15-09-2024

6001CKC20208124007 KC

PHYSICS

1) Two identical balls moving with speed v at right angle to each other collide perfectly inelastically.
Their speed after collision is

(1) v
(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The coefficient of restitution (e), for a perfectly elastic collision is

(1) 0
(2) –1
(3) 1
(4) ∞

3) Three point masses m1, m2 and m3 are placed at the corners of a thin massless rectangular

sheet (1.2 m × 1.0 m) as shown. Centre of mass will be located at the point

(1) (0.8, 0.6) m

(2) (0.6, 0.8) m
(3) (0.4, 0.4) m
(4) (0.5, 0.6) m

4) The block of mass M moving on the frictionless horizontal surface collides with a spring of spring
constant k and compresses it by length L. The maximum momentum of the block after collision is:-

(1) zero

(2)

(3)
(4)

5)

A system consists of mass M and m (< M). The centre of mass of the system is :-

(1) at the middle

(2) nearer to M
(3) nearer to m
(4) at the position of larger mass

6)

Two blocks of mass m each are connected to a spring of spring constant k as shown in figure. The
maximum elongation of spring

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) A particle of mass m moving with a speed u strikes a smooth horizontal surface at an angle 45°

the particle rebounds it an angle ϕ with speed v, if coefficient of restitution is , then angle of ϕ is:-

(1) 30°
(2) 45°
(3) 60°
(4) 37°

8) "The velocities in a head on collision is interchanged" :-

(1) if masses are equal

(2) if collision is elastic
(3) if mass are equal and collision is elastic
(4) it is never possible

9) A particle in a certain conservative force field has a potential energy given by . The
force exerted on it is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) The work done by a force F = (–6x3) N in displacing a particle from x = 4 m to x = –2 m is :-

(1) –240 J
(2) 360 J
(3) 420 J
(4) will depend upon the path

11) A particle 'A' of mass 20 kg is moving in the positive x–direction. Its initial position is x = 0 &
initial velocity is 1 m/s. The velocity at x = 10m is :-

(use the graph given)

(1) 4 m/s
(2) 2 m/s
(3)
(4) 100/3 m/s

12) An object of mass 5kg falls from a 20m high platform and strikes on the surface with a speed of
10 m/s. The work done by air resistance is-

(1) 1000 J
(2) –250 J
(3) –750 J
(4) 250 J

13) Work done by frictional force :

(1) Is always Negative
(2) Is always Positive
(3) Is zero
(4) May be positive, negative or zero.

14) Work done by tension in a simple pendulum in one third cycle is :

(1) Zero

(2)

(3) v sin (θ/2)

(4)

15) The U(x)-x curve for system is shown in the fig. Its force curve will be :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

16) A force of newton act on a particle during a displacement from point A(2, 1.5, 0) metre
to point B(0, 0, 0.7) m. Then the work done on the particle is:

(1) 4.8 J
(2) – 4.8 J
(3) 1.5 J
(4) – 1.5 J

17) A particle moves under a force F = Cx from x = 0 to x = x1. The work done is

(1)

(2)

(3) zero
(4)

18) A spring of force constant 800 Nm–1 has an extension of 5 cm The work done in extending it from
5 cm to 15 cm is

(1) 16 J
(2) 8 J
(3) 32 J
(4) 24 J

19) Velocity–time graph of a particle of mass 2 kg moving in a straight line is as shown in figure.
Work done by all the forces acting on the particle in time interval of [0, 2sec] is

(1) –100 J
(2) 100 J
(3) –200 J
(4) 200 J
20) If the constant force applied is F and the velocity gained from 0 to v, then the average power
developed is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) Fv2

21) Two bodies are thrown from same height ‘h’ with speed ‘u’ as thrown

(1) Body A strikes ground with more speed than B

(2) Body B strikes ground with more speed than A
(3) Both strike ground with same speed
(4) None of these

22) A force of 10N displaces object from x = 2m to x = 4m. What is work done by this force

(1) 10 J
(2) 1 J
(3) 20 J
(4) 2 J

23) F-x graph is given. What is work done by this force till body displaces from x= 0 to x = 4m is

(1) 40 J
(2) 10 J
(3) 20 J
(4) 30 J
24) A motor car of 100 hp is moving with a constant velocity of 72 km/hr. The forward force exerted
by the engine on the car is :

(1) 3.73 × 103 N

(2) 3.73 × 102 N
(3) 3.73 × 101 N
(4) None of these

25) If kinetic energy of a body is increased by 300% then percentage change in momentum will be

(1) 100%
(2) 150%
(3) 265%
(4) 73.2%

26) You lift a suitcase from the floor and keep it on a table. The work done by gravitational force on
the suitcase depends on

(1) the path taken by the suitcase

(2) the time taken by you in doing so
(3) the weight of the suitcase
(4) your weight.

27) Figure shows a particle sliding on a frictionless track which terminates in a straight horizontal
section. If the particle starts slipping from the point A, how far away from the track will the particle

hit the ground?

(1) At a horizontal distance of 1 m from the end of the track.

(2) At a horizontal distance of 2 m from the end of the track.
(3) At a horizontal distance of 3 m from the end of the track.
(4) Insufficient information

28) Two springs of spring constants 1500 N/m and 3000 N/m respectively are stretched with the
same force. They will have potential energy in the ratio-

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

29) Starting at rest, a 10 kg object is acted upon by only one force as indicated in figure. Then the
total work done by the force is

(1) 90 J
(2) 125 J
(3) 245 J
(4) 490 J

30) A weight lifter lifts a weight 300 kg. from ground to a height of 2 m. in 3 sec. Average power
developed by him-

(1) 2210 watt

(2) 8820 watt
(3) zero watt
(4) 1960 watt

31) An engine exerts a force and moves with velocity m/s.

