PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

T.B.C.: FIAS-PTS24_Sim4 Test Booklet Series

Serial No.

A
TEST BOOKLET
GENERAL STUDIES
PAPER - I

Time Allowed: TWO HOURS Maximum Marks: 200

INSTRUCTIONS
1. IMMEDIATELY AFTER THE COMMENCEMENT OF THE EXAMINATION, YOU SHOULD CHECK
THAT THIS TEST BOOKLET DOES NOT HAVE ANY UNPRINTED OR TORN OR MISSING PAGES
OR ITEMS ETC. IF SO, GET IT REPLACED BY A COMPLETE TEST BOOK.
2. Please note that it is the candidate’s responsibility to encode and fill in the Roll Number
and Test Booklet Series A, B, C or D
carefully without any omission or Name:
discrepancy at the appropriate places in
the OMR Answer Sheet. Any
Email Id:
omission/discrepancy will render the Mobile No:
Answer Sheet liable for rejection.
3. You have to enter your Name, Email Id and Mobile No. on the test booklet in the Box provided
alongside. DO NOT write anything else on the Test Booklet.
4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item is printed in English. Each item
comprises four responses (answers). You will select the response which you want to mark on
the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more than one correct response, mark the
response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY ONE response for each item.
5. You have to mark all your responses ONLY on the separate Answer Sheet provided.
See directions in the Answer Sheet.
6. All items carry equal marks.
7. Before you proceed to mark in the Answer Sheet the response to various items in the Test
Booklet, you have to fill in some particulars in the Answer Sheet as per instructions sent to you
with your Admission Certificate.
8. After you have completed filling in all your responses on the Answer Sheet and the examination
has concluded, you should hand over to the Invigilator only the Answer Sheet. You are
permitted to take away with you the Test Booklet.
9. Sheets for rough work are appended in the Test Booklet at the end.
10. Penalty for wrong answers:
THERE WILL BE PENALTY FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE
OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS.
(i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which
a wrong answer has been given by the candidate, one-third of the marks assigned to that
question will be deducted as penalty.
(ii) If a candidate gives more than one answer, it will be treated as wrong answer even if one
of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above to
that question.
(iii) If a question is left bank i.e., no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no
penalty for that question.

DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[1]
19 apr
D7-8:30 AM morning
D8- 4:30 PM evening
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.1) With reference to the Amar-Nayaka How many of the above pairs are correctly
system of the Vijayanagar Empire, consider the matched?
following statements: a) Only one
1. The Amaranayakas lacked ownership rights b) Only two
over the land held by them. c) Only three
2. The position and rights held by d) All four
Amaranayakas were generally hereditary in
nature. Q.4) With reference to Government of India
3. Portuguese traveller Domingo Paes Act, 1858, consider the following:
provided accounts of the Amara-Nayaka 1. It ended the system of double government
system. in India, by abolishing the Board of Control
How many of the above statements are and Court of directors.
correct? 2. It established a 15-members Council of
a) Only one India to assist the Viceroy of India.
b) Only two 3. It introduced an open competition system
c) All three for recruitment of civil servants in India.
d) None 4. It created a new office of Secretary of State
for India, to serve as the direct
Q.2) Consider the following regions which representative of the British crown in
were integrated into India, post- India.
independence: How many of the statements given above are
1. Jammu and Kashmir correct?
2. Hyderabad a) Only one
3. Junagarh b) Only two
4. Goa c) Only three
Which of the following is the correct d) All four
chronological order of integration of these
regions into India? Q.5) Consider the following statements with
a) 1-3-2-4 regards to the Non-Cooperation movement
b) 3-1-2-4 (NCM):
c) 2-1-4-3 1. The goal of NCM was the attainment of
d) 3-2-1-4 self-rule for India by peaceful and
legitimate methods.
Q.3) Consider the following pairs: 2. The resolution to launch NCM was
Reports/indices in Published/released approved by Indian National Congress in
news by the Amritsar session of 1919.
1. Food waste Index Food and Agriculture 3. Jamia Milia Islamia and Kashi Vidyapeeth
report organization Universities were established during NCM.
2. World Air Quality World How many of the above statements are
report Meteorological correct?
organization a) Only one
3. Corruption Transparency b) Only two
perception index international c) All three
4. Global status World Health d) None
report on Road organization
Safety

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[2]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.6) Consider the following pairs: How many of the above statements are
Organization/ Associated Leader correct?
Movement a) Only one
1. All India Anti- Dr. B.R. Ambedkar b) Only two
Untouchability c) Only three
League d) All four
2. Satyashodhak Jyotiba Phule
Samaj Q.9) Which one of the following statements is
3. Prarthana Samaj Mahadev Gobind correct regarding ‘Senghol’ sometimes
Ranade mentioned in the news?
4. Self-Respect E.V. Ramaswamy a) It is a golden sword associated with the
Movement Naicker ceremonial practices of the Chera Rulers.
5. Young Bengal Henry Vivian b) It gets its name from a Tamil word which
Movement Derozio means victory.
How many of the above pairs are correctly c) It finds mention in the Sangam literature
matched? ‘Silapathikaram’.
a) Only one d) It was presented to Bahadur Shah Zafar
b) Only two during the revolt of 1857 as a symbolic
c) Only three gesture to designate him as the leader of
d) Only four the revolt.

