Geography (029)

Marking Scheme
Class: XII-2024 – 25

Q.N Section A Marks

There are 17 questions in this section.
1 Ans. C. -The number of small children who are underweight 1

2 Ans: B 1
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
3 Ans: A i, ii, iv 1
4 Ans: C i, ii, iii, iv 1
5 Ans: B Trade liberalization 1

6 Ans: C 3, 2, 1, 4 1
7 Ans: C Phase III 1951-1981 1
8 Ans: A To protect the crops from adverse effects of soil moisture deficiency. 1
9 Ans: B Both (A) and I are true and I is the correct explanation of (A). 1
10 Ans: D Statement IV 1
11 Ans: D Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) 1
12 Ans: C 1

C Maharashtra 3 Korba

13 Ans: A Both I and III 1

14 Ans: B The construction of about 1500 major bridges and 200 rail over bridges and 1
rail under bridges.
15 Ans: D China 1
16 Ans: D- Nigeria 1
For Visually Challenged students
Ans: B - The arrangement or spread of people across a given area.
17 Ans: C 1
Asia
Section-B
Question 18 & 19 are Source based questions. (2X3=6)

18 (I) Travel undertaken for purposes of recreation rather than business. 1+1+1
(II) The Mediterranean Coast and the West Coast of India. =3
(III) Tourism has become the world’s single largest tertiary activity in total registered
jobs (250 million) and total revenue (40 per cent of the total GDP).

Besides, many local people are employed to provide services like accommodation,
meals, transport, entertainment and special shops serving the tourists.
Tourism fosters the growth of infrastructure industries, retail trading, and craft
industries (souvenirs).

1 MS- GEOGRAPHY-2024-25
 19 (I) Between 0.700 up to 0.699 1+1+1
=3
(II) High Literacy rate, Low Birth rate and death Rate, High life expectancy

(III) Countries with low levels of human development tend to spend more on defense
rather than social sectors. These countries tend to be located in areas of political
turmoil and social instability in the form of civil war, famine or a high incidence of
diseases. They have not been able to initiate accelerated economic development.
SECTION C
Question No.20-23 are Short Answer type questions
(4X3=12)
20 Humanization of nature. 3

i. With the passage of time people begin to understand their environment and the
forces of nature. With social and cultural development, humans develop better and
more efficient technology. They move from a state of necessity to a state of freedom.
ii. They create possibilities with the resources obtained from the environment. The
human activities create cultural landscape.
iii. The imprints of human activities are created everywhere; health resorts on
highlands, huge urban sprawls, fields, orchards and pastures in plains and rolling
hills, ports on the coasts, oceanic routes on the oceanic surface and satellites in the
space. The earlier scholars termed this as possibilism.
iv. Nature provides opportunities and human being make use of these and slowly
nature gets humanized and starts bearing the imprints of human endeavour.

OR
Neo determinism

i. Traffic is regulated by lights on the cross-roads. Red light means ‘stop’, amber light
provides a gap between red and green lights ‘to get set’ and green light means ‘go’.
ii. The concept shows that neither is there a situation of absolute necessity
(environmental determinism) nor is there a condition of absolute freedom
(possibilism).
iii. It means that human beings can conquer nature by obeying it. They have to
respond to the red signals and can proceed in their pursuits of development when
nature permits the modifications.
iv. It means that possibilities can be created within the limits which do not damage the
environment and there is no free run without accidents. The free run which the
developed economies attempted to take has already resulted in the greenhouse
effect, ozone layer depletion, global warming, receding glaciers and degrading
lands.
Any three points
21 (I) Mediterranean Sea and Red 1+1+1
(II) This sea-route reduces direct distance between Liverpool and Colombo compared =3
to the Cape of Good Hope route.
(III) It is a sea-level canal without locks which is about 160 km and 11 to 15 m deep.
 About 100 ships travel daily and each ship takes 10-12 hours to cross this canal.
The tolls are so heavy.
 A railway follows the canal to Suez, and from Ismailia there is a branch line to
Cairo.
 A navigable fresh-water canal from the Nile also joins the Suez Canal in Ismailia
to supply fresh-water to Port Said and Suez.
Any one point.
2 MS- GEOGRAPHY-2024-25
 The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates Only In lieu of
Question No. 21.

Ans (I) The Panama Canal connects the Atlantic Ocean in the east to the Pacific
Ocean in the west.

Ans (II) It has a six- lock system and ships cross the different levels (26 m up and
down) through these locks before entering the Gulf of Panama.

Ans (III) It shortens the distance between New York and San Francisco by 13,000
km by sea. The distance between Western Europe and the West-coast of U.S.A.;
and North-eastern and Central U.S.A. and East and South-east Asia is shortened.

22 Ans: One of the features of Smart Cities is: 3

i. To apply smart solutions to infrastructure and services.
ii. Making city less vulnerable to disasters, using fewer resources and providing
cheaper services.
iii. The focus is on sustainable and inclusive development.
Any other relevant point.

23 Ans: The share of adolescents (ages 10 -19) is about 20.9 percent of the population. 2+1
The adolescent population though regarded as the youthful population having high
potential, is quite vulnerable if not guided properly.

i. There are many challenges for the society as far as adolescents are concerned
such as, marriage at a young age, illiteracy (especially in females), school
dropouts, low intake of nutrients, high rate of mortality of adolescent mothers,
high rates of HIV/AIDS infections, physical or mental retardedness, drug abuse,
alcoholism, juvenile delinquency, and committing crimes.
ii. The government of India has undertaken certain policies to impart proper
education to the adolescents so their talents are better channelized and properly
utilised.
iii. The National Youth Policy looks into the overall development of our large youth.
It stresses on an all-round improvement of the youth and adolescents enabling
them to shoulder responsibility towards constructive development of the country.

Section D
Question numbers 24 to 28 are Long Answer based questions.(5X5=25)

24 Ans: Food gathering as an economic activity: 3+2=5

Gathering is practised in regions with harsh climatic conditions. It often involves
primitive societies, who extract, both plants and animals to satisfy their needs
for food, shelter and clothing.
i. This type of activity requires a small amount of capital investment and operates at
very low level of technology.
ii. The yield per person is very low and little or no surplus is produced.
iii. In modern times some gathering is market- oriented and has become commercial.
iv. Gatherers collect valuable plants such as leaves, barks of trees and medicinal plants
and after simple processing sell the products in the market.
v. They use various parts of the plants, for example, the bark is used for quinine, tanin
extract and cork— leaves supply materials for beverages, drugs, cosmetics, fibres,
3 MS- GEOGRAPHY-2024-25
 thatch and fabrics; nuts for food and oils and tree trunk yield rubber, balata, gums
and resins.

Any three points of comparison.

Why food gathering has little chance of becoming important at the global level?
i. Gathering has little chance of becoming important at the global level. Products of
such an activity cannot compete in the world market.
ii. Moreover, synthetic products often of better quality and at lower prices, have
replaced many items supplied by the gatherers in tropical forests.

25 Ans A: The factors contributing to the decline of traditional large-scale industries: 5

i. Technological advancement: Automation and improved efficiency have transformed

the industrial landscape, making manual labor less necessary. This has particularly
impacted labor-intensive sectors like textiles, where automation has replaced many
traditional roles.
ii. Globalization: The opening of markets and increased competition from foreign
companies, often with lower production costs, have posed significant challenges to
domestic industries. The steel industry's struggle against cheaper imports is a
prominent example of this phenomenon.
iii. Changing consumer preferences: Consumer demand for more innovative and
readily available products has shifted away from traditional goods. This shift can be
seen in the declining demand for handmade textiles, which are often perceived as
costlier and less accessible compared to machine-made alternatives.
iv. Environmental regulations: Increasing environmental awareness has necessitated
cleaner production methods, adding to production costs for traditional industries.
Compliance with stringent environmental standards has further impacted their
competitiveness.
v. Infrastructural bottlenecks: Inadequate infrastructure, particularly in terms of
transportation, power, and water supply, has hampered the growth of traditional
industries. This has resulted in disruptions to production processes, as seen in
instances of power cuts affecting manufacturing units.
vi. Demographic changes: Urbanization and rural-to-urban migration have led to labor
shortages in Rural areas where many traditional industries are located. Higher
urban wages and changing lifestyles have made it challenging for these industries
to sustain their operations.

Any other relevant point

Ans B: Access to transportation and communication facilities are essential for the
development of industries:

i. Speedy and efficient transport facilities to carry raw materials to the factory and to
move finished goods to the market are essential for the development of industries.
ii. The cost of transport plays an important role in the location of industrial units.
iii. Western Europe and eastern North America have a highly developed transport
system which has always induced the concentration of industries in these areas.
iv. Modern industry is inseparably tied to transportation systems.
v. Improvements in transportation led to integrated economic development and
regional specialization of manufacturing.

4 MS- GEOGRAPHY-2024-25
 26 Ans A: The benefits derived from Integrated Tribal development Project 5
implemented in Bharmaur Region.

i. The Fifth Five Year Plan, the tribal sub-plan was introduced in 1974 and Bharmaur
was designated as one of the five Integrated Tribal Development Projects (ITDP)
in Himachal Pradesh.
ii. This area development plan was aimed at improving the quality of life of the
Gaddis.
iii. This plan laid the highest priority on development of transport and
communications, agriculture and allied activities, and social and community
services.
iv. The most significant contribution of tribal sub-plan in Bharmaur region is the
development of infrastructure in terms of schools, healthcare facilities, potable
water, roads, communications and electricity.
v. The social benefits derived from ITDP include tremendous increase in literacy
rate, improvement in sex ratio and decline in child marriage.
vi. The female literacy rate in the region increased from 1.88 per cent in 1971 to 65
per cent in 2011.

vii. Traditionally, the Gaddis had subsistence agricultural-cum-pastoral economy

having emphasis on foodgrains and livestock production. But during the last three
decades of twentieth century, the cultivation of pulses and other cash crops has
increased in Bharmaur region.

Any five points

OR
Ans B:

i. Hill Area Development programmes were initiated during Fifth Five Year Plan.
ii. These programmes covered 15 districts comprising all the hilly districts of Uttar
Pradesh (present Uttarakhand), Mikir Hills and North Kachar Hills of Assam
Drajeeling district of West Bengal and Nilgiri dictrict of Tamil Nadu.
iii. The National Committee on the Development of Backward Area in 1981
recommended that all the hill areas in the country having height above 600 m and
not covered under the tribal sub-plan be treated as backward hill areas.
iv. The detailed plans for the development of hill areas were drawn keeping in view
their topographical, ecological, social and economic conditions.
v. These programmes aimed at harnessing the indigenous resources of the hill
areas through development of horticulture, plantation agriculture, animal
husbandry, poultry, forestry and small scale and village industry.
Any other relevant point

27 Ans A: The composition of commodities in India’s international trade has been 5

undergoing a change over the years:

i. The share of agriculture and allied products has declined, whereas, shares of
petroleum and crude products and other commodities have increased.
ii. The shares of ore minerals and manufactured goods have largely remained
constant over the years from 2009-10 to 2010-11and 2015-16 to 2016-17.
iii. The decline in traditional items is largely due to the tough international competition.
Amongst the agricultural products, there is a decline in the export of traditional
items, such as coffee, cashew, etc., though an increase has been registered in
floricultural products, fresh fruits, marine products and sugar, etc.

5 MS- GEOGRAPHY-2024-25
 iv. Manufacturing sector alone accounted for 73.6 per cent of India’s total value of
export in 2016-17. Engineering goods have shown a significant growth in the
export.
v. After 1970s, foodgrain import was discontinued due to the success of Green
revolution but the energy crisis of 1973 pushed the prices of petroleum, and import
budget was also pushed up.
vi. Foodgrain import was replaced by fertilizers and petroleum. Machine and
equipment, special steel, edible oil and chemicals largely make the import basket.

Any five points

OR
Ans B: Air transport is the fastest means of transportation, but it is very costly. Being
fast, it is preferred by passengers for long- distance travel.
i. Valuable cargo can be moved rapidly on a world-wide scale.
ii. It is often the only means to reach inaccessible areas.
iii. Air transport has brought about a connectivity revolution in the world. The frictions
created by mountainous snow fields or inhospitable desert terrains have been
overcome.
iv. The accessibility has increased. The airplane brings varied articles to the Eskimos
in Northern Canada unhindered by the frozen ground. In the Himalayan region,
the routes are often obstructed due to landslides, avalanches or heavy snow fall.
At such times, air travel is the only alternative to reach a place.
v. At present no place in the world is more than 35 hours away. This startling fact
has been made possible due to people who build and fly airplanes.
vi. Travel by air can now be measured by hours and minutes instead of years
and months.
vii. Frequent air services are available to many parts of the world.