The power of the engine (in watt) is :

(1) 45
(2) 75
(3) 20
(4) 10

32) The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x as shown in the graph.

The force acting on the particle is zero at

(1) C
(2) B
(3) B and C
(4) A and D

33) A man pushes a wall and fails to displace it. He does:

(1) negative work

(2) positive but not maximum work
(3) no work at all
(4) maximum work

34) Under the action of a force a 2kg body moves such that its position x in meters as a function of

time t is given by . Then work done by the force in first two seconds is.

(1) 6 J
(2) 10 J
(3) 7 J
(4) 64 J

35) The linear momentum of a body is increased by 50%. The kinetic energy will be increased by-

(1) 25%
(2) 50%
(3) 100%
(4) 125%

36) A body of mass 2 kg travels in a straight line with velocity v = x3/2. The work done by the net
force during its displacement from x = 0 to x = 4 m is-

(1) 32 J
(2) 64 J
(3) 16 J
(4) 56 J

37) Assertion : A person walking on a horizontal road with a load on his head does no work.
Reason : No work is said to be done, if directions of force and displacement of load are
perpendicular to each other.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

38) A rigid body of mass m is moving in a circle of radius r with a constant speed v. The force on the

body is and is directed towards the centre. What is the work done by this force in moving the
body over half the cirumference of the circle.

(1)

(2) Zero

(3)

(4)
39) The kinetic energy of a body of mass 2 kg and momentum of 2 Ns is

(1) 1J
(2) 2J
(3) 3J
(4) 4J

40)

A constant force F is applied on a body. The power (P) generated is related to the time elapsed (t) as

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

41) Frictional forces are:

(1) conservative forces

(2) non-conservative forces
(3) buoyant force
(4) none of these

42) In a conservative field potential energy of a body on x-axis is U = x2 – 16x. The equilibrium of the
body is at x = :-

(1) 8m
(2) 2m
(3) 3m
(4) Never

43) A pendulum is released from A as shown in figure. If m and represents mass of bob and the

length of pendulum. Then kinetic energy at B.

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

44) A mass of 5 kg moving with a speed of 15 m/s on a horizontal smooth surface, collides with a
nearly weightless spring of force constant K = 5N/m. The maximum compression of the spring would

be :-

(1) 0.15 m
(2) 15 m
(3) 1.5 m
(4) 0.5 m

45) A particle moves from point A to B via three different paths as shown, under the effect of a
conservative force. If w1, w2 and w3 are work done by this force along these paths. then -

(1) w1 > w2 > w3

(2) w1 = w2 = w3
(3) w1 > w3 > w2
(4) w3 > w1 > w2

46) The potential energy of a particle in a force field is: where A and B are positive
constants and r is the distance of particle from the centre of the field. For stable equilibrium, the
distance of the particle is :

(1) A/B
(2) B/A
(3) B/2A
(4) 2A/B

47) A block of mass m moving at a velocity V collides with another block of mass 2m at rest. The
lighter block comes to rest after collision. Find the coefficient of restitution :-
(1)

(2) 1

(3)

(4)

48) If the net external force acting on the system of particles is zero, then which of the following may
vary?

(1) Momentum of the system

(2) Velocity of centre of mass
(3) Position of centre of mass
(4) None of the above

49) Find the maximum no. of collisions between the blocks of equal masses (e = 1) (v > u) :-

(1) 3
(2) 2
(3) 1
(4) 0

50) When two bodies collide elastically, then:

(1) KE of the system alone is conserved

(2) only momentum is conserved
(3) both KE and momentum are conserved
(4) neither KE nor momentum is conserved

51) One sphere collides with another sphere of same mass at rest inelastically. If the value of
coefficient of restitution is 1/2, the ratio of their speeds after collision shall be-

(1) 1 : 2
(2) 2 : 1
(3) 1 : 3
(4) 3 : 1

52) Two atoms of the hydrogen are located at and . Their centre of mass is at :

(1)
(2)

(3)
(4)

53) For the system shown in the figure the acceleration of centre of mass is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

54) Two bodies of mass 1 kg. and 3 kg. have position vectors and ,
respectively. The centre of mass of this system has a position vector :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

55) A car of mass m starts from rest and accelerates so that the instataneous power delivered to the
car has a constant magnitude P0. The instantaneous velocity of this car is proportional to :-

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

56) Two uniform rings of same thickness and same material are placed in contact as shown in figure.