Q.7) With reference to the 'Ancient Indian Q.10) Consider the following philosophical
history', consider the following rulers: doctrines.
1. Bimbisara 1. Syadwada
2. Ajatshatru 2. Shunyawada
3. Mahapadma Nanda 3. Anekantwada
4. Prasenjit 4. Sarvastivada
5. Bindusara How many of the above-mentioned
How many of the above-mentioned rulers philosophical doctrines are related to Jainism?
were contemporaries of Gautama Buddha? a) Only one
a) Only two b) Only two
b) Only three c) Only three
c) Only four d) All four
d) All five
Q.11) Consider the following Mahajanapadas of
Q.8) Consider the following statements 6th century BCE:
regarding different inscriptions of the history 1. Vajji
of ancient India. 2. Avanti
1. The Aihole inscription mentions the defeat 3. Malla
of Harshavardhana of Pushyabhuti dynasty 4. Kosala
by Pulakesin II of Chalukya dynasty of 5. Magadha
Badami. How many of the above given Mahajanapadas
2. The Junagadh inscription mentions the were recognized as the Republics, known as
repairing of the Sudarshan Lake by king Gana or Ganasanghas or Ganarajya?
Rudradaman-I of Shaka Dynasty. a) Only two
3. The Allahabad inscription mentions the b) Only three
eulogy of Samudragupta of Gupta Dynasty c) Only four
in Prakrit language. d) All five
4. The Hathigumpha iinscription mentions the
military exploits of King Kharavela of
Meghavahana Dynasty.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[3]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.12) With reference to Deccan Sultanates of Q.15) With reference to Indian National
Medieval India, consider the following Movement, consider the following pairs:
statements: Person Position held
1. The development of Dakhani literature 1. Usha Mehta Member, The
was an important contribution of Constituent Assembly
Golconda sultanate. 2. Shyamji Editor, Indian
2. Bidri craft in Bidar sultanate was a textile- Krishna Sociologist
based embroidery work, showcasing Varma
exquisite designs. 3. Radhakanta Founder, Dharma
3. The monument of Gol Gumbaz was built Deb Sabha
by the rulers of Bijapur sultanate. How many of the above pairs are correctly
How many of the above statements are matched?
correct? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) All three
c) All three d) None
d) None
Q.16) With reference to Indian history,
Q.13) With reference to Lingayatism, consider consider the following statements:
the following statements: 1. He extended Pala control eastwards up to
1. The philosophy of Lingayats believed in Kamarupa (Assam).
the principles of castes-based karma and 2. He defeated Amoghavarsha, the
reincarnation. Rashtrakuta ruler.
2. Saints Appar and Manikkavasagar were 3. He granted five villages to Balaputradeva,
associated with the Lingayat movement. the king of the Sailendra dynasty of
3. Unlike most other Hindus who cremate Suvarnadipa (Sumatra).
the dead, the Lingayats bury their dead. Which of the following ancient Indian King
How many of the above statements are matches the description given above?
correct? a) Dharmapala
a) Only one b) Mahipala I
b) Only two c) Ramapala
c) All three d) Devapala
d) None
Q.17) Consider the following statements about
Q.14) With reference to Indian Freedom the Battle of Chandawar:
struggle, consider the following items: Statement-I: It laid the foundations of Timurid
1. Abolition of Salt tax rule in India.
2. Military training for citizens Statement-II: In this battle, Mohammad Ghori
3. Free and compulsory primary education emerged victorious over Jai Chand.
4. Separate electorate for minorities Which one of the following is correct in
5. Right to bear arms in accordance with respect of the above statements?
regulations a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
How many of the above given items were correct and Statement-II is the correct
included under ‘Swaraj’, by Karachi Congress explanation of Statement-I
Resolution of 1931? b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
a) Only two correct and Statement-II is not the correct
b) Only three explanation of Statement-I
c) Only four c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
d) All five incorrect
d) Statement-I is incorrect, but Statement-II
is correct

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[4]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.18) Which of the following represents the b) Sucheta Kriplani

correct order of organization in Ecology c) Annie Besant
starting from Individual to Biosphere? d) Kamaladevi Chattopadhyay
a) Community- Population-Biome-Ecosystem
b) Community- Population- Ecosystem-Biome Q.22) Consider the following pairs with
c) Population- Community-Biome- Ecosystem reference to National Parks of India and the
d) Population- Community- Ecosystem- Biome dominant type of forest found in these areas:
National Parks Dominant Forests
Q.19) With reference to Pradhan Mantri- found in these
Uchchtar Shiksha Abhiyan (PM-USHA) scheme, regions
which of the following statements is incorrect? 1. Bhitarkanika Mangrove forest
a) Its major objective is to improve the National Park
overall quality of the existing state of 2. Papikonda National Wet Evergreen Forest
higher educational institutions. Park
b) The recommendation of institutions for 3. Dihing Patkai Alpine forest
this scheme shall be made by the State National Park
Governments/ State Higher Education 4. Ranthambore Dry deciduous forest
Council (SHEC). National Park
c) Its focuses solely on government How many of the above pairs are correctly
institutions of the States and UTs that are matched?
accredited by National Assessment and a) Only one
Accreditation Council (NAAC). b) Only two
d) It is a centrally sponsored scheme. c) Only three
d) All four
Q.20) Consider the following statements:
Statement I: The rate at which our body loses Q.23) Consider the following pairs with
heat through evaporation increases as the reference to prominent religious/cultural
dryness of the air increases. places in India and the rivers associated with
Statement II: Hot and moist air feels warmer these regions:
and more uncomfortable than hot and dry air. Religious/cultural places Associated
Which one of the following is correct in of India rivers
respect of the above statements? 1. Ajanta Caves Waghora
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. Meenakshi Temple Cauvery
correct and Statement-II is the correct (Madurai)
explanation for Statement-I. 3. Amaravathi Stupa Godavari
b Both Statement-I and Statement-II are How many of the above pairs are correctly
correct and Statement-II is not the correct matched?
explanation for Statement-I. a) Only one
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is b) Only two
incorrect. c) All three
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is d) None
correct
Q.24) Which one of the following
Q.21) Which among the following personalities organizations/institutes in India publishes the
led an all-India delegation of women to Composite Water Management Index?
London to meet the then secretary of state for a) Central Ground Water Authority,
India Edwin Montagu in 1917, to demand the b) Indian Institute of Water Management
right to vote for women? c) Central Water Commission
a) Sarojini Naidu d) NITI Aayog