Any five points

28 Ans: Environmental pollution by solid wastes has now got significance due to 5
enormous growth in the quantity of waste:

i. Urban areas are generally marked by overcrowding, congestion, inadequate

facilities to support the fast growing population and consequent poor sanitary
conditions and foul air.
ii. Solid waste refers to a variety of old and used articles, for example stained small
pieces of metals, broken glassware, plastic containers, polythene bags, ash,
floppies, CDs, etc., dumped at different places.
iii. The discarded materials are also termed as refuse, garbage and rubbish, etc.,
and are disposed of from two sources: (i) household or domestic establishments,
and (ii) industrial or commercial establishments.
iv. The household wastes are disposed of either on public lands or on private
contractors’ sites whereas the solid wastes of industrial units are collected and
disposed of through public (municipal) facilities at low lying public grounds (landfill
areas).
v. The huge turnout of ashes and debris from industries, thermal power houses and
building constructions or demolitions have posed problems of serious
consequences.
vi. Solid waste is threat to human health and cause various diseases. It creates foul
smell and it harbours flies and rodents that can cause typhoid, diarrhoea, malaria
and other diseases.
vii. Solid waste can create inconvenience rapidly if they are not properly handled
wind, water and rain can spread waste and cause a discomfort to people.
viii. Industrial solid waste can cause water pollution by dumping it into water bodies.
Drains carrying untreated sewage also result into various health problems.
6 MS- GEOGRAPHY-2024-25
 Any four points

Strategies to control waste generation at the source in urban areas:

i. Waste Minimization and Recycling Campaigns:

Education and awareness programs: Implement educational campaigns to raise
awareness among residents about the importance of waste minimization and
recycling. This can include workshops, seminars, and outreach activities conducted
by local authorities, NGOs, and community groups.
ii. Incentive schemes: Introduce incentives for households and businesses that
actively participate in waste minimization and recycling efforts. This could include
discounts on utility bills, tax rebates, or rewards for recycling initiatives.

iii. Product design and packaging regulations: Enact policies that encourage
manufacturers to adopt eco-friendly packaging and product design practices. This
can involve setting standards for recyclability, biodegradability, and the use of
sustainable materials.
iv. Extended producer responsibility (EPR): Implement EPR schemes to hold
producers accountable for the entire lifecycle of their products, including waste
management. This encourages manufacturers to design products with minimal
environmental impact and to take responsibility for recycling or disposing of their
products at the end of their life.

Any Two points

SECTION E
Question numbers 29 & 30 are Map based questions having 5 sub-parts each. (2X5=10)
29 Map World 2X5=1
On the given political map of the world, the following seven features 5 are 0
shown. Identify any five of these features and write their correct names on the
lines marked near each feature.

A. Cape town
B. Rome
C. St. Lawrence sea way
D. Amazon
E. Shanghai
F. Tropical Africa/ North Africa
G. Canterbury Grasslands/Plains

The following questions are for Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of
Question No.29.
29 A. Cape town
29 B. Rome
29 C. St. Lawrence sea way
29 D. Amazon
29 E. Shanghai
29 F. Tropical Africa/ North Africa
29 G. Canterbury Grasslands/Plains

7 MS- GEOGRAPHY-2024-25
 30 Locate and label any five of the following geographical features on the 5
Political Outline map of India with appropriate symbols:

A. Mayurbhanj
B. Mangalore
C. Jharia
D. Mathura
E. Arunachal Pradesh
F. Assam/West Bengal/Tamil Nadu
G. Amritsar

The following questions are for visually impaired students in lieu of Question
No.30. Attempt any five.

30.A Mayurbhanj
30.B Mangalore
30.C Ratnagiri
30.D Mathura
30.E Arunachal Pradesh
30.F Assam/West Bengal/Tamil Nadu
30.G Amritsar

8 MS- GEOGRAPHY-2024-25
 Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior School Certificate Examination, 2024
SUBJECT NAME GEOGRAPHY (Theory) (Q.P. CODE 64/1/1)
General Instructions: -

1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and
correct assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to
serious problems which may affect the future of the candidates, education system
and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting
evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality
of the examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects.
Its’ leakage to public in any manner could lead to derailment of the
examination system and affect the life and future of millions of candidates.
Sharing this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine and
printing in News Paper/Website etc may invite action under various rules of
the Board and IPC.”

3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It

should not be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other
consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously
followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on latest
information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for
their correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In
competency-based questions, please try to understand given answer and
even if reply is not from marking scheme but correct competency is
enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be awarded.

4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete
answer. The students can have their own expression and if the expression is
correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each
evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the
instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should
be zero after delibration and discussion. The remaining answer books meant for
evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in
the marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X”
be marked. Evaluators will not put right ( ✓ )while evaluating which gives an
impression that answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is most
common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part.
Marks awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and
written in the left-hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand
margin and encircled. This may also be followed strictly.

1
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving
more marks should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra
Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be
penalized only once.
11 A full scale of marks __70 (example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given in
Question Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the
answer deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8
hours every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25
answer books per day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).This
is in view of the reduced syllabus and number of questions in question paper.
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by
the Examiner in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title
page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick
mark is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with
the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks
awarded.

14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it
should be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any unassessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling
error detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel
engaged in the evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the
prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed
meticulously and judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the
“Guidelines for Spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried
over to the title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on
payment of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head
Examiners/Head Examiners are once again reminded that they must ensure that
evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the
Marking Scheme.

2
 MARKING SCHEME
Main Examination, 2024
SUBJECT- GEOGRAPHY (029)
PAPER CODE-Set 64/1/1

SET-1

MM-70

Q EXPECTED ANSWERS/VALUE POINTS Page Distributi

No no in on of
TB marks
SECTION -A 17x1=17
Question no. 1-17 are Multiple Choice Questions.
(A) Sanskrit, Bodo and Manipuri Pg 9
1. TB II 1
(D) Chain Stores Pg 48 1
2
TB I
(B) Chemical-based industry
3 Pg 41 1
TB I
(C) Indira Gandhi Canal Command area -
4 Ganganagar, Hanumangarh Pg 72 1
TB II
(B) Only II, III and IV are Correct
5 Pg 8 1
TB II
(C) Barani
6 Pg 25 1
TB II
(D) To divert the flow of the river from the cities
7 Pg 97 1
TB II
(A) Allahabad / Prayagraj - Haldia
8 Pg 81 1
TB II
(C) Both statements I and II are correct and
9 statement II is the correct example of statement I. Pg 18 1
TB II
(C) For maximum utilization of available water
10 resources. Pg 16 1
TB II
(A) Indian Railways
11 Pg 79 1
TB II
(B) Ankaleshwar, Singrauli and Digboi Pg 19
12 TB II 1

3
 (A) Leather, pulp and paper
13 Pg 96 1
TB II
(B) World Trade Organisation
14 Pg 74 1
TB I

15

Which among the following stage/stages has/have

high growth of population?

(B) Only the second stage

Choose the most appropriate option from the

16 following regarding components of population
change:

(A) Births, deaths and migration

1
Which of the following stage/stages has/have a slow
17 growth of population?

(D) Only first and last stages 1

SECTION B 2x3=6

Question number 18 and 19 are Source-based

Questions.

4
18

(18.1) Mention any one example of common and 1

widespread services.
Grocery shops or Laundry are examples of
common and widespread services.
(anyone)
(18.2) Who supervises and controls the marketing
of services?
State and Union legislation have 1
established corporation to supervise and
control the marketing of services.

(18.3) “Services occur at many different levels.”

Support the statement. 1
Some are geared to industry, some to people
and some to both industry and people./High
order services and low order services.

5
19

(19.1) In 2014-15, which category of land use has

undergone the highest net increase in
1
comparison to 1950-51?
Forest
(19.2) In 2014-15, which category of land use has
undergone the highest net decline in comparison
to 1950-51? 1
Barren and unculturable waste land
(19.3) Mention any two reasons for the decline in land
under culturable wasteland.
Reasons for decline in land under culturable
wasteland are :-
(i) Pressure from agricultural sector. 1
(ii) Pressure from non agricultural sector/activities.
1/2+1/2=1
Any other relevant point.

Note : For Visually Impaired Candidates Only in lieu of

Q. No. 19

“Land use in a region, to a large extent, is influenced

by the nature of economic activities carried out in that
region.” Support the statement in three points.

(i) The size of the economy 1

(ii) The composition of the economy 1

6
 (iii) Though, Contribution of the agricultural
activities reduces over time, the
pressure on land for agriculture Pg 22 3x1=3
activities does not declined. TB II 1
(iv) Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained.)

SECTION-C
Question number 20 to 23 are Short Answer 4x3=12
Type Questions.

20 (a) Explain the criticisms faced by the World Trade

Organization.
Criticisms faced by the World Trade Organization
are:-

(i) It has been opposed by those who are worried

about the effects of free trade and economic
globalisation.

(ii) Free trade does not make ordinary people’s

lives more prosperous.

(iii) It widens the gulf between rich and poor by

making rich countries more rich.

(iv) The influential nations in the WTO focus on

their own commercial interests.

(v) Many developed countries have not fully

opened their markets to the products from
developing countries.
Pg 74
TB I 3x1=3
(vi) Issues of health, worker’s rights, child labour
and environment are ignored.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
(Any Three Points to be explained.)
OR
(b) What is ‘Balance of Trade’? Explain the
characteristics of ‘Balance of Trade’.

7
 Meaning of Balance of Trade:- The volume of
goods and services imported as well as
exported by a country to other countries.
1
Characteristics of Balance of Trade :-

(i) If the value of imports is more than the

value of a country’s exports, the country
has negative or unfavourable balance of Pg 73 1+2=3
trade. TB I
(ii) If the value of exports is more than the
value of imports, then the country has a
positive or favourable balance of trade.
(iii) Any other relevant point
2x1=1
(Any Two Points to be explained.)

21 Explain any three characteristics of ‘Phase II’ of

growth of population in India.

Characteristics of ‘Phase II’ of growth of

population in India are:-
(i) The decades 1921-1951 are referred to as the
period of steady population growth.

(ii) An overall improvement in health and

sanitation throughout the country brought
down the mortality rate.

(iii) Better transport and communication system

improved distribution system.

(iv) The crude birth rate remained high in this

period leading to higher growth rate.

(v) Any other relevant point. Pg 7

3x1=3
(Any three points to be explained.) TB II

8
22 (a) Explain with example the concept of
environmental determinism.
Environmental determinism:-
(i) The interaction between primitive human
society and strong forces of nature is known
as environmental determinism.
(ii) Human being listened to nature.
(iii) Human being was afraid of its fury
(iv) Human being worshipped nature.
Examples:-

 Direct relationship of a house hold belonging to

an economically primitive society with nature.

 Nature is the powerful force, worshipped,

revered and conserved.
Pg 2,3
3x1=3
 There is a direct dependence of human being on TB I
a nature for resources which sustained them.
(v) Any other relevant Point.

(Any three points to be explained. )

OR

(b) “The dichotomy between physical and human is

not a very valid one.” Explain the statement with
example.

The dichotomy between physical and human is not

a very valid one because-

(i) Nature and human are inseparable elements.

(ii) It should be seen holistically.
(iii) Both physical and human phenomena are
describes in metaphors using symbols from
the human anatomy.

Examples are:-
 ‘Mouth’ of the river, ‘neck’ of isthmus, ‘Profile’
of the soil, ‘face’ of the earth, ‘eye’ of the storm

9
 etc.
 Networks of road, railways and waterways
have been described as ‘arteries of circulation’.
Pg 1,2
3x1=3
TB I
 Regions, villages, towns have been described as
‘organisms’.
(iv) Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be explained.)

23 Explain any three problems of slums in India.

Problems of slums in India:-

(i) They are residential area of the least choice,
dilapidated houses, poor hygienic conditions.
(ii) Lack of ventilation, basic amenities like
drinking water, light and toilet facilities etc.
(iii) Open defecation, unregulated drainage
system.
(iv) Over crowded narrow street patterns.
(v) Prone to different types of diseases and
illness.
(vi) Prone to social problems like drug abuse,
alcoholism, crime etc.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
Pg 103
TB II
(Any three points to be explained.) 3x1=3

SECTION -D
Questions number 24 to 28 are Long Answer 5x5=25
Type Questions.