Then distance of centre of mass from O is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 3R
(4) 2R

57) The quantity that is not conserved in an inelastic collision is :

(1) Momentum
(2) Kinetic energy
(3) Total energy
(4) All of these

58) Two objects of masses 300 gram and 400 gram possess velocities m/s and m/s
respectively. The velocity of their centre of mass in m/s is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

59) Two ball travel along straight line as shown in fig :-

If the balls collide perfectly inelastically the velocity of combined mass after the collision is

(1) 5 m/s
(2) 10 m/s
(3) 0 m/s
(4) 14 m/s

60) A body moving towards a finite body at rest collides with it. It is possible that

(1) both the bodies come to rest

(2) both the bodies move after collision
(3) the moving body comes to rest and the stationary body starts moving
(4) both 2 and 3

CHEMISTRY
1) One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a change of state (2.0 atm, 3.0 L) to (2.0 atm, 7.0 L) with a
change in internal energy (ΔU) = 30 L-atm. The change in enthalpy (ΔH) of the process in L-atm:

(1) 22
(2) 38
(3) 25
(4) None of these

2) Predict which of the following reaction (s) has a negative entropy change ?
I. CH4(g) + 2O2(g) —→ CO2(g) + 2H2O(ℓ)
II. NH3(g) + HCl(g) —→ NH4Cl(s)
III. 2KClO4(s) —→ 2KClO3(s) + O2(g)

(1) III
(2) II
(3) I and II
(4) I

3) If expansion is carried out freely for an ideal gas then work is :-

(1) zero
(2) infinite
(3) maximum
(4) None of these

4) The work done by a system is 8J when 40 J heat is supplied to it. The change in internal energy of
the system during the process :-

(1) 32 J
(2) 40 J
(3) 48 J
(4) – 32 J

5) When a gas is compressed adiabatically and reversibly, the final temperature is-

(1) Higher than the initial temperature

(2) Lower than the initial temperature
(3) The same as initial temperature
(4) Dependent upon the rate of compression

6) Out of boiling point (I), entropy (II), pH (III) and emf of a cell (IV), intensive properties are :

(1) I, III, IV
(2) I, II
(3) I, II, III
(4) All of these
7) The work done by ideal gas, when 100 calorie of heat given in isothermal expansion

(1) 418.4 J
(2) 4.184 J
(3) 41.84 J
(4) None

8) The heat of combustion of ethanol determined in a bomb calorimeter is – 670.48 kCal mole–1 at
27°C. What is ΔH at 27°C for the reaction :–

(1) – 335.24 kCal

(2) – 671.08 kCal
(3) – 670.48 kCal
(4) + 670.48 kCal

9) If the enthalpy change for the transition of liquid water to steam is 30 kJ mol–1 at 27°C, the for
the process would be:

(1) 10 J mol–1 K–1

(2)
(3) 0.1 J mol–1 K–1
(4) 100 J mol–1 K–1

10)

Standard enthalpy of vapourisation ΔHvap for water at 100°C is 40.66 kJmol–1. The internal energy of
vaporisation of water at 100°C (in kJmol–1) is

(1) +43.76
(2) +40.66
(3) +37.56
(4) –43.76

11) What will be the work done when one mole of a gas expands reversibly and isothermally from 15
L to 50 L against a constant pressure of 1 atm at 25°C?

(1) –3542 cal

(2) –843.3 cal
(3) –718 cal
(4) –60.23 cal

12) The value of ΔU of the reversible isothermal evaporation of 90 g water at 100°C will be
(ΔHevap of water = 40.8 kJ mol–1,
R = 8.314 JK–1 mol–1) :-

(1) 4800 kJ
(2) 188.494 kJ
(3) 40.8 kJ
(4) 125.03 kJ

13) Which is true for the combustion of sucrose (solid) (C12H22O11) at 25°C :-

(1) ΔH > ΔE
(2) ΔH < ΔE
(3) ΔH = ΔE
(4) None

14) Which has the least entropy :

(1) Coal
(2) Diamond
(3) N2(g)
(4) N2O(g)

15)

For the process, CO2(s) —→ CO2(g) :

(1) Both ΔH and ΔS are +ve

(2) ΔH is negative and ΔS is +ve
(3) ΔH is +ve and ΔS is –ve
(4) Both ΔH and ΔS are –ve

16) A system absorbs 600 J of heat and does work equivalent to 300 J on its surroundings. The
change in internal energy is :

(1) 300 J
(2) 400 J
(3) 500 J
(4) 600 J

17) The enthalpy of vapourisation of water is-

(1) Positive
(2) Negative
(3) Zero
(4) Cannot be determined

18) Assertion : Mass and volume are extensive properties.

Reason : Mass/volume is also an extensive parameter

Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is the correct explanation of the
(1)
assertion.
 Both assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is not correct
(4) Assertion is not correct but reason is correct

19) A system absorbs 20 KJ heat and does 10 KJ work then internal energy of system will -

(1) Decreases by 10 KJ
(2) Increases by 10 KJ
(3) Increases by 30 KJ
(4) Decreases by 30 KJ

20) From the following bond energies:

H H bond energy: 431.37 kJ mol 1
C=C bond energy: 606.10 kJ mol 1
C C bond energy: 336.49 kJ mol 1
C H bond energy: 410.50 kJ mol 1
Enthalpy for the reaction,

will be:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

21) Two moles of an ideal gas expand spontaneously into vacuum. The work is :–

(1) Zero
(2) 2 J
(3) 4 J
(4) 8 J

22) Bond dissociation enthalphies of H2(g) and N2(g) are 436.0 kJ mol–1 and 941.8 kJ mol–1
respectively and enthalpy of formation of NH3(g) is –46 kJ mol–1. What is enthalpy of atomization of
NH3(g)

(1) 390.3 kJ mol–1

(2) 1170.9 kJ mol–1
(3) 590 kJ mol–1
(4) 720 kJ mol–1

23) One mole of an ideal gas at 500K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to 10
litre. The ∆E for this process is

(1) 163.7 cal

(2) Zero
(3) 1381.1 cal
(4) 9 Latm

24) 2 mole of an ideal gas at 27°C expands isothermally and reversibly from a volume of 4 litre to 40
litre. The work done (in kJ) by the gas is :-

(1) w = 28.72 kJ
(2) w = 11.488 kJ
(3) w = 5.736 kJ
(4) w = 4.988 kJ

25) Which of the following will have zero standard molar enthalpy of formation ?