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[5]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.25) “The Earth's protective ozone layer c) Pachmarhi Sanctuary, Panna National Park,
shields us from harmful ultraviolet radiation. and Gangau Sanctuary
However, the presence of a polar vortex, a d) Bori Sanctuary, Satpura National Park, and
swirling mass of frigid air at the poles, can Pachmarhi Sanctuary
exacerbate stratospheric ozone layer
depletion.” In this context, which of the Q.28) With reference to biodiversity
following is the primary factor contributing to conservation, consider the following options:
ozone layer depletion due to the polar vortex? 1. Tissue Culture
a) The strong winds generated by Polar 2. Captive Breeding
Vortex cause friction, generating immense 3. Sacred Groves
heat that breaks down ozone molecules. 4. Botanical Gardens
b) Formation of polar stratospheric clouds 5. Wildlife Sanctuaries
(PSCs) within the vortex, provides the 6. Cryopreservation
surfaces for ozone-depleting chemical How many of the above are the ex-situ
reactions. conservation techniques?
c) The low-pressure system of the Polar a) Only two
Vortex creates turbulence, which b) Only three
accelerates the breakdown of ozone c) Only four
molecules. d) Only five
d) Strengthening of the polar jet stream
within the vortex, transports the ozone- Q.29) Consider the following lakes:
depleting chemicals to higher altitudes. 1. Deepor beel
2. Pulicat
Q.26) India recently launched an X-Ray 3. Chilika
Polarimeter Satellite (XPoSat). In this regard 4. Ansupa
consider the following statements: Which of the above lakes can be classified as
1. It is the world’s first satellite-based mission lagoons?
dedicated to making X-ray polarimetry a) 2 and 3 only
measurements. b) 1, 2 and 3 only
2. It is placed in the geostationary orbit of the c) 1, 3 and 4 only
Earth. d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Q.30) Consider the following statements
a) 1 only regarding the characteristics of Diamond and
b) 2 only Graphite:
c) Both 1 and 2 1. Diamond is the hardest naturally
d) Neither 1 nor 2 occurring known substance.
2. Graphite is the second hardest naturally
Q.27) A biosphere reserve may consist of occurring known substance.
multiple protected areas that collectively 3. Both diamond and graphite exhibit good
contribute to the conservation and sustainable electrical conductivity naturally.
management of ecosystems and biodiversity. 4. Both diamond and graphite exhibit good
In this context, which of the following groups thermal conductivity naturally.
of the protected areas are part of “Pachmarhi How many of the statements given above are
Biosphere Reserve’? correct?
a) Kanha Tiger Reserve, Pachmarhi Sanctuary, a) Only one
and Bori Sanctuary b) Only two
b) Ken-Gharial Sanctuary, Satpura National c) Only three
Park, and Kanha Tiger Reserve d) All four

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[6]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.31) If we want to breed the crops with higher Q.35) Consider the following statements
levels of vitamins and minerals, or higher regarding ‘Biochar’:
protein content and healthier fats, then we 1. It is a highly porous material entirely
can achieve this through a process called as: composed of carbon.
a) bioremediation 2. It is formed through the controlled
b) biomagnification burning of organic waste in an
c) biofortification environment with limited oxygen.
d) bioaccumulation 3. The application of biochar in soil can
increase soil fertility by regulating
Q.32) Which of the following statements is nitrogen leaching.
correct regarding the ‘Green Energy Corridor’, 4. Its production contributes to reducing
recently seen in the news? atmospheric carbon dioxide (CO2) levels.
It is a corridor: How many of the statements given above are
a) to strengthen the transmission correct?
infrastructure to transfer renewable power a) Only one
from the renewable energy (RE) rich areas b) Only two
to deficit areas within the country. c) Only three
b) between two or more ports where zero- d) All four
emission shipping solutions are to be
developed. Q.36) Consider the following pairs:
c) interconnecting two or more National Places in news Location
Highways (NH) by constructing roads using 1. SEAMA Nordic Region
some recycled materials. Ecoregion
d) established between some of the member 2. Afanasy Nikitin Indian ocean
countries of the International Solar Alliance Seamount
(ISA) for power transmission. 3. Agalega Island Pacific Ocean
4. Erez Crossing Ukraine
Q.33) Consider the following species of birds: 5. Batagaika Crator Russia
1. Bugun Liocichla How many of the above pairs are correctly
2. Himalayan Quail matched?
3. Jerdon's Courser a) Only two
How many of the above are endemic to India b) Only three
and are also listed as Critically Endangered c) Only four
species under IUCN’s Red List of Threatened d) All five
Species?
a) Only one
b) Only two Q.37) With reference to Pacific decadal
c) All three oscillation (PDO), consider the following
d) None statements:
1. It is a short-term ocean fluctuation
Q.34) Consider the following global affecting Pacific Ocean surface
environmental initiatives/organizations: temperatures and surrounding weather
1. Global Biofuels Alliances (GBA). patterns.
2. Coalition for Disaster Resilient 2. The positive phase of PDO will cause more
Infrastructure (CDRI). than the average rainfall during the
3. International Solar Alliance (ISA). monsoon season in India.
4. Green Credits Initiative. Which of the statements given above is/are
How many of the above-mentioned correct?
organizations have been proposed/launched a) 1 only
by India? b) 2 only
a) Only one c) Both 1 and 2
b) Only two d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) Only three
d) All four