10
 How is the ‘Human Development Index’ measured?
24 Explain key areas of human development.

Measures of Human Development Index:

Human development index (HDI) ranks the

countries based on their performance in the key
areas of health, education and access to
resources. These ranking are based on a score
between 0 to 1. The closer score is to one the
greater is the level of human development. 2

Key Areas:-

(i) Health:- The indicator chosen to assess health is

the life expectancy at birth.

(ii) Access to knowledge: The adult literacy rate

and the gross enrollment ratio represent
access to knowledge.

(iii) Access to resources: It is measured in terms of

purchasing power (US $).
2+3=5
(iv) Any other relevant point. Pg 17
3x1=1 TB I
( Any three points to be explained.)

25 (a) Name the canal connecting the Atlantic Ocean

and the Pacific Ocean. Explain its main features.

Panama canal connects the Atlantic Ocean and the

Pacific Ocean. 1

Features of Panama Canal are:-

(i) It has been constructed across the Panama
Isthmus between Panama city and Colon by
the US government.
(ii) It is about 72 kms long.
(iii) It has a six lock system.
(iv) It shorten the distance between Newyork
and San Francisco.
(v) The distance between western Europe and
the West coast of U.S.A; and north -Eastern
and Central U.S.A and East and South east

11
 Asia is shortened.
Pg
(vi) It is vital to the economies of Latin America. 63,64 1+4=5
(vii) Any other relevant point. 4x1=4 TB 1
(Any four points to be explained.)
OR
(b) Explain the main features of the Rhine
Waterways.
Features of the Rhine Waterways:
(i) It flows through Germany and Netherland.
(ii) It is navigable from Rotterdam in the
Netherland to Bassel in Switzerland.
(iii) The Ruhr river joins the Rhine from the East.

(iv) This waterways is the world’s most heavily

used.

(v) Each year more than 20,000 ocean going

ships and 2,00,000 inland vessels exchange
their cargo.
(vi) It connects the industrial areas of
Switzerland, Germany, France, Belgium and
the Netherlands with the North Atlantic sea
route.
Pg 65 5x1=5
(vii) Any other relevant point.
TB I
(Any five points to be explained.

26 (a) Analyse the main features of Plantation

Agriculture in the world.
Main features of Plantation Agriculture in the
world are:-
(i) It was Introduced by Europeans in colonies
situated in the tropics.
(ii) Important Crops are Tea, coffee, cocoa,
rubber, cotton, oil palm, sugarcane, bananas
and pineapples.
(iii) Large estates or plantations.
(iv) Large capital investment.
(v) Managerial and technical support

12
 (vi) Scientific methods of cultivation.
(vii) Cheap labour.
(viii) Single crop specialisation.
Pg 28,
(ix) A good system of transportation which links TB I 5x1=5
the estates to the factories and markets for
the export of the products.
(x) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be analysed.)
OR
(b) Analyse the main features of extensive
commercial grain cultivation in the world.
Features of Extensive commercial Grain
Cultivation are:-
(i) Practised in the interior parts of semi-
arid lands of the mid-latitudes.
(ii) Wheat is the principal crop, though other
crops like barley, oats and rye are also
grown.
(iii) The size of the farm is very large.
(iv) Entire operations are mechanised.
(v) There is low yield per acre but high
yield per person.

(vi) Best developed in Eurasian Steppes, the

Canadian and American Prairies, the
Pampas of Argentina, the Velds of South Pg
Africa, the Australian Downs and the 28,29
Canterbury plains of New Zealand. TB I
5x1=5
(vii) Any other relevant point
(Any five points to be analysed.)

27 Explain the Indian sea ports as gateways of

international trade.
Indian sea ports as gateways of international
trade:-
(i) India is surrounded by sea from three sides

13
 and is bestowed with a long coastline.

(ii) India has a long tradition of sea faring.

(iii) Indian west coast has more ports than its east
ports.

(iv) Variations in the size and quality of ports.

(v) The ports act as suction points of the

resources from their hinterlands.

(vi) Extension of railways linked the ports of the

local markets to regional markets to national
markets.

(vii) Indian ports are handling large volume of

domestic as well as over seas trade.

(viii) At present, India has 12 major ports and 200

minor or intermediate ports. Pg 89,
5x1=5
90 TB II
(ix) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained.)

28 (a) Analyze the relationship between the

conservation of mineral resources and sustainable
development in India.

Relationship between conservation of mineral

Resources and sustainable development:-
(i) The challenge of sustainable development
requires integration of quest for economic
development with environmental concerns.

(ii) Traditional methods of resource use result

into generating enormous quantity of waste
as well as create other environmental
problems.

(iii) Sustainable development calls for the

protection of resources for the future
generations. There is an urgent need to
conserve the resources.
(iv) The alternative energy sources like solar
power, wind, wave, geothermal energy are
inexhaustible resource and these should be

14
 developed to replace the exhaustible
resources.

(v) In case of metallic minerals, use of scrap

metals will enable recycling of metals.

(vi) Use of scrap is specially significant in metals

like copper, lead and zinc.

(vii) Use of substitutes for scarce metal may also

reduce their consumption. Pg 64 5x1=5
TB II
(viii) Export of strategic and scarce minerals must
be reduced.

(ix) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analysed.)

OR
(b) Analyze the advantages of non-conventional
energy sources by giving the example of solar
energy in India.
Advantages of non-conventional energy sources
are:-
(i) Inexhaustible resources which are
abundantly available.

(ii) More equitably distributed.

(iii) Environment-friendly.

(iv) They are renewable energy sources like

solar, wind, hydro-geothermal, biomass
etc.

(v) More sustained, eco-friendly.

(vi) Cheaper energy sources.

(vii) It has full potential to replace conventional
sources of energy.

Solar energy :
 Cost competitive.
 Environment friendly.
 Easy to construct.

15
  Used more in appliances like heaters,
crop dryers, coolers, etc.
Pg 61 5x1=5
 The Western part of India like Gujarat TB II
and Rajasthan has greater potential.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be analysed.)

SECTION E
Questions number 29 and 30 are Map-based 2x5=10
Questions.
Please See Attached Map:- 5x1=5
29.

Note: For Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of [Link]. 29

Attempt any five. 5x1=5

(29.1) Velds of South Africa.

(29.2) Suez Canal
(29.3) Perth
(29.4) Tokyo / Osaka

16
 (29.5) Rio De Janerio
(29.6) Tropical Africa
(29.7) St. Lawrence

Please See Attached Map.. 5x1=5

30.

17
Note : For Visually Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No 30.

Attempt any five. 5x1=5

(30.1) Tamil Nadu

(30.2) Rajasthan

(30.3) Amritsar

(30.4) West Bengal

(30.5) Bihar

(30.6) Mathura

(30.7) Jharkhand

18
 Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior School Certificate Examination, 2024 (Main Examination)
SUBJECT NAME GEOGRAPHY (Theory) (Q.P. CODE 64/2/3)
General Instructions: -

1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and
correct assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to
serious problems which may af`
fect the future of the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To
avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must read and
understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality
of the examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects.
Its’ leakage to public in any manner could lead to derailment of the
examination system and affect the life and future of millions of candidates.
Sharing this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine and
printing in News Paper/Website etc may invite action under various rules of
the Board and IPC.”

3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It

should not be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other
consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously
followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on latest
information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for
their correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-X,
while evaluating two competency-based questions, please try to understand
given answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme but correct
competency is enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be awarded.

4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete
answer. The students can have their own expression and if the expression is
correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each
evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the
instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should
be zero after delibration and discussion. The remaining answer books meant for
evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in
the marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X”
be marked. Evaluators will not put right ( ✓ )while evaluating which gives an
impression that answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is most
common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part.
Marks awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and
written in the left-hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand
margin and encircled. This may also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving
more marks should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra
Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be
penalized only once.
11 A full scale of marks __________(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as given
in Question Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks if the
answer deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8
hours every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25
answer books per day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).This
is in view of the reduced syllabus and number of questions in question paper.
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by
the Examiner in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title
page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick
mark is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with
the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks
awarded.

14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it
should be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any unassessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling
error detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel
engaged in the evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the
prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed
meticulously and judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the
“Guidelines for Spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried
over to the title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on
payment of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head
Examiners/Head Examiners are once again reminded that they must ensure that
evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the
Marking Scheme.
 MARKING SCHEME
Main Examination, 2024
SUBJECT- GEOGRAPHY (029)
PAPER CODE-Set 64/2/3

SET-3
MM-70

Q EXPECTED ANSWERS/VALUE POINTS Page no Distribu

No in TB tion of
marks
SECTION -A (17x1=17)
Question no. 1-17 are MCQs
(A) 1-(ii), 2-(i), 3-(iv), 4-(iii) TB-I
1. Pg No.24 1
(B) Norway TB-I
2 Pg No.19 1
(B) Only I and III are correct
3 TB-I 1
Pg No.10
(A) Hepatitis
4 TB-II 1
Pg No.97
(B) Government of India
5 TB-II 1
Pg No.103
(C) Only I, III, and IV are correct
6 TB-II 1
Pg No.79
(C) Graphite
7 TB-II 1
Pg No.53
(D) Gulf of Mexico to Northeastern USA
8 TB-I 1
Pg No.67
(C) Barani
9 TB-II 1
Pg No.25
(D) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
10 explanation of (A). TB-I 1
Pg No.53
(B) Porbandar
11 TB-II 1
Pg No.77
(B) Only I, II, and IV are correct. TB-I
12 Pg No.47 1

(D) Quaternary
13 TB-I 1
Pg No.51
 (A) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
14 explanation of (A). TB-I 1
Pg No.38

Study the following diagram carefully and answer [Link]. 15 to

17.

(C) Barren and unculturable wasteland TB-II

15 Pg. 1
No.23
(C) Area under non-agricultural uses TB-II
16 Pg No.23 1
(C) 3.8% (of reporting area)
17 TB-II 1
Pg No.23
Note: The following question is for Visually
Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 15 to 17.
(B) Desert and Ravines
15 1
(B) Culturable wasteland
16 1
(A) Revenue
17 1
2x3=6
SECTION B

Questions numbers 18-19 are Source-Based

Questions.
Read the given passage carefully and answer the 1+1+1=3
18 questions that follow:

Land Degradation

The pressure on agricultural land increases not

only due to the limited availability but also by
deterioration of quality of agricultural land. Soil
erosion, waterlogging, salinization and
alkalinization of land lead to land degradation.
What happens if land is consistently used without
managing its fertility? Land is degraded and
productivity declines. Land degradation is generally
understood either as a temporary or a permanent
decline in productive capacity of the land.

Though all degraded land may not be

wasteland, but unchecked process of degradation
may lead to the conversion to wasteland.

There are two processes that induce land

degradation. These are natural and created by
human beings. National Remote Sensing Centre
(NRSC) has classified wastelands by using remote
sensing techniques and it is possible to categorize
these wastelands according to the processes that
have created them. There are a few types of
wastelands such as gullied / ravinous land, desertic
or coastal sands, barren rocky areas, steep sloping
land, and glacial areas, which are primarily caused
by natural agents. There are other types of degraded
lands such as waterlogged and marshy areas, land
affected by salinity and alkalinity and land with or
without scrub, which have largely been caused by
natural as well as human factors. There are some
other types of wastelands such as degraded shifting
cultivation area, degraded land under plantation
crops, degraded forests, degraded pastures, and
mining and industrial wastelands, that are caused by
human action.

(18.1) Explain the meaning of land degradation.

Land degradation is temporary or permanent

decline in productive capacity. 1

(18.2) Explain any one man made process which is

responsible for ‘land degradation’.

Shifting agriculture, plantation agriculture,

degraded forests, pastures, mining and industrial
waste land are the manmade causes of land
degradation.
Anyone of the human action.
 1

(18.3) Suggest any two measures to solve the

problem of ‘land degradation’.

Measures to solve the problem of Land

degradation:
(i) Prevent waterlogging.
(ii) Change agriculture pattern.
(iii) Prevent over irrigation
(iv) Afforestation
(v) Any other relevant point
Explain any two points. 1/2+1/2=1

19 TB-I 1+1+1=3
Pg No.60

(19.1) Name the railway line given in the map.

Trans-Canadian Railway 1

(19.2) Name the places marked as (A) and (B) in the

given map.
A-Vancouver
B- Halifax 1/2+1/2=1
(19.3) Explain the importance of the railway
line given on the map.
(i) It was constructed in 1886 initially as
part of an agreement to make British
Columbia on the west coast.

