã có trong bài nghe.

PHẦN A: LISTENING
Part I : Listen to Chloe talking to a man about a sailing holiday. Listen and tick
() A, B or C. There is ONE example (0).
0. Chloe wants to go to...............
A. Italy B. Sweden C. Switzerland
1. How many times has Chloe been sailing before ?
A. never B. once C. twice
2. How much can Chloe spend?
A. £300 B. £380 C. £450
3. Chloe will go in...........
A. August B. September C. October
4. Chloe would like to sail on............
A. a lake B. the sea C. a river
5. How does Chloe want to pay?
A. by cheque B. with cash C. by credit card
Part II : You will hear some information about a cinema. Listen and complete
questions 1-5. You will hear the information twice.
CINEMA
Name of cinema: North London Arts Cinema
Next week’s film: (1)...........................Meeting
From Monday to (2).....................
Times: 6:45 p.m and (3).................
Student ticket costs: (4) £....................................
Nearest car park: (5).............................Street.
Page 1 of 6
PART III : Listen to a policewoman taking a witness’s report and mark the
statements as true (T) or false (F).(5 pts)
T F
1. It will start raining at lunchtime today in the east.
2. The weather in the north-west will be worse than in the south.
3. There will be thunder in Leeds tonight.
4. Most of England will be hot this week.
5. Wet weather will move from the north to the south at the weekend.

PART B: PHONETICS (5 points)


I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your
answers in the space provided. (3 points)
16. A. predict B. environment C. exist D. precious
17. A. bored B. crooked C. naked D. stopped
18. A. likes B. changes C. makes D. cuts
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of the
group. Write your answers in the space provided. (2 points)
19. A. realize B.remember C. possible D. comfortable

20. A. important B. especially C. prefer D. visit


PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points)
Question I. Circle the best option from A, B, C or D to complete the following
sentences. (15pts)
21. It’s not easy to study a foreign language by ___________________.
A- oneself B- himself C- itself D- herself
22. Shall I put the books on the floor? – No, I want to keep the ___________________.
A- tidy room B- room tidily C- room is tidy D- room tidy
23. A new bridge over the river …………….. at present.
A. build B. is built C. is building D. is being built
24. He hates.............................. to do something by others.
A. to ask B. asking C. to be asked D. being asked
25. When shall we meet: at 7.30 or 8.00? – I don’t mind ___________________.
A- Either time B- Neither of them C- Both time D- Neither time
26. She is a wearing a___________dress.
A. red new pretty cotton B. new pretty red cotton
C. cotton pretty red new D. pretty new red cotton
27. We should keep the windows open ___________fresh air can get in.
A. so that B. so as to C. in order D. so as that
28. They are ____________ that their son won the championship.
A. delighted B. pleasing C. sad D. interesting
29. I can’t reach him by phone.
A. arrive at B. achieve C. contact D. come to
30. We shouldn’t cross the street outside the ___________
A. pavement B. foot lane C. sidewalk D. zebra crossing

Page 2 of 6
31. A: Would you mind putting out your cigarette? B: “ ___________”
A. No, thanks B. No, of course not
C. No, I wouldn’t D. No, I don’t
32. I had to wear ___________uniform when I worked in the hotel.
A. some B. any C. a D. an
33. Mother: “Could you do me a favor?” - Kate: “_________.”
A. No, thanks. I’m fine B. Yes, that’s kind of you
C. Yes, sure D. Yes, thank you
34. Take care of___________, Lan!
A. herself B. himself C. myself D. yourself
35. You had to go home after the party last night ________?.
A. didn’t you B. Hadn’t you C.Were you D. Did you
Question II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in the brackets to complete
the sentences below. (7 points)
36.Should I find your passport, I (telephone)…………. you at once.
37 .Were I (have) ……….wings, I ( not have to) ………….take an airplane to fly
home.
38.The Browns (travel) …………to Asia many times.
39.There ( be) …………a number of telephone calls today .
40.The house (destroy) ………….by the horrible storm last week
Question III. Supply the correct form of the words in capital. Write the answers on
your answer sheet (5 pts).
41. You'd better drive. I'm too...........................for such complicated traffic.
EXPERIENCE
42. I wish you a very happy................... . RETIRE
43. She got very angry but later she apologised for her __________ . PATIENT
44. Have you got any __________ ? SUGGEST
45. We need to push up the................................of our country. INDUSTRY
46. Now that she got a job, Lena is.......................of her parents. DEPEND
47. Your money will be refunded if the goods are not to your....................
SATISFY
48. Please...................your seat belt. The plane is taking off. FAST
49. His boss told him off because he had behaved __________ . RESPONSIBLE
50. It is usually forbidden to destroy __________building. HISTORY

PART D: READING (30 points)