(1) P4(s)
(2) P(g)
(3) P4(g)
(4) Na(g)

26) Which one of the following statement is false ?

(1) Temperature is state function

(2) Pressure is intensive property
(3) Volume is extensive property
(4) Work is a state function

27) Which of the following statements is incorrect about entropy of the gaseous system?

(1) When heat is added to the system, it will decrease

(2) A system at higher temperature has greater randomness than at lower temperature
(3) With increase in volume at constant temperature, its value will increase
Heat added to a system at lower temperature causes greater randomness than when the same
(4)
quantity of heat is added at higher temperature

28) Statement-I: Human body is an example of closed system.

Statement-II: At entropy of a system becomes zero as kinetic energy becomes zero.

(1) Both statements I and II are correct

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both statements I and II are incorrect

29) Select the incorrect statements:

(A) When two non-reacting gases are mixed, entropy of system decreases.
(B) For an exothermic process, energy of the system decreases.
(C) Irreversible process is hypothetical.
(D) Residual entropy at '0' K proves third law of thermodynamics.

(1) A, B, D
(2) A, C, D
(3) B, C, D
(4) B, C

30) The volume of gas is reduced to half from its original volume. The specific heat will be:

(1) Reduced to half

(2) be doubled
(3) remain constant
(4) increases four times

31) The correct option for free expansion of an ideal gas under the adiabatic condition is:

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

32) Statement 1: For an ideal gas undergoing an isothermal process, the change in internal energy is
zero.
Statement 2: Enthalpy is a path function.

(1) Only Statement 1 is correct

(2) Only Statement 2 is correct
(3) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
(4) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct

33) Which of the following p-V curve represents maximum work done?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

34) What is for complete neutralization of strong diacidic base A(OH)2 by HNO3 ?
(Given ΔHN of strong acid and base – 55.84 kJ)

(1) -55.84 kJ
(2) -111.68 kJ
(3) 55.84 kJ/mol
(4) None of these

35) For the reaction at 500 K

A(g) + 2B(g) → C(g)
ΔUrxn = –10 Kcal/mol
Then value of ΔHrxn is :

(1) +2 Kcal / mol

(2) –12 Kcal / mol
(3) –22 Kcal / mol
(4) +22 Kcal / mol

36) One mole of gas occupying 3 litre volume is expended against a constant external pressure of
one atm to a volume of 15 litre. The work in this process is:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

37) A system absorb 300 cal of heat with the result of that, the volume of the system becomes double
of its initial volume and temperature changes from 273K to 546K. The work done by the system on
the surroundings is 200.0 cal. Calculate :-

(1) 273 cal

(2) 500 cal
(3) 100 cal
(4)

38) One mol of an ideal gas at 300 K is expanded isothermally from an initial volume of 1 litre to 10

litre. The for the process is:-

(1) 163.7 cal

(2) 1381.1 cal
(3)
(4) Zero

39) In an adiabatic process which of the following is true:-

(1) q = +w
(2)
(3)
(4)

40) In an isochoric process, the increase in internal energy is:-

(1) Equal to the heat absorbed

(2) Equal to the heat evolved
(3) Equal to the work done
(4) Equal to zero

41) When a solid melts, there is:-

(1) No increase in enthalpy

(2) Increase in enthalpy
(3) Decrease in enthalpy
(4) Anything can happen

42) For the reaction which of the following is valid:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) None of these
43) Heat exchanged in a chemical reaction at constant pressure is called:-

(1) Internal energy

(2) Enthalpy
(3) Entropy
(4) Free energy

44) What is the value of if we consider the combustion of 1 mol of liquid ethanol if reactants and
products are at 298 K:-

(1)
(2)
(3) +1
(4) +2

45) Which of the following is true for the following reaction:-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

46) ......... is correct for endothermic reaction.

(1) ΔH < 0
(2) ΔH > 0
(3) ΔH = 0
(4) ΔH << 0

47) In which one of the sets, all properties belong to the same category (all extensive or intensive)?

(1) Mass, Volume, Temperature

(2) Mass, Volume, Pressure
(3) Heat Capacity, Density, Mass
(4) Enthalpy, Internal Energy, Volume

48) Which of the following is an intensive property ?

(1) Temperature
(2) Viscosity
(3) Surface tension
(4) All of these

49) A system is changed from state A to state B by one path and from B to A by another path. If E1
and E2 are the corresponding changes in internal energy, then :
(1) E1 + E2 = +ve
(2) E1 + E2 = –ve
(3) E1 + E2 = 0
(4) none

50) Both q & w are...............function & q + w is a...............function :-

(1) State, State

(2) State, path
(3) Path, state
(4) Path, path

51) A system in which exchange of energy is allowed but not matter :

(1) open system

(2) closed system
(3) isolated system
(4) all of the above

52) What is true for a cyclic process

[E = internal energy]

(1) w = 0
(2) Δ E = 0
(3) Δ H = 0
(4) (2) & (3) both

53) Which is correct expression of 1st law of thermodynamics?