(ii) It connected the Quebec – Montreal Industrial

region with the wheat belt of the Prairie region
 and the coniferous forest region in the north.

(Any other relevant point). 1

Note: The following question is for Visually

Impaired Candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 19.

Explain any three characteristics of the ‘Australian

Trans-Continental Railway’.

Characteristics of the ‘Australian Trans-Continental

Railway’ are-
(i) This rail-line runs west-east across the
southern part of the continent.
(ii) Runs from Perth on the west coast to Sydney
on the east coast.
(iii) Another major north-south line connects
Adelaide and Alice Spring and is to be joined
further to the Darwin-Birdum line.
(iv) Any other relevant point.
TB-I 3x1=3
(Any three points to be explained). Pg No.60
3x1=3

SECTION-C (4x3=12)
20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions.

20 a) How has the use of technology helped people

to overcome nature's obstacles? Analyse.

The use of technology helped people to overcome

nature's obstacles-

(i) The people begin to understand their

environment and the forces of nature with the
passage of time.
(ii) With social and cultural development, humans
develop better and more efficient technology.
(iii) They move from a state of necessity to a state
of freedom. They create possibilities with the
resources obtained from the environment.
(iv) It is technology that has allowed the people of
Trondheim and others to overcome the
constraints imposed by nature.
 (v) For example, health resorts on the
highlands, huge urban sprawls, ports on
the coasts, satellites in space etc.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
TB-I 3x1=3
Pg. No 3
(Any three points to be explained).

OR
(b) How does Neo-determinism try to achieve
balance between two concepts of man- environment
relationship? Analyse.

Neo-determinism tried to achieve balance between

two concepts of man- environment relationship
(i) Neo-determinism shows that neither is there a
situation of absolute necessity nor is there a
condition of absolute freedom.
(ii) It means that human beings can conquer
nature by obeying it.
(iii) They have to respond to the red signals and
can proceed in their pursuits of development
when nature permits the modification.
(iv) Possibilities can be created within the limits
which do not damage the environment and
there is no free run without accidents.
(v) Any other relevant point.
TB-I
Pg No 4 3x1=3
(Any three points to be explained).

Explain with examples, the physical factors

21 affecting the distribution of world population.

The physical factors affecting the distribution of

world population-

(i) Availability of water

Water is used for drinking. bathing
and cooking - and also for cattle,
crops, Industries and navigation. It is
because of this that river valleys are
among the most densely populated
areas of the world.
(ii) Landforms
People prefer living on flat plains and
 gentle slopes. This is because such
areas are favorable for the
production of crops and to build roads
and industries. The mountainous and
hilly areas hinder the development of
transport network and hence initially
do not favor agricultural and
industrial development. So, these
areas tend to be less populated. The
Ganga plains are among the most
densely populated areas of the world
while the mountains zones in the
Himalayas are scarcely populated
(iii) Climate
An extreme climate such as very hot
or cold deserts are uncomfortable for
human habitation. Areas with a
comfortable climate, where there is
not much seasonal variation attract
more people. Areas with very heavy
rainfall or extreme and harsh
climates have low population.
Mediterranean regions were
inhabited from early periods in
history due to their pleasant climate.
(iv) Soils
Fertile soils are important for pop
agricultural and allied activities.
Therefore, areas which have fertile
loamy soils have more people living
on them as these can support TB-I 3x1=3
intensive agriculture Pg No- 9
(v) Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be explained).

Explain with examples, the classification of Indian

22 towns on the basis of their evolution.

The classification of Indian towns on the basis of

their evolution are-

(i) Ancient towns –

There are number of towns in India having
historical background spanning over 2000. Most
of them developed as religious and as cultural
centres. Varanasi is one of the important towns
 among these. Prayag (Allahabad), Pataliputra
(Patna), Madurai are some other examples of
ancient towns in the country.
(ii) Medieval Towns –
About 100 of the existing towns have their roots
in the medieval period. Most of them developed
as headquarters of principalities and kingdoms.
These are fort towns which came up on the ruins
of ancient towns. Important among them are
Delhi, Hyderabad, Jaipur, Lucknow, Agra and
Nagpur

(iii)Modern Towns –
The British and other Europeans have developed
a number of towns in India. Starting their
foothold on coastal locations. they first developed
some trading ports such as Surat, Daman, Goa,
Pondicherry, etc. The British later consolidated
their hold around three principal nodes - Mumbai
(Bombay) Chennai (Madras), and Kolkata
(Calcutta) and built them n British style. Rapidly
extending their either directly a through control
over the princely states, the established their
administrative centres, hill towns as summer
resorts, and added new civil administrative and TB-II
military areas to them. Towns based on modern Pg No- 3x1=3
industries also evolved after 1850eg. Jamshedpur 34

Explain the characteristics of countries falling

23 under medium level of human development.

The characteristics of countries falling under

medium level of human development are-

(i) There are 37 countries in the medium level of

human development.
(ii) Most of these are countries which have
emerged in the period after Second World
War.
(iii) Some countries from this group were former
colonies.
(iv) Many other have emerged after the
breakup of the Soviet Union.
(v) Many of these countries have been rapidly
 improving their human development score by
adopting more people-oriented policy and
reducing social discrimination.
(vi) Any other relevant point.

TB-I
(Any three points to be explained). Pg No-19
3x1=3
OR

(b) Explain any three characteristics of ' Basic

Needs Approach ' of human development.

The characteristics of 'Basic Needs Approach' of

human development-

(i) This approach was initially proposed by the

International Labor Organization (ILO).
(ii) Six basic needs – health, education, food,
water sanitation and housing were identified.
(iii) The question of human choices is ignored.
(iv) Emphasis on the provision of basic needs of
defined sections.
(v) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be explained).

TB-I
Pg No-17 3x1=3

5x5=25
SECTION -D
24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions.

Explain the importance of rail transport in India.

24
The importance of rail transport in India is as
follows-
(i) Indian Railways network is one of
the longest in the world.
(ii) It facilitates the movement of both
freight and passengers and
contributes to the growth of the
economy.
 (iii) It is the largest government
undertaking in the country.
(iv) The length of Indian Railways network
was about 67,956 km (Railway
Yearbook-2019-20).
(v) Its very large size puts a lot of
pressure on a centralized railway
management system.
(vi) Electrification of railways has increased
the speed and haulage capacity.
(vii) Metro rail system has revolutionised the
urban transport system and is a welcome
step towards controlling air pollution.
TB-II 51=5
(viii) Any other relevant point. Pg No-
79-80
(Any five points to be explained).

OR
(b) Explain the sea port as a gateway for
international trade in India.
(i) India is surrounded by sea from three
sides and is bestowed with a long
coastline.
(ii) Water provides a smooth surface for very
cheap and ecofriendly transport.
(iii) India has a long tradition of seafaring and
developed many ports
(iv) India has ports both on east and west
coasts.
(v) Ports have been in use since ancient
times.
(vi) Indian ports can handle both domestic and
overseas trade and are equipped with modern
infrastructure.
(vii) Indian ports act as suction points of resources
from their hinterlands and link markets with
local, regional, national and international
markets.
(viii) Any other relevant point.
 (Any five points to be explained). TB-II 51=5
Pg. No-
89-90
Explain five types of industries classified on the
25 basis of raw materials.

(i) Agro-based Agro processing involves the

processing of raw materials from the
agriculture sectors for rural and
urban markets. Major agro-based
industries are food processing, sugar,
pickles, fruits juices, beverages,
spices and oil fats and textile, rubber
etc.

(ii) Mineral-based These industries use

minerals as a raw material. Some
industries use ferrous metallic minerals
which contain ferrous minerals such as
iron and steel industries, but some use
non - ferrous metallic minerals, such as
aluminium, copper and jewellery
industries.

(iii) Chemical-based Such industries use

natural chemical minerals like mineral
oil (petroleum) used in petro-chemical
industries. Salts, sulphur, and potash
industries also use natural minerals.
Synthetic. fibre, plastics are other
examples of chemical-based industries.

(iv) Forest-based The forests provide raw

material to the industries in the form of
wood, bamboo and grass for paper
industries, lac for lac industry.

(v) Animal-based Leather for leather industries

and wool for woollen textiles are obtained
from animals TB-I 5x1=5
[Link].41
(vi) Any other relevant point. -42
(Any five points to be explained).
 Analyze the major problems of youth population in
26 India. Suggest two measures to overcome the
problems.
(i) Illiteracy particularly female illiteracy.
(ii) School dropouts.
(iii) Low intake of nutrients.
(iv) High rate of maternal mortality of
adolescent mothers.
(i) High rate of HIV/Aids infections.
(ii) Lower age at marriage.
(iii) Drug abuse and alcoholism.
(iv) Juvenile delinquency.
(v) Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be explained).
31=3
Suggestions to overcome the problems are:
(i) Proper education to the adolescent groups.
(ii) Their talents are better channelized and
properly utilized.
(iii) Skill-development programs.
TB-II
(iii) Empowering women and girl child. 3+2=5
Pg No-8
(iv) Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained). 21=2

OR
(b) How is discrimination on the basis of gender a
crime against humanity? Suggest two measures to
overcome the problems.

(i) The division of the society into male, female

and transgender is believed to be natural and
biological. But, in reality, there are social
constructs and roles assigned to individuals
which are reinforced by social institutions.
(ii) Consequently, these biological differences
become the basis of social differentiations,
discriminations and exclusions.
(iii) The exclusion of over half of the population
 becomes a serious handicap to any developing
and civilized society.
(iv) It is a global challenge acknowledged by
the UNDP and they mentioned, " If development
is not engendered it is endangered ".
Discrimination, in general, and gender
discrimination, in particular, is a crime against
humanity.
(v) Any other relevant point.
(Any three points to be explained). 3+2=5
3x1 TB-II
Pg No-12 =
3

Suggestions to overcome the problem of

discrimination are-
(i) Provide opportunities of education,
employment, political representation.
(ii) Equal wages for equal work.
(iii) Right to live a dignified life.
(iv) Any other relevant point.

(Any two points to be explained). 21=2

“Agriculture accounts for most of the surface and

27 groundwater utilization in India”. Support the
statement by giving examples from Punjab and
Haryana.

(i) It accounts for 89% of the surface water and

92% of ground water utilization.

(ii) Water needs of certain crops make irrigation

necessary e.g. rice, sugarcane, jute.

(iii) Irrigation makes multiple cropping possible.

(iv) Irrigated lands have higher agricultural

productivity than unirrigated land.

(v) HYV of crops need regular moisture supply

which is made possible by irrigation.
 (vi) More than 85% of NSA is under irrigation in
Punjab & Haryana.

(vii) Of the total net irrigated area,76% in Punjab

and 51% in Haryana are irrigated through
wells and tubewells. Therefore, groundwater
utilization is very high in Punjab and
TB-II
Haryana.
[Link].
42-44 5x1=5
(viii) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be explained).

28 (a) Describe any five features of ‘plantation

agriculture’ in the world.

(i) Plantation agriculture was introduced by the

Europeans in colonies situated in the tropics.

(ii) Some of the important plantation crops are tea,

coffee, cocoa, rubber, cotton, oil palm, sugarcane.

(iii) Large estates or plantations, large capital

investment.

(iv) Require managerial and technological

support.

(v)Scientific methods of cultivation.

(vi) Single crop specialization.

(vii) Require cheap labor and a good system

of transportation which links the estates to
the factories and markets for the export of
the products.

(viii) Any other relevant point.

TB-I
Pg. No.28 5x1=5
(Any five points to be described).
 OR

(b) Describe any five features of ‘extensive

commercial grain farming’ in the world.

(i) Commercial grain cultivation is practiced in

the interior parts of semi-arid lands of the mid-
latitudes.
(ii) Wheat is the principal crop though other
crops like corn, barley, oats, and rye are also
gown.
(iii)The size of the farm is very large.
Therefore, entire operations of cultivation from
ploughing to harvesting are mechanized.
(iv) There is low yield per acre but high yield per
person.
(v) This type of agriculture is best developed in
Eurasian steppes.
(vi) In Canada and USA, Prairies are the
producing areas.
TB-I Pg. 5x1=5
(vii) In South America, Pampas is the No 28-29
major producing area, Veldt in S. Africa, Downs
in Australia, and the Canterbury Plains in New
Zealand.
(viii) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be described.)