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[7]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.38) Consider the following Floral species: How many of the above have been established
1. Oak under the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972?
2. Rosewood a) Only three
3. Rhododendron b) Only four
4. Deodar c) Only five
5. Spruce d) All six
How many of the above are commonly found
in Himalayas? Q.42) What is common among the sites known
a) Only two as Pandavula Gutta, Erra Matti Dibbalu and
b) Only three Barr Conglomerate?
c) Only four a) They all have ancient cave paintings dating
d) All five back to prehistoric times.
b) Some new species of snakes have been
Q.39) Consider the following mammals: discovered at these locations.
1. Seals c) They are designated as geological heritage
2. Whale sites in India.
3. Dolphins d) They are major mining sites for uranium
4. Monotremes extraction in India.
How many of the above mammals reproduce
by laying eggs? Q.43) Consider the following statements:
a) Only one 1. Agriculture sector is the largest
b) Only two anthropogenic contributor of Nitrous oxide
c) Only three emissions.
d) All four 2. Energy sector is the largest source of
anthropogenic methane emissions.
Q.40) With reference to Blue Flag Certification, 3. Burning of fossil fuels in power plants and
consider the following statements: other industrial facilities is the largest
1. It is a globally recognized eco-label anthropogenic source of sulfur dioxide
initiative by Sea Shepherd Conservation emissions.
Society. How many of the above statements are
2. Local authorities can apply for the Blue Flag correct?
Certification. a) Only one
3. Recently, Thundi and Kadmat beaches of b) Only two
Lakshadweep have received this c) All three
certification. d) None
How many of the above statements are
correct? Q.44) With reference to Chaudhary Charan
a) Only one Singh, consider the following statements:
b) Only two 1. Recently, he has been posthumously
c) All three honoured with Bharat Ratna.
d) None 2. He is the only Prime Minister of India who
never addressed the Lok Sabha.
Q.41) Consider the following 3. He holds the distinction of being the first
organizations/bodies/institutions in India: Agricultural Minister of Independent India.
1. National Tiger Conservation Authority Which of the statements given above is/are
(NTCA) correct?
2. Animal Welfare Board of India (AWBI) a) 1 and 3 only
3. Central Zoo Authority (CZA) b) 2 only
4. Wildlife Trust of India (WTI) c) 1 and 2 only
5. National Board for Wildlife (MBWL) d) 3 only
6. Wildlife Crime Control Bureau (WCCB)

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[8]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.45) Consider the following pairs: c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is

Directive Principle of Legislations bought incorrect.
State Policy (DPSP) by Parliament to d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
implement these correct.
Principles
1. To organize village 74th Constitutional Q.47) Who among the following authorities in
panchayats and to amendment act, 1992 India has the power of ‘Admission or
enable them to establishment of new States’ into the Union of
function as units India?
of self- a) The President
government b) The Union Executive
2. To make provision Maternity Benefit c) The Parliament
for just and Act, 1961 d) The Supreme Court of India
humane
conditions for Q.48) With reference to Insurance sector in
work and India, consider the following statements:
maternity relief 1. Both, Life and General insurance sectors of
3. To promote Khadi and Village India were nationalized in 1956.
cottage industries Industries 2. In India, the penetration of general
on an individual or Commission act, insurance is more as compared to the life
cooperation basis 1956 insurance.
in rural areas 3. Recently, the FDI limit in the insurance
4. To separate the The criminal sector has been increased to 100% via
judiciary from the procedure code 1973 automatic route.
executive How many of the above statements are
How many of the above pairs are correctly correct?
matched? a) Only one
a) Only one b) Only two
b) Only two c) All three
c) Only three d) None
d) All four
Q.49) Consider the following cases/disputes:
Q.46) Consider the following statements: 1. Post independence territorial disputes
Statement-I: The Comptroller and Auditor between two states
General (CAG) of India examines the propriety, 2. Inter- state water disputes
validity and legality of the expenses incurred 3. A legal dispute between Centre and a State
by the Government. 4. Disputes relating to the election of
Statement-II: The Constitution of India members of parliament
explicitly empowers the Comptroller and 5. The dispute regarding the enforcement of
Auditor General (CAG) to conduct the financial fundamental rights of the citizens
audit, compliance audit, and performance In how many of the above cases/disputes, the
audit of the government accounts. Supreme Court of India has the original and
Which one of the following is correct in exclusive jurisdiction?
respect of the above statements? a) Only two
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are b) Only three
correct and Statement-II is the correct c) Only four
explanation for Statement-I. d) All five
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct and Statement-II is not the correct
explanation for Statement-I.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[9]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.50) Which of the following is the best How many of the above are the subjects
example of exercise of direct democracy in mentioned in the ‘Union List’ of the Seventh
India? Schedule of the Constitution of India?
a) Parliament of India a) Only two
b) State legislative assemblies b) Only three
c) Gram Panchayats c) Only four
d) Gram Sabha d) All five