(1) ΔU = q – w
(2) w = ΔH + q
(3) ΔU = q
(4) ΔU = q + w

54) In an isothermal expansion of an ideal gas. Select wrong statement :

(1) there is no change in the temperature of the gas

(2) there is no change in the internal energy of the gas
(3) the work done by the gas is equal to the heat supplied to the gas
(4) the work done by the gas is equal to the change in its internal energy

55)

Molar heat capacity of water in equilibrium with ice at constant pressure is :-

(1) zero
(2) ∞
(3) 40.45 kJ K–1 mol–1
(4) 75.48 JK–1 mol–1

56) An isolated system is that system in which :-

(1) There is no exchange of energy with the surrounding

(2) There is exchange of mass and energy with the surrounding
(3) There is no exchange of energy & mass with the surrounding
(4) There is exchange of mass with the surrounding

57) Which of following is correct for on ideal gas system involved in the given reversible cyclic
process ?

(1) Adiabatic heating (p→q)

(2) Isobaric heating (q→r)
(3) Isochoric heating (r→s)
(4) Isoentropic expansion (s→p)

58) ΔH < ΔE for the reaction:

(1) N2(g) + 3H2(g) → 2NH3(g)

(2) Ag2O(s) → 2Ag(s) + ½ O2(g)
(3) C (s) + ½ O2 (g) → CO (g)
(4) C (s) + O2 (g) → CO2 (g)

59) Which one of the following is an extensive property?

(1) Enthalpy
(2) Concentration
(3) Density
(4) Viscosity

60) During 200J work done on the system, 140 J of heat is given out. Calculate the change in internal
energy

(1) 60 J
(2) 70 J
(3) 80 J
(4) 90 J
 MATHEMATICS

1) If 2x, x + 8, 3x + 1 are in AP then the value of x will be.......

(1) 3
(2) 7
(3) 5
(4) -2

2) Which term of the sequence 3, 8, 13, 18, ... is 498 ?

(1) 95th
(2) 100th
(3) 102th
(4) 101th

3) The nth term of the sequence 2,5,8,..... is

(1) 3n + 2
(2) n2 + 1
(3) 3n – 1
(4) None of these

4) If p, q, r and s are in A.P. then r – q is

(1) s-p
(2) s-q
(3) s-r
(4) None of these

5) If a, b, c are in A.P. then is

(1)

(2) 1

(3)

(4)

6) is equal to-
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The sum of the series 1 + (1+ 2) + (1 + 2 + 3) + ........ upto n terms, will be

(1) n2 – 2n + 6

(2)

(3) n2 + 2n + 6

(4)

8) The sum to n terms of the sequence whose rth term is is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) If Tn denotes the nth term of the sequence 2, 3, 6, 11, 18, .., then T50 is

(1) 492 - 1
(2) 492
(3) 502 + 1
(4) 492 + 2

10) The sum of the series is equal to

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

11) The sum of an infinite G.P. is 9 and the sum of first two terms is 5, then r equals :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

12) x, x + 1, x + 2 are in G.P. for :-

(1) x = 0

(2)
x=

(3)
x=
(4) No value of x

13) If sum of infinite terms of a G.P. is 5 and first term of G.P. is 2, then common ratio of G.P. is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The value of 91/3. 91/9. 91/27... upto ∞, is-

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 9
(4) None of these

15) The sum of n terms of two arithmetic series are in the ratio 2n + 3 : 6n + 5, then the ratio of
their 13th terms is

(1) 53 : 155
(2) 27 : 77
(3) 29 : 83
(4) 31 : 89

16) If all the terms of an A.P. being squared then the terms of new series is :-

(1) A.P.
(2) G.P.
(3) H.P.
(4) None

17) Sum of the series is

(1)

(2) 1

(3)

(4)

18) In an A.P., if first term is 4, 9th term is 20, then 15th term is

(1) 16
(2) 32
(3) 18
(4) 36

19) The number of numbers that are divisible by 9 between 1 and 1000 is

(1) 101
(2) 110
(3) 111
(4) 100

20) If the sum of n terms of an A.P. is 3n2 + 5n while Tm = 164, then value of m is

(1) 25
(2) 26
(3) 27
(4) 28

21) The interior angles of a polygon are in A.P. If the smallest angle is 100° and the common
difference is 4°, then the number of sides is

(1) 5
(2) 7
(3) 36
(4) 44

22) If a, b, c, d, e, f are in A.P., then e-c is equal to

(1) 2(c – a)
(2) 2(d – c)
(3) f – e
(4) d – c

23) Four numbers are in arithmetic progression. The sum of first and last terms is 8 and the product
of both middle terms is 15. The least number of the series is.

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

24) The 10th common term between series 3 + 7 + 11 + ... and 1 + 6 + 11 + ... is

(1) 191
(2) 190
(3) 192
(4) 194

25) 3 + 5 + 7 +...... to n terms is

(1) n2
(2) n(n – 2)
(3) n(n + 2)
(4) (n + 1)2

26) If the sum of n terms of an A.P. is given by Sn = n2 + n, then the common difference of the A.P. is

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 6
(4) 4

27) The sum is ___.