SECTION-E
Question no. 29 and 30 are map based questions.
Please see attached map
29 51=5

For Visually Impaired Candidates. in lieu of question

no.29
Attempt any five. 51=5
(29.1) Pampas
(29.2) Vladivostok
(29.3) Madagascar
(29.4) Argentina/Uruguay
(29.5) Tokyo
(29.6) Canada
(29.7) Suez Canal
 51=5
30

For Visually Impaired Candidates. in lieu of question

no.30
Attempt any five. 51=5
(30.1) Bihar
(30.2) Gujarat
(30.3) West Bengal
(30.4) Ratnagiri
(30.5) Gujarat
(30.6) Tamil Nadu
(30.7) Guwahati
 Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior School Certificate Examination, 2024
SUBJECT NAME GEOGRAPHY (Theory) (Q.P. CODE 64/3/1)
General Instructions: -

1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the
actual and correct assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in
evaluation may lead to serious problems which may affect the future of
the candidates, education system and teaching profession. To avoid
mistakes, it is requested that before starting evaluation, you must read
and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the
confidentiality of the examinations conducted, Evaluation done and
several other aspects. Its’ leakage to public in any manner could lead to
derailment of the examination system and affect the life and future of
millions of candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone,
publishing in any magazine and printing in News Paper/Website etc may
invite action under various rules of the Board and IPC.”
3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking
Scheme. It should not be done according to one’s own interpretation or
any other consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly adhered to
and religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are
based on latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they
may be assessed for their correctness otherwise and due marks be
awarded to them. In competency-based questions, please try to
understand given answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme
but correct competency is enumerated by the candidate, due marks
should be awarded.
4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the
complete answer. The students can have their own expression and if the
expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books
evaluated by each evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation
has been carried out as per the instructions given in the Marking
Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should be zero after
delibration and discussion. The remaining answer books meant for
evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant
variation in the marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer
CROSS ‘X” be marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating
which gives an impression that answer is correct and no marks are
awarded. This is most common mistake which evaluators are
committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for
each part. Marks awarded for different parts of the question should then
be totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and encircled. This
may be followed strictly.

1
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-
hand margin and encircled. This may also be followed strictly.
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question
deserving more marks should be retained and the other answer scored
out with a note “Extra Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should
be penalized only once.
11 A full scale of marks _____70_____(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks
as given in Question Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to
award full marks if the answer deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working
hours i.e., 8 hours every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in
main subjects and 25 answer books per day in other subjects (Details are
given in Spot Guidelines).This is in view of the reduced syllabus and
number of questions in question paper.
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors
committed by the Examiner in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to
the title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that
the right tick mark is correctly and clearly indicated. It should
merely be a line. Same is with the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but
no marks awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally
incorrect, it should be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any unassessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or
totaling error detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all
the personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also of the Board.
Hence, in order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again
reiterated that the instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in
the “Guidelines for Spot Evaluation” before starting the actual
evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated,
marks carried over to the title page, correctly totaled and written in
figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on
request on payment of the prescribed processing fee. All
Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once again
reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as
per value points for each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.

2
 MARKING SCHEME
Main Examination, 2024
SUBJECT- GEOGRAPHY (029)
PAPER CODE- 64/3/1

SET-1

MM-70

Q EXPECTED ANSWERS/VALUE POINTS Page no Distributio

No in TB n of marks
SECTION -A 17x1=17
Question no. 1-17 are MCQs
T.B. I
1. (C) Only III and IV are correct 1
Pg.10

(D) Basic Needs

2 T.B. I 1
Pg. 17
(B) Plantation agriculture
3 T.B. I 1

Pg. 28
(C) 1–(iv), 2–(iii), 3–(ii), 4–(i)
4 T.B. I 1
Pg.
41,42
(C) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
5 explanation of (A) T.B. I 1
Pg 45
(C) Statement I and II both are correct and
6 Statement II is the correct explanation of T.B.I 1
statement I.
Pg 51
(B) North Pacific sea route
7 T.B.I 1
Pg.63
(C) Singapore
8 T.B. I 1

Pg 76
(C) 1–(iv), 2–(i), 3–(ii), 4–(iii)
9 [Link] 1
Pg 79
(D) II, III, I and IV
10 T.B. II 1
Pg 87
(C) Kandla
11 [Link] 1
Pg. 90

3
 (A) Srinagar and Kanyakumari [Link]
12 Pg. 77 1

(B) Polythene Bags

13 [Link] 1
Pg 98
(C) Only I, II and IV are correct.
14 [Link] 1
Pg 96
Study the given diagram carefully and answer Q.
No. 15 to 17 :

[Link]
Pg 81

(B) National Waterway Number 3

15 1
(C) Kottapuram
16 1

17 (A) Kollam 1

For Visually Impaired Candidates only

15. (A) National Waterway Number 1 [Link] 1

Pg 81

16. (C) Brahmaputra [Link] 1

Pg 81

17 (D) Sadiya – Dhubri [Link] 1

Pg 81

4
 2x3=6
SECTION B

18 Read the given passage carefully and answer the

questions that follow :
Dharavi
There is only one main road that traverses
Dharavi, which has been reduced to less than half
of that for most of its length. Some of the side
alleys and lanes are so narrow that not even a
bicycle can pass. The whole neighbourhood consists
of temporary buildings, two or three storeyed high
with rusty iron stairways to the upper part, where
a single room is rented by a whole family,
sometimes accommodating 10 12 people; it is a kind
of tropical version of the industrial dwelling of
Victorian London’s East End.
But Dharavi is a keeper of more sombre secrets
than the revulsion it inspires in the rich; a
revulsion, moreover, that is, in direct proportion to
the role it serves in the creation of the wealth of
Bombay. In this place of shadowless, treeless
sunlight, uncollected garbage, stagnant pools of
foul water, where the only creatures are the
shining black crows and long grey rats, some of the
of the most beautiful, valuable and useful articles
in India are made. From Dharavi come delicate
ceramics and pottery, exquisite embroidery and
zari work, sophisticated leather goods, high-fashion
garments, finely-wrought metalwork, delicate
jewellery settings, wood carvings and furniture
that would find its way into the houses, both in
India and abroad

(18.1) Describe the physical condition of Dharavi.

i. Infrastructure of Dharavi is very poor. Only

one main road traverses the slums which has
been reduced to less than half of that for
most of its length.
ii. The whole neighborhood consists of
temporary buildings, two or three storeyed
high with rusty iron stairways to the upper
part.
iii. It is a place of shadowless, treeless sunlight,
stagnant pools of foul water.
iv. Any other relevant point

( Any one point to be described) 1

5
 18.2 Explain one major problem of Dharavi.

i. Lack of good living conditions

ii. Overcrowded areas
iii. Temporary houses
iv. Any other relevant point
(Any one point to be explained) 1

18.3 Explain the main objective of ‘Swachh Bharat

Mission’ in the context of Dharavi..
1+1+1=3

The Swachh Bharat Mission (SBM) is part of the

urban renewal mission launched by the Govt. of
India to improve the quality of life in urban slums.1

19 Study the given diagram carefully and answer the

questions that follow :

19.1With which waterway is the given diagram

related ?

Rhine waterway 1

19.2 Mention the names of places marked (A) and

(B) in the given diagram.

6
 A- Rotterdam

B- Basel ½+ ½= 1

19.3 Explain the importance of the waterway given

in the diagram
i. It connects the industrial areas of
Switzerland, Germany, France,
Belgium and the Netherlands with the
North Atlantic sea route.
ii. It flows through a rich coal field and the
whole basin has become a prosperous
manufacturing area.
iii. This waterway is the world’s most
heavily used waterway.
iv. It is navigable for 700 km from T.B. I 1+1+1=3
Rotterdam in Netherlands to Basel in
Pg 65
Switzerland.
v. Any other relevant point

(Any one point to be explained) 1

For Visually Impaired Candidates Only

Mention the name of the canal that links the

Mediterranean Sea and the Red Sea and explain its
two features.

Name of the canal that links the Mediterranean

Sea and the Red Sea
Suez Canal 1
Features: T.B. I 1+2=3
i. It gave Europe a new gateway to the
Indian ocean and reduced direct sea Pg 63
route distance.
ii. It is a sea level canal without locks
iii. Tolls are very heavy in this canal
iv. Any other relevant point

(Any two points to be explained) 2x1=2

SECTION-C 4x3=12
20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions.

Neo-determinism attempts to bring a

20 balance between the two concepts of human-
environment relationship. Examine the
statement with examples.

7
 i. The concept shows that neither is
there a situation of absolute
necessity nor is there a condition
of absolute freedom.
ii. It means that human beings can
conquer nature by obeying it.
iii. They have to respond to the red
signals and can proceed in their
pursuits of development when
nature permits the modification.
iv. Possibilities can be created within
the limits which do not damage
the environment.
v. In cities, traffic is regulated by
lights on the cross roads. Traffic
lights where red light means stop,
amber light provides a gap
between red and green lights to
get set and green light means go. T.B. 1 3x1=3

vi. Any other relevant point with Pg 4

example

(Any three points to be examined)

21 How does science and technology help in the

increase of population in the world ? Explain.

i. The steam engine replaced human

and animal energy and also
provided mechanical energy of
water and wind.
ii. Inoculation against epidemic and
other communicable diseases.
iii. Improvement in medical facilities
and sanitation contributed to rapid
decline in death rates throughout
the world.
iv. In the first stage of demographic
transition theory the fertility rate
and the mortality rate both were
high due to low level of science and
technological development.
v. In second stage of demographic
transition theory, with the

8
 advancement in medical sciences 3x1=3
the mortality rate has declined
which led to population growth.
vi. In third stage, both the fertility
rate and mortality rate are low T.B. I
due to the advancement in
Pg 10-
technology and sciences.
11
vii. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained)

22 (a) Describe any three factors responsible for the

development of different types of rural settlements
in India.

i. Physical –Terrain, altitude, climate

and availability of water
ii. Culture and ethnic - social structure,
caste and religion
iii. Security-Defence against thefts and T.B. II
robberies 3x1=3
iv. Any other relevant point Pg 16
(Any three points to be described.)
OR
(b) Describe any three characteristics of hamleted
settlements in India.

i. Hamleted settlement is fragmented

into several units physically
separated from each other bearing
common names.

ii. These units are locally called panna,

para, palli, nagla, dhani, etc. in
various parts of the country.
T.B. II
iii. This segmentation of a large village is Pg 16
often motivated by social and ethnic 3x1=3
factors.

iv. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be discussed)

9
23 (a) Misuse of any resources will lead to fewer
opportunities for future generations” Explain the
statement with examples in the context of
sustainable development.

i. Sustainability means continuity in

the availability of opportunities.
ii. To have sustainable human
development, each generation
must have the same opportunities
iii. All environmental, financial and
human resources must be used
keeping in mind the future.
iv. For example, If a community does
not stress the importance of
sending its girl children to school
many opportunities will be lost to
these young women when they
grow up.
v. Any other relevant point . T.B. I 3x1=3
One example also to be given.
Pg 16

(Any three points to be explained)

OR
(b) Welfare approach of human development
emphasizes on the actions for development of
human beings.” Explain the statement with
examples.

i. This approach looks at human beings as

beneficiaries or targets of all development
activities.

ii. The approach argues for higher

government expenditure on education,
health etc

iii. People are not participants in development

but only passive recipients

iv. The govt. is responsible for increasing

levels of human development by T.B. I
maximizing expenditure on welfare. Pg 17
3x1=3
v. For example, High level HDI group of
countries like Norway, Sweden do a lot of
investment on social welfare activities /

10
 schemes.

vi. Any other relevant point

One example also to be given.

( Any three points to be explained.)