Q.51) The Constitution of India enumerates Q.53) With reference to the Parliament of
various provisions for safeguarding the rights India, consider the following statements:
of the Scheduled Tribes (STs). In this context, 1. During the ‘Zero Hour’, a Member of
consider the following statements: Parliament (MP) can raise a matter only
1. The Directive Principles of State Policy with 10 days prior notice.
(DPSPs) specifically mandates the State to 2. The ‘Question Hour’ is conducted as per
promote the economic interests of the the ‘Rules of Procedure and Conduct of
STs. Business’ of the respective Houses of
2. According to the Constitution, the right to Parliament.
reservation in promotion for the STs in 3. A ‘Starred Question’ requires an oral
government jobs is a ‘Fundamental Right’. answer from the responding minister.
3. The Constitution makes it mandatory for 4. An ‘Unstarred Question’ is one on which a
some states to appoint a Minister in supplementary question cannot be asked.
charge of tribal welfare. How many of the above statements are
4. The Constitution gives special powers to correct?
the Gram Sabha for protecting the a) Only one
customary rights of the tribals in the b) Only two
Scheduled Areas recognized under Fifth c) Only three
Schedule. d) All four
5. According to the Constitution, the
President of India is empowered to amend Q.54) Consider the following with reference to
the existing list of STs as per the changing the "Asia-Pacific Economic Cooperation
demographics. (APEC)".
How many of the above statements are 1. The organization's principal objective is to
correct? establish a liberalized free trade area across
a) Only two the Pacific Rim.
b) Only three 2. In APEC, decisions are consensus-driven,
c) Only four and commitments made are non-binding
d) All five for members.
3. Recently, APEC adopted ‘Golden Gate
Q.52) The Seventh Schedule of the Declaration’, aiming for tripling the
Constitution of India deals with the renewable energy capacity globally by
distribution of powers and functions between 2030.
the Union and State Legislatures. In this 4. India is a member of APEC.
context, consider the following subjects: How many of the statements given above are
1. Census incorrect?
2. Insolvency and Bankruptcy a) Only one
3. Banking b) Only two
4. Taxes on agricultural income c) Only three
5. Forests d) All four

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[10]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.55) With reference to the Finance are not infeasible due to their
Commission of India, consider the following confinement.
statements: 4. Justice Mulla Committee is related to
1. Article 280 of the Indian Constitution Prison Reforms in India.
mandates the establishment of the Finance How many of the above statements are
Commission at least once in every five correct?
years. a) Only one
2. The Finance Commissions are not allowed b) Only two
to make recommendations regarding the c) Only three
management of State Governments' d) All four
budgets.
3. Arvind Panagariya was appointed Q.58) Consider the following statements:
Chairperson of the recently established The Forest Conservation (Amendment) Act
Sixteenth Finance Commission. 2023-
How many of the statements given above are 1. states that the Forest (Conservation) Act,
correct? 1980 will not be applicable for land
a) Only one converted to non-forest use before
b) Only two December 12th, 1996.
c) All three 2. adds ecotourism facilities to the list of
d) None permitted activities in forest land.
3. exempts forest land, up to 10 hectares, for
Q.56) Article 103 of the Constitution of India constructing security-related
refers to the decision of President of India on infrastructure, from the purview of this act.
questions of disqualification of Members of How many of the above statements are
Parliament. In this context, which of the correct?
statements given below is correct? a) Only one
a) The President before giving any such b) Only two
decision shall obtain the opinion of the c) All three
Presiding Officer of the House to which the d) None
Member belongs.
b) The President before giving any such Q.59) Which one of the following statements is
decision shall obtain the opinion of the correct regarding recently introduced Plastic
Supreme Court of India. Waste Management (Amendment) Rules 2024?
c) The President before giving any such a) These rules define biodegradable plastics
decision shall obtain the opinion of the as materials capable of degradation without
Election Commission of India. leaving any microplastics or toxic residue
d) The President does not need to obtain any which has adverse environmental impact.
opinion from anyone before deciding the b) These rules specify the chemical tests to be
disqualification matters. used to establish the absence of
microplastics in different products.
Q.57) Consider the following statements: c) According to these rules, manufacturers
1. The subject of 'prisons' and 'persons can do marketing and selling of
detained therein' is provided under biodegradable carry bags without any prior
Concurrent list of the Seventh Schedule of certificate from the Central Pollution
the Indian Constitution. Control Board.
2. Model Prisons Act 2023 provides for d) These rules prohibit the manufacturing and
establishment and management of open usage of microplastics in various industries
and semi-open jails in India. like cosmetics and dental products.
3. Prisoners in India are entitled to enjoy
fundamental rights as long as these rights