PART D: READING COMPREHENSION (30 pts)
Question I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word
for each space. .(10 pts)
Schools in the United States have not always had a large number of libraries.
As (51) ________ as 1958 about half of the public schools in the United States had
no libraries at all. The number of public school libraries increased dramatically (52)
________ the federal government passed the Elementary and Secondary Education
Act of 1965, (53) ________ provided funds for school districts to improve their
Page 3 of 6
education programs and facilities, including their libraries. (54) ________, many
educators claim that since the legislation was passed federal spending has not
increased sufficiently to meet the rising (55) ________ of new library technologies
such as computer databases and Internet access.
Because the federal government provides only limited funds to schools,
individual school districts (56) ________ on funds from local property taxes to meet
the vast majority of public school expenses. Therefore, the libraries of the public
schools tend to reflect the (57) ________ capabilities of the communities in which
they are located. Districts in wealthy suburbs often have fully staffed libraries (58)
________ abundant resources, spacious facilities, and curricular and instructional
support. In (59) ________, school districts in many poor areas house their libraries
in ordinary classrooms or in small rooms. The libraries in such areas are generally
staffed by volunteers, who organize and (60) ________ books that are often out-of-
date, irrelevant, or damaged.

51. A. freshly B. frequently C. recently D. newly


52. A. though B. with C. during D. when
53. A. that B. which C. who D. this
54. A. Nevertheless B. Consequently C. Therefore D. Otherwise
55. A. fine B. fee C. cost D. sum
56 A. go B. rely C. come D. stay
57. A. educational B. economical C. political D. financial
58. A. with B. for C. on D. by
59. A. country B. converse C. contrast D. conflict
60. A. attain B. obtain C. contain D. maintain
II. Fill in each gap with one suitable word to finish the passage .(10 points)
Life in the country side is abit slower than in the cities . It is n’t as exciting as
life in the city . But (61 )……………genaral people work hard – they work in the
fields , in the garden , in the woods etc.They grow vegetables , cultivate crops and
raise (62)……………( cows ,horses, buffaloes ,…….).Some people even have
vineyards and fruit orchards .
There is a ton of work to be done on the farm – milking cows ,taking (63)
……………..of livestock ,mucking out ,ploughing fields , sowing
seeds ,fertilizing ,harvesting,…..It is said that a farmer works from (64)
…………….to sunset. People use farm machinery and driver tractors .
Children can freely outdoors . In rural erea people (65) …………..each other
better .There are no skyscrapers in the countryside . People’s home may be (66)
……………..a farm house and a cottage .
People sniff air that is definitely cleaner than air in the cities .There is also
p(67)…………..violenceand vandalism. The traffic isn’t as dense as in the
cities .There (68)………..no rush hours .Further more ,it isn’t as noisy as it is in the
cities .
People living in the countryside can enjoy the green scenery .They can enjoy
the nature .They can ( 69) ……………..birds chirping , deer stopping in a clearing
in a wood .Besides ,people can eat fresh home- grown (70)…………….and fruit .It
seem that life in the countryside is not that stressful. Altogether that must have a
positive effect on their health .

Page 4 of 6
III. Read the passage below and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (10
points)

THE GREAT HANSHIN EARTHQUAKE


The Great Hanshin earthquake, or the Kobe earthquake as it is more
commonly known overseas, was an earthquake in Japan that measured 7.3 on the
Japan Meteorological Agency magnitude scale. It occurred on January 17th, 1995 at
5:46 a.m. in the southern part of Hyōgo Prefecture, and lasted for approximately 20
seconds. The epicentre of the earthquake was on the northern end of Awaji Island
near Kobe, a cosmopolitan city of over 1.5 million people. A total of 6,434 people,
mainly in the city of Kobe, lost their lives. Additionally, it caused approximately ten
trillion yen in damage. It was the worst earthquake in Japan since the Great Kantō
earthquake in 1923, which claimed 140,000 lives.
71. The word ‘overseas’ in the text is closest in meaning to __________.
A.abroad B.at sea C.by sea
72. The word ‘occurred’ in the text is closest in meaning to __________.
A.ended B.happened C.started
73. It is stated in the passage that the number of deaths in the city of Kobe
__________.
A.was greater than that of the Great Kantō earthquake
B.was not as high as in the Great Kantō earthquake
C.exceeded that of any known earthquake
74 The northern end of Awaji Island was the place where __________.
A.the effects of the earthquake were felt most strongly
B.there was no damage to people and property
C.1.5 million people lost their lives
75. We understand from the passage that the Kobe earthquake __________.
A.is internationally known as the Great Hanshin earthquake
B.didn’t cause any damage in the neighbourhood of Kobe
C.is not the deadliest earthquake in the history of Japan.
IV. Identify one of the four underlined parts in each sentence that is not
correct. Then get it right.
0. Is this (A) the address to (B) whom you (C) want the package (D) sent?
76. David is (A) particular fond of cooking, (B) and he (C) often cooks (D) really
delicious meals.
77. Sandra has (A) not rarely missed a (B) play or concert (C) since she (D) was
seventeen years old.
78. There (A) was (B) a very interesting news on (C) the radio this morning (D)
about the earthquake in Italy.
79. The bridge (A) hit by a large ship (B) during a (C) suddenly storm (D) has
been mended.
80. As soon (A) as I arrive (B) at my hotel, I’ll contact (C) with you (D) by phone.

