49.

5th Freedom of the Air is:

A) The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of
another nation (A)
B) Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B)
C) The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more treaty
partner nations (B to C to D)
D) The right to carry revenue traffic from treaty partner’ s territory (B) to carrier’ s base nation (A)

50. What is the status of IATA?

A) It is the international legislative arm of ICAO

B) It is an associate body of ICAO
C) It is a trade association of aviation operators and others involved with international aviation
D) It represents the air transport operators at ICAO

51. The Warsaw Convention of 1929 dealt with the liabilities of carriers and their agents. Specifically
what was agreed with regard to passengers?

A) That a limit of liability be applied in all cases where a claim was made against the carrier
B) That a passenger was carried at his/her own risk
C) That claims for compensation, except claims involving gross negligence, be limited to an agreed
sum
D) That compensation would be payable only in the event of death in a crash

52. The privilege to land for non-traffic purposes, e.g. refueling, maintenance is to following freedom
of the air:

A) 3rd freedom
B) 1st freedom
C) 2nd freedom
D) 4th freedom

53. An aircraft having sustained damage while on the territory of a Contracting State other than the
State of Registry may fly without fare-paying passengers to an airport at which it can be restored to
an airworthy condition if:

A) It receives permission from the Contracting State where the damage occurred
B) The repair works may be done at an airport that is not more than 250 nm away
C) It receives permission of the State of Registry
D) It receives permission from the manufacturer of the aircraft

54. The second freedom of the air is the:

A) right to land for a technical stop

B) right to operate a commercial passenger flight with passengers on board between two states
C) right to " cabotage" traffic, (trans-border traffic)
D) right to overfly without landing

55. The convention which deals with offences against penal law is:

A) the convention of Warsaw

B) the convention of Rome
C) the convention of Madrid
D) the convention of Tokyo

56. Which convention makes acts of violence on board, destruction of aircraft in flight and destroying
or damaging any air navigation facility punishable?

A) The Tokyo convention

B) The Montreal convention
C) The Chicago convention
D) The Warsaw convention

57. If a state applied CABOTAGE, what would be prevented?

A) Non-scheduled operations in state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in state A

B) International operations from state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in state A
C) Internal scheduled operations in state B by aircraft registered in and owned by an operator in state
A
D) Privately operated air taxi services

58. What does the second Freedom of the Air permit?

A) To put down passengers mail and cargo in a state have taken them on in another state
B) To land for technical purposes (non commercial) in the territory of another state
C) To transport passengers, mail and cargo for valuable consideration from one aerodrome in a state
to another in the same state
D) To fly across the territory of another state without landing

59. According to the Tokyo Convention of 1963, who is considered to be competent to exercise
jurisdiction over acts committed on board an aeroplane?

A) The State over which the aeroplane was flying when the act took place
B) The State of the Operator
C) The Commander
D) The State of Registration

60. How will a member State withdraw from the Tokyo Convention?

A) By informing Japanese Civil Aviation Administration

B) By informing all ICAO member states and ICAO
C) By informing all ICAO member states
D) By informing ICAO

61. According to which Convention may an aircraft commander impose measures upon a person
committing a crime or an offence on board the aircraft?

A) The Convention of Chicago

B) The Convention of Warsaw
C) The Convention of Rome
D) The Convention of Tokyo

62. A carrier is liable for damage sustained in the event of death or wounding of a passenger if the
accident that caused the damage:

A) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking or after the booking in of the passenger
B) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking including time spent after the passenger has checked in for flight
C) Took place on board the aircraft or in the course of any of the operations of embarking and
disembarking
D) Took place on board the aircraft

63. The right to damages is lost if an action is not brought within:

A) 6 months
B) 1 year
C) 2 years
D) 5 years

64. 6th Freedom of the Air is:

A) Revenue traffic flown between two nations (C to A) by carrier of a third nation (B)
B) The right to carry revenue traffic between two points within a treaty nation (B) by the carrier of
another nation (A)
C) The right to carry revenue traffic between any points of landing on flights between 3 or more
treaty partner nations (B to C to D)
D) A combination of Freedoms 3 and 4. Revenue traffic flown between two treaty partner nations (C
to A) through carrier’ s base nation (B)

65. " Cabotage" refers to:

A) domestic air services

B) crop spraying
C) a national air carrier
D) a flight above territorial waters

66. Which convention deals with the liability of a carrier to passengers and freight consignees where
the limit of compensation is limited to US$10 000 except in cases of gross negligence?