(1) 1540
(2) 1450
(3) 1054
(4) 1045

28) The sum of first ten terms of a A.P. is four times the sum of its first five terms, then ratio of first
term and common difference is-

(1) 2
(2) 1/2
(3) 4
(4) 1/4

29) If 9th and 19th terms of an AP are 35 and 75 respectively, then 20th term is-

(1) 80
(2) 78
(3) 81
(4) 79

30) If the ratio of the sum of n terms of two AP's is (3n + 1) : (2n + 3) then find the ratio of their 11th
term-

(1) 45 : 64
(2) 3 : 4
(3) 64 : 45
(4) 4 : 3

31) The A.M of 1,3,5, ...., (2n – 1) is-

(1) n + 1
(2) n + 2
(3) n2
(4) n

32) If x, 2x + 2 and 3x + 3 are first three terms of a G.P., then its 4th term is-

(1) 27
(2) –27
(3) –27/2
(4) 27/2

33) If three positive real numbers a,b,c are in A.P. with abc = 4, then the minimum value of b is

(1)
(2) 3
(3) 2

(4)
34) If a1, a2, a3...... is in A.P such that a1 + a5 + a10 + a15 + a20 + a24 = 225, then a1 + a2 + a3 ....... +
a23 + a24 is equal to

(1) 909
(2) 75
(3) 750
(4) 900

35) If, a,b,c,d are in GP then

(1) ac = cd
(2) ab = cd
(3)
(4) ad = bc

36) Let a1, a2, a3 ..... be terms of an A.P if then equals

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

37) If a,b,c are in G.P then logax, logbx, logcx are in

(1) A.P
(2) G.P
(3) H.P
(4) None of these

38) The least value of 'n' for which to 'n' terms is greater than 1000 is

(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 9
(4) 10

39) The mean of the terms a,a + nd , a + 2nd is

(1) a + (n–1) d
(2) a + nd
(3) a + (n + 1)d
(4) None of these

40) If a1, a2 ......an, are positive numbers such that their product is 1, then their sum is

(1) A positive integer

(2) Divisible by n
(3) Never less than n
(4) None of these

41) G.M and H.M of two numbers are 10 and 8 respectively. The numbers are

(1) 5, 20
(2) 4, 25
(3) 2, 50
(4) 1, 1000

42) Find 20th term from the end in arithmetic progression 3, 7, 11, ..., 407

(1) 331
(2) 335
(3) 327
(4) 339

43) Find the value of

(1) 7
(2) 49
(3)
(4)

44) What is the 8th term of the G.P. 3, 6, 12, 24, ......?

(1) 184
(2) 284
(3) 384
(4) None of these

45) Find the value of 13 + 23 + 33 + ..... upto 8 terms –

(1) 1296
(2) 3025
(3) 2025
(4) None of these

46) The sum of the series 5 + 9 + 13 + .... + 49 is:

(1) 351
(2) 535
(3) 324
(4) 435

47) The third term of a G.P. is 9. The product of its first five terms is

(1) 35
(2) 39
(3) 310
(4) 312

48) Find the sum to n terms of the A.P., whose nth term is 5n + 1

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

49) 4th term of a G.P is 8 and 10th term is 27. Then its 6th term is?

(1) 12
(2) 14
(3) 16
(4) 18

50) If the sum of n numbers of the GP 5, 10, 20, .... is 1275 then n is?

(1) 6
(2) 7
(3) 8
(4) 9

51) If the numbers n – 3, 4n – 2, 5n + 1 are in AP, what is the value of n?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

52) An infinite G.P has first term x and sum 5, then x belongs to

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

53) The nth term of an A.P is , then the sum of first 97 terms is

(1) 1648
(2) 1561
(3) 1649
(4) 1751

54) How many terms are there in the sequences 1, 2, 4, 8, ......., 4096

(1) 12
(2) 13
(3) 14
(4) 15

55) If a, b, c are in arithmetic progression, then

(1) b = a + c
(2) 2b = a + c
(3) b2 = a + c
(4) 2b2 = a + c

56) Which of the following is an example of geometric Sequence ?

(1) 1, 2, 3, 4
(2) 1, 2, 4, 8
(3) 3, 5, 7, 9
(4) 9, 20, 21, 28

57) If "a" is the first term and "r" is the common ratio, then the nth term of a G.P is:

(1) arn
(2) arn–1
(3) (ar)n–1
(4) None of these

58) Find a10 of a geometric sequence if a8 = – 9 and r = ?

(1) –2
(2) –3
(3) –1
(4) 4
59) Find the sum of the first 10 terms of the geometric sequence 8, 64, 512 .....?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

60) Find the geometric mean of given numbers 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 3 3 3 2 1 1 3 2 2 2 3 4 1 2 2 2 2 1 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 3 3 3 1 1 3 1 3 2 4 1 3 3 4 4 2 1 2 1 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 2 1 3 2 2 4 1 3 2 3 3 2 1 3 1 3 2 4 3 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 2 3 1 1 1 1 1 2 2 3 3 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 2 2
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 2 2 2 1 4 1 4 2 3 4 1 2 2 2 1 3 4 2 1
Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 2 2 2 1 4 2 4 4 3 3 2 4 4 4 2 3 2 1 1 1

MATHEMATICS

Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
A. 3 2 3 3 2 2 4 4 4 3 3 4 1 2 1 4 1 2 3 3
Q. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
A. 1 2 4 1 3 2 1 2 4 3 4 3 1 4 4 2 3 4 2 3
Q. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 1 1 1 3 1 3 3 3 1 3 1 3 3 2 2 2 2 3 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

3)

xcm = = 0.4

ycm = = 0.4

4)

Loss in K.E. of the block

= Gain in elastic P.E. of the spring.