5x5=25
SECTION -D
24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions.
(a) Describe any five types of ports in the world, on
24 the basis of specialized functions.

i. Oil Ports
ii. Ports of call
iii. Packet station
iv. Entrepot ports
T.B. I
v. Naval ports Pg
75,76 5x1=5
(All five points to be described)

OR

(b) Describe any five basis of international trade in

the world.

i. Difference in national resources:

differences in geological structure,
mineral resources and climate.
ii. Population factors:Variations in
cultural factors, size of
population.
iii. Stage of economic development:
differences in various stages of
economic development of
countries.
iv. Extent of foreign investment:
Foreign investment can boost
developing countries which lack in
resources.
v. Transport – with expansions of
rail, ocean and air transport,
trade has experienced spatial
expansion.
5x1=5
vi. Any other relevant point T.B.I
Pg 72

11
 (Any five points to be described)

25 (a) Explain any five features of mixed farming in

the world with examples.

i. This form of agriculture is found in

the highly developed parts of the
world.
ii. Mixed farms are moderate in size
and usually the crops associated
with it are wheat, barley, oats, rye,
maize, and root crops.
iii. Fodder crops are an important
component of mixed farming.
iv. Crop rotation and inter cropping
play an important role in
maintaining soil fertility.
v. Equal emphasis is laid on crop
cultivation and animal husbandry.
vi. Mixed farming is characterized by
high capital expenditure on farm
machinery and building.
vii. For example, North-Western
Europe, Eastern North America
and Parts of Eurasia are the
regions. T.B.I
5x1=5
viii. Any other relevant points Pg 29

(Any five points to be explained)

OR

(b) Explain any five features of dairy farming in the

world, with examples.
i. Dairy farming is the most
advanced and efficient type of
rearing of milch animals.
ii. It is highly capital intensive.
iii. Animal sheds, storage facilities for
fodder, feeding and milching
machines are found.
iv. Special emphasis is laid on cattle
breeding, health care and
veterinary services.
v. It is highly labour intensive as it
involves rigorous care in feeding

12
 and milching
vi. It is practiced mainly near urban
and industrial centres which
provide neighbourhood market for
fresh milk and dairy products.
vii. Main regions of commercial dairy
farming are North Western
Europe, Canada and South
Eastern Australia, New Zealand
and Tasmania T.B.I 5x1=5
viii. Any other relevant point Pg 29

(Any five points to be explained.)

26 (a) Explain any five factors affecting the uneven

distribution of population in India.
i. Physical factors- climate, altitude,
terrain, availability of water etc.
ii. Socio -cultural factors- Tradition,
language, customs
iii. Economic factors- Evolution of
settled agriculture, development of
transport network,
Industrialisation, urbanisation.
iv. Religious factors- places of
religious importance like
Varansasi, Amritsar, Haridwar
etc.
v. Historical factors
[Link] 5x1=5
vi. Any other relevant point
Pg 3
( Any five factors to be explained.)

OR
(b) Explain the main characteristics of the Phase
III (1951- 81) of population growth in India.

i. The period of population explosion

in India.
ii. Rapid fall in the mortality rate.
iii. High fertility rate
iv. Average annual growth rate was
high (2.2%)
v. In this period, after independence,
the developmental activities were
introduced through a centralised
planning process and the economy
started growing up.

13
 vi. Increased international migration
bringing in Tibetans,Bangladeshis,
Nepalies and even people from
Pakistan.
[Link] 5x1=5
(Any five points to be explained) Pg 7

Analyze any five measures for establishing

27 ecological balance in the Indira Gandhi
Canal Command Area .

i. The first requirement is strict

implementation of Water
Management Policy which
envisages protective irrigation in
Stage 1 and extensive irrigation of
crops and pasture development in
Stage II.
ii. In general, the cropping pattern
shall not include water intensive
crops. It shall be adhered to and
people shall be encouraged to grow
plantation crops.
iii. The CAD programmes such as
lining of water courses, land
development and levelling and
warabandi system shall be
effectively implanted to reduce the
conveyance loss of water.
iv. The areas affected by water
logging and soil salinity shall be
reclaimed.
v. The Eco-development through
afforestation, shelter belt, plantation
and pasture development. T.B. II

vi. Any other relevant point Pg 73 5x1=5

(Any five points to be analysed.)

14
28 Analyze any five problems of Indian agriculture.

i. Dependence on erratic monsoon.

ii. Low productivity
iii. Constraints of financial resources
and indebtedness.
iv. Lack of land reforms
v. Small farm size and fragmentation of
landholding.
vi. Lack of commercialization
vii. Vast underemployment
viii. Degradation of cultivable Land T.B. II 5x1=5
Pg 36-
ix. Any other relevant point 39
(Any five points to be analysed.)
2x5=10
SECTION -E
Question number 29 to 30 are Map based Questions.
See the Map attached.
29

15
16
 For Visually Impaired Candidates only, In lieu of Q. No.29
5x1=5
Attempt any five
(29.1) Northern Canada
(29.2) Steppes
(29.3) St. Petersburg
(29.4) Vancouver
(29.5) Tokyo/ Osaka
(29.6) Europe
(29.7) Panama

30. See the Map attached.

17
For visually impaired candidates only (In Lieu of Q no. 5x1=5
30)
Attempt any five 5
(30.1) Arunachal Pradesh
(30.2) Uttar Pradesh
(30.3) Karnataka
(30.4) Madhya Pradesh
(30.5) Bihar
(30.6) Odisha
(30.7) Kerala

18
 Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior School Certificate Examination, 2024
SUBJECT NAME GEOGRAPHY (Theory) (Q.P. CODE 64/4/2)
General Instructions: -

1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and
correct assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to
serious problems which may affect the future of the candidates, education system
and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting
evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.
2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the confidentiality
of the examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several other aspects.
Its’ leakage to public in any manner could lead to derailment of the
examination system and affect the life and future of millions of candidates.
Sharing this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any magazine and
printing in News Paper/Website etc may invite action under various rules of
the Board and IPC.”

3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It

should not be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other
consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously
followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on latest
information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for
their correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-X,
while evaluating two competency-based questions, please try to understand
given answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme but correct
competency is enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be awarded.

4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete
answer. The students can have their own expression and if the expression is
correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.
5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by each
evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as per the
instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the same should
be zero after delibration and discussion. The remaining answer books meant for
evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no significant variation in
the marking of individual evaluators.
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS ‘X”
be marked. Evaluators will not put right ( ✓ )while evaluating which gives an
impression that answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is most
common mistake which evaluators are committing.
7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part.
Marks awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and
written in the left-hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.
8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand
margin and encircled. This may also be followed strictly.

1
9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving
more marks should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note “Extra
Question”.
10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be
penalized only once.
11 A full scale of marks ___70_______(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as
given in Question Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full marks
if the answer deserves it.
12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8
hours every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25
answer books per day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).This
is in view of the reduced syllabus and number of questions in question paper.
13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by
the Examiner in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title
page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick
mark is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with
the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks
awarded.

14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it
should be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.
15 Any unassessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totaling
error detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel
engaged in the evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the
prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed
meticulously and judiciously.
16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the
“Guidelines for Spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.
17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks carried
over to the title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and words.
18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on
payment of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head
Examiners/Head Examiners are once again reminded that they must ensure that
evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the
Marking Scheme.

2
 MARKING SCHEME
Main Examination, 2024
SUBJECT- GEOGRAPHY (029)
PAPER CODE-Set 64/4/2

SET-2
MM-70

Q EXPECTED ANSWERS/VALUE POINTS Page Distribut

No no in ion of
TB marks
SECTION -A 17x1=17
Question no. 1-17 are MCQs
(A) Bhil TB-II
1. Pg-104 1

(B) Sydney TB-I Pg-

2 61 1

TB-II
3 (D) Digestive system Pg-97 1

(A) Mumbai (Bombay), Thane TB-II

4 Pg-79 1

(C) Himachal Pradesh TB-II

5 Pg-108 1

(D) Dispersed TB-II

6 Pg-17 1

(B) Mhow, Babina and Udhampur TB-II

7 Pg-19 1

(A) Surat TB-II

8 Pg-17 1

(D) (iii), (iv), (ii), (i) TB-II

9 Pg-81 1

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct, and (R) is the TB-II
10 correct explanation of (A). Pg-67 1

(D) Rice TB-II

11 Pg-26 1

3
 (C) Rapid expansion of urban areas TB-II
12 Pg-9 1

(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the TB-I
13 correct explanation of (A). Pg-38 1

(A) Only i, ii and iii are correct TB-I

14 Pg-48 1

Read the given passage for question no. 15-17

Demographic Transition Theory

The first stage has high fertility and high mortality because people
reproduce more to compensate for the deaths due to epidemics and
variable food supply. The population growth is slow and most of the people
are engaged in agriculture where large families are an asset. Life
expectancy is low, people are mostly illiterate and have low levels of
technology. Two hundred years ago all the countries of the world were in
this stage.
Fertility remains high in the beginning of second stage but it declines with
time. This is accompanied by reduced mortality rate. Improvements in
sanitation and health conditions lead to decline in mortality. Because of
this gap the net addition to population is high.
In the last stage, both fertility and mortality decline considerably. The
population is either stable or grows slowly. The population becomes
urbanished, literate and has high technical know-how and deliberately
controls the family size.
This shows that human beings are extremely flexible and are able to
adjust their fertility.

(C) Only I and last TB-I

15 Pg-10 1

(B) Only II TB-I

16 Pg-11 1

(A) Kenya TB-I

17 Pg-10 1
SECTION B 2x3=6
[Link] 18 and 19 are source based questions
18 Study the given diagram and answer the questions that follow.

India Occupational structure(2011)

4
 Write the names of two states with highest
18 percentage of cultivators.
(18.1) Himachal Pradesh, Nagaland
1/2 +1/2=1

NOTE- If a student writes Chhattisgarh and Bihar

then full marks should be given

Write the names of two Union Territories having

the highest percentage of other workers.

(18.2) Chandigarh, Lakshadweep 1/2 +1/2=1

TB-II
What is the approximate percentage of cultivators
in Tripura? Pg-12 1+1+1=3
(18.3) About 20% 1

NOTE- If a student writes 40-45% then full marks

For visually impaired students in lieu of [Link].19

"Spatial variation of work participation rate in

different sectors in the country is very wide."
Support the statement.

(i) The states like Himachal Pradesh and

Nagaland have very large shares of cultivators.

(ii) On the other hand states like Bihar, Andhra

Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Jharkhand, West
Bengal and Madhya Pradesh have higher TB-II
proportion of agricultural labourers.
Pg-13 3x1=3
(iii) The highly urbanised areas like Delhi,
Chandigarh and Puducherry have a very large
proportion of workers being engaged in other
services.
(iv) Any other relevant point
(Any three points to be explained)

5
 19 Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow;

Tertiary Sector

When you fall ill you go to your family doctor or you call a doctor.
Sometimes your parents take you to a hospital for treatment. While in
school, you are taught by your teachers. In the event of any dispute, legal
opinion is obtained from a lawyer. Likewise, there are many professionals
who provide their services against payment of their fee. Thus, all types of
services are special skills provided in exchange of payments. Health,
education, law, governance and recreation etc. require professional skills.
These services require other theoretical knowledge and practical training.
Tertiary activities are related to the service sector. Manpower is an
important component of the service sector as most of the tertiary activities
are performed by skilled labour, professionally trained experts and
consultants.
In the initial stages of economic development, larger proportion of people
worked in the primary sector. In a developed economy, the majority of
workers get employment in tertiary activity and a moderate proportion is
employed in the secondary sector.

Why is ' manpower ' an important factor of service sector?

Explain.
(19.1) Because most of the tertiary activities are performed by
skilled labours, professionally trained experts and
consultants. 1

Explain the difference between the activities of

secondary and tertiary sectors.
(19.2) Tertiary activities are related to service sectors
like transport, banking, etc. whereas,
Secondary activities are related to manufacturing
sectors like cotton textile industry. 1

"Tertiary activities include both production and

exchange" Support the statement. TB-I 1+1+1
=3
(19.3) The production involves the provision of Pg-45
services that are consumed. The output is indirectly
measured in terms of wages and salaries. Exchange
involves trade, transport and communication
facilities. 1
SECTION-C 4x3=12
20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions.
6
20 (a) How do differences in national resources become
the basis of international trade? Explain with
examples.

Difference in national resources: The World’s

national resources are unevenly distributed
because of differences in their physical make up i.e.
geology, relief soil and climate.

(i) Geological structure: It determines the mineral

resource base and topographical differences
ensure diversity of crops and animals raised.
Lowlands have greater agricultural potential.
Mountains attract tourists and promote tourism.

(ii) Mineral resources: They are unevenly distributed

over the world. The availability of mineral
resources provides the basis for industrial
development. TB-I
3x1=3
(iii) Climate: It influences the type of flora and fauna Pg-72
that can survive in a given region. It also
ensures diversity in the range of various
products, e.g. wool production can take place in
cold regions, bananas, rubber and cocoa can grow
in tropical regions.

OR
(b) Explain the differences between the inland and
out - ports with examples.

