102. How high are the markings on the horizontal surfaces of an aeroplane?

A) 25 cm
B) 50 cm
C) 30 cm
D) 40 cm

103. Certain registration marks are prohibited by Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration
Markings). These include:

A) EEE LLL NHQ

B) XXX PAN TTT
C) LLL ZZZ YYY
D) OOO MAY DAY

104. When letters are used for the registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent or distress signals for example

A) DDD
B) RCC
C) LLL
D) XXX

105. When letters are used for registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example

A) RCC
B) LLL
C) TTT
D) FFF

106. The certificate of registration shall:

A) Both a) and c) are correct

B) Be visible to the passengers at all times
C) Be reproduced on the portion of the airline ticket that stays with the passenger
D) Be carried on board the aircraft at all times

107. Annex 7 (Aircraft Nationality and Registration Marks) contains:

A) Recommendations only
B) Standards only
C) SARPS
D) PANS

108. What self medication is permitted by aircrew?

A) Only drugs which enhance, not degrade, performance

B) None
C) Only drugs which do not have side effects incompatible with aircrew duty
D) Only proprietary certain brands for colds and flu
109. When a contracting state renders valid a licence issued by another contracting state the validity
of the authorization

A) shall not extend more than 15 days from the date of the licence
B) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the licence other than for use in private flights
C) shall not extend beyond the period of validity of the license
D) the Contracting state rendering a licence valid may extend the date of the validity at its own
discretion

110. " Demonstration of skill to revalidate or renew ratings, and including such oral examination as the
examiner may require" is the definition for a:

A) revalidation.
B) conversion.
C) proficiency check.
D) skill test.

111. The assigment of the common mark to a common mark registering authority will be made by:

A) the state of registry and accepted by the International Telecommunication Union

B) the International Telecommunication Union
C) the state of registry
D) the International Civil Aviation Organisation

112. The applicant to exercise the functions of an Instrumental Flight Rating in aeroplanes shall
prove, according to Annex I, PERSONNEL LICENSING, his/her capability to pilot such aircraft only by
instrumental rules and an engine .

A) Amphibious/inactive or simulated inactive

B) Single-engine/inactive
C) Multi-engine / inoperative or simulated inoperative
D) Land/inactive

113. AIRAC is:

A) Aeronautical Information Regulation and Control

B) Aeronautical Information Rules and Control
C) Aviation Information Rules and Control
D) Aviation Information Regulation and Control

114. What is Special VFR?

A) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance
with IFR
B) A VFR flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in meteorological conditions below VMC
C) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to
remain clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
D) A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or the aeroplane is unable to comply with the requirements
of IFR

115. With regard to civil and state aircraft (Article 3). Which of the following is not a state aircraft:

A) Search and rescue aircraft

B) Police aircraft
C) Customs aircraft
D) Military aircraft

116. How is Flight Visibility defined?

A) The measured visibility assessed by a certified meteorological observer

B) The forecast visibility at 3000 ft above the aerodrome
C) The visibility reported by a pilot currently flying in the vicinity
D) The visibility forward from the flight deck of an aeroplane in flight
117. When does FLIGHT TIME end?

A) When the aeroplane first stops after landing to disembark passengers

B) At engine shut down when the aeroplane has stopped in the parking bay
C) When all the passengers have disembarked
D) At touchdown

118. Flight visibility is:

A) the visibility along the runway which may be expected when approaching to land
B) the minimum horizontal visibility in any direction from the flight deck of an aircraft in flight
C) the visibility forward from the flight deck of an aircraft in flight
D) the visibility along the runway which may be expected on take-off.

119. Which of the following correctly defines flight visibility?

A) The visibility at an aerodrome, as reported by an accredited observer

B) the visibility in the direction of take-off or landing over which the runway lights or surface markings
may be seen from the touchdown zone
C) The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aeroplane in flight
D) The visibility forward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight, corrected for slant range error

120. Which of the following correctly defines Special VFR?

A) Any flight cleared by ATC to operate in conditions less than VMC in which the pilot is required to
remain clear of clouds and in sight of the surface
B) A VFR procedure to enable an aeroplane to transit a control zone or area in IMC without compliance
with IFR
C) A flight cleared by ATC to operate within a CTR in conditions below VMC
D) A flight in IMC for which the pilot and/or aeroplane is unable to comply with the requirements of
IFR

121. What is a danger area?

A) An airspace of defined dimensions within which activities dangerous to the flight of aircraft may
exist at specified times
B) A NOTAM activated airspace where the general flight rules are disregarded
C) An airspace of defined dimensions above the land areas or territorial waters of a State within which
flight of aircraft is prohibited
D) An airspace of defined dimensions within which air traffic control service is provided to IFR flights
and to VFR flights in accordance with the airspace classification

122. An aircraft is deemed to be in flight:

A) from the time the aircraft first moves under its own power until it comes to rest after landing
B) from the time the main wheels lose contact with the runway until they regain contact on landing
C) from the time the aircraft moves into the manoeuvring area to the time it comes to rest after
landing
D) from the time the engines are started until they are shut down after landing

123. What is aerodrome traffic?

A) All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and flying in the vicinity of the aerodrome
B) All traffic flying through the aerodrome traffic zone.
C) All traffic on the movement area of an aerodrome
D) Local flying aeroplanes in or adjacent to the visual circuit

124. PANS are:

A) Procedures for Air Navigation Services

B) Practices for Air Navigation Services
C) Practices for Air Navigation Standards
D) Procedures for Air Navigation Standards

125. An aircraft is considered to overtake another if it approaches the other aircraft from the rear on a
line forming an angle of less than:

A) 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

B) 80 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
C) 60 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
D) 50 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter

126. What is the meaning of AGL?

A) Above ground level or aerodrome ground level

B) Aerodrome ground level
C) Altitude of ground level
D) Above ground level

127. In the case of a piloted flying machine, it shall be deemed to be in flight:

A) from the time the aircraft first moves under its own power until the moment it comes to rest after
landing
B) from the time the main wheels lose contact with earth until they gain contact again on landing
C) from the time the engines are started until they are shut down after landing
D) from the time the aircraft moves into the manoeuvring area until it leaves the manoeuvring area
after landing

128. Which of the following defines flight visibility?

A) The forward distance at which objects can be discerned in the air with reference to atmospheric
conditions
B) The forward visibility from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight
C) Visibility determined in flight not obscured by cloud, dust, haze or precipitation
D) The ability to determine in the air the distance and identity of unlighted objects by day and lighted
objects by night

129. How is night defined?

A) The hours of darkness

B) From 30 minutes after sunset until 30 minutes after sunrise
C) The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning of morning civil twilight
D) The hours when the sun is below the horizon

130. Who shall have the final authority over the disposition of the aircraft?

A) The Owner
B) The Commander
C) The Authority
D) The Operator

131. When operating under Special VFR clearance, the responsibility for remaining clear of obstacles
on the ground rests with:

A) the handling pilot

B) the aircraft commander
C) air traffic control
D) all of the above

132. PANS-OPS means:

A) Pilots Alternate Navigational Systems and Operational Procedures

B) Procedures for Air Navigation Systems - Airfield operations
C) Primary and Alternate Navigation Systems and Operations
D) Procedures for Air Navigation Services - Aircraft operations

133. The document that specifies the recommendations for instrument procedures is called...

A) the Convention of Chicago

B) PANS OPS Doc 8168
C) the Air Pilot
D) the Air Navigation bulletin

134. The term used to describe the visual phase of flight after completing an instrument approach, to
bring an aircraft into position for landing on runway which is not suitably located for straight-in
approach, is:

A) Visual approach
B) Visual manoeuvring (circling)
C) Aerodrome traffic pattern
D) Contact approach

135. What is defined as the portion of a flight in which the aircraft descends below 1000 ft above the
relevant DH or MDH?

A) Glide path
B) Go around / Missed Approach
C) Approach to landing
D) Final approach

136. A manoeuvre in which a turn is made away from a designated track followed by a turn in the
opposite direction to permit the aircraft to intercept and proceed along the reciprocal of the
designated track is called a:
A) Procedure turn
B) Reversal track
C) Base turn
D) Race track

137. The Transition Level:

A) is calculated and declared for an approach by the Pilot-in command

B) shall be the highest available flight level below the transition altitude that has been established
C) shall be the lowest flight level available for use above the transition altitude
D) is published for the aerodrome in the Section ENR of the AIP

138. NOZ is:

A) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localiser course and/or MLS final
approach track centre line
B) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS glide path course and/or MLS
final approach track centre line
C) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS glide path course and/or MLS
initial approach track centre line
D) Airspace of defined dimensions extending to either side of an ILS localizer course and/or MLS initial
approach track centre line

139. A notice containing information concerning flight safety, air navigation, technical, administration
or legislative matters and originated at the AIS of a state is called:

A) Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC)

B) Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)
C) NOTAM
D) AIRAC

140. A " precision approach" is a direct instrument approach...

A) using bearing, elevation and distance information

B) using bearing, elevation and distance information, providing the pilot uses a flight director or an
autopilot certified to a height below 200 ft
C) carried out by a crew of at least two pilots trained with a specific working method
D) using at least one source of bearing information and one source of elevation or distance
information

141. VORTAC is:

A) A combined VOR and TACAN combination where the bearing is from the TACAN and the range from
the VOR.
B) Range and bearing are supplied from the TACAN element and the VOR is a switch on device.
C) A combined VOR and TACAN combination where the bearing is from the VOR element and the
range from the TACAN element.
D) TACAN refined for missed approach positioning.

142. Based on operational considerations, a margin may be added to the OCA of a non-precision
approach. The result is then called:

A) DA
B) MDH
C) DH
D) MDA

143. The " estimated total time" in block 16 of a VFR flight plan is the estimated time:

A) of endurance at cruising power taking into account pressure and temperature on that day
B) required by the aircraft from brake release at take-off until landing
C) required by the aircraft from the moment it moves by its own power until it stops at the end of the
flight (block time)
D) required by the aircraft from take-off to arrive overhead the destination airport

144. A radial is:

A) a magnetic bearing extending from a VOR station

B) a magnetic bearing to or from a VOR station, depending on whether the aircraft is inbound or
outbound to or from the VOR
C) a magnetic bearing to a VOR station
D) a QDM

145. A circling approach is:

A) A flight manoeuvre to be performed only under radar vectoring

B) A visual manoeuvre to be conducted only in IMC
C) A contact flight manoeuvre
D) A visual flight manoeuvre keeping the runway in sight

146. What is the meaning of MEHT?

A) Maximum eye height

B) Mean height over threshold
C) Minimum eye height
D) Minimum elevation height

147. What is the meaning of OCA?

A) Oceanic control area

B) Occasional
C) Oceanic control area or obstacle clearance altitude
D) Obstacle clearance altitude

148. What does the abbreviation DER mean?

A) Dead reckoning
B) Distance error rectification
C) Departure end routing
D) Departure end of runway

149. OCH for a precision approach is defined as:

A) The lowest altitude at which an aircraft can perform a safe flight

B) The lowest height above mean sea level of the relevant runway used in establishing compliance
with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements
C) The lowest altitude above the aerodrome elevation used in establishing compliance
with appropriate obstacle clearance requirements
D) The lowest height above the elevation of the relevant runway threshold , at which a missed
approach must be initiated to ensure compliance with the appropriate obstacle clearance criteria