A) Tokyo
B) Warsaw
C) Paris
D) Rome

67. What are the measures by which free movement of aeroplanes, crew, passengers and goods not
destined for the state in which the aeroplane has landed in, known as?

A) Open skies policy

B) Green Channel operations
C) Facilitation
D) Duty free zoning

68. When an aircraft subjected to an unlawful interference has landed it shall notify by the most
expedious means of the State of Registry of the aircraft and the State of the operator of the landing
and shall similarly transmit all other relevant information to the:

A) two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State
whose citizens were detained as hostages, each State whose citizens are known to be on board the
aircraft and the ICAO
B) two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries on board the
aircraft and the ICAO
C) two aforementioned States and the ICAO
D) two aforementioned States, each State whose citizens suffered fatalities or injuries, each State
whose citizens are known to be on board the aircraft and the ICAO

69. What flights are protected by the Prevention of Terrorism Act?

A) Military flights only

B) Private flights only
C) All flights
D) Public transport flights only

70. What does the International Air Transport Agreement provide for?

A) The freedom for aeroplanes of one State to land in the territory of another State for the purpose of
refueling
B) The freedom for aeroplanes to fly over the territory of any other State without landing
C) Free and unhindered transit of aeroplanes over the high seas
D) The carriage of traffic between the state of registration of the aircraft and any other participating
state

71. Which convention deals with the unification of rules related to damage caused by aircraft to third
parties on the surface?

A) The Montreal convention

B) The Rome convention
C) The Guatemala Convention
D) The Tokyo Convention

72. The aircraft commander, when he has reasonable grounds to believe that a person has committed
or is about to commit, on board the aircraft, an offence against penal law...

A) may deliver such person to the competent authorities

B) may require the assistance of passengers to restrain such person
C) may not require or authorise the assistance of other crew members
D) may request such person to disembark

73. Where are the duties and responsibilities of the Commander defined?

A) In the Ops Manual

B) In Annex 1 with additional responsibilities detailed in Annex 6
C) In Annex 6 with additional JAR-OPS 1 requirements taking precedence
D) In the Air Navigation Order

74. What can the Commander of an aircraft do if he has reason to believe that a person has or is
about to commit an offence in the aeroplane that is against penal law?

A) Deliver the person to the competent authority

B) Land in any country and off-load the offender
C) Answers a, b and c are all correct
D) Use force to place the person in custody
75. The convention signed by the states and moved by a desire to endure adequate compensation for
persons who suffer damage caused on the surface by foreign aircraft is:

A) the Warsaw Convention

B) the Paris Convention
C) the Rome Convention
D) the Tokyo Convention

76. The Rome Convention and later amendments deals with:

A) Regulation of transportation of dangerous goods

B) Damage caused by any aircraft to third parties on the surface
C) Offences and certain other acts committed on board aircraft
D) Damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties on the surface

77. Where was the 1952 convention that deals with damage caused by foreign aircraft to third parties
on the ground, held?

A) Paris
B) Tokyo
C) Rome
D) Warsaw

78. If a person is injured by a part falling from an aircraft flying over the state but registered in
another state, which convention covers this?

A) Paris
B) Chicago
C) Rome
D) Tokyo

79. Any person who suffers damage on the surface shall, upon proof only that damage was caused by
an aircraft in flight or by any person or thing falling therefore will be entitled to compensation as
provided by:

A) the Warsaw Convention

B) the Montreal Convention
C) the Rome Convention
D) the Chicago Convention

80. Who is responsible when damage is caused by an aeroplane to persons or property on the ground?

A) The Operator
B) The aerodrome manager authority, if the incident happened inside the boundary of the aerodrome
C) The pilot actually flying or at the controls when the incident happened
D) The Commander is responsible providing that no other person can be held responsible

81. The state of design shall ensure that there exists a continuing structural integrity program to
ensure the airworthiness of the aeroplane, which includes specific information concerning
corrosion prevention and control, in respect of aeroplanes:

A) up to 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass

B) over 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass
C) over 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off and landing mass
D) up to 5,700 kg maximum certificate take-off mass

82. When an aircraft has sustained damage, the aircraft shall be allowed to resume its flight, if:

A) the state of manufacture informs the state of registry that the damage sustained is of a nature
such that the aircraft is still airworthy
B) the state of registry considers that the damage sustained is of a nature such that the aircraft is still
airworthy
C) the state of design and the state of manufacture inform the state of registry that the aircraft is still
airworthy
D) the state of registry, the state of design and the state of manufacture consider that the aircraft is
still airworthy