Mv2 = kL2
M2v2 = MkL2
or Mv = L

6)

7) In y direction
v sin ϕ = e u sin45° ....(i)

In x direction
v cos ϕ = u cos 45° ....(ii)
eq. (i) ÷ eq. (ii)

tan ϕ = ; ϕ = 30°

9)
 10)

w=

11)

W(10) =
From WET

v2 = 4
v = 2 m/s

12)

[NCERT pg # 136 Q. 6.13]

Wgravity + Wair = mv2

Wair = mv2 – mgh

Wair = × 5 × (10)2 – 5 × 10 × 20 = – 750J

40)

48)

The centre of mass under the given condition may be at rest or may be moving with constant
velocity.
 54)

CHEMISTRY

61) At constant pressure, ΔH = ΔU + P.ΔV

= 30 + 2 × 4 = 38 atm-L

62)

Δng = –ve
ΔS = –ve

63)

w = – Pext ΔV
for free expansion Pext = 0
So w = 0

64)

W = –8 J
q = + 40 J
ΔE = q + W = (–8) + 40 = +32 J

65) In adiabatic process, q = 0

From 1st Law
ΔU = q + W
ΔU = W
We know → ΔU = nCVΔT
W = nCVΔT
When gas is compressed, work is positive, which means, temperature will increase.
So final temperature will be higher than initial temperature.

66) The quantities which doesn’t depend on mass of the matter in intensive,
boiling point, EMF of cell, pH doesn’t depend upon mass of matter,

67)

In Isothermal expansion, DU = 0
From 1st Law-
ΔU = q + W
q = –W
W = –q
W = –(–100 Cal)
W = 100 Cal (∴ 1Cal = 4.184J)
W = 100 × 4.184J
 W = 418.4 J

68)

C2H5OH(ℓ) + 3O2(g) —→ 2CO2(g) + 3H2O(ℓ)

In Bomb calorimeter ΔE = –670.48 kCal mol–1
ΔH = ΔE + ΔngRT
ΔH = – 670.48 – 1 × 2 × 10–3 × 298

70)

H2O(ℓ) —→ H2O(g)
ΔH = ΔE + Δng.RT
40.66 = ΔE + 1 × 8.314 × 373 × 10–3
∴ ΔE = 37.56 kJ mol–1

71)

Work done in reversible isothermal expansion,

(R = 2 cal K–1 mol–1)

72)

ΔH for 18g water = 40.8 kJ

For 90g water =

n for 90 g water = 90/18 = 5
Δng = 5 – 0 = 5
ΔH = ΔU + ΔngRT
ΔU = 204000 – (5 × 8.314 × 373)
= 188494 J or 188.494 kJ

74) Diamond has least entropy due to its crystalline structure.Diamond has least entropy due
to its crystalline structure.

75) It is sublimation process

so endothermic (ΔH > 0) process.
The entropy of gas is greater than solid so ΔS > 0.

76) We know that ΔE = Q + W = 600 + (–300) = 300 J

W = –300, because the work is done by the system.

78) The ratio of two extensive properties are intensive

 79)

ΔE = q + w = +20 + (–10) = +10 KJ

80)

Enthalpy of reaction

81)

In vaccum Pext = 0
⇒W=0

82)

NH3 (g) → N (g) + 3H(g) ΔH = ?

Given

H2 (g) → 2H (g) ΔH = 436.0

N2 (g) → 2N (g) ΔH = 941.8

→ NH3(g) ΔH = –46

83)

ΔE = nCvΔT, as ΔT = 0

84) w = – 2.303 nRT log

∴ w = – 2.303 ×
– 11.488 kJ
work done on the gas = – 11.488 kJ

85)

Because at Room temperature & 1 bar pressure P exist in P4(s) form.

86)
Work is path function

87)

When heat is added to the system, molecular motion increases, hence entropy increase.

88)

Conceptual.

89)

Conceptual.

90)

Since specific heat is an intensive property it doesn't change with volume.

91)

92)

Statement 1: For an ideal gas undergoing an isothermal process, the change in internal energy is
zero. This statement is correct. For an ideal gas, the internal energy is only a function of
temperature. If the process is isothermal (i.e., the temperature remains constant), then the change
in internal energy (ΔU) will be zero.
Statement 2: Enthalpy is a path function. This statement is incorrect. Enthalpy, like internal energy,
is a state function. It only depends on the initial and final states of a process and not on the path
taken to go from the initial state to the final state.
Given the analysis, Statement 1 is true, and Statement 2 is false.

93) In P-V graph area under the curve represent magnitude of work. As it is maximum in
graph-C. So correct answer is c option.

94)

For isothermal changes,

111)
Closed system ⇒ exchange of energy is allowed but exchange of matter is not allowed.

112)

Internal energy and enthalpy are state functions

114)

In isothermal expansion
T = constant ΔU = 0 W = ΔQ
∴ option (4) is correct.

117)

p→q (Isochoric heating)

q→r (Isobaric heating)
r →s (Isochoric cooling)
s→p (Isobaric cooling)

118)

ΔH = ΔE + ΔnRT, ΔH < ΔE if Δn < 0

120)

where w is work done by the system

MATHEMATICS

121)

122)

123)

124) r - q = d, s - r = d

125)

126) Conceputal
 127)

128)

129)

130)

131)

a + ar = a(1 + r) = 5 ..... (1)

and =9 ..... (2)

Solving gives r =

132)

x, x + 1, x + 2 are in G.P.
only if (x + 1)2 = x(x + 2).
i.e., if 1 = 0, which is not possible for any x.

133)

134)

135)

We have
⇒

Put n = 25 then

136)

After squaring the terms an A.P. not remains any progression.

