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10TH Eng

The National Talent Search 2024 examination is scheduled for December 7, 2024, for students in the 10th standard, consisting of 100 objective-type questions divided into two sections. The exam will last 90 minutes, with no negative marking, and each question carries one mark. Instructions for filling out the OMR sheet and various types of questions are provided, including mental ability tests and logical reasoning.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
119 views9 pages

10TH Eng

The National Talent Search 2024 examination is scheduled for December 7, 2024, for students in the 10th standard, consisting of 100 objective-type questions divided into two sections. The exam will last 90 minutes, with no negative marking, and each question carries one mark. Instructions for filling out the OMR sheet and various types of questions are provided, including mental ability tests and logical reasoning.

Uploaded by

hameezahmohsin
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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National Talent

Search 2024

Date: 7th December 2024


Category: School (VIII, IX & X)
Class: 10th STD (X)
Language: English
Instructions for Examination: 3. Find the missing number.
This paper is for the 10th Std School 19 17 9
Category
3 11 5
This paper is in English
25 39 ?
1. Please fill all the details on OMR Sheet
a. 53 b. 14 c. 19 d. 45
carefully
2. The examination comprises of Objective
4. What is related to ‘Leaves’ in the same way as
type Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
‘Teeth’ is related to ‘Chatter’?
3. All questions are compulsory
a. Whistle b. Ripple c. Rustle d. Cackle
4. Each question has only one correct answer
5. There is NO NEGATIVE MARKING
5. A watch reads 4 : 30. If the minute hand points to
6. The total number of questions is 100
East, in which direction does the hour hand
7. Total marks are 100
point?
8. Each question carries 1 mark
a. North-East b. South-East
9. Total number of sections is 2
c. North-West d. North
10. Each section has 50 questions
11. Duration of NTS 2024 exam is 11:00 AM 6. Facing towards North, Sumit walked 30m. He then
to 12:30 PM (90 minutes) turns left and walks 50m. He again turned left and
walked 50m. How far was he from his original
Section - I
position?
Mental Ability Test (MAT)
a. 50m b. 40m
1. There are two sets of figures. One set is that of c. 30m d. None of the above
the problem figures and the other set is that of
7. Find the missing number.
the answer figures. The problem set figures
form a certain sequence. Select one figure from
the answer set figures which will continue the
sequence as shown in the problem set figures.

a. 74 b. 144 c. 20 d. 21
8. If MACHINE is coded as 19-7-9-14-15-20-11, how
( ) ) ) ) ) will you code DANGER?
( )
a. 13-7-20-9-11-25 b. 11-7-20-16-11-24
c. 13-7-20-10-11-25 d. 10-7-20-13-11-24
a. b. c. d.

1
9. If all the words are removed after reversing the 16. Which figure is a rearrangement of the shaded
following alphabetical series, then which will be the parts of the given figure?
8th letter from the right side? A B C D …………. Z
a. K b. J c. L d. H
10. Today is Wednesday. What will be the day after
94 days?
a. Monday b. Tuesday
c. Wednesday d. Sunday
11. Carpenter: Saw:: _______:________
a. Child: Toy b. Writer: Pen
c. Typist : Paper d. Cloud : Rain
Direction For Questions 12 to 14
The following questions are based on the given
diagram in which the triangle stands for graduates,
rectangle stands for membership of professional 17. Which dice among A, B, C and D are equivalent to
organizations and circle stand for membership of x?
social organizations.
Read each of the given statements carefully and find
the appropriate number that represents the people
covered under the given statement.