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[11]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.60) With reference to Corporate Debt 3. Currently, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Market Development Fund (CDMDF), consider holds more than 50% of the outstanding
the following statements: dated securities of the government.
1. One of the major objectives of fund is to How many of the above statements are
purchase investment grade listed corporate correct?
debt securities, in India during stressed a) Only one
times, having residual maturity of up to 5 b) Only two
years. c) All three
2. Th fund will be regulated by Securities and d) None
Exchange Board of India (SEBI) under
Alternative Investment Fund Regulations. Q.64) Recently, the Union Ministry of Social
3. It will be completely funded by asset Justice & Empowerment launched the SMILE
management companies (AMCs) and (Support for Marginalized Individuals for
Central government on 50:50 basis. Livelihood and Enterprise) scheme. This
How many of the above statements are scheme aims to provide comprehensive
correct? rehabilitation for the welfare of which of the
a) Only one following pairs of communities?
b) Only two a) Scheduled Castes & Scheduled Tribes living
c) All three below the poverty line.
d) None b) Transgenders and individuals involved in
begging.
Q.61) Which of the following groups of crops c) Persons with disabilities and individuals
belong to the category of Millets? engaged in manual scavenging.
a) Bajra, Ragi, Sanwa, Kodo d) Widowed women and senior citizens with
b) Jowar, Bajra, Kakum, Maize locomotor disabilities.
c) Ragi, Nigerseed, Proso, Kutki
d) Jowar, Kakum, Mustard, Toria Q.65) Consider the following:
1. Decrease in the overall capital expenditure
Q.62) With reference to Indian Economy, in the economy.
consider the following statements regarding 2. Higher credit availability due to the fall in
‘Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs)’: Non-Performing Assets (NPAs) of Banks in
1. In India, the PPIs can be issued only by the the short run.
banking financial institutions. 3. Overall increase in Public Debt.
2. Its wallet can be pre-loaded in Indian 4. Crowding out of funds for private players.
Rupees (INR) only. How many of the above are the possible
3. It can be provided in the form of mobile impacts of farm loan waivers on Indian
wallets and smart cards. economy?
How many of the statements given above are a) Only one
correct? b) Only two
a) Only one c) Only three
b) Only two d) All four
c) All three
d) None Q.66) If an economy is operating at its
potential Gross Domestic Product (GDP), then
Q.63) Consider the following statements increasing the money supply in that economy
regarding the ‘Dated Securities’ issued by the will most likely lead to-
Government of India: a) Supply side inflation
1. They carry a fixed or floating coupon rate b) Stagflation
which is paid on face value. c) Demand side inflation
2. They are long-term financial instruments d) Hyperinflation
and can have tenors ranging from 5 years
to 40 years.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[12]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.67) If all individuals within an economy Statement II: Devaluation leads to an increase
increase the proportion of income they save, in the price of imported goods and a decrease
what will be the immediate effect on the total in the price of exported commodities of a
value of savings in the economy? country.
a) The total value of savings will necessarily Which one of the following is correct in
increase or remain unchanged. respect of the above statements?
b) The total value of savings will necessarily a) Both statement-I and Statement-II are
increase. correct and Statement-II is the correct
c) The total value of savings will necessarily explanation for Statement-I
decrease or remain unchanged. b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
d) The total value of savings will necessarily correct and Statement-II is not the correct
decrease. explanation for Statement-I
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Q.68) With reference to “Conservation incorrect.
Reserves” in India, consider the following d) Statement--I- is incorrect but Statement-II
statements: is correct.
1. They are declared under the
Environmental Protection Act 1986. Q.71) Consider the following statements
2. The State Government can declare any regarding the Comprehensive and Progressive
land outside protected areas as Agreement for Trans-Pacific Partnership
Conservation reserve. (CPTPP):
3. These reserves are managed by the Chief 1. It is a free trade agreement.
Wildlife Warden on the advice of the 2. Its member nations collectively contribute
Conservation Reserve Management more than 50% of the world’s Gross
Committee. Domestic Product (GDP).
How many of the above statements are 3. The United States and Russia are the
correct? members of this grouping.
a) Only one How many of the above statements are
b) Only two correct?
c) All three a) Only one
d) None b) Only two
c) All three
Q.69) With reference to State Public Service d) None
Commissions (SPSCs), consider the following
statements: Q.72) In the context of the ‘Digital Consent
1. As per Indian Constitution, the conditions Acquisition (DCA)’, as recently seen in news,
of service of the chairman of the SPSC are consider the following statements:
determined by the Governor of the state. 1. These are the set of regulations prescribed
2. The Governor can remove the chairperson by the Ministry of Information &
or any other member of the SPSC for Broadcasting(I&B).
misbehavior. 2. It aims to curb the menace of spam
Which of the statements given above is/are messages sent to mobile phone users by
correct? different entities.
a) 1 only 3. Banks and insurance companies are
b) 2 only exempt from complying with these
c) Both 1 and 2 regulations.
d) Neither 1 nor 2 How many of the above given statements are
correct?
Q.70) Consider the following statements: a) Only one
Statement I: Devaluation of the domestic b) Only two
currency leads to the strengthening of the c) All three
country's balance of payment. d) None