83. Who is competent to issue a Certificate of Airworthiness?

A) None of the listed here

B) Always the Contracting State in which the power plants have been designed, manufactured and
approved
C) Only such qualified Contracting States specifically listed in Annex 7
D) The Contracting State which approves the aircraft on the basis of satisfactory evidence that the
aircraft complies with appropriated airworthiness requirements

84. Which of the following is not found on the Certificate of Airworthiness:

A) The aircraft serial number

B) The nationality or common mark and registration mark
C) The category of aircraft
D) The name and address of the owner

85. The Standards of Airworthiness, detailed in Annex 8 part III are applicable to:

A) aeroplanes of over 25,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of
passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation
B) aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of cargo or
mail in international air navigation
C) aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of
passengers, cargo or mail in international air navigation
D) aeroplanes of over 5,700kg maximum certified take-off mass, intended for the carriage of
passengers only

86. Who is responsible for determining the continuing airworthiness of an aeroplane?

A) The Owner/Operator
B) The Commander
C) The certifying manager for the JAR 145 approved maintenance operation
D) The State of Registry

87. The standards of Annex 8 (Airworthiness of Aircraft) relate to:

A) Large turbojet powered aeroplanes

B) Large airplanes
C) Passenger carrying aeroplanes
D) Aircraft with MTOM greater than 5700kgs
88. Annex 8 covers airworthiness of aircraft. Who is responsible for the administration of the
Certificates of Airworthiness?

A) The authority of the state of manufacture

B) The authority of the state of registration
C) The Operator
D) The authority of the state of the Operator

89. According to ICAO Annex 8, a certificate of airworthiness shall be renewed or shall remain valid
subject to the:

A) Laws of the State of registry and operation

B) Laws of the State in which is operated
C) Laws of the State of registry
D) Requirements laid down by ICAO

90. The cotinuation of validity of a Certificate of Airworthiness is dependant upon what?

A) The establishment of a schedule for servicing and repair of the aeroplane in accordance with JAR
145
B) The continued registration of the aeroplane
C) The continued use of the aeroplane for the purpose stated on the certificate of registration
D) The continued airworthiness of the aeroplane as determined by periodic inspections

91. The loading limitations shall include:

A) all limiting mass and centers of gravity

B) all limiting mass, centers of gravity position, mass distributions and floor loading
C) all limiting mass, centers of gravity position and floor loading
D) all limiting mass, mass distributions and centers of gravity

92. Which of the following statements are correct concerning the flight crew compartment door?

A) It must be bomb-proof
B) It must be capable of being locked
C) It shall be inaccessible to passengers
D) It shall be made of fireproof material

93. A gyroplane is classified as a:

A) Rotorcraft
B) Airship
C) Non-power driven
D) Lighter-than-air aircraft

94. Which annexes to the Chicago Convention deals with registration and marking of aircraft?

A) Annex 7
B) Annex 6
C) Annex 14
D) Annex 11
95. The height of the marks on the fuselage (or equivalent structure) and on the vertical tail surfaces
of heavier than air aircraft shall be

A) at least 20 centimetres
B) at least between 20 centimetres and 40 centimetres
C) at least 30 centimetres
D) at least 40 centimetres

96. Which of the following is a prohibited combination in aircraft registration letters?

A) TTT
B) RTB
C) LLL
D) YYY

97. When letters are used for the registration mark, combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with the

A) five letter combinations used in the international code of signals

B) letters used for an ICAO identification documents
C) four letter combinations beginning with Q
D) three letters combinations used in the international code of signals

98. When the first character of the registration mark is a letter:

A) It may not be followed by a number

B) The registration mark must be completed by the national emblem
C) It shall be followed by a number
D) It shall be preceded by a hyphen

99. When letters are used for registration mark combinations shall not be used which might be
confused with urgent signals for example:

A) PAN
B) DDD
C) RCC
D) LLL

100. According to Annex 7, the registration mark shall be letters, numbers or a combination of letters
and numbers and shall be that assigned by:

A) the International Telecommunication Union

B) the International Civil Aviation Organization
C) the state of registry only
D) the state of registry or common mark registering authority

101. Regarding an aircraft Certificate of Registration:

A) Aircraft may only have one owner

B) Aircraft can be registered in more than one state
C) Aircraft registration cannot be changed from one state to another
D) Aircraft can only be registered in one country