7 5 6 a. A & B only b. A & D only


c. C & D only d. B and C Only
2 4
3
18. Select the answer figure in which the question
12. What is the number of the regions covered by figure is hidden.
graduates in professional organizations?
a. 5 & 7 b. 5, 6 & 7 c. 6 & 7 d. 4, 5 & 6
13. What is the number of the region(s) covered by
graduates in social organizations?
a. 1 b. 5 c. 6 d. 5 & 6
14. What is the number of the region(s) covered by
graduates in only in social organizations?
a. 3 b. 4 c. 5 d. 6
15. Which figure is the rearrangement of the parts of 19. Select the answer figure in which the question
the given figure? figure is hidden. Which of the following group of
letters will appear exactly the same in a mirrorplaced
to the immediate right of the word?
a. AHIMOST b. VOAMAOV
c. HVRTRVH d. YVMOVMY
20. The following information was given at a bus
station. “The bus for Surat left 15 minutes ago before.
As per schedule, after every 45 minutes, there is a bus
for Surat. The next bus will leave at 8: 30 A.M.” At
what time was this information given?
a. 9:15 A.M b. 9:00 A.M c. 8:00 A.M d. 7:45 A.M
2
Direction For Questions 21 to 24
If a boy is asked to put in a basket one mango when
30. How will the given block look like after rotation?
ordered ‘1’, one orange when ordered ‘2’, one apple
when ordered ‘3’ and is asked to take out from the
basket one mango and one orange both when ordered
‘4’.
Sequence Order: 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 2 3 1 4 2 2 3 3 1 4 1 1 3
234
21. How many total fruits will be in the basket at the
end of the above order sequence?
a. 10 b. 11 c. 12 d. 13 31. A Cylinder is painted in 6 colours – Green, Blue,
22. How many total apples were there in the basket at Yellow, Violet, Red and Orange. It is shown below in
the end of the above order sequence? three positions. What is the colour in the zone
a. 2 b. 6 c. 7 d. 8 marked with a question mark?

23. How many total oranges were there in the basket


at the end of the above-order sequence?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
24. How many total Mangoes were there in the basket
at the end of the above order sequence?
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 5
25. Which number can be placed at the? Sign? a. Green b. Violet c. Yellow d. Blue
32. A class starts after lunch at 1:00 p.m. and lasts
3 8 till 3:52 p.m. In this duration four periods are held.
1 24 Before every period 4 minutes are allowed for going
6 4 from one room to another. What is the exact
2 ? duration for each period?
a. 42min b. 39min c. 41min d. 40min
a. 5 b. 8 c. 12 d. 14
33. Which option would complete the given
26. If the following names are arranged in alphabetic sequence?
order which one of them will occupy the middle
position?
a. Surendra
c. Surindra
b. Shrundera
d. Surender
?
27. Complete the sequence.

a. b. c. d.
a. a b. b c. c d. d
34. Five person A, B, C, D and E are standing in a
row. B is between A and C and D is between C and E.
28. Genuine : Authentic :: Mirage : ? If the distance of C from B is equal to the distance of
a. Illusion b. Hideout D from C, what is the relation between the distance
c. Image d. Reflection of A to B and B to E?
29. Which one is the same as Yellow, Orange and a. Nothing can be said about it
Green? b. A B is smaller that B E
a. Grass b. Purple c. there is no relation between A B and B E
c. Leaf d. Tree d. A B is larger than B E
3
35. How many squares are there in the figure given A) B)
below?

C) D)

a. A b.B c. C d. D
a. 12 b. 13 c. 16 d. 17
40. In the following diagram, the rectangle represents
36. Select the cube that can be formed by folding the women, and the triangle represents Sub. The
given sheet along the lines. Inspector of Police and Circle represents graduates.
Which area represents women, graduates, Sub.
Inspector of Police?
13
5 10

6 3 8
4

a. 5 b. 13 c. 8 d. 3
a. Only D b. Only A & C
c. Only C & D d. Only B 41. Which number should be placed at the sign of
interrogation?
37. The table below shows the percentage of total
population of a place by age- group. If there are 250
million people in the place, how many million people
are there above the age of 45?