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[13]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.73) Consider the following statements: Q.76) With reference to the Governor of a
1. Geospatial data refers to time-based state, consider the following statements:
information associated with the objects, 1. The Governor of a state acting as the
events or phenomena on a particular Chancellor of State Universities is bound by
location on the Earth's surface. the advice of the Council of Ministers of
2. The National Geospatial Policy, 2022, that state.
seeks to leverage geospatial data for the 2. According to Constitution of India,
preservation of marine and coastal Governor of a state shall act on a bill within
ecosystems. two months of the passage of such bill by
3. Geospatial information systems (GIS) can the state legislature.
be utilized effectively in identifying soil Which of the above statements is/are correct?
types and fertility, facilitating the Options:
advancement of precision agriculture. a) 1 only
Which of the statements given above are b) 2 only
correct? c) Both 1 and 2
a) 1 and 2 only d) Neither 1 nor 2
b) 2 and 3 only
c) 1 and 3 only Q.77) Which one of the following international
d) 1, 2 and 3 organizations has recently released “Asia
Pacific Regional Overview of Food Security and
Q.74) Consider the following with reference to Nutrition 2023: Statistics and Trends”?
Committee of Privileges of Rajya Sabha: a) The Committee on World Food Security
1. It can conduct preliminary inquiry into the (CFS)
petition regarding disqualification of a b) Food and Agriculture Organization (FAO)
member on grounds of defection. c) International Food Policy Research
2. It can recommend and impose punishment Institute (IFPRI)
for breach of Parliamentary privileges. d) World Food Programme (WFP)
3. The Chairman of Rajya Sabha is the ex-
officio Chairman of the committee. Q.78) Consider the following entities:
How many of the statements given above are 1. Housing Finance Companies
correct? 2. Small Finance Banks
a) Only one 3. State Cooperative Banks
b) Only two 4. Scheduled Commercial banks
c) All three ‘The Guidelines on Default Loss Guarantee
d) None (DLG) in Digital Lending’ issued by the Reserve
Bank of India (RBI) are applicable to how many
Q.75) Consider the following sector/items: of the above-mentioned entities?
1. Mining a) Only one
2. Construction b) Only two
3. Manufacturing c) Only three
4. Gas and Water Supply d) All four
5. Electricity
How many of the above sectors/items are Q.79) “Idate Commission”, sometimes seen in
included in the compilation of Index of news, is related to:
Industrial Production (IIP) in India? a) Reform of Public Sector Undertakings
a) Only two (PSUs)
b) Only three b) Infrastructure Development Projects under
c) Only four Public Private Model
d) All five c) Welfare of De-notified, Nomadic and Semi-
Nomadic Tribes (DNTs)
d) Rationalization of tax laws in India

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[14]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.80) Which one of the following Which of the statements given above is/are
organizations has released the India Aging correct?
Report 2023? a) 1 only
a) United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) b) 2 only
b) UN Department of Economic and Social c) Both 1 and 2
Affairs (UNDESA) d) Neither 1 nor 2
c) UN Commission on Population and
Development (UNCPD) Q.83) Consider the following statements
d) United Nations Children's Fund (UNICEF) regarding the ‘National Industrial Corridor
Development Programme (NICDP)’:
Q.81) The following authorities are required to 1. It aims to develop futuristic industrial
subscribe to an oath or affirmation before cities in India which can compete with the
entering their office. In this context, consider best manufacturing destination of the
the following pairs: world.
2. It is being implemented under the overall
Office of the Oaths are
administrative control of the Union
administered by
Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
1. Vice-President The President of India 3. At present, a total of four Industrial
Corridor Projects is being developed as
2. Governor The Chief justice of the part of the NICDP.
concerned state High 4. Government of India holds 100% equity of
Court. National Industrial Corridor Development
corporation (NICDC) which is a Project
3. Chief justice of The Chief Justice of Development Company of NICDP.
High court India. How many of the statements given above are
correct?
4. Minister of the Governor of the
a) Only one
state concerned state.
b) Only two
Government
c) Only three
How many of the above pairs are correctly d) All four
matched?
a) Only one Q.84) Among the agricultural commodities
b) Only two given below, which are exported by India,
c) Only three which one accounts for the highest exports in
d) All four terms of value in the last five years?
a) Basmati Rice
Q.82) Consider the following statements b) Raw Cotton
regarding the difference between the Nominal c) Castor Oil
Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) and the Real d) Wheat
Effective Exchange Rate (REER):
1. NEER determines the exchange rate of the Q.85) Which of the following Articles of the
domestic currency against a single foreign Constitution of India safeguards one’s Right to
currency, whereas REER evaluates the Travel Abroad?
exchange rate of the domestic currency a) Article 14
against a basket of multiple foreign b) Article 19
currencies. c) Article 21
2. An increase in REER indicates a loss in d) Article 25
trade competitiveness whereas an
increase in NEER indicates an
improvement in trade competitiveness.

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[15]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.86) Which of the following measures is least a) Iceland, Liechtenstein, Norway and
likely to be adopted by the Government of Switzerland.
India to enhance tax compliance in the b) Germany, Liechtenstein, Italy and the
country? Netherlands.
a) Encouraging cashless transactions. c) Austria, Iceland, Norway and Germany.
b) Introduction of simplified tax filing process. d) Norway, Denmark, Sweden and Finland.
c) Raising the tax rate.
d) Introducing legal provisions to curb money Q.90) The Government of India classifies the
laundering activities. enterprises into ‘micro’, ‘small’ and ‘medium’
based on their annual turnover and investment
Q.87) In the context of different measures in plant and machinery. In this context,
taken by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) to consider the following statements:
promote digital payments, consider the 1. A registered partnership firm having an
following statements: annual turnover of less than 5 crore can be
1. The 'Credit Line on UPI' allows users to classified as a 'micro' enterprise.
access credit from banks without needing 2. A registered trust having an annual
credit cards. turnover of less than 50 crore can be
2. The 'UPI Lite' is a new payment solution to classified as a 'small' enterprise.
process high value transactions with a 3. A Self-Help Group having an investment in
minimum limit of Rs. 50,000. plant and machinery of less than 50 crore
3. The 'UPI Lite X facility' aims to expedite can be classified as a 'medium' enterprise.
and simplify transactions between How many of the above statements are
individuals located far apart geographically. correct?
4. The 'UPI Tap and Pay Facility' facilitates a) Only one
payments among users even when an b) Only two
internet connection is unavailable. c) All three
How many of the statements given above are d) None
correct?
a) Only one Q.91) Consider the following pairs:
b) Only two Cyber Threat Description
c) Only three 1. Distributed Flooding a website with an
d) All four Denial of excessive volume of fraudulent
Service traffic, making it too slow or
Q.88) The countries such as ‘Belize, Cabo (DDoS) attack unavailable for legitimate users.
Verde, Azerbaijan and Tajikistan’ have been in 2. Structured A malicious code is inserted into
the news recently for which one of the Query a web application to modify
following reasons common to all of them? Language database.
a) Became the latest member to join the (SQL) Code
International North-South Transport Injection
Corridor (INSTC). 3. Cross Site Attackers inject code that
b) Added to the ‘Grey List’ by the Financial Scripting typically infects the system or
Action Task Force (FATF). (XSS) browser of users who visit the
c) Declared Malaria free by the World Health website.
Organization (WHO). 4. Zero-Day Using brute force attacks to steal
d) Establishment of Indian Army military Exploits passwords by repeatedly trying
bases. different popular combinations.
How many of the above pairs are correctly
Q.89) India recently signed a trade agreement matched?
with the European Free Trade Association a) Only one
(EFTA). In this context, which of the following b) Only two
groups of countries represents the members c) Only three
of EFTA? d) All four