(i) Inland Ports:

i. These ports are located away from the sea coast.
ii. They are linked to the sea through a river or a
canal.
iii. Ports are accessible to flat bottom ships or
barges.
iv. For example, Manchester is linked with a
canal; Memphis is located on the river Mississippi;
Rhine has several ports like Mannheim and
Duisburg; and Kolkata is located on the river
Hoogli, a branch of the river Ganga.

v. Any other relevant point

(Any three points to be explained)

7
 TB-I
(ii) Out Ports: 1½+1½
a. These are deep water ports built away from the Pg-75 =3
actual ports.
b. These serve the parent ports by receiving those
ships which are unable to approach them due to
their large size.
c. Classic combination, for example, is Athens and
its out port Piraeus in Greece.
d. Any other relevant point
Any three points to be explained

21 (a) Analyse any three objectives of ' watershed

management ' in India.

(i) Watershed management basically refers to efficient

management and conservation of surface and
groundwater resources.
(ii) It involves prevention of runoff and storage and
recharge of groundwater through various methods
like percolation tanks, recharge wells, etc.
(iii) It aims for bringing the balance between
natural resources on the one hand and society
on the other.
(iv) It includes conservation, vegetation and
judicious use of all the resources. TB-II
(v) Any other relevant point. Pg-47 3x1=3

(Any three points to be analysed. )

OR

(b) Analyse any three methods of rainwater

harvesting ' in India .
(i) Harvesting through service wells

(ii) Harvesting through recharge wells

(iii) Harvesting through lakes (Eris)

TB-II
(iv) Harvesting through watershed 3x1=3
management Pg-49

8
 (vi) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be analysed. )

Explain with examples the concept of '

22 Naturalisation of Human '

(i) Human beings interact with their physical

environment with the help of technology.
(ii) Technology indicates the level of cultural
development of society.
(iii) Human beings were able to develop technology
after they developed better understanding of
natural laws.
(iv) Example, the understanding of concepts of
friction and heat helped us discover fire and
secrets of DNA and genetic enabled us to conquer
many diseases. 3x1=3
TB-I
(v) Any other relevant point.
Pg-2
(Any three points to be explained.)

23
(a) Explain the meaning of noise pollution. Why is
noise pollution location specific? Explain.
Noise pollution refers to the state of unbearable
and uncomfortable to human beings which
is caused by different sources. 1
Noise pollution location specific
(i) Noise pollution declines with increase in
distance from the source of pollution.
(ii) That is, industrial areas, arteries of
transportation, airport, etc. the pollution is high TB-II 1+2=3
but whenever we are far from the places the
intensity of noise pollution is low Pg-98
(iii) Any other relevant point. 2X1=2

( Any two points to be explained )

5X5=25
SECTION -D
24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions.

9
24 (a) " Pipelines are the most convenient and efficient
mode of transportation in India." Examine the
statement with examples.

(i) Pipelines are the most convenient and efficient

mode of transporting liquids and gases over long
distance.

(ii) Even solids can also be transported by pipelines

after converting them into slurry.

(iii) It helps in processing and marketing of natural

gas for economic uses.

(iv) Various fertiliser, power and industrial

complexes are linked with western and northern
India for different uses. TB-II
5x1=5
Pg-82
(v)This artery provides impetus to Indian gas market
development. Overall, India’s gas infrastructure has
expanded over ten times.

(vi) Asia’s first cross-country pipeline covering a

distance of about 1157 km. was constructed by
OIL from Naharkatiya oil field in Assam to
Barauni refinery in Bihar.
(vii)Any other relevant point.
Any five points to be examined.

OR
(b) "India has the second largest road networks in the
world." Examine the statement with examples.

(i) The total length of roads is 62.16 lakh km.

(ii) About 85% of passengers are carried by roads.

(iii)About 70% of freight traffic is carried by roads

every year.

(iv)Road transport is relatively suitable for shorter

10
 distance travel.

(v)National Highways, State Highways, District

Roads, Rural Roads are different types of roads in TB-II
5x1=5
India:-
Pg-
76,77
(i) National highways- the length of the national
highways is 136440km (2020), 2% of total length.
(ii) State highways –these constitute 4% of the total
length in the country -176818 km
(iii) District roads- they account for 14% of the total
road length of the country.
(iv) Rural roads- They account about 80% of the total
road length in the country.
(v) Other roads include Border Roads and
International Highways. The Border Road runs at
an average altitude of 4,270 metres above the mean
sea level.
(vi) The international highway promotes the
harmonious relationship with the neighbouring
countries by providing effective links with India.
(vii) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be examined. )

Describe any five features of ' plantation agriculture '

25 in the world.

(i) Plantation agriculture was introduced by

the Europeans in colonies situated in the
tropics.
(ii) Large estates or plantations.
(iii) Required large capital investment.
(iv) Required managerial and technical support.
(v) Scientific methods of cultivation.
(vi)Single crop specialisation.
(vii) Required cheap labour, and a good system of TB-I
transportation 5x1=5
Pg-28
(viii) Any other relevant

11
 (Any five points to be described. )

Explain the characteristics of ' Trans - Siberian

26 Railways '.

(i) This is a trans – Siberian Railway major rail

route of Russia.
(ii) Runs from St. Petersburg in the west to
Vladivostok in the East.
(iii)Passing through Moscow, Ufa, Chita, etc.
(iv) It is the most important route in Asia and the
longest railway in the world (9332Kms)
(v) It is double tracked and electrified railway. TB-I
(vi) There are connecting links to the south, Pg- 5x1=5
namely Odessa, Baku on the Caspian Coast 58,59
(vii) Any other relevant point.

( Any five points to be explained. )

(a) Explain any five measures for the conservation of

27
mineral resources in India.

(i) Sustainable development calls for the protection

of resources for the future generations.
(ii) There is an urgent need to conserve the energy
sources like solar power, wind etc. are
inexhaustible resource.
(iii) In case of metallic minerals, use of scrap metals
will enable recycling of metals. Use of scrap is
especially significant in metals like copper, lead
and zinc in which India's reserves are meager.
(iv) Use of substitutes for scarce metals may also
reduce their consumption.
(v)Export of strategic and scarce minerals must be
reduced.
(vi) These should be developed to replace the TB-II
exhaustible resources. 5x1=5
Pg-64
(vii) Any other relevant point.
(Any five points to be explained. )

12
 OR

(b) Explain the importance of solar energy in Indian

context.
(i) Sun rays tapped in photovoltaic cells can be
converted into energy, known as solar energy.
(ii) Solar thermal technology has some relative
advantages over all other non-renewable
energy sources.
(iii)It is cost competitive, environment friendly
and easy to construct.
(iv) Solar energy is 7 per cent more effective than coal
or oil based plants and 10 per cent more effective
than nuclear plants.
(v) It is generally used more in appliances like 5x1=5
heaters, crop dryers, cookers, etc.
TB-II
(vi) Any other relevant point.
Pg-61
(Any five points to be explained. )

(a) Which organisation publishes the Human

28 Development Report every year Explain the four
pillars of human development

UNDP (United Nations Development Programme) 1

TB-I
Pillars of human development
(i) (i)Equity Pg-16 1+4=5
(ii) Sustainability
(iii) Productivity
(iv) Empowerment
(All pillars to be explained 4x1=4
OR

(b) Which country has the highest rank in the world

in Human Development Index in 2020? Explain four
approaches of human development.

Norway 1
Approaches of human development.

13
 (i) Income Approach
(ii) Welfare Approach TB-I
(iii)Basic Needs Approach
Pg-17
(iv)Capability Approach 1+4=5
All the approaches to be explained 4x1=4

SECTION E
[Link] 29 and 30 are map based questions 2x5=10

29. See attached map

For Visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 29.

Attempt any five. 5x1=5

(29.1) Pampas
(29.2) Argentina/Uruguay (Any one)
(29.3) Halifax
(29.4) Yokohama/ Tokyo/ Osaka (Any one)
(29.5) Paris
(29.6) Suez Canal
(29.7) Canterbury

14
15
30. See attached map

For visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 30.

Attempt any five. 5X1=5
(30.1) Bihar
(30.2) Karnataka
(30.3) Jharkhand
(30.4) Tamil Nadu
(30.5) Maharashtra
(30.6) West Bengal
(30.7) Gujarat

16
 Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior School Certificate Examination, 2024
SUBJECT NAME GEOGRAPHY (029) (Theory) (Q.P. CODE 64/5/1)
General Instructions: -

1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual
and correct assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation
may lead to serious problems which may affect the future of the candidates,
education system and teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested
that before starting evaluation, you must read and understand the spot
evaluation guidelines carefully.

2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the

confidentiality of the examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several
other aspects. Its’ leakage to public in any manner could lead to derailment
of the examination system and affect the life and future of millions of
candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any
magazine and printing in News Paper/Website etc may invite action under
various rules of the Board and IPC.”

3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking

Scheme. It should not be done according to one’s own interpretation or any
other consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly adhered to and
religiously followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on
latest information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed
for their correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In
competency-based questions, please try to understand given answer and
even if reply is not from marking scheme but correct competency is
enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be awarded.

4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the
complete answer. The students can have their own expression and if the
expression is correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.

5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated
by each evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been
carried out as per the instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is
any variation, the same should be zero after delibration and discussion. The
remaining answer books meant for evaluation shall be given only after
ensuring that there is no significant variation in the marking of individual
evaluators.

1
6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer
CROSS ‘X” be marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating
which gives an impression that answer is correct and no marks are awarded.
This is most common mistake which evaluators are committing.

7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each
part. Marks awarded for different parts of the question should then be
totaled up and written in the left-hand margin and encircled. This may be
followed strictly.

8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-
hand margin and encircled. This may also be followed strictly.

9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question

deserving more marks should be retained and the other answer scored out
with a note “Extra Question”.

10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be

penalized only once.

11 A full scale of marks ___70_______(example 0 to 80/70/60/50/40/30 marks as

given in Question Paper) has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full
marks if the answer deserves it.

12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours
i.e., 8 hours every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main
subjects and 25 answer books per day in other subjects (Details are given in
Spot Guidelines).This is in view of the reduced syllabus and number of
questions in question paper.

13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors
committed by the Examiner in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totaling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the
title page.
● Wrong question wise totaling on the title page.
● Wrong totaling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the
right tick mark is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a
line. Same is with the X for incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no
marks awarded.

2
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally
incorrect, it should be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.

15 Any unassessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or

totaling error detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the
personnel engaged in the evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in
order to uphold the prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the
instructions be followed meticulously and judiciously.

16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the
“Guidelines for Spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.

17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks
carried over to the title page, correctly totaled and written in figures and
words.

18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on

request on payment of the prescribed processing fee. All
Examiners/Additional Head Examiners/Head Examiners are once again
reminded that they must ensure that evaluation is carried out strictly as per
value points for each answer as given in the Marking Scheme.

3
 MARKING SCHEME
Main Examination, 2024
SUBJECT- GEOGRAPHY (029)
PAPER CODE-Set 64/5/1

SET-1
MM-70

Q EXPECTED ANSWERS/VALUE POINTS Page no Distribut

No in TB ion of
marks
SECTION -A 17x1=17
Question no. 1-17 are MCQs
(C) Andhra Pradesh Pg 47
1. TB II 1
(C) Through T.V and Print media.
2 Pg. 51 1

TB II
(A) Per Capita water availability assurance
3 Pg. 50 1

TB II
(C) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
4 correct explanation of (A) Pg. 73 1

TB I
(A) West Bengal is the leading producer of jute.
5 Pg 51 1

TB II
(A) Cotton
6 Pg 32 1

TB II
(C) Odisha.
7 Pg 55 1

TB II
(A) Jharia.
8 Pg 78 1

TB II
(B) National Waterway No. 2 – Sadiya- Dhubri Pg 81
9 1
TB II
(B) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(ii), d-(i)
10 Pg 79 1

4
 TB II
(C) Hyderabad
11 Pg 77 1

TB II
(A) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect. Pg 75
12 TB I 1

(A) Abadan.
13 Pg 75 1

TB I
(A) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is
14 correct explanation of (A) Pg.80 1

TB II
Read the given passage and answer the Question
Nos. 15 to 17:

Characteristics of High Human Development

High level of human development group has 53
countries. Providing education and healthcare is an
important government priority. Countries with
higher human development are those where a lot of
investment in the social sector has taken place.
Altogether, a higher investment in people and good
governance has set this group of countries apart
from the others.

Many of these countries has been the former

imperial powers. The degree of social diversity in
these countries is not very high. Many of the
countries with a high human development score are
located in Europe and represent the industrialized
western world. Yet there are striking numbers of
non - European countries also who have made it to
this list.