Age group Population in percentage


Upto 15 8 a. 20 b. 25 c. 26 d. 75
16-13 10 42. The accused is more powerful than the dead. The
26-36 10 police is less powerful than the court but more
powerful than the lawyer. The accused bows his head
36-45 16 in presence of the police. Who is the most powerful?
46-55 22 a. Police b. Lawyer c. Court d. Accused
56-65 20 43. A told B that C is his father’s nephew, D is A’s
66 and above 14 cousin but not brother of C. How is D related to C?
a. 56 b. 112 c. 140 d. 55 a. Father b. Sister c. Mother d. Aunt

38. Which letters are hidden in the following 44. Which number is like the numbers: 282, 354, 444?
monogram? a. 255 b. 336 c. 417 d. 453
45. Which one number can be placed at the question
mark?

a. COSL b. BOET c. ICBN d. MCSL


39. Different designs can be made by placing a
maximum of nine matchsticks. Which is the design a. 69 b. 49 c. 50 d. 60
that cannot be made at all in the above constraints?

4
Direction: Read the following information 54. A Sum of Rs.27000 was divided equality among a
carefully and answer, the questions (46 – 50) certain number of persons. Had there been 20 more
given below: persons, each would have got Rs. 480 less. The
number of persons, initially, was
i. Six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U are sitting face to a. 24 b. 25 c. 45 d. 48
face in two rows, three in each.
ii. Q is the neighbour of U. 55. The angle of elevation of the top of a ladder
iii. T is not at the end of any row. leaning against a wall measured from a distance of
iv. S is second to the left of U. 7.3m from the foot of the ladder is 45°, suppose that
v. R, the neighbour of T, is sitting diagonally the vertical height of the top of the ladder is 17.3 m.
opposite to S. Then, the best approximation of the angle of
inclination of the ladder with the wall is
46. Which of the following are in one row?
a. 15° b. 30° c. 45° d. 60°
a. UQR b. SQU c. RTQ d. PQR
56. John cycling at a constant speed of 10 km/h,
47. Which of the following are sitting diagonally
reaches his school in time. If he cycles at a constant
opposite to each other?
speed of 15 km/h, he reaches his school in 12 min
a. P and R b. S and P c. U and R d. P and U early. How many kilometers he has to cycle for his
48. Who is facing Q? school is?
a. P b. S c. T d. R a. 4 b. 6 c. 9 d. 12

49. After interchanging the seats with T, who will be 57. At present ages of a father and son are in the ratio
the neighbours of S in the new position? of 7 : 3 and they will be in the present ration 2 : 1 after
a. R and P b. U and Q c. only Q d. only R 10yr. what is the present age of father?
a. 70 yr b. 65 yr c. 60 yr d. 50 yr
50. Which of the following are in the same row?
a. P and Q b. T and S c. R and Q d. P and T 58. Find the ratio in which rice at Rs.7.20 per kg be
mixed with rice at Rs.5.70 per kg to produce a mixture
Section – II worth Rs. 6.30 per kg?
SCHOLASTIC ABILITY TEST (SAT) a. 2 : 3 b.1 : 3 c. 3 : 4 d.4 : 5
51. A Dice is numbered from 1 to 6 in different ways. 59. Amit ranked 16th from the top and 29th from the
If 1 is adjacent to 2,4 and 6, then which of the bottom among those who passed the examination. 6
following statement is necessarily true? students does not participate and 5 failed in it. How
a. 2 must be opposite to 6 many students were there in the class?
b. 1 must be adjacent to 3 a. 50 b. 55 c. 44 d. 52
c. 3 must be adjacent to 5
d. 3 must be opposite to 5 60. In the figure, ABCD is a rectangle such that area of
∆ AOB = a m2, area of ∆ AOD = b m2, area of ∆ COD = c
52. In 2020, 3rd January is Friday. Then what will be m2. Then the area of ∆ BOC (in m2) =
the day of 3rd January in 2021?
a. Friday b. Saturday c. Sunday d. Tuesday

53. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives


that would complete the figure matrix.