Page 5 of 6
PART PART E: WRITING (20 points)
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means
exactly the same as the sentence printed before it (5pts)
81. “I will go to Ha Noi Capital tomorrow” he said.
→ He said ________________________________________________
82. Tony wasn’t well enough to go to school.
=> Tony was ______________________________________________.
83. The teacher asked, “How many members are there in your family,Mai?”
=> The teacher asked Mai _________________________________.
84.The novel is so interesting that we have read it many times. .
=> It is such __________________________________________________.
85. Although they are short, they still love playing sports.
=> In spite of ………………………………………………………………………

Question II. Finish each of the following sentences so that it has a similar
meaning to the sentences printed before it, using the word given. DON’T
CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. (5 points)
86. The boy was so tired that he can’t keep on walking. A BOY
→ He was too ___________________________________________.
87. It took us five hours to get to Hai Phong. SPENT
→ We _________________________________________________ .
88. Do you understand what he means? AWARE
→ Are _________________________________________________ .
89. You ought to fasten your seatbelt before driving away. WITHOUT
→ You shouldn’t ___________________________your seatbelt.
90. She thought it was too difficult for her to come to the class on time. FOUND
→ She ___________________________________ the class on time.

Question III: Paragraph writing (10 points).


Many people think that living in the countryside is wonderful. Do you agree
with them?
Write a paragraph of about 150 words to express your opinion
_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

_______________________________________________________________________________________

THE END

ANSWER KEY
Page 6 of 6
PART A: LISTENING. (15 pts)
Part I. 1. A 2. B 3. B 4. A 5. C
Part II . 1. Midnight 2. Thursday 3. 6.45 and) 9.15 (p.m.) quarter past nine 4. 2.80
5. HOAUXTON
PART III : Listen to a policewoman taking a witness’s report and mark the
statements as true (T) or false (F).(5 pts)
1. False 2. True 3. False 4. True 5. True

PART B: PHONETICS (5 points)


I. Choose the word whose underlined part is pronounced differently. Write your
answers in the space provided. (3 points)
16. D 17. A. 18. B
II. Choose the word whose stress pattern is different from the other three of the
group. Write your answers in the space provided. (2 points)
19. B. 20. D.

PART C: VOCABULARY AND GRAMMAR (30 points)


Question I. Circle the best option from A, B, C or D to complete the following
sentences. (15pts)
21. A 22. D 23. D 24. D 25.A 26. D 27. A 28. A 29. C 30. D 31. B 32. C 33.
C 34. D 35. A
Question II. Supply the correct form of the verbs in brackets. Write the answers on
your answer sheet (5 pts).
36. Will telephone 39. are
37. to have/ would not have to 40. was detroyed
38. have traveled

II. Complete each sentence with the correct form of the word given.
1 point for each correct answer
41. inexperienced
42. retirement
43. impatience
44. suggestions
45. industrialization
46. independent
47. satisfaction
48. fasten
49. irresponsibly
50.historic
PART C: READING COMPREHENSION (25 pts)
Page 7 of 6
I. Read the following passage and then choose the most suitable word for each
space.
51. C 52. D 53. B 54. A 55. C 56. B 57. D 58. A 59. C 60. D
II.Fill in each gap with one suitable word to finish passage .(10 points)
61. in 66. either
62. cattle 67.less.
63. care 68. are
64. sunrise 69.hear
65. know 70. vegetables

III. Read the passage below and choose the best answer A, B, C or D. (10
points)
71. B 72. B 73. B 74. C 75.A

IV . Identify one of the four underlined parts in each sentence that is not
correct. Then get it right.
76. A  particularly 77. A  rarely 78. B  omitted 79. C  sudden 80 . C 
omitted
PART D : WRITING
Question I. Finish each of the following sentences in such a way that it means
exactly the same as the sentence printed before it (5pts)
81. He said he would go to Ha Noi Capitalthe next day
82. Tony was too ill to go to school.
83.The teacher asked Mai how many members there were in her family.
84. It is such an interesting novel that we have read it many times.
85.In spite of. being short, they still love playing sports

Question II. Finish each of the following sentences so that it has a similar
meaning to the sentences printed before it, using the word given. DON’T
CHANGE THE WORD GIVEN. (5 points)
86. He was too tired to keep on walking
87. We spent 5 hours to get to HP
88. Are you aware of what he means?
89. You shouldn't drive away without fasten your seatbelt
90. She found it was too difficult for her to come to the class on time

III. Paragraph writing.


Part 3: (10.0 điểm) - cụ thể như sau:
- Nội dung (content): 5 điểm
- Từ vựng (vocabulary): 1.5 điểm
- Ngữ pháp (grammar): 1.5 điểm
- Tính mạch lạc và trôi chảy (coherence and cohesion) + độ dài (length):
2.0 điểm
- Sai dưới 4 lỗi không trừ điểm.
Page 8 of 6
- Sai trên 4 lỗi, hoặc sai những lỗi nặng trừ 1.0 điểm/1 lỗi.
B- Hướng dẫn chấm:
- Tổng điểm toàn bài: 100 points Mỗi câu đúng được 1.0 điểm
- Thang điểm : 20
Tổng những câu, từ làm đúng
- Điểm bài thi =
5

--- THE END ---

The end

Page 9 of 6

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