15 (A) Education and healthcare 1

16 (B) Higher investment in social sector 1

17 (C) 53 1

SECTION B 2x3=6
[Link]. 18 and 19 are Source Based Questions

5
 Read the given passage carefully and answer the
18 questions that follow:

Integrated Tribal Development Project in

Bharmaur Region

This region lies between 32 ° 11 ' N and 32 ° 41 ' N

latitudes and 76 ° 22 ' E and 76 ° 53 ' E longitudes.
Spread over an area of about 1,818 sq km, the
region mostly lies between 1,500 m to 3,700 m
above the mean sea level . This region popularly
known as the homeland of Gaddis is surrounded by
lofty mountains on all sides . It has Pir Panjal in
the north and Dhaula Dhar in the South . In the
east , the extension of Dhula Dhar converges with
Pir Panjal near Rohtang Pass . The river Ravi and
its tributaries - the Budhil and the Tundahen ,
drain this territory , and carve out deep gorges .
These rivers divide the region into four
physiographic divisions called Holi , Khani , Kugti
and Tundah areas . Bharmaur experiences freezing
weather conditions and snowfall in winter . Its
mean monthly temperature in January remains 4 °
C and in July 26 ° C ..
Describe the location of Bharmaur region . 1
18.1
This region is located between 32º 11΄ N and
32˚41΄N latitude and 76˚22΄E and 76˚53΄E
longitudes.
Why does this region experience harsh climatic 1
18.2 conditions? Give one reason.

The region lies at an altitude between 1500m and

3700m above the mean sea level. Due to high
altitude, it experiences freezing weather conditions
and snowfall in winters. Temperature often falls
down to freezing point.
Why is this region economically backward ? 1
18.3 Explain any one reason .

Reason for economically backwardness:

i) Difficult relief
ii) Harsh climate
iii) Low resource base
iv) Any other relevant point
(Any one point is to be explained)
Study the given map carefully and answer the
19 question that follow-

6
 Identify the given inland waterway and write its
19.1 name. 1

Rhine waterways
Mention its two tributaries joining from east.
19.2 ½+½=1
(i) River Main
(ii) Neckor
(iii) Ruhr
(Mention the names of any two rivers)
Write the names of terminal ports of the given
19.3 waterways ½+½=1

Rotterdam and Bassel

For Visually impaired candidates in lieu of Q No.19

Explain the importance of inland waterways as the

means of transportation in the world.

(i) Rivers, canals, lakes and coastal arears have

been inland waterways since time immemorial,
(ii) Boats and steamers are used as means of
transport for cargo and passengers.
( iii) The development of inland waterways is

7
 dependent on the navigability width and depth of
the channel, continuity in the flow and transport
technology.
(iv) Rivers are the only means of transport in dense
forests.
( v) Very heavy cargo like coal, cement, timber and
metallic ores can be transported through inland Pg 64
waterways.
(vi) Any other relevant points TB I 3x1=3
( Any three points to be explained)
SECTION-C 4x3=12
20 to 23 are Short Answer Type Questions.

(a) “Nature and human are inseparable elements

20 in all geographical studies.” Examine the
statement.
(i). All geographical studies emphasize on the
study of nature and human beings

(ii). It is interesting to note that both physical

and human phenomena are described
using symbols from the human anatomy.

(iii). Regions, villages, towns have been

described the state/country as a living
organism.

(iv). Network of roads, railways and

waterways have often been described as
arteries of circulation.
Pg 2
(v). Any other relevant point.
TB I 3x1=3
(Any three points to be examined)

OR
(b) Examine the mains aspects of environmental
determinism.
(i) There is always interaction between
humans and natural phenomena.

(ii) Primitive societies were intimately

dependent on nature for food and
other resources.
(iii) We can imagine the presence of a
naturalized human who listened to
nature, was afraid of its fury and
worshipped it

8
 (iv) Strong forces of nature always guided
human activities.
(v) This relation was termed as
environmental determinism
Pg 2
(vi) Any other relevant point.
TB I 3x1=3
(Any three points to be examined)

Explain the main features of periodic market

21
in rural areas of the world.
i. These markets are organized in rural
areas at different periods where there
are no regular markets
ii. These markets may be weekly or
biweekly.
iii. These markets are held on different
dates at different places.
iv. These markets cater to the demand of
the local population.
v. Shopkeepers remain always busy
Pg 47
vi. Any other relevant point
TB I 3x1=3
(Any three points to be explained)

22
(a) Explain the main objectives of ‘Smart
Cities Mission in India

(i) The objective of the Smart city mission

is to promote cities that provide core
infrastructure and services in order to
make them better.
(ii) Providing clean but sustainable
environment.
(iii) Providing decent quality of life to the
citizens.
(iv) Using few resources, making the city less
vulnerable to disasters.

9
 (v) Any other relevant point.
Pg 19
(Any three points to be explained) 3x1=3
TB II

OR
(b) Explain the main features of the dispersed
settlements in India.
(i) This an isolated pattern of settlements
in India.
(ii) All huts or houses are built up in isolation
from one another.
(iii) Largely available on hilly areas.
(iv) Many areas of Meghalya, Himachal Pradesh
and Uttrakhand having this pattern. Pg 16
(v) Any other relevant point.
TB II 3x1=3
(Any three points to be explained)

23
“The composition of commodities in India’s
international trade has been undergoing a
change over the years.” Examine the
statement with examples.

(i)The share of agriculture and allied

products have declined.
(ii) The share of petroleum and crude
products have increased.
(iii) The decline in traditional items is
largely due to the tough international
competition .
(iv) Among the agricultural products, there
is a decline in export of traditional items,
such as coffee, cashew etc., though an
increase has been registered in floriculture
products, fresh fruits, marine products and
sugar etc.

10
 (v) The share of minerals and ores
remained almost constant.

(vi) Any other relevant point. Pg 87

TB I 3x1=3
(Any three points to be examined)

(5x5=25)
SECTION -D
24 to 28 are Long Answer Type Questions.

24
Analyze any five factors affecting world
distribution of population.

(i) Availability of water is most important

factor for life. People prefer to live in areas
where fresh supply of water is available.
(ii) Relief of the land : People prefer to live
on plains or gentle slopes. Plain areas
abounds in population Satluj Ganga Plain is
most densely populated.

(iii) Suitable climate : People do not prefer

to live in areas of harsh climate. Suitable
climate attracts population.

(iv) Soils : Soils are basis of agriculture.

Areas with fertile soils support heavy
pressure of population.

(v) Mineral ; mineral rich area also

support heavy pressure of population.

(vi) Urbanization; Cities offer better

employment opportunities, educational and
medical facilities,better means of transport and
communications.

(vii) Industrialization; Industrial belts provide

job opportunities and attract large numbers of
people.

(viii) Social and Cultural factors.

11
 (ix) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be analyzed)

Pg 10

TB I 5x1=5
(a) Examine the main characteristics of Co-
25 operative Farming in the world.

(i) A Group of farmers from a Co-operative

society by pooling is their resources
voluntarily for more efficient and profitable
farming is known as Co-operative farming.

(ii) Individual farms remain intact and farming

is a matter of cooperative initiative.

(iii) Co-operative societies help farmers to

procure all important inputs of farming.

(iv) Cooperative societies sale the products at

the most favorable terms and help in
processing of quality products at cheaper
rates.

(v) Co-operative movement originated over a

century ago and has been successful in
many western European countries.

(vi) In Denmark this movement has been so

successful that practically every farmer is a
member of a cooperative society.

(vii-) Any other relevant point. Pg. 32

TB I
(Any five points to be examined) 5x1=5

OR

(b) Examine the main characteristics of

Dairy Farming in the world.
(i) This is most advanced and efficient type
of rearing milch animals.
(ii) It is highly capital intensive.
(iii) Special emphasis laid on cattle
breeding.

12
 (iv) Health care and Veterinary services are
provided
(v) It is labour intensive also as it involves
on milching, transporting milk to
market centers and caring animals.
(vi) It is practiced near urban and industrial
centers which provide neighborhood
market for dairy products.
(vii) The development of transportation,
refrigeration, pasteurization and other
preservation processes have increased
the duration of storage of various
dairy products.

(viii) N.W. Europe, Canada, New Zealand etc. are

the main dairy centers.

(ix) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined) Pg 29

TB I 5x1=5

26 Differentiate the small and large scale

manufacturing industries in the world.

(i) Small scale manufacturing uses

local raw material and simple power
driven techniques. Large scale
manufacturing requires various raw
materials and enormous energy.
(ii) Small scale provides employment
to local people. Large scale needs
specialized workers and advanced
technology.
(iii) Small scale industries increases
the local purchasing power while large
scale industries increase the purchasing
power of the whole countries.

13
 (iv) Small scale manufacturing provide
employment to local labour but large scale
provide labour to specialized persons from
different areas.

(v) Transport and markets are require

for both but small scale needs local
markets and large scale need even
overseas markets.
(vi) Small scale industries require less
capital whereas largescale industries need
huge capital infrastructure.
Pg. 40 5x1=5
(vii) Any other relevant point.
TB I
(Any five points to be explained)

27
(a) “The distribution of urban population
over India has wide variations.”
Examine the statement.

(i) It is noticed that in almost all the

states and union territories, there has
been an increase of urban population.

(ii) Almost 31.2 percent of total population

lives in urban areas.
(iii) States of Bihar and Sikkim have very
high percentage of rural population
whereas Delhi, Dadra and Nagar
Haveli have highest percentage age of
urban population.
(iv) The states of Goa and Maharashtra
have high percentage of their
population residing in urban areas.

(v) The growth rate of urban population

has accelerated due to enhanced
economic development and
Pg. 8
improvement in health and hygienic
conditions. TB II 5x1=5

14
 (vi) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined)

OR
(b) “If development is not engendered, it is
endangered.” Examine the statement in the
context of inclusive development.
(i) Discrimination, in general, and gender
discrimination, in particular, is a crime
against humanity.

(ii) All efforts need to be made to address

the denial of opportunities of education,
employment, political representation, low
wages for similar work, disregard to their
entitlement to live a dignified life.

(iii) A society, which fails to acknowledge

and take effective measures to remove such
discrimination, cannot be treated as a
civilized society.

(iv) The Govt. of India has duly

acknowledged the adverse impacts of the
discrimination and launched a nationwide
campaign called ‘Beti Bachao – Beti
Padhao’.

(v) The number of females workers is

relatively high in primary sector, though in
recent years there has been some Pg 12
improvement in work participation of
women in secondary and tertiary sector. TB II 5x1=5
(vi) Any other relevant point.

(Any five points to be examined)

28 (a) Describe any two sources of air pollution

in India and suggest any three measures to
overcome the air pollution.

15
Air Pollution (Sources)
(i) Combustion of coal, petroleum
and diesel.
(ii) Industrial carbon dioxide and
monoxide.
(iii) Solid waste disposal.
(iv) Sewage disposal etc.
(v) Vehicular pollution.
(vi) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be described)
2x 1=2
Measures to overcome air pollution:
(i) Waste disposal should be done in
a scientific manner.
(ii) Maximum use of non-
conventional sources of energy.
(iii) Minimum use of conventional sources
of energy particularly petroleum etc.
(iv) Increasing afforestation
(v) Any other relevant point.

(Any three points to be described)

3 x 1=3
OR Pg. 97

(b) Describe any two sources of water TB II 2+3=5

pollution in India. Suggest any three
measures to overcome the water
pollution.
Water pollution: (Sources)
(i) Sewage disposal.
(ii) Urban runoff.
(iii) Toxic effluents from industries.
(iv) Nuclear power plants.
(v) Any other relevant point.
(Any two points to be described)
2x 1=2

16
 Measures to control water pollution:
(i) Recycle of water
(ii) Water treatments plants
(iii) Change the cropping pattern.
(iv) Less use of chemical fertilizers and
pesticides in agriculture.
(v) Any other relevant point.
Pg. 96 2+3=5
(Any three points to be described)
TB II
3 x 1=3
SECTION E
([Link]. 29 and 30 are map based questions) (2x5=10)
Please see attached map.
29.

For visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 29

Attempt any five questions

29.1 Vancouver
29.2 Santiago
29.3 Suez Canal
29.4 Tropical Africa
29.5 Tundra Region/ Central Asia
29.6 Halifax 5x1=5
29.7 Downs

17
30. Please see attached map

For visually impaired candidates only in lieu of Q. No. 30

Attempt any five questions

(30.1) Karnataka
(30.2) Mathura
(30.3) Raniganj coal mines
(30.4) Marmagoa
(30.5) Bihar
(30.6) Bangaluru 5x1=5
(30.7) Bailadila/Durg

18
19