137)

138) T9 = 4 + 8d = 20
d=2

139) 9, 18, 27, ... 999

140) 7n = Sn – Sn – 1
6m + 2 = 164
m = 27

141) (n - 2) 180 = n/2 [2a + (n-1)d]

142) Optional verification

a = 1, b = 2, c = 3, d = 4, e = 5, f = 6

143) Put 1, 3, 5, 7 verification

1+7=8
3 × 5 = 15

144) 11, 31, ....

a = 11, d = 20
 T10 = a + 9d

145) Put n = 1

146) T2 = S2 – S1 = 4
d = T2 – T2 = 2

147)

148)

Let the A.P be

a + (a + d) + (a + 2d) + ....
S10 = 4S5
2a + 9 d = 4a + 8d

149)

If a be the first term and d be the common difference of the AP, then
T9 = a + 8 d = 35
T19 = a + 18 d = 75
Subtracting these equations, we get
– 10 d = – 40 d = 4, a = 3
T20 = 3 + 19 × 4 = 79

150)

Here

...(1)

...(2)

Putting the value of n in (1)

152)
Since, x, 2x + 2 and 3x + 3 are in G.P.
(2x + 2)2 = x (3x + 3)
x2 + 5x + 4 = 0
(x + 1) (x + 4) = 0 x = – 1, – 4
x=–4
numbers are –4, –6, –9
First term = – 4 and c.r. = 3/2
Hence T4 = (–4) (3/2)3 = –27/2

153)

Using

(since 2b = a + c)

154)

We have a5 + a20 = a1 + a24, a10 + a15 = a1 + a24

Hence the given relations reduce to
3(a1 + a24) = 225, giving a1 + a24 = 75
Hence

155)

a=a
b = ar
c = ar2
d = ar3
a×d=b×c

156)

Put p = 11 q = 41

157)

Given a,b,c and G.P

are in A.P
 are in A.P

are in H.P
i,e logax, logbx, logcx are in H.P

158)

159)

Mean

160)

i.e their sum is never less than n

161)

=8
so, a = 5, b = 20

162)

Here number of terms n = 102

20th term from end = 3 + (102–204) = 331

163)

164)

Calculations:
We want to find the 8th term, so we substitute n = 8, a = 3, and r = 2 into the formula:

Therefore, the 8th term of the given geometric progression is 384.

Hence, option 3 is correct.

165)

Concept used:
Sum of cubes of natural numbers =
Calculation:
In this case, n = 8 (since we want to find the sum of cubes up to 8 terms).

1296

166)

Calculation:
The given series is 5 + 9 + 13 + .... + 49 which is an arithmetic progression with first term a = 5
and common difference d = 4.
Let's say that the last term 49 is the nth term.

And, the sum of this AP is:

167)

Calculation:
Let us consider a general geometric progression with common ratio r.

Assume that the five terms in the GP and .

It is given that third term is 9.
Therefore, a = 9.
Now the product of the five terms is given as follows:

But we know that a = 9.

Thus, the product is 95 = 310.

168)

We know that, For AP series, the sum of n terms (First term + nth term)
th
Given, the n term of the given series is an = 5n + 1.
Put n = 1, we get
a1 = 5(1) + 1 = 6.

We know that sum of n terms (First term + nth term)

Sum of n terms (6 + 5n + 1)
 Sum of n terms (7 + 5n)

169) Calculation:
Given:
4th term of a G.P is 8 and 10th term is 27
nth term of the G.P. is Tn = a rn– 1
----(1)
9
T10 = a r = 27 ----(2)
Equation (2) (1), we get

T6 = a r5

170)

Given series is 5, 10, 20, .....

Here, a = 5, r = 2
Sum of n numbers = sn = 1275

To Find: nAs we know that, Sum of n terms of GP = sn = where r > 1

171)

Concept:
If a, b, c are in A.P then 2b = a + c
Calculation:
Given:
n – 3, 4n – 2, 5n + 1 are in AP
Therefore,

172)
 173)

Calculation:

Given: nth term of an A.P

For first term, put n = 1

For last term, put n = 97

We have to find the sum of first 97 terms,

174)

Calculation:
As we know that general term (nth term) = an = ar(n – 1)
Here, a = 1, r = 2 and an = 4096

[If am = an then, m = n]

There are 13 terms in the given sequence

175)

Explanation:
Given that a, b, c are in arithmetic progression.
So, the common difference is b – a = c – b
Rearranging the same terms, we get
b+b=c+a
2b = a + c.
Hence, if a, b, c are in A.P, then 2b = a + c.

176)

Explanation:
Among the options given, option (b) 1, 2, 4, 8 is an example of a geometric sequence.
We know that in a geometric sequence each term is found by multiplying the previous term by a
constant.
In option (b) 1, 2, 4, 8, each term is found by multiplying 2 to the previous term. Here, the common
ratio is 2.

177)

If "a" is the first term and "r" is the common ratio, the terms of infinite G.P are written as a, ar, ar2,
ar3, ar4, .....arn–1.
Hence, the nth term of a G.P is arn–1.
Therefore, option (b) is the correct answer.

178)

Explanation: By the recursive formula of geometric sequence,

Therefore, a10 = – 1.

179)

Explanation: Here. the first term is, a = 8

The common ratio, r = 8.
Number of terms is, n = 10.
The sum of finite geometric sequence formula is, Sn = a(rn - 1) / (r - 1)
10
10 = 8(8 – 1) / (8 – 1)

180)

Explanation: The GM is given as