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[16]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.92) Consider the following statements: a) 1, 2 and 3 only

Statement-I: Electrostatic precipitator is used b) 1, 3 and 4 only
in thermal power plants to reduce pollution. c) 2, 3 and 4 only
Statement-II: Electrostatic precipitators use d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
magnetic fields to attract and remove dust
particles from exhaust gases. Q.95) Consider the following with reference to
Which one of the following is correct in the Cherenkov Effect, sometimes seen in the
respect of the above statements? news.
a) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 1. The phenomenon occurs when electrically
correct and Statement-II is the correct charged particles travel faster than light in a
explanation for Statement-I. specific medium.
b) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are 2. The phenomenon helps in inspecting
correct and Statement-II is not the correct whether nuclear material from spent
explanation for Statement-I. nuclear fuel has been diverted from peaceful
c) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is use or not.
incorrect. Which of the statements given above is/are
d) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct?
correct. a) 1 only
b) 2 only
Q.93) Air-independent propulsion (AIP) c) Both 1 and 2
systems allow non-nuclear submarines to d) Neither 1 nor 2
operate without the need for atmospheric
oxygen. In this context, consider the following Q.96) With reference to Cell free DNA (cfDNA),
statements regarding Fuel Cell AIP and Stirling consider the following statements:
AIP systems used in submarines: 1. These are short fragments of DNA released
1. The Fuel Cell AIP generates power by through a natural process of cell death.
combination of Hydrogen and oxygen 2. It can act as a biomarker for the diagnosis
molecules while Stirling AIP generates of cancer.
power by combustion of liquid oxygen with 3. It can be used in screening fetuses for
diesel fuel oil. specific chromosomal abnormalities.
2. Stirling AIP poses greater stealth capacity How many of the above statements are
as compared to the Fuel cell AIP. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are a) Only one
correct? b) Only two
a) 1 only c) All three
b) 2 only d) None
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2 Q.97) Recently launched, “Atmospheric Waves
Experiment” (AWE), is a first-of-its-kind NASA
Q.94) Consider the following activities: experimental attempt aimed at -
1. Check the mobile connections registered a) measuring the expansion rate of the
with their names. universe with unprecedented accuracy.
2. Report fraudulent or unrequired mobile b) developing a new method for deep space
connections. communication using neutrinos.
3. Block the mobile phones which are c) observing airglow to forecast space
stolen/lost. weather changes in the upper atmosphere.
4. Check IMEI genuineness before buying a d) understanding the depletion of
mobile phone. stratospheric ozone and its impact on the
Which of the above activities can be terrestrial weather.
performed by the citizens through the Sanchar
Sathi portal of the Government of India?

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[17]
 PTS 2024 | Test Code: 121405 |

Q.98) With reference to Food Safety and

Standards Authority of India (FSSAI), consider
the following statements:
1. It is a statutory body established under the
Ministry of Health & Family Welfare.
2. It provides AGMARK certification for
agricultural products in India.
3. It can mandate fortification of food
intended for mass consumption like rice
and wheat based on directions from the
Government of India.
How many of the above statements are
correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) All three
d) None

Q.99) “NexCAR19” is sometimes mentioned in

news with reference to which one of the
following?
a) Space exploration missions
b) Artificial intelligence research
c) Cancer treatment therapy
d) Renewable energy sources

Q.100) Consider the following statements

regarding the human blood:
1. Individuals with blood type 'O' negative
are considered universal donors.
2. Individuals with blood type 'AB' positive
are considered universal recipients.
3. Individuals with the 'Rh-negative' blood
group can only receive 'Rh positive' blood.
4. Compared to Red Blood Cells (RBCs),
platelets take longer time to replenish to
the previous normal level after blood
donation.
How many of the statements given above are
correct?
a) Only one
b) Only two
c) Only three
d) All four

Forum Learning Centre: Delhi - 2nd Floor, IAPL House, 19 Pusa Road, Karol Bagh, New Delhi - 110005 | Patna - 2nd floor, AG Palace, E Boring Canal
Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020
9311740400, 9311740900 | [Link] | admissions@[Link] | helpdesk@[Link]

[18]