ALLEN

BIOLOGY C AR EE R INST IT UT E
KOTA (R AJA ST HAN)

EXERCISE-I
Q.1 Which of the following is the smallest cell- Q.7 The most abundant substance of middle
(1) Human nerve cells (2) Chlamydomonas lamella is-
(3) Virus (4) PPLO (1) Lignin (2) Suberin
Q.2 Which of the following statements is not true- (3) Pectin (4) Cutin
(1) Animal cells contain ultrascopic chloro- Q.8 Cell wall is the secretory product of-
plast while plant cells contain microscopic (1) Lysosomes
chloroplasts (2) Cytoplasm
(2) Animal cells never contain chloroplasts (3) Plasmodesmata
unlike many plant cells
(4) Middle lamella
(3) Plant cells have central vacuoles while
Q.9 Nucleoplasm is continuous with cytoplasm
animal cell do not
through-
(4) Plant cells have cellulosic cell wall while
(1) Centriole
animal cell do not
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.3 All cells are derived from pre-existing cells"
is the famous generalization of- (3) Golgi apparatus
(1) Schultz (2) Schleiden (4) Nuclear pores
(3) Lamarck (4) Virchow Q.10 Role of nucleus in morphological differentia-
tion was discovered in-
Q.4 Which of the following is true of the carbohy-
drate portion of the cell membrane- (1) Neurospora by Beadle and Tatum
(1) It contributes to the polycationic charge (2) Garden pea by Mendel
on the extracellular surface (3) Drosophila by Morgan
(2) It is 1% of plasma membrane (4) Acetabularia by Hammerling
(3) It is found primarily in the form of free Q.11 Which one is not a part of nucleus-
saccharide groups
(1) Chromatin
(4) It has a symmetric distributions
(2) Nucleoplasm
Q.5 Plasmalemma of animal cells is elastic due
(3) Karyosome
to the presence of-
(4) Centrosome
(1) Proteins (2) Lipids
Q.12 The size of the nucleolus is large where-
(3) Carbohydrates (4) Microfilaments
(1) Protein synthesis is active
Q.6 Causes of Cancer is -
(2) Protein synthesis is less
(1) Fast and uncontrolled cell division by Meiosis
(3) No protein synthesis occurs
(2) Stop the process which controls cell division
in Mitosis (4) None of the above
(3) Over growth of daughter cells in telophase Q.13 Aerobic respiration is performed by-
and due to failure of cleavage furrows and (1) Iysosomes (2) Chloroplast
non separation of cells
(3) Mitochondria (4) Glyoxysomes
(4) Unequal amount of DNA in daughter cells Q.14 Mitochondria are most abundant in-
formed by Mitosis
(1) Heart muscle (2) Muscles of thigh
(3) Wings of birds (4) None

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Q.15 Cytochrome oxidases are found- Q.21 If cells are broken up and sedimented by
(1) On outer wall of mitochondria centrifugation, the new structures formed in
one of the fraction is-
(2) In the matrix of mitochondria
(1) Centrosomes
(3) In the lysosomes
(2) Microsomes
(4) On cristae of mitochondria
(3) Peroxisomes
Q.16 Small particles present on inner mitochon-
drial membrane are called- (4) Lysosomes

(1) Cristae Q.22 Which of the following enzyme is character-

istic of Golgi complex-
(2) Ergatosomes
(1) Cytochrome oxidase
(3) Elementary particles
(2) Glycosyl transferase
(4) Quantasome
(3) Acid phosphatase
Q.17 Lysosomes containing inactive enzymes are
called- (4) Malate synthetase

(1) Primary lysosomes Q.23 The endoskeleton of the cell is made up of-

(2) Secondary lysosomes (1) Cell wall (2) Cytoplasm

(3) Residual bodies (3) E.R. (4) Mitochondria

(4) Autophagosomes Q.24 Match the following

Q.18 Which of the following statements best de- (1) Microtubules - Structural component of
scribes the functional characteristics of lyso- cilia
somes- (2) Centrioles - Store hydrolases
(1) They contain enzymes that lack macro- (3) Peroxisomes - Stores carbohydrate, fats
molecular specificity and proteins in plants
(2) They function at alkaline pH (1) 1 correct, 2 and 3 false
(3) Help in dissolving membrane of ovum dur- (2) 1 and 3 correct, 2 false
ing fertilization (3) 1 and 2 correct, 3 false
(4) They function only within the intracellular (4) All are false
compartment
Q.25 Genome is-
Q.19 Lysosomes are called "suicide bags" because
(1) Diploid set of chromosomes
they have-
(2) Haploid set of chromosomes
(1) Catabolic enzymes
(3) A single chromosome
(2) Food vacuole
(4) None of the above
(3) Hydrolytic enzymes
Q.26 The carbohydrates which project out of the
(4) Parasitic activity
lipid bilayer in animal cell membrane are
Q.20 In which of the following cells the endoplas- linked to -
mic reticulum is absent-
(1) Lipids only
(1) Kidney cells
(2) Proteins only
(2) Liver cells
(3) Peptidoglycan
(3) Mammalian mature erythrocytes
(4) Both lipid & protein
(4) Mammalian eye cells

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Q.27 In living cells mitochondria can be stained Q.34 Selecting the wrong statement from the
with-
following–
(1) Neutral red (2) Janus green
(1) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria have an
(3) Crystal violet (4) Aceto-orcein
internal compartment, the thylakoid space
Q.28 The outer membrane of mitochondria is -
bounded by the thylakoid membrane
(1) Less permeable
(2) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain
(2) Less proteinaceous
DNA
(3) Heavier
(4) Larger (3) The chloroplasts are generally much larger
than mitochondria
Q.29 Mitochondrial outputs are -
(1) ADP, CO2 (2) ATP, O 2 (4) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria contain
(3) ATP, CO2, H2O (4) ATP, CO2 an inner and an outer membrane
Q.30 The overcoat of the plasma membrane is the Q.35 All the following statement are correct except–
handiwork of -
(1) Peroxisomes are quite common in the
(1) Golgi complex (2) Lysosomes
photosynthetic cells. Their number can be
(3) Nucleolus (4) Mitochondria 70–100 per mesophyll cell wherein they
Q.31 Find out the incorrect statement - interact with mitochondria and chloroplasts
(1) The inner mitochondrial membrane to take part in photorespiration
possesses succinic dehydrogenase and
cytochrome oxidase. (2) Glyoxysomes are numerous in the
(2) The membrane bound Krebs cycle endosperm of wheat
enzyme is succinic dehydrogenase (3) The ER-bound ribosomes synthesise
(3) Both mitochondrial membrane are secretory membrane and lysosomal protein
ultrastructurally similar
(4) Ribosomes when associated with ER are
(4) Mitochondrial cristae are sites of
attached with their 60S sub-unit
oxidation-reduction reaction.
Q.32 Which is an incorrect statement - Q.36 How many divisions will occur in an isolated tip
(1) Microtubules take part in cell division cell to form 128 cells -

(2) Detoxification site in liver cells is in SER (1) 128 (2) 127 (3) 32 (4) 7
(3) The nucleolus contains DNA homologous Q.37 Synthesis of proteins for formation of spindle
to ribosomal RNA fibres takes place in -
(4) Centrioles are located on the chromosomes (1) G1-phase (2) S-phase
Q.33 Which of the following statements regarding cilia (3) G2-phase (4) M-phase
is not correct–
(1) Cilia contain an outer ring of nine Q.38 O18 was used in H2O to prove that O2 comes
microtubules surrounding two microtubules from H2O in photosynthesis by Ruben and
(2) The organized beating of cilia is controlled Kamen. C14 was used by Calvin to discover dark
by fluxes of Ca2+ across the membrane reaction. N15 is used in the study of–
(3) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages (1) Chromosome replication
(4) Microtubules of cilia are composed of (2) DNA replication
tubulin (3) Protein synthesis
(4) C4 Cycle.

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Q.39 Smallest phase of mitosis is - Q.44 The eukaryotic cells are essentially two envelope
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase system because they contain–
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (1) Cell wall and plasmamembrane
(2) Plasmamembrane and Nuclear membrane
Q.40 Which of the following is the better explanation
of earlier discovery of the "Nucleus" than the (3) Plasmamembrane and Tonoplast
"Cell Theory"– (4) Double membrane bound cell organelles
(1) Nucleus is a more important structure than
Q.45 Which of the following statement justifies that
cytoplasm.
"the cell is a self-contained unit"–
(2) Robert Brown had a better microscope.
(1) It independently carries out all fundamental
(3) Nuclei take a darker stain than other parts
biological processes.
of a cell.
(4) Nucleus is a visible body while cell theory (2) It oxidises food molecules to produce
is an abstract generalization. energy and utilises this energy to
Q.41 Choose the correct statement– synthesise complex molecules.

(1) Ribosomal subunits are united during protein (3) Reproduces with similar hereditary
synthesis. properties.
(2) Ribosomal subunits always remain united. (4) All of the above.
(3) Ribosomal subunits are united in nucleus Q.46 The significance of phospholipid bilayer in
during r-RNA synthesis. plasma membrane is to form–
(4) All are correct statements.
(1) Water resistant barrier
Q.42 Which of the following observations most
(2) To allow only carbohydrate substances to
strongly support the view that mitochondria have
elctron transport system/enzymes– pass
(1) Mitochondria have a property to concentrate (3) Passage for free flow of ions
in cells which form locomotory structures. (4) To allow easy passage of proteins
(2) Disruption of mitochondria yields membrane
Q.47 Man and mouse cells are treated with red
fragments which are able to synthesize ATP.
rhodamine and Green f luorescent dyes
(3) Mitochondria hav e a f olded inner separately and then are made to fuse. The
membrane.
resultant cells when kept at 37ºC, the distribution
(4) A contractile protein capable of utilizing ATP of dye on the surface of cell will be like–
is obtained from mitochondria.