a. a + b + c b. a + b – c c. b + c – a d. a + c – b
61. Which of the following are NOT correct methods
for separating the components of given mixtures?
I. The mixture of iodine and sodium chloride by
sublimation.
II. Plant pigments by chromatography.
5
III. Mixture of acetic acid and water by separating a. Iodine helps to produce thyroxine.
funnel. b. Iodine inhibits thyroid gland activity.
IV. Oxygen argan and nitrogen from air by fractional c. Absence of Iodine leads to starvation.
distillation. d. Iodine promotes cell growth and division.
a. I only b. III only
68. Atomic number of an element Z is 16. Elements Z
c. II and III d. II, III and IV.
has two isotopes Z1 and Z2 with 16 and 18 Neutrons
62. A block of mass 3 kg and density p. Suspended respectively. The average atomic mass of a sample of
from a spring balance is immersed in a liquid of the elements Z is 32.1u. Which one of the following
density p/. Then the balance would read weight as percentages of Z1 and Z2 in the sample is correct?
a. 0 b. 2/3 kg c. 1kg d. 2 kg Z1 Z2
a. 95% 5%
63.A water pump lifts water from a level 10 m below
b. 94% 6%
the ground. The water is pumped at the rate of 30 kg /
c. 93% 7%
min with negligible velocity, Calculate the minimum
d. 92% 2%
power, the pump should have to do this work.
a. 49 J/s b. 490 J/s c. 500 J/s d.48 J/s 69. Consider the electrochemical cells (I and II)
shown in the following figures and select the correct
64. A Swimmer can swin in still water at a speed of 15
statement about these cells
Km/h. A river is flowing at 5 km/h. The swimmer
starts from a point and swim 1 km upstream and then
returns by downstream back to the original position.
During this, the average speed of his / her swimming
is
a. 20/3 km/h b. 10 km/h
c. 40/3 km/h d. 20 km/h
65. An element X with atomic number 13 combines a. Cell 1 produces purer copper than cell II
with another element y of atomic number 17. The b. In both cells, insoluble impurities settle down
formula of the compound formed and nature of bond c. Copper from cathode will deposit on anode in cell I
will be d. Copper from anode will deposit on cathode in cell II
a. XY3 ionic b. XY3 covalent
70. An electron is moving with velocity v in a uniform
c. X3Y ionic d. X3Y covalent
magnetic field B. The magnetic force experienced by
66. A Biology teacher placed a hen’s egg in 3 different the electron is
solutions. a. Always zero
Solution A Pure water b. Never zero
Solution B Saturated salt solution c. Zero, if v is perpendicular to B
Solution C Hydrochloric acid d. Zero, if v is parallel to B
The sequence of treatments and the ensuring 71. Chhattisgarh shares boundaries with 6 states of
probable effect on the egg are listed below India. Which one of the following is correct sequence
I. ABC Remains unchanged of the bordering states in clockwise direction starting
II. B→C→A→ Swells from Jharkhand?
III. C→ A B Shrinks a. Jharkhand – Odisha – Telangana – Andhra Pradesh
IV. B A C Loses salts – Maharashtra – Madhya Pradesh.
Based on the above sequence of treatment, which one b. Jharkhand – Bihar - Madhya Pradesh – Maharashtra
of the options will be correct? - Odisha – Telangana.
a. I and II b. I and IV c. II and III d. III and IV c. Jharkhand – Odisha - Andhra Pradesh – Telangana -
Maharashtra – Madhya Pradesh.
67. Observe the flow chart given below
d. Jharkhand – Odisha – Telangana – Maharashtra –
Which of the following best explains the observed
Madhya Pradesh – Uttar Pradesh.
result

6
72. Which of the following statement is incorrect a. I and II b. I and IV
about the portrayal of Marianne and Germania? c. I, II and III d. II, III and IV
I. France female allegory, Marianne, underlined 78. Nationalism in India which emerged as a force in
the idea of people's nation. the late 19th century meant strong devotion for
II. Marianne’s characteristics were drawn from a. all countries of the world.
those of liberty and the Republic - the red cap, b. One’s own country, its history and culture.
the tricolor the Cockade. c. One’s own country and hatred towards others.
III. Germania became the allegory of German d. One’s own country without appreciation of other
nation. nations.
IV. Germania wears a dress of Oak leaves, as these
79. During the South-west monsoon season, India
leaves stand for peace.
receive the maximum amount of rainfall however, it
a. I b. II c. III d. IV varies from place to place. Choose the correct
sequence of regions arranged in descending order of
73. Which of the following statements related to the
the rainfall receive from South-west monsoon.
ideas of liberalism in 19th century Europe are correct.
a. Khasi hills, Western ghats, Bengal delta.
I. Freedom for the individual and equality of all b. Western ghats, Khasi hills, Bengal delta.
before the law. c. Bengal delta, Khasi hills, Western ghats.
II. Concept of government by consent. d. Bengal delta, Western ghats, Khasi hills.
III. Universal suffrage.
80. Colonialism has been so far defined in the terms of
IV. Freedom of markets.
political, economic and social changes brought in the
a. I, II and III b. I, II and IV colonies. The aspect related to changes bringing in the
c. I, III and IV d. II, III and IV biodiversity of the colonies has received little
attention. one such practice was the introduction of
74. Golden revolution in India is related.
news species of trees by the colonizers in the
a. Jewellery export b. Gold mines
colonies. Identify two trees that were introduced by
c. Honey and horticulture d. Electronic goods
colonizers in India.
75. The movement that seeks equality in the personal I) Birch II) Teak
and family life of women is known as III) Chir pine IV) Rhododendron
a. Narivadi Andolan
a. I and II b. II and III
b. Nari Sashaktikaran Andolan
c. II and IV d. III and IV
c. Mahila Shakti Andolan
d. Mahila Adhikar Andolan Direction for Q 81 to Q 89

76. When an able person is willingly unemployed The Importance of Biodiversity.


while here is opportunity to work is known as
Biodiversity refers to the variety of life on Earth,
a. Disguised unemployment
encompassing the different species of plants, animals,
b. Voluntary unemployment
fungi, and microorganisms, the genetic differences
c. Seasonal unemployment
within these species, and the ecosystems they form. It
d. Educated unemployment
is essential for sustaining the natural ecosystems on
77. Which of the following statements about Massais which humans and all other life forms depend.
are correct? Biodiversity provides a variety of services to humans,
including food, clean water, medicine, and climate
I. Massais are found in Tanzania and Kenya.
regulation. However, human activities such as
II. Samburu National Park is situated in Tanzania.
deforestation, pollution, and climate change are
III. The title Massais is derived from word maa
causing a rapid decline in biodiversity.
which means “My land”
IV. Massais land was taken away by not only One of the primary reasons biodiversity is crucial is
British Kenya, but also German Tanganyika. because it supports ecosystem stability. Ecosystems
with greater biodiversity tend to be more resilient to
7
changes in the environment, such as extreme weather 83. Which of the following is a consequence of the
events or disease outbreaks. When a species is lost loss of biodiversity mentioned in the passage?
from an ecosystem, the roles it played may not be a. Improved agricultural productivity.
easily filled by another species, leading to a b. A more stable global climate.
breakdown in ecosystem function. For example, the c. Difficulty in replacing the roles of lost species in
decline of bee populations worldwide has affected ecosystems.
pollination, which is vital for many crops and plants. d. Greater economic opportunities for pharmaceutical
companies.
Biodiversity also has economic value. Many
industries, including agriculture, pharmaceuticals, 84. What does the passage imply about the ethical
and tourism, depend on a rich variety of life. The considerations surrounding biodiversity?
Amazon rainforest, often called the "lungs of the a. Species that are not useful to humans should be
Earth," is a source of countless medicinal plants and allowed to go extinct.
plays a critical role in regulating the global climate. b. Humans have a moral obligation to protect all
Yet, deforestation in the Amazon continues at an species from extinction.
alarming rate, threatening not only the species that c. Only species with economic value should be
live there but also the global community that relies on preserved.
its resources. d. Ethical concerns are less important than scientific
considerations.
The loss of biodiversity is not only a scientific issue
but also an ethical one. Many believe that all species 85. What does the passage suggest about human
have an inherent right to exist, regardless of their activities?
usefulness to humans. This perspective argues that it a. Human activities have no impact on biodiversity.
is our responsibility to protect other forms of life b. Human activities are the primary cause of
from extinction caused by human activity. biodiversity loss.
c. Human activities have improved ecosystem
In conclusion, biodiversity is fundamental to the
resilience.
health of the planet. Protecting it is not just an
d. Human activities are crucial for maintaining
environmental issue but a matter of survival for
biodiversity.
humanity. By reducing activities that harm
ecosystems and supporting conservation efforts, we 86. Which industry is NOT mentioned as depending
can help ensure a stable and thriving world for future on biodiversity?
generations. a. Agriculture b. Pharmaceuticals
c. Tourism d. Manufacturing
Multiple Choice Questions
81. What is the main idea of the passage? 87. What is a major threat to the Amazon rainforest
a. Human activities are beneficial for ecosystems. mentioned in the passage?
b. Biodiversity is important for maintaining a. Rising sea levels
ecosystem stability and human survival. b. Overpopulation of species
c. The decline of bee populations is the greatest threat c. Deforestation
to biodiversity. d. Mining for minerals
d. The Amazon rainforest is the only ecosystem worth
88. What is the antonym of "Abundant"?
protecting.
a. Scarce b. Sufficient
82. According to the passage, why is biodiversity c. Plentiful d. Overflowing
important for ecosystems?
89. "A rolling stone gathers no moss.” What does this
a. It prevents all species from becoming extinct.
proverb mean?
b. It allows ecosystems to better withstand
a. A person who doesn’t settle doesn’t gain stability or
environmental changes.
responsibility.
c. It increases the size of populations within
b. Keep moving forward in life.
ecosystems.
c. Stones should always be kept moving.
d. It eliminates the need for human intervention in
d. Don’t stay in one place too long.
nature.
8
90. Her cheeks like big red apples from the cold. 100. What are you not allowed to do in Sujood?
a. Personification b. Paradox a. Make Dua in Arabic.
c. Metaphor d. Simile b. Recite Quran.
c. Make Dua in other language.
91. Name the company that will soon conduct the first
d. Recite adhkar.
private spacewalk.
a. Space X b. Falcon 9
c. Starling d. NASA
92. Name the top Tennis player who failed an anti -
doping test but was cleared by of any wrong doing.
a. Saketh M b. Prajnesh
c. Jannik Sinner d. Rohan B
93. WHO has recently declared ____________ as Public
Health Emergency of International Concern.
a. Chicken Pox b. Monkey Pox
c. Small Pox d. Polio
94. The crest gate of ___________ reservoir was washed
away due to heavy inflow.
a. Tungabhadra b. The Indira Sagar dam
c. The Periyar dam d. Lingan Makki dam
95. How many medals did India win at the recently
concluded Olympic games?
a. 4 b. 6
c. 8 d. 10
96. Which European country has the highest GDP?
a. Spain b.France
c. Sweden d. Germany
97. Where did the stones for the iconic Stonehenge
come from?
a. Poland b. Finland
c. Scotland d. Greenland
98. What is AZ- Zaqqum?
a. Food for the people of Hell fire.
b. Drink for the people of Hell fire.
c. Home for the people of Hell fire.
d. Clothes for the people of Hell fire.
99. What is the proposed new name for the legal code
for India, replacing IPC?
a. Bhartiya Gnana Sanhita.
b. Bhartiya Nyaik Sanhita.
c. Bhartiya Nyaya Sanhita.
d. Bhartiya Samvidha Sanhita.

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