Q.43 What is correct ?

(1) Nucleosomal organisation provides a (1) (2)
chromatin fibre about 10 nm in thickness
and chromatin fibres further condensed to
produce a solenoid of 30 nm diameter.
(2) The solenoid structure further coils to
produce a chromatin fibre of 200 nm and (3) (4)
then a chromatid of 700 nm diameter.
(3) All the folded loops of chromatin are held to gether
(4) All of the above.

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Q.48 Muramic acid is present in cell walls of - Q.56 Cell wall is -

(1) Bacteria and blue-green algae (1) Dead and impermeable
(2) Green algae (2) Dead and permeable
(3) Yeast (3) Living and impermeable
(4) All fungi (4) Living and selective
Q.49 Growth of cell wall during cell elongation Q.57 Decision of cell division occurs at -
takes place by -
(1) Starting of G1
(1) Apposition (2) Intussuseption
(2) End of G1
(3) Both A and B (4) Super position
(3) Initial stage of prophase
Q.50 Plasmodesmata are -
(4) End of telophase
(1) Pores in cell wall
Q.58 Crossing over takes place on -
(2) Pores in cell membrane
(1) Two stranded stage
(3) Protoplasmic connections
(2) Three stranded stage
(4) A and B both
(3) One stranded stage
Q.51 Which element mainly occurs in middle
(4) Four stranded state
lamella -
Q.59 Carbohydrates which present in the cell
(1) Ca (2) Mg
membrane take part in -
(3) Na (4) K
(1) Transport of substance
Q.52 Cell membrane is composed of -
(2) Cell recognition
(1) Proteins and cellulose
(3) Attachement to microfilament
(2) Proteins and phospholipids
(4) Attachement to microtubules
(3) Proteins and carbohydrates
Q.60 Plasma membrane is fluid structure due to
(4) Proteins, phospholipids and some
presence of -
carbohydrates
Q.53 Which of the following is main enzyme of (1) Carbohydrate (2) Lipid
plasma membrane - (3) Glyco protein (4) Poly saccharide
(1) TPP ase Q.61 When the prophase chromosome are stained
(2) ATP ase with acetocarmine they take differential
staining. This phenomenon is called -
(3) Peptidyl transferase
(1) Idiogram (2) Karyotype
(4) Catalases
(3) Heteropycnosis (4) Satellite
Q.54 Percentage of intrinsic proteins in the total Q.62 Longest phase of mitosis is -
proteins of plasma membrane -
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(1) 70% (2) 20%
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
(3) 10% (4) 90%
Q.63 Amphipathic molecule in pasma membrane is -
Q.55 Cell wall was discovered by -
(1) Protein (2) Carbohydrates
(1) Robert brown
(3) Phospholipids (4) All the above
(2) Malpighi
Q.64 The average thickenss of plasma membrane is -
(3) Robert Hooke
(1) 70Å (2) 75 – 100 Å
(4) Nageli
(3) 100 – 150 Å (4) 200 Å

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Q.65 Unit membrane model of plasma membrane Q.73 In order to find out quickly whether the cells
was proposed by - are living one must observe -
(1) Robertson (2) Singer (1) Cell sap
(3) Denielli (4) Robert Hook (2) Tonoplast
Q.66 Pit membrane of simple pit is formed by - (3) Movement of Cytoplasm
(1) Secondary cell wall (4) Starch ganules
(2) Middle lamella Q.74 Which one is widely distributed in a cell -
(3) Primary cell wall (1) DNA (2) RNA
(4) plasma membrane (3) Plastids (4) Golgi
Q.67 Term plasmodesmeta was first used by - Q.75 Maximum enzymes are found in -
(1) Leuwenhock (2) De duve (1) Lysosomes (2) Mitochondria
(3) Strasburger (4) Porter (3) Nucleus (4) E.R.
Q.68 Primary cell wall formed by - Q.76 Rough E.R. mainly responsible for -
(1) Intussuception (1) Protein synthesis
(2) Apposition (2) Cell wall formation
(3) Intussusception & lignification (3) Lipid synthesis
(4) Mineralization (4) Cholesterol synthesis
Q.69 Cell wall of prokaryotes is made up of - Q.77 Besides producing secretory vesicles, the
(1) Chitin (2) Cellulose function of golgibody is -
(1) Lysosome formation
(3) Glucose amine (4) Mucopepitde
(2) Formation of spindle fibers
Q.70 Butter Sandwich model of plasma membrane
was proposed by - (3) Formation of E.R.
(1) Davson and Danielli (4) All the above
(2) Robertson Q.78 Mitochondria supply most of the necessary
biological energy through -
(3) Singer and Nicolson
(1) Breaking down sugars
(4) Benson
(2) Reducing NADP
Q.71 The Singer’s Model of Plasma membrane
differs from the Robertson’s model in the - (3) Oxidising substrates of TCA cycle
(1) Number of lipid layers (4) Breaking down proteins

(2) Arrangement of proteins Q.79 Enzymes for ETS occurs in (mitochondria)-

(3) Arrangement of lipid layers (1) Matrix

(4) Absence of protein layers (2) Outer wall

Q.72 Ingestion of solid food by plasma membranes (3) Inner membrane

is called - (4) Between inner & outer wall
(1) Endosmosis Q.80 W hich cell organelle secretes zymogen
granules -
(2) Pinocytosis
(1) Lysosomes (2) Golgibody
(3) Cytokinesis
(3) Smooth E.R. (4) Sphaerosomes
(4) Phagocytosis

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Q.81 Mitochondrial DNA is - Q.89 Which of the following transport the cell well
(1) Naked material from dictyosome -

(2) Circular (1) Microtubles (2) Microfilament

(3) Double stranded (3) E.R. (4) Microbodies

(4) All the above Q.90 Golgibody is absent in -

(1) Prokaryotes
Q.82 Which structures are responsible for lipid
synthisis repectively in plants and animal (2) Mature mammalian R.B.C.
cells- (3) Akaryotes
(1) Smooth E.R. (4) All the above
(2) Smooth and rough E.R. Q.91 Which cell organelles release oxygen -
(3) Smooth E.R. and peroxisomes (1) Mitochondria (2) Golgi body
(4) Sphaerosomes and smooth E.R. (3) Chloroplast (4) Ribosome
Q.83 Lysosomes are not helpful in - Q.92 One of the following is present outside the
(1) Osteogenesis plasma membrane but inside the cell-wall-

(2) Cellular digestion (1) Sphaerosome (2) Peroxisome

(3) Metamorphosis in frog (3) Lomasome (4) Golgi body

Q.93 Lysosome containing bone cells are called-
(4) Lipogenesis
(1) Osteo blast (2) Fibro blast
Q.84 Digestion of hormonal vesicle by lysosome
is called - (3) Osteoclast (4) Condrioblast
(1) Crinophagy (2) Heterophagy Q.94 Chemical modification of substance like
glycosidation of protein and lipid occur in -
(3) Autophagy (4) Autolysis
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.85 In mammals, the mitochondrial ribsosomes
are - (2) Golgi body

(1) 55s (2) 70s (3) Lysosome

(3) 80s (4) 100s (4) Ribosome

Q.86 Which of the following provides mechanical Q.95 Most of the cell-organelles are derived from
support and shape to the cell - which structure of cell -

(1) Golgi complex (2) Centrioles (1) Nucleus

(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) Lomasomes (4) E.R.
(3) Mitochondria
Q.87 Mitochondria are site of respiration first
reported by Kingsbury and supported by (4) Chloroplast
Hogeboom. Mitochondira are related with the Q.96 Ribophorin-I and II occur on the surface of -
oxidation of - (1) Rough E.R. (2) Smooth E.R.
(1) Carbohydrates (2) Fats (3) Golgi body (4) None
(3) Proteins (4) All the above Q.97 At which pH lysosomal enzymes remain
Q.88 Peptidyl tranferase enzyme found on - active -
(1) Cytoplasm (2) E.R. (1) pH -5 (2) pH - 7
(3) Golgibody (4) Ribosomes (3) pH - 8 (4) pH - 10

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Q.98 Synthesis of cellulose and hemicellulose take Q.107 During germination which cell organelle
place in - converts fatty acid into soluble carbohydrate-
(1) Micro bodies (2) Smooth E.R. (1) Peroxisome (2) Glyoxysome
(3) golgi complex (4) Lysosome (3) Sphaerosomes (4) Lysosome
Q.99 Main function of golgi-complex is - Q.108 A single unit membrane organelle is -
(1) Fermentation (1) Ribosomes (2) Mitochondria
(2) Phosphorylation (3) Chloroplast (4) Lysosomes
(3) Respiration Q.109 Double layered organelle are -
(4) Packaging of materials for secretion (1) Ribosomes (2) Mitochondria
Q.100 Functional unit of protein synthesis is - (3) Lysosomes (4) Centriole
(1) Dictysome (2) Polysome Q.110 Substance which is synthesized in golgi body
(3) Peroxisome (4) Lysosome is -

Q.101 Which of the following is a main source of (1) Protein (2) Polysaccharides
cellular membranes - (3) Fats (4) ATP
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum Q.111 True Statement about Mitochondria is -
(2) Golgi body (1) Change in shape and size and division
(3) Mitochondria both occur

(4) Nucleus (2) Do not change shape but division occurs

Q.102 Mark the lysosomal stabilizer- (3) Do not change shape and size and
division not occurs
(1) Vitamin -K (2) Vitamin-A
(4) Change shape but division does not occur
(3) Cortisone (4) Progesterone
Q.112 E.R. is not related with -
Q.103 The nuclear membrane originate from -
(1) Plasmalemma (2) Golgibody
(1) E.R. (2) Golgi cisternae
(3) Mitochondria (4) Nucleus
(3) Golgi vesicle (4) Lysosome
Q.113 The chlorophyll pigment is readly soluble in-
Q.104 Which of the following prevents the rupturing
of lysosomal membrane - (1) Water (2) Acids

(1) Cholesterol (2) Vit. A (3) Alkalies (4) Acetone

(3) Testosterone (4) UV - rays Q.114 Enzymes are synthesized on -

Q.105 Ground substance present inside the (1) Dictyosomes

mitochondria is called - (2) Ribosome
(1) Stroma (2) Matrix (3) Mitochondria
(3) Cell sap (4) Cytoplasm (4) None of the above
Q.106 The stored food and secretory substances Q.115 Which is not true about sphaerosomes -
found in the cytoplasm makes - (1) Involved in photorespiration
(1) Cytoplasm (2) Arise from E.R.
(2) Hyaloplasm (3) Related to fat metbolism
(3) Protoplasm (4) Single membrane bound
(4) Deutoplasm

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Q.116 Elaiplasts absent in - Q.124 Plastids which store fats and oils are called-
(1) Potato (1) Aleuroplast (2) Amyloplast
(2) Cocus nucifera (3) Etioplast (4) Elaioplast
(3) Arachis hypogea Q.125 Biogenesis of eucaryotic Ribosomes takes
place in -
(4) Helianthus
(1) Mitochondria (2) Chloroplast
Q.117 Which ion holds the ribosomal subunits
toghether - (3) Both (1) and(2) (4) Nucleolus
(1) Ca+2 (2) Mn+2 Q.126 Red colour of tomato and chilly is due to -
(3) Mg+2 (4) Na+ (1) Lycopene in chloroplast
Q.118 Mitochondria and chloroplast are considered (2) Xanthophylls in chromoplast
to be endosymbionts of cell because they - (3) Lycopene in chromoplast
(1) Possess their own nucleic acid (4) Anthocyanin in leucoplast
(2) Have capacity of ATP synthesis Q.127 Anthocyanin pigment occurs in -
(3) Do not reproduce (1) Chromoplasts (2) Amyloplasts
(4) All the above (3) Cytoplasm (4) Cell sap
Q.119 Peroxysomes contain - Q.128 Which of the cilia protein is analogous to
(1) Hydrolytic enzyme myosin of muscles -
(1) Tubulin (2) Dynien
(2) Transferase
(3) Flagellin (4) None of these
(3) Isomerase
Q.129 Blepheroplast is a type of -
(4) Oxidising enzyme (Oxidase)
(1) Centriole (2) Plastid
Q.120 What is the angle between two centriole of a
centrosome - (3) Cilia (4) Mitochondria

(1) 30º (2) 45º Q.130 Pericarp and petals contain -

(3) 60º (4) 90º (1) Chloroplast (2) Chromoplast

Q.121 In which of the following cell centriole is (3) Leucoplast (4) Etioplast
absent - Q.131 Arrangement of microtubules in centriole is-
(1) Epithelial cell (1) 9 + 2 (2) 2 + 9
(2) Gland cell (3) 11 + 0 (4) 9 + 0
(3) Liver cells Q.132 Which of the following plastids are helpful in
starch formation and storage -
(4) Nerve cell
(1) Chromoplast (2) Leucoplasts
Q.122 Ribosomes are -
(3) Chloroplast (4) Lycopene
(1) Positively charged
Q.133 Which of the following enzymes are found in
(2) Negatively charged
matrix of peroxisomes -
(3) Amphoteric
(1) NADH cytochrome reductase
(4) Neutral
(2) Glyoxidases and malate dehydrogenase
Q.123 On which concentration of Mg+2 ions units
(3) Acid phosphatases and isocitirc lysase
of ribosome is combined -
(4) Catalases and oxidases
(1) 0.0001 M (2) 0.001 M
(3) 0.01 M (4) 0.10 M

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Q.134 Sedimentation coefficient of mitoribosomes Q.144 Nucleolus in Eukaryotic cell is -

of higher plants is - (1) Nonliving
(1) 80s (2) 70s (3) 65s (4) 55s (2) Visible at metaphase
Q.135 The Ribosomes are made up of (3) Bounded by a membrane
(1) DNA + Protein (2) RNA + Protein (4) The site of packaging of r-RNA with
(3) DNA + RNA (4) None of these proteins
Q.136 Functional unit of Chloroplast is - Q.145 Site of m-RNA syntesis in lampbrush
(1) Stroma (2) Quantasome chromosomes is -

(3) Oxysomes (4) Peroxysomes (1) Balbiani ring

Q.137 Nuclear pores are guarded by - (2) Lateral loops

(1) DNA (2) Annulus (3) Dark bands

(3) Protein (4) None (4) Light bands

Q.138 Lampbrush chromosomes are observed in - Q.146 Which of the following character is not taken
into consideration while preparing a
(1) insect larva (2) Oocytes
karyotype-
(3) Sperms (4) Sallvary glands
(1) Chromosomal length
Q.139 Which of the following stimulates balbiani ring
(2) Arm ratio
formation in polytene chromosomes -
(3) Position of sec. constriction
(1) Dynien (2) Juvenile harmone
(4) Length of chromonemata
(3) Ecdyson (4) Histone
Q.147 The non-sticky chromosomal ends are knwon
Q.140 Small chromosomes which do not produce
as -
any detectable phenotypic expression are
termed - (1) Chromatids (2) Centromere

(1) Heterochromatic chromosomes (3) Chromomere (4) Telomere

(2) Supernumerary chromosomes Q.148 Lambrush chromosome contain -

(3) Nonsence chromosomes (1) One chromatid (2) Two chromatid

(4) Nucleoids (3) Three chromatid (4) Several chromatid

Q.141 Genome is - Q.149 Highest arm ratio occur in which

chromosome-
(1) Part of chromosome
(1) Telocentric (2) Metacentric
(2) Half chromosome
(3) Submetacentric (4) Acrocentric
(3) Total DNA in cell
Q.150 The heterochromatin is condensed in the
(4) A complete half set of chromosomes
following region of the chromosome -
Q.142 True chromosomes absent in prokaryotes due
(1) Secondary constriction-I
to the absence of -
(2) Secondary constriction-II
(1) Nucleus (2) Nucleolus
(3) Both the above
(3) Histone (4) All the above
(4) Telomere
Q.143 A complete set of chromosomes inherited as
an unit from one parent is known as - Q.151 One solenoid composed of -

(1) Karytype (2) Gene pool (1) 8-nucleosome (2) 6-nucleosome

(3) Genotype (4) Genome (3) 10-nucleosome (4) 16-nucleosome

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Q.152 The chromosomes appear as beaded Q.159 Nucleosome is made up of -

structures at - (1) Nonhistone protein + RNA
(1) Leptotene (2) Histone protein and DNA
(2) Pachytene (3) Non-histone and histone protein
(3) Diakinesis (4) Phospholipid and protein
(4) Telophase - I Q.160 Structure which provide shape to chromosome
Q.153 Histone which links the nucleosomes together is called -
is called - (1) Telomere (2) Satellite
(1) H1 (2) H2A (3) Centromere (4) Chromomere
(3) H2B (4) H4 Q.161 Who first Synthesized artificial Gene in
Q.154 The protein nucleoplasmin occurs in - laboratory -
(1) Nuclear pore complex (1) Mandle (2) Khorana
(2) Sieve cells (3) Sutton (4) Kornberg
(3) Nucleolus Q.162 Feulgen reaction is used to stain :-
(4) Heterochromatin (1) DNA (2) RNA-polymerase
Q.155 Nucleus stores energy in the form of - (3) DNA-polymerase (4) (1) and (3) both
(1) ATP Q.163 Indicate the increasing order of size -
(2) GTP (1) Lysosome, ribosome, mitochondria,
(3) TTP choroplast

(4) CTP and all the above (2) Ribosome, lysosome, chloroplast,
mitochondria
Q.156 Ribounucleic acid occurs in -
(3) Ribosome, lysosome, mitochondria,
(1) Nucleus
chloroplast
(2) Cytoplasm
(4) Chloroplast, mitocondria, lysosome,
(3) Nucleus and cytoplasm ribosome
(4) Mitochondria and chloroplast Q.164 Microsomes are obtained by -
Q.157 The chromatin material which takes darker (1) Vital staining
stain in interphase is called-
(2) Sonography
(1) Euchromatin
(3) Fractionation of cell by ultrasonic sound wave
(2) Heterochromatin
(4) X-ray crystallography
(3) Primary constriction
Q.165 Longest plant cells are :-
(4) Satellite body
(1) Vessels (2) Trachieds
Q.158 In human being secondary constriction II
(3) Cotton fiber (4) Fibers of Ramie
found on -
Q.166 Cell organells can be separated by method of -
(1) X - chromosome
(1) Autoradiography
(2) Y - chromosome
(2) Microtomy
(3) 13, 14, 15, 21, 22 chromosome
(3) Differential centrifugation
(4) 1, 10, 13, 16 & y-chromosome
(4) X-ray differaction

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Q.167 Calvin isolated the different chemical of calvin Q.177 Resin canals abundantly occur in :-
cycle by - (1) Conifers (2) Cycads
(1) Autoradiography (2) Chromatography (3) Gnetales (4) Dicots
(3) Cell fractionation (4) x-ray diffraction Q.178 Deposition of lignin mainly occurs in -
Q.168 The biggest cell is : - (1) Primary cell wall
(1) Hen egg (2) Human egg (2) Secondary cell wall
(3) Kidney cell (4) Ostrich egg (3) Tertiary cell wall
Q.169 Cell Lineage theory proposed by :- (4) Middle lamella
(1) Schieiden (2) Schwann Q.179 Euglena stores food in the form of paramylum
(3) Rudolph (4) Hooke ( 1 3 glucan) which is conversion product
of :-
Q.170 Which of the following is absent in an intact
cell :- (1) Starch (2) Fructose
(1) Microsomes (2) Golgibody (3) Hyaluronic acid (4) Pectin
(3) Glyoxysomes (4) Microtubules Q.180 Suberisation mainly occurs in :-
Q.171 Animal and plant cells differ in their :- (1) Middle lamella (2) Primary cell wall
(1) Movement (2) Growth (3) Sec. cell wall (4) Cytoplasm
(3) Nutrition (4) Respiration Q.181 Tonoplast, the membrane of vacuole is :-
Q.172 Which microscope is best study cell division (1) Living membrane
in functional state - (2) Non living membrane
(1) EM (3) Impermeable
(2) SEM (4) Permeable
(3) Phase contrast microscope Q.182 Stored food in onion leaves :-
(4) Simple microscope (1) Starch (2) Sugars
Q.173 Protoplasm of a single cell without cell wall (3) Inulin (4) Glycogen
is called -
Q.183 Ripening fruits softene due to -
(1) Plasmodium (2) Trophoplasm
(1) Conversion of starch into sugars
(3) Hyaloplasm (4) Protoplast
(2) Solubilisation of pectates in middle lamella
Q.174 An exception to cell theory is -
(3) Formation of organic acids
(1) Erythrocytes (2) Bacteria
(4) Conversion of fats into carbohydrates
(3) Fungi (4) Virus
Q.184 Resins are :-
Q.175 Cell theory states that -
(1) Cell wall degradation products
(1) All cells have Nucleus
(2) Alkaloids
(2) Cell are the functional and structural units
of Plants and animals (3) Glycosidic derivative

(3) All cells are living (4) Oxidation products of essential oils

(4) Cells reproduce by Mitosis & Meiosis Q.185 ‘’Drus’’ are :-

Q.176 The stem and leaves of grasses are rough (1) Crystals of calcium carbonate
due to :- (2) Crystals of calcium oxalate
(1) Calcium carbonates (2) Resins (3) Alkaloids
(3) Silica (4) Calcium oxalate (4) Crystals of silica

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Q.186 Mineral Crystal Raphides found in :- Q.195 Synthesis and storage of ATP molecules
(1) Rubber plant (2) Papaver required for cell div. takes place in -
(3) Sunflower (4) Brinjal (1) Prophase (2) G1 - Phase
Q.187 Synapsis found in between - (3) Anaphase (4) G2 - Phase
(1) Nonhomologous chromosome Q.196 In mitosis, the spindle is -
(2) Homologous chromosome (1) Bipolar (2) Multipolar
(3) Nonhomologous and homologous (3) Apolar (4) Random
chromosome Q.197 Chiasmata appears during -
(4) Chromatids (1) Diakinesis (2) Synaptotene
Q.188 During cytokinesis in plants, which of the (3) Diplotene (4) Leptotene
following secretes the middle lamella -
Q.198 Coiling of chromonema in prophase of mitosis
(1) Golgibody (2) SER is -
(3) RER (4) Lysosomes (1) Plectonemic (2) Paranemic
Q.189 Pairing of homologous chromosomes is (3) Helical (4) Irregular
called -
Q.199 How many microspore mother cells are
(1) Disjunction (2) Synapsis required to produce 80 male gametes in
(3) Segregation (4) Polyteny angiosperms -
Q.190 What type of division lead to coenocytic (1) 10 (2) 20
condition - (3) 40 (4) 80
(1) Cryptomitosis (2) Endomitosis Q.200 Chromosome number in gynoecium is 12,
(3) Free nuclear div. (4) Dino-mitosis then in endosperm it will be -
Q.191 In which stage the centromere lie at equator (1) 18 (2) 36
and arms are directed towards poles - (3) 12 (4) 6
(1) Metaphase of mitosis
(2) Metaphase - I _____________________________________________
(3) Metaphase - II
CELL DIVISION
(4) I and 3 both –––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––––
Q.192 Chromosomal morphology (Structure) is best Q.201 The main difference between a dividing ani-
observed at - mals and plant cell lies in-
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (1) Cell plate formation
(3) Interphase (4) Anaphase (2) Coiling of chromosome
Q.193 Cell plate which appears during cytokinesis, (3) Chromosome movement
ultimately transforms in - (4) Types of spindle fibres
(1) Middle lamella (2) Primary wall Q.202 Cytoplasmic structures involved in cell divi-
(3) Sec. wall (4) Plasma membrane sion are-
Q.194 Each daughter chromosome in anaphase (1) Mitochondria (2) Ribosomes
moves towards opposite poles at the speed (3) Lysosomes (4) Centrioles
of 1 m per minute with the expenditure of
Q.203 Cell division is not present in the cells of-
energy -
(1) Skin (2) Gonads
(1) 5 ATP (2) 30 ATP
(3) Brain (4) Bone marrow
(3) 38 ATP (4) 200 ATP

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Q.204 Before cell division, the entire DNA content Q.210 What is true about cell cycle–
of the cell gets doubled during interphase. a. During G1 phase there is active synthesis
This doubling takes place- of RNA and proteins but no change in its
(1) At the beginning of the interphase DNA content
b. In synthesis or S phase each chromosome
(2) At the end of the interphase
carries a duplicate set of genes
(3) Throughout the interphase
c. During G2 phase a cell contains double the
(4) Somewhere during the middle of the amount of DNA present in the original diploid
interphase cell (2n)
Q.205 Where can we study mitosis- d. In S-phase a cell doubles the original diploid
(2n) chromosome number
(1) Brain (2) Nail base
(1) c and d (2) a, b and c
(3) Legs (4) Kidneys
(3) all (4) b, c and d
Q.206 Tetrad is made of-
Q.211 Mitosis is not found in -
(1) Four non homologous chromatids
(1) Cartilage cells (2) Bone cells
(2) Four homologous chromosomes with four
(3) Nerve cells (4) All of the above
chromatids
Q.212 If the cells in the root of an angiosperm have
(3) Four non homologous chromosomes
12 chromosomes, 6 chromosomes will be
(4) Two homologous chromosomes each with present in -
two chromatids (1) Synergid
Q.207 During meiotic cells division, genetic recom- (2) Endosperm cell
binations between two homologous chromo-
(3) Leaf cell
somes are facilitate by-
(4) Cotyledonary cell
(1) Movement of centromeres
Q.213 The number of chromosomes present in the
(2) Extrusion of polar bodies
leaf tip cells of a plant species, having six
(3) Movement of centrioles chromosomes in each of the four cells of its
(4) Formation of synaptonemal complex pollen tetrad, would be -
Q.208 Meiosis I is reductional division. Meiosis II is (1) Three (2) Six
equational division due to- (3) Twelve (4) Twenty four
(1) Pairing of homologous chromosomes Q.214 At which stage during meiotic prophase I the
(2) Separation of chromatids synaptic f orces, between homologous
chromosomes, are the maximum ?
(3) Disjunction of homologous chromosomes
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(4) Crossing over
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
Q.209 In the somatic cell cycle–
Q.215 The number of chromatids in a chromosome
(1) In G1 phase DNA content is double the at metaphase is -
amount of DNA present in the original cell
(1) Two each in meiosis and mitosis
(2) DNA replication takes place in S-phase
(2) Two in mitosis and one in meiosis
(3) A short interphase is followed by a long
(3) Two in mitosis and four in meiosis
mitotic phase
(4) One in mitosis and two in meiosis
(4) G2 phase is followed by mitotic phase

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Q.216 Find out the incorrect statement - Q.223 W hen pairing occurs in chromosomes
(1) Balbiani rings (puffs) are the sites of RNA (meiosis) -
synthesis (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(2) Cytokinesis refers to the division of (3) Pachytene (4) Diakinesis
cytoplasm Q.224 Most active stage of cell cycle is -
(3) Tetrad is made of two homologous (1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
chromosomes each with two chromatids (3) Telophase (4) Interphase
(4) The chromosome end is called nucleolus Q.225 Which of the following is the method of
Q.217 Decondensation of chromosome occurs in - cytokinesis in plant cell -
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase (1) By cell plate formation
(3) Anaphase (4) Telophase (2) By constriction

Q.218 The quantity of DNA in a chromosome at (3) By phragmoplast

metaphase is - (4) (1) and (3) both
(1) Two each in meiosis and mitosis Q.226 In which stage of cell cycle nucleus becomes
bigger -
(2) Two in mitosis and one in meiosis
(1) G1 (2) G2 (3) S (4) M
(3) Two in mitosis and four in meiosis
Q.227 What happens in interkinesis -
(4) One in mitosis and two in meiosis
(1) DNA - replication
Q.219 A red blood cell was kept in a solution for a few
minutes, where it got burst. The solution taken (2) Chromosome duplication
was– (3) Preparation of second meiotic div.
(1) Hypotonic (4) Resting stage
(2) Concentrated sugar solution Q.228 Which can be observed in an interphase nucleus
under the light microscope -
(3) Isotonic
(1) Chromosomes (2) Nucleosomes
(4) Hypertonic
(3) Centromere (4) Heterochromatin
Q.200 Function of telomeres in nucleus is –
Q.229 Angular divergence of spindle decreases at -
(1) Poleward movement
(1) Metaphase (2) Early anaphase
(2) To initiate the RNA synthesis
(3) Late anaphase (4) Telophase
(3) To seal the ends of chromosome
Q.230 Minimum number of meiotic div. required to
(4) To recognise the homologous chromosome produce 62 pollengrains -
Q.221 The salivary gland chromosomes in the dipteran (1) 15 (2) 31
larvae, are useful in gene mapping because
(3) 62 (4) 16
(1) these are fused
Q.231 In cell cycle, changes of which stage are not
(2) these are much longer in size visible under microscope -
(3) These are easy to stain (1) Interphase (2) Prophase
(4) They have endoreduplicated chromosomes (3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase
Q.222 DNA synthesis takes place in - Q.232 Which type of division leads to polyploidy -
(1) S phase (2) G1 phase (1) Cryptomitosis (2) Meiosis
(3) G2 phase (3) None (3) Endomitosis (4) Amitosis

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Q.233 W hich of the f ollowing not ocurs in Q.242 Constancy of the chromosome number in
Anaphase-I but occurs in Anaphase-II - sexually producing generation is brought by the
process of -
(1) Condensation of chromosomes
(1) Meiosis (2) Mitosis
(2) Poleward movement of chromosome
(3) Amitosis (4) None
(3) Contraction of spindle fibers
Q.243 Amitosis is characteristic of -
(4) Splitting of centromere
(1) Higher plants (2) Higher animals
Q.234 In which stage of cell division, division of matrix
(3) Bryophyta (4) Lower organisms
of chromosome occurs -
Q.244 Slipping of chiasmata towards the ends of bivalent
(1) Late prophase (2) Early metaphase is called -
(3) Late metaphase (4) Anaphase (1) Terminalisation
Q.235 During G2 - phase a diploid cell contains the (2) Diakinesis
amount of DNA equal to a - (3) Interkinesis
(1) Diploid cell (4) Heteropycnosis
(2) Tetraploid cell Q.245 Which does not occurs in prophase -
(3) Haploid cell (1) Hydration of chromatin
(4) Nothing can be said (2) Dehydration of chromatin
Q.236 Crossing over takes place in - (3) Appearance of chromosome
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene (4) Disappearance of nuclear memb. and
nucleolus
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis
Q.246 During cell cycle, RNA and protein synthesis
Q.237 A contractile mid body forms during cytokinesis
takes place during -
in -
(1) G1 and G2 - phase
(1) Animals (2) Higher plants
(2) S - Phase
(3) Fungi (4) Algae
(3) M - phase
Q.238 In which order, cytokinesis occurs in
(4) Cytokinesis
plants -
Q.247 In which stage of cell division, number of
(1) Centripetal (2) Centrifugal
chromosomes best counted -
(3) Oblique (4) Equatorial
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
Q.239 Meiosis not occurs in -
(3) Telophase (4) Interphase
(1) Ovule (2) Anther
Q.248 Cell division in blue green algae similar to that
(3) Microsporangia (4) Shoot tip in -
Q.240 Which of the two events restore the normal (A) Bacteria (B) Brown algae
number of chromosomes in life cycle -
(C) Green algae (D) Higher plants
(1) Mitosis and Meiosis
Q.249 The synaptonemal complex was first observed
(2) Meiosis and fertilisation by -
(3) Fertlisation and mitosis
(1) Moore (1905)
(4) Only meiosis
(2) Farmer and moore (1905)
Q.241 Number of meiosis required to produce 100
(3) Mosses (1956)
ovules in angiosperms -
(4) Flemming (1882)
(1) 125 (2) 100
(3) 25 (4) 75

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Q.250 A cell is bound to divide, if it has entered - Q.259 Tetrad formation in meiosis occur is -
(1) G2 : phase (2) G1 - phase (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(3) Prophase (4) S - phase (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
Q.251 How many Chromosome shall be present in Q.260 In Anaphase - I each chromosome composed
a diploid cell at mitotic anaphase if its egg of -
cell has ten chromosome -
(1) One chromatid (2) Two chromatid
(1) 10 (Ten) (2) 20 (Twenty)
(3) 30 (Thirty) (4) 40 (Forty) (3) Four chromatid (4) Many chromatid

Q.252 If crossing-over occur at two strand stage then Q.261 In meiosis, division of centromere occurs
percentage of crossing over is - during -
(1) 50% (2) 60% (1) Interphase (2) Anaphase - I
(4) 70% (4) 100% (3) Anaphase - II (4) Metaphase - I
Q.253 Meiosis which occur at the time of spore formation Q.262 In meiosis, nuclear membrane and nucleolus
is called - disappear during -
(1) Zygotic meiosis (1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene
(2) Haplontic meiosis (3) Diakinesis (4) Metaphase - I
(3) Terminal meiosis Q.263 Cell cycle can remain arrested at -
(4) Intermediate meiosis (1) G1 (2) S (3) G2 (4) M
Q.254 Chromosome exhibit high level of coiling at Q.264 Which of the following are mitotic poisons -
which phase of karyokinesis -
(1) Colchicine
(1) Prophase (2) Metaphase
(2) Mustard gas and Azides
(3) Telophase (4) Interphase
(3) Cyanides
Q.255 The synaptonemal complex appears -
(4) All the above
(1) Between homologous chromosomes
Q.265 In cell cycle, which stage is misnomerly called
(2) In zygotene stage
resting phase -
(3) Composed of DNA + protein
(1) S-phase (2) Telophase
(4) All the above
(3) Cytokinesis (4) Interphase
Q.256 At anaphase - II of meiosis each chromosome
contains - Q.266 Separation of homologous chromosomes during
Anaphase - I is called -
(1) 4 DNA (2) 3 - DNA
(1) Synapsis (2) Disjunction
(3) 2 - DNA (4) 1 - DNA
(3) Nondisjunction (4) Crossing over
Q.257 During cell division chromosome move towards
different poles due to - Q.267 In tetrad, the number of non cross over chromatids
is normally -
(1) Centriole
(1) Four (2) Two
(2) Vacuole formation
(3) One (4) None
(3) Microtubules
Q.268 Sporic meiosis occurs in -
(4) Cytokinesis
(1) Animals
Q.258 For studying meiosis the relevant plant material
usually fixed around - (2) Thallophyta

(1) 9-10 AM (2) 4.5 AM (3) Bryophyta

(3) 3.5 PM (4) 12 PM (4) All plants except thallophyta

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Q.269 If a meristematic cell is placed in a medium Q.273 If the number of bivalents are 8 in metaphase-I,
containing radio active thymidine, radioactivity what shall be the number of chromosomes in
will be first observed in - daughter cells after meiosis-I and meiosis-II
(1) Euchromatin respectively -

(2) Hetero chromatin (1) 8 and 4 (2) 4 and 4

(3) Both simultaneously (3) 8 and 8 (4) 16 and 8

(4) None of the above Q.274 Homologous chromosomes shows maximum

attraction during -
Q.270 The metabolism of a cell which decreases during
prophase again starts increasing during - (1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene
(3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene
(1) Telophase (2) Anaphase
Q.275 Ribonuclease, a mitotic poison, inhibits cell
(3) Metaphase (4) G1 - phase
cycle in -
Q.271 Synthesis of cycline protein occurs in -
(1) Interphase (2) Prophase
(1) Permanent tissue
(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase
(2) Meristem
Q.276 Dinomitosis occurs in -
(3) Lignified cells
(1) Procaryotes (2) Mesokaryotes
(4) All the types of cell
(3) Eucaryotes (4) Akaryotes
Q.272 During which stage a diploid cell becomes Q.277 Stain for cell division -
tetraploid in mitosis -
(1) Saffranin (2) Aniline blue
(1) G2 (2) Prophase
(3) PAS (4) Acetocarmine
(3) Metaphase (4) Anaphase
Q.278 Terminal meiosis occurs in -
(1) Sporocyte (2) Gametocyte
(3) Zygote (4) Gamete

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ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE-I
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 4 1 4 2 2 2 3 2 4 4 4 1 3 1 4 3 1 3 3 3
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 2 2 3 1 2 4 2 2 3 1 3 4 2 1 2 4 3 2 3 4
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 1 2 4 2 4 1 4 1 3 3 1 4 2 1 3 2 2 4 2 2
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 3 1 3 2 1 2 3 1 4 1 2 4 3 2 2 1 1 3 3 2
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 4 4 4 1 1 4 4 4 1 4 3 3 3 2 2 1 1 3 4 2
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 1 3 1 1 2 4 2 4 2 2 1 3 4 2 1 1 3 1 4 4
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 4 2 3 4 4 3 4 2 1 2 4 2 4 2 2 2 2 2 3 2
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 4 3 4 4 2 4 4 2 1 3 2 1 1 1 4 3 2 3 2 3
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
Ans. 2 1 3 3 4 3 1 4 3 1 3 3 4 4 2 3 1 2 1 1
Ques. 181 182 183 184 185 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
Ans. 1 2 2 4 2 1 2 1 2 3 4 2 1 2 4 1 3 1 1 1
Ques. 201 202 203 204 205 206 207 208 209 210 211 212 213 214 215 216 217 218 219 220
Ans. 1 4 3 4 2 4 4 2 2 2 3 1 3 2 1 4 4 1 1 3
Ques. 221 222 223 224 225 226 227 228 229 230 231 232 233 234 235 236 237 238 239 240
Ans. 3 1 2 4 4 3 3 4 3 4 1 3 4 3 2 2 1 2 4 2
Ques. 241 242 243 244 245 246 247 248 249 250 251 252 253 254 255 256 257 258 259 260
Ans. 2 1 4 1 1 1 2 1 3 4 4 4 4 2 4 4 3 2 3 2
Ques. 261 262 263 264 265 266 267 268 269 270 271 272 273 274 275 276 277 278
Ans. 3 3 1 4 4 2 2 4 1 1 2 4 3 3 1 2 4 2

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EXERCISE-II
Q.1 Hydrolytic enzymes are abundantly found in Q.9 Heteropycnosis is exhibited by -
which cell organelles - [RPMT - 2004] (1) Autosome [RPMT - 2004]
(1) Ribosome (2) Chromatoid body
(2) Lysosome (3) Nucleolus
(3) Oxysome (4) Sex - chromosome
(4) Endoplasmic reticulum Q.10 Best material for the study of mitosis in
Q.2 Which of the following is the site of lipid laboratory - [CPMT 2002]
syntesis - [RPMT - 2002] (1) Anther (2) Root tip
(1) Rough ER (2) Smooth ER (3) Leaf tip (4) Ovary
(3) Golgi bodies (4) Ribosome Q.11 Mitosis occurs in - [RPMT 2002]
Q.3 Ribosomes are produced in - [CPMT - 2002] (1) Haploid individuals (2) Diploid individuals
(1) Nucleolus (2) Cytoplasm (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) IN bacterial only
(3) Mitochondria (4) Golgibody Q.12 The number of DNA in chromosome at G2 state
Q.4 Which of the following pair lack the unit of cell cycle - [RPMT 2002]
membrane - [RPMT - 2002] (1) One (2) Two
(1) Nucleus & E.R. (3) Four (4) Eight
(2) Mitochondria & Chloroplast Q.13 Which is correct for meiotic metaphase-I
(3) Ribosome & nucleolus [RPMT 2002]
(4) Golgi body & lysosome (1) Bivalents are arranged at equator
Q.5 Golgybody is concerned with - (2) Univalents are arranged at equator
(1) Respiration (2) Secretion (3) Non-homologus chromosomes forms pair
(3) Excertion (4) Degradation (4) Spindle fibers are attached at chromomere
Q.6 Which of the following occurs more than one and Q.14 In which stage of meiosis the chromosome
less than five in achromosome-[CPMT - 2002] number reduces to half - [RPMT 2004]
(1) Chromatid (2) Chromomere (1) Anaphase-I (2) Anaphase-II
(3) Centromere (4) Telomere (3) Telophase-I (4) Telophase-II
Q.7 The cells without nuclei are present in - Q.15 Chiasmata are formed as a result of -
(1) Vascular cambium [RPMT - 2002] [RPMT 2004]
(2) Root hair (1) Exchange of parts of paired homologus
(3) Companion cell chromosome
(4) Members of seive tube (2) Exchange to part of unpaired non-homologus
Q.8 Plant with minimum number of chromosomes chromosome
is - [RPMT - 2004] (3) Duplication of parts of paired homologus
(1) Haplopappus gracilis chromosome

(2) Salix tetrasperma (4) Loss of parts of unpaired non-homologus

chromosome
(3) Poa
(4) Cynodon

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Q.16 If the n = 16 in plant cell then how many possible Q.23 Chromosomes at anaphase are of various shapes
bivalent in metaphase - I of meiosis - due to position of-[UTTARANCHAL PMT 2006]
[RPMT 2007] (1) Setellite (2) Chromonema
(1) 32 Bivalents (2) 16 Tetravalents (3) Centromere (4) DNA
(3) 16 Bivalents (4) 32 Bivalents
Q.24 The term ‘nucleosome’ was given by oudet olins’
Q.17 The main function of lysosome is - and olins called these particle as “nu” particles
[UTTARANCHAL PMT 2004] which histone is absent in nucleosome -
(1) Sexual reproduction [UTTARANCHAL PMT 2006]
(2) Extracellular digestion
(1) H1 (2) H2
(2) Intracellular digestion
(3) H3a (4) H4
(4) Both (2) and (3)
Q.25 Nucleosome given beaded appearance to
Q.18 Which of the following maintains continuity chromosome. They help in packing of DNA in
between the water and lipid phases inside and the chromosomes. A nucleosome has -
outside the cells -
[UTTARANCHAL PMT 2006]
[UTTARANCHAL PMT 2004]
(1) about 2 turns of DNA
(1) Cell wall
(2) 8 histone molecules of 4 types (2 mols
(2) Lecithin
each of H2 a, H2b, H3 and H4)
(3) Cell vacuole
(3) 200 nitrogen base pairs
(4) Cell membrane of woody plants
(4) all of the above
Q.19 The membrane surrounding cell vacuole is
called - [UTTARANCHAL PMT 2004] Q.26 Salivary glands chromosome were discovered
(1) Tonoplast (2) Cell wall by Balbiani (1881) from salivary glands of larva
of - [UTTARANCHAL PMT 2006]
(3) plasma membrane (4) cell membrane
Q.20 The diagrammatic representation of (1) Chironomous (2) Drosophila
chromosomes is known as - (3) Silk worm (4) Lac worm
[UTTARANCHAL PMT 2006] Q.27 In SAT chromosome, SAT (Satellite) is terminal
(1) idiogram (2) karyotype part of chromosome beyond secondary
(3) holotype (4) homotype constriction. It contains -
[UTTARANCHAL PMT 2006]
Q.21 Thread like structures that are composed of (1) DNA (2) RNA
the nuclear DNA of eukaryotic cells and are (3) repetitive DNA (4) None of these
the carrier of genetic information. These
Q.28 Material exchange through nucleopores is
structures were known as chromosomes. The
faciliate by - [UTTARANCHAL PMT 2006]
term “chromosome” was given -
(1) Lamina propria (2) lipid layer
[UTTARANCHAL PMT 2006]
(1) Waldeyer (2) Balbiani (3) Nucleoplasmin (4) Nucleoles
(3) Purkinje (4) Sutton Q.29 Centriole is - [UTTARANCHAL PMT 2006]
Q.22 Chromosomes, present in prolonged prophase (1) Microtubuler and membraneless
in the salivary glands of Drosophila are - (2) Absent in Amoeba, red algae, blue-green
[UTTARANCHAL PMT 2006] algae conifers and angiosperm and made
(1) Polytene chromosome up of peripheral Triplet microtubuls
(2) B-Chromosomes (4) Basically locomotary and their role in spindle
(3) Lampbrush chromosome formation is secondary
(4) supenumerary chromosomes (4) All of the above

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Q.30 Association of m-RNA with several ribosomes Q.38 The significance of meiosis lies in -
is called - [West Bengal 2007] [C.G. PMT 2004]
(1) Polysome (2) Informosome (1) Maintaining constancy in the number of
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these chromosomes in an organism
Q.31 G2 phase comes between - (2) Production of genetic variability in the
[West Bengal 2007] population of species
(1) S and M phase (2) G1 and S phase (3) Reduction of the diploid number of
(3) S and D phase (4) G1 and M phase chromosomes to haploid
Q.32 Lampbrush chromosome is found in - (4) All of the above
[Wes Bengal 2007] Q.39 Which among the following can be seen only
(1) Oocyte of amphibians under the electron microscope -

(2) Salivary gland of mosquito [C.G. PMT 2004]

(3) Silk gland of silkworm (1) Chloroplast (2) Ribosome
(4) None of the above (3) Leucoplast (4) Nucleus
Q.33 Prokaryotic ribosomes are - Q.40 A mature plant cell has -
[West Bengal 2007] [C.G. PMT 2004]
(1) 50s (2) 60s (3) 70s (4) 80s (1) Cell wall and protoplasm
Q.34 Mesosomes of prokaryotes perform function (2) Protoplasm and vacuole
similar to - [West Bengal 2007] (3) Vacuole and cell wall
(1) Mitochondria (2) Peroxysomes (4) Protoplasm cell wall and vacuole
(3) Lysosomes (4) Ribosomes
Q.41 The larger sub-unit in 80 s ribosome is -
Q.35 RER is rough bucause of the presence of -
[C.G. PMT 2004]
[West Bengal 2007]
(1) 50 s (2) 60 s
(1) Volutin granules on its
(3) 40 s (4) zero s
(2) Ribosomes on its surface
Q.42 Golgi bodies are absent in -
(3) Lysosomes on its surface
[C.G. PMT 2004]
(4) Mitochondria on its surface
(1) Plants (2) Bacteria
Q.36 Crossing over takes place between -
(3) Animals (4) Eukaryotic cells
[West Bengal 2007]
(1) 2 sister chromatids Q.43 Endoplasmic reticulum is more developed in
- [C.G. PMT 2004]
(2) 2 non-sister chromatids
(1) Green cells (2) Young cells
(3) 3 homologous chromosomes
(3) Mature cells (4) Bacteriophage
(4) 4 non-homologous chromosomes
Q.44 Mitochondria are related to -
Q.37 Cellular recognition is fasciliated by components
of plasmamembrane. These components are [C.G. PMT 2004]
generally - [West Bengal 2007] (1) Prokaryotic cell (2) Plasmids
(1) Protein molecules alone (3) Prion (4) Virus
(2) Lipid molecules alone Q.45 The main function of lysosomes is -
(3) Both lipid and protein molecules [C.G. PMT 2004]
(4) Gloycolipids and glycoproteins (1) Digestion (2) Replication
(3) Translation (4) Translocation

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Q.46 W hich of the f ollowing has a single Q.55 A mature plant cell has -
membrane - [C.G. PMT 2004] [C.G. PMT 2005]
(1) Ribosome (2) Peroxisome (1) Cell wall (2) Vacuole
(3) Nucleus (4) Centrosome (3) Protoplasm (4) All of the above
Q.47 L-shaped chromosomes are called - Q.56 Repulsion of homologous chromosomes takes
[C.G. PMT 2004] place in - [C.G. PMT 2005]
(1) Sex-chromosome (2) Acrocentric (1) Zygotene (2) Leptotene

(3) Telocentric (4) Sub-metacentric (3) Diakinesis (4) Pachytene

Q.48 Pairing of homologous chromosomes takes place Q.57 In eukaryotic cell the type of ribosome is -
in - [C.G. PMT 2004] [C.G. PMT 2005]
(1) Pachytene (1) Only 70 s
(2) Zygotene (2) Only 80 s
(3) Diplotene (3) 70 s and 80 s both
(4) None of these (4) Only 50 s
Q.49 How many meiotic divisions will be necessary Q.58 Synthesis of DNA takes place in -
to produce two hundred pollen grain - [C.G. PMT 2005]
[C.G. PMT 2004] (1) G1 (2) G2
(1) 100 (2) 99 (3) S (4) None of these
(3) 50 (4) 200 Q.59 The genetic material of procaryotic cells is
Q.50 Who coined the term chromosome - called - [C.G. PMT 2005]

[C.G. PMT 2004] (1) Nucleus (2) Nucleolus

(3) Nucleoid (4) Centrosome
(1) Balbiani (2) Waldeyer
Q.60 W hich organelle of plant cells secrets
(3) Sutton (4) Purkinje
polysaccharide to make cell walls -
Q.51 A chromosome having sub-terminal centromere
[C.G. PMT 2005]
is called - [C.G. PMT 2004]
(1) Golgi-bodies (2) Lysosome
(1) Telocentric (2) Acrocentric
(3) Mitochondria (4) Chloroplast
(3) Metacentric (4) Sub-metacentric
Q.61 RNA contains which of the following base, in
Q.52 Which is the character of mitosis -
place of Thymine of DNA -
[C.G. PMT 2005] [C.G. PMT 2005]
(1) Leptotene (2) Zygotene (1) Thymine (2) Uracil
(3) Pachytene (4) None of the above (3) Adenine (4) None of these
Q.53 How many types of cells are known - Q.62 The main function of lysosomes is in -
[C.G. PMT 2005] [C.G. PMT 2005]
(1) One (2) Two
(1) Only intracellular digestion
(3) Three (4) Four
(2) Only Extracellular digestion
Q.54 In which mitosis does-not occur -
(3) Both intracellular and extracellular digestion
[C.G. PMT 2005]
(4) None
(1) Green algae (2) Fungi
(3) Bacteria (4) Higher plants

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Q.63 Eukaryotic cell has - [C.G. PMT 2005] Q.70 Principal constituents of chromosomes are -
(1) One chromatin fiber [C.G. PMT 2005]
(2) Definite nucleus (1) DNA + Protein (2) DNA
(3) Incipient nucleus (3) RNA (4) tRNA
(4) None of these Q.71 Shape of chromosome is determined by -
Q.64 Four daughter cells formed after meiosis [C.G. PMT 2005]
are - [C.G. PMT 2005]
(1) Telomere (2) Centromere
(1) Genetically similar
(3) Chromomere (4) Centrosome
(2) Genetically different
Q.72 In a bacterial cell the respiratory enzymes are
(3) Anucleate found in - [C.G. PMT 2005]
(4) Multinucleate (1) Mitochondria (2) Chondrisome
Q.65 The synthesis of lipids and proteins is associated (3) Mesosome (4) Centrosome
with - [C.G. PMT 2005]
Q.73 The cell wall of Spirogyra is made up of -
(1) Endoplasmic reticulum
[C.G. PMT 2005]
(2) Miochondria
(1) Cellulose (2) Suberin
(3) Chloroplast
(3) Lignin (4) Chitin
(4) Lysosomes
Q.74 The main function of Golgi complex is -
Q.66 Cell theory was proposed by -
[C.G. PMT 2005]
[C.G. PMT 2005]
(1) Translocation (2) Phosphorylation
(1) Schleiden and Schwann
(3) Glyco-oxidation (4) Fermentation
(2) Watson and Crick
Q.75 In cell division, spindle fibres are made up of
(3) Drawin and Wallace
protein - [Jharkhand 2006]
(4) Mendel and Morgan
(1) Myoglobin (2) Tubulin
Q.67 During meiosis the division of centromere takes
(3) Albumin (4) Myosin
place in - [C.G. PMT 2005]
Q.76 Bulk of histone proteins synthesized in -
(1) First prophase
[Jharkhand 2006]
(2) First anaphase
(1) G1-phase (2) G2-phase
(3) Second metaphase
(3) S-phase (4) G0-phase
(4) Second anaphase
Q.77 Choose the incorrect match -
Q.68 Which one of the following is not found in animal
cell - [C.G. PMT 2005] [Jharkhand 2006]

(1) Nucleus (2) Golgi bodies (1) Nucleus : RNA

(3) Chloroplast (4) Mitochondria (2) Lysosome : protein synthesis

Q.69 Unit membrane consists of - (3) Mitochondria : respiration

[C.G. PMT 2005] (4) Cytoskeleton : microtubules

(1) Lipid + Sugar + Lipid Q.78 Rough endoplasic reticulum is associated with
- [Jharkhand 2006]
(2) Protein + Lipid + Protein
(1) fat synthesis (2) steroid synthesis
(3) Lipid + Protein + Lipid
(3) protein synthesis (4) all of these
(4) Protein

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Q.79 Resolving power of electron microscope is - Q.88 Movement against concentration gradient is
[Jharkhand 2006] called - [Bihar 2005]
(1) 1  (2) 10 Å (1) Osmosis (2) Active transport
(3) 100 Å (4) 1000 Å (3) Diffusion (4) Passive transport
Q.80 Number of Barr bodies in XXXXY is - Q.89 Synapsis occurs in ........ phase of meiosis -
[Jharkhand 2006] [Bihar 2005]

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (1) Zygotene (2) Diplotene

Q.81 The study related to the structure and function (3) Pachytene (4) Leptotene
of a cell is called as - [Jharkhand 2005] Q.90 Which one is present in both prokaryotic and
(1) Physiology (2) Cell biology eukaryotic cell - [Bihar 2004]
(3) Histology (4) Cytology (1) Ribosome (2) Mitochondria
Q.82 The longest phase of meiosis (I) is - (3) ER (4) Nucleus
[Jharkhand 2005] Q.91 Centromere is also called - [Bihar 2003]
(1) metaphse I (2) prophase I (1) Chromomere
(3) anaphase I (4) telophase I (2) Secondary constriction
Q.83 Fluid mosaic model was given by - (3) Primary constriction
[Jharkhand 2006] (4) Chromonema
(1) Knoll and Ruska Q.92 In “singer and Nicolson” model of plasma
membrane, the extrinsic proteins are -
(2) Singer and Ruska
[Bihar 2002]
(3) Singer and Nicolson
(1) Tightly associated with intrinsic protein and
(4) Bateson and Punnet
can be easily separated
Q.84 Colchicine prevents the mitosis of cell at -
(2) Loosely associated with intrinsic protein
[Jharkhand 2006]
(3) Loosely associated with intrinsic protein and
(1) Prophase stage (2) Anaphase stage can be easily separated
(3) Telophase stage (4) Metaphase stage (4) Loosely associated with intrinsic protein and
Q.85 The number of DNA in chromosome at G2 can’t be easily separated
stage - [Jharkhand 2006] Q.93 Ribosomes are associated with -
(1) One (2) Two [Bihar 2002]
(3) Four (4) Eight (1) RNA synthesis
Q.86 The characteristic of blue-green algae is - (2) Protein synthesis
[Jharkhand 2006] (3) Enzyme mobilisation
(1) DNA without histone (4) DNA synthesis
(2) Nucleus absent Q.94 Which organelle is not found in an animal
(3) Nuclear membrane absent cell - [Bihar 2001]
(4) All of the above (1) Peroxysome (2) Ribosome
Q.87 Cell wall of a cell is removed, the remaining (3) Lysosome (4) None of these
is called - [Bihar 2005] Q.95 Actin fibre is present in - [Bihar 2001]
(1) Etioplast (2) Aleuroplast (1) Cilia (2) Flagella
(3) Amyloplast (4) Protoplast (3) Carbohydrates (4) Microfilaments

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Q.96 Meiosis can be observed in - Q.103 Lipid molecules in plasma membrane are
[Bihar 2006] arranged in which manner -
(1) Tapetal cells (2) Megaspores [UP CPMT 2003]
(3) Micropores (4) Spore mother cells (1) scattered (2) series
Q.97 Carrier proteins are involoved in - (3) alternate (4) head parallel
[Bihar 2006] Q.104 Structure of nuclear membrane helps in -
(1) Transport of enzymes [UP CPMT 2003]
(2) Water transport (1) organisation of the spindle
(3) Active transport of ions (2) synapsis of homologous chromosome
(4) Passive transport of gases (3) Nucleo-cytoplasmic exchange of material
Q.98 The recent model for plasma membrane proposed (4) anaphasic separation of daughter
by Singer and Nicolson is - [Bihar 2005] chromosome
(1) Molecular-lipid model Q.105 Hydrolytic enzymes are stored in -
(2) Lamellar model [UP CPMT 2003]

(3) Unit membrane model (1) Golgi bodies

(2) Lysosomes
(4) Fluid mosaic model
(3) Endoplasmic reticulum
Q.99 Significance of meiosis lies in -
(4) Mitochondria
[Bihar 2006]
Q.106 Ribosome may also called -
(1) Reduction of chromosome number to one half
[UP CPMT 2002]
(2) Maintaning constancy of chromosome number
(1) Microsome (2) Dictyosome
during sexual reproduction
(3) Ribonucleoprotein (4) Oxysomes
(3) Production of genetic variability
Q.107 Genes are present in - [UP CPMT 2003]
(4) All of the above
(1) Chromosomes (2) Lamellae
Q.100 Function of mitochondria is -
(3) Plasma membrane (4) Mesosomes
[UP CPMT 2002]
Q.108 The cromosome showing L-shaped structure
(1) Excretion by the presence of centromere is termed as
(2) Respiration - [MP PMT 2003]
(3) Digestion (1) Acentric (2) Metacentric
(4) Excretion and respiration (3) Sub-metacentric (4) Telocentric

Q.101 Term basal body is associated with development Q.109 Chromosomes can be seen best during -
of - [UP CPMT 2003] [MP PMT 2003]
(1) cilia and flagella (2) cell plate (1) Prophase (2) Metaphse
(3) phragmoplast (4) kinetochore (3) Anaphase (4) Telophase
Q.102 Golgi body originates form - Q.110 W hat will be the gametic chromosome
[UP CPMT 2003] number of a cell, if somatic cell have 40
chromosome - [MP PMT 2003]
(1) lysosome
(1) 10 (2) 20
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum
(3) 30 (4) 40
(3) mitochondria
(4) cell memrane

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Q.111 Who coined the term ‘cell’ - Q.120 To study the living cells without staining,
[MP PMT 2003] which of the following microscopes can be
(1) Purkinje (2) Robert Brown used ? [PB PMT 2002]
(3) Robert Hooke (4) Hugo von Mohl (1) SEM (2) Flourescent
Q.112 In which of the following stage chromosomes (3) Phase contrast (4) TEM
are arranged at equatorial plate - Q.121 Molecular biology is the study of :-
[MP PMT 2003]
[CET Chd. 2002]
(1) Anaphase (2) Metaphase
(1) Structure, function and cell reproduction
(3) Prophase (4) Telophase
(2) Physio-biochemiccal studies of biomolecules
Q.113 During mitosis number of chromosomes
gets - [MP PMT 2003] (3) studying tissues under microscope
(1) Change (4) metabolic activitity of life
(2) No change Q.122 The subcelluar components can be separated
(3) May be change if cell is mature by - [CMC Ludhiyann 2002,2003]
(4) May be change if cell is immature (1) Paper chormatography
Q.114 Chromosome having centromere in its middle (2) autoradiography
is - [MP PMT 2005]
(3) gel electrophoresis
(1) Acrocentric (2) Telocentric
(4) dif f erential and density gradient
(3) Metacentric (4) Submetacentric
centrifugation
Q.115 Single membrance bound is -
Q.123 The choromosome separation during
[MP PMT 2005]
metaphase can be best studies by -
(1) Lysosome (2) Plastid
[CET Chd. 2002,2003]
(3) Nucleus (4) Mitochondria
(1) phase contrast microscope
Q.116 W hich of the following do not possess
lipoproteinaceous membrane - (2) TEM
[MP PMT 2006] (3) X-ray technique
(1) Lysosomes (2) Lomasomes (4) Scannning electron microscope
(3) Ribosomes (4) Sphaerosomes Q.124 The techniqe chromatography was developed
Q.117 In meiosis chromosome number becomes - by - [BVP Pune 2002]
[MP PMT 2006] (1) Wilkins (2) Georgy Gey
(1) Half of its parent chromosome (3) Tswett (4) Zernicks
(2) Same as that of parent chromosome Q.125 Which of the following dye is used for staining
(3) One fourth of its parent chromosome cell organalle, mitochondria ?
(4) None of the above [PB PMT 2003]
Q.118 Centrosome is not present in -
(1) Janus Green (2) Saffranin
[MP PMT 2003]
(3) Azure B (4) Crystal violet
(1) Cells of higher plants
Q.126 In fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane -
(2) Cells of lower plants
(3) Cells of higher animals [CBSE - 2002]
(4) Cells of lower animals (1) Upper layer is non-polar and hydrophilic
Q.119 Site of protein synthesis is - (2) Polar layer is hydrophobic
[MP PMT 2005] (3) Phospholipids form a bimolecular layer
in middle part
(1) Ribosome (2) SER
(4) Proteins form a middle layer
(3) Golgi bodies (4) Lysosome

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Q.127 According to widely accepted ‘‘fluid mosaic Q.132 Polysome is formed by - [CBSE - 2008]
model’’ cell membranes are semi-fluid, where (1) A ribsome with several subunits
lipids and integral proteins can diffuse (2) Ribosomes attached to each other in a
randomly. In recent years, this model has linear arangement
been modified in several respects. In this
(3) Several ribsomes attached to a single
regard, which of the following statements is mRNA
incorrect - [CBSE - 2005]
(4) Many ribsonmes attached to a strand of
(1) Proteins can also undergo f lip-f lop endoplasmic reticulum
movements in the lipid bilayer
Q.133 Vacuole in a plant cell -[CBSE - 2008]
(2) Many proteins remain completely
(1) Lack membrane and contains air
embeded within the lipid bilayer
(2) Lacks membrane and contains water and
(3) Proteins in cell membranes can travel excretory substances
within the lipid bilayer
(3) Is membrane-bound and contains stroage
(4) Proteins can remain confined within protein and lipids
certain domains of the membranes
(4) Is membrane-bound and contains water
Q.128 W hich one of the f ollowing is not a and excretory substances
constituents of cell membrane - Q.134 In germinating seeds fatty acids are degraded
[CBSE - 2007] exclusively in the - [CBSE - 2008]
(1) Cholesterol (2) Glycolipids (1) Peroxisomes (2) Mitochondria
(3) Proline (4) Phospholipids (3) Proplastids (4) Glyoxysomes
Q.129 The main organelle involved in modification Q.135 Keeping in view the fluid mosaic model for
and routing of newly synthesized proteins to the structure of cell membrane, which one of
their destinations is - [CBSE - 2005] the following statements is correct with
respect to the movment of lipids and proteins
(1) Endoplasmic Reticulum from one lipid monolayer to the other
(2) Lysosome (described as flipflop movement)?
(3) Mitochondria [CBSE - 2008]
(4) Chloroplast (1) While proteins can flip-flop, lipids can not
Q.130 Chlorophyll in chloroplasts is located in - (2) Neither lipids, nor proteins can flip-flop
[CBSE - 2005] (3) Both lipids and proteins can flip-flop
(1) Grana (4) While lipids can rarely flip-flop, proteins
can not
(2) Pyrenoid
Q.136 Three of the following satements regarding
(3) Stroma cell organelles are correct while one is wrong.
(4) Both grana and stroma Which one is wrong - [AIMS- 2005]
Q.131 Which of the following statements regarding (1) Lysomes are double membraned vesicles
mitochondrial membrane is not correct ? budded off form golgi appratus and
contain digestive enzymes
[CBSE - 2006]
(2) Endoplasmic reticulum consists of a
(1) The outer membrane resembles a sieve network of membranous tubules and
(2) The outer membrane is permeable to all helps in transport, sytehsis and secretion
kinds of molecules. (3) Leucoplasts are bound by two
(3) The enzymes of the electron transfer membranes lack pigment but contain
chain are embedded in the outer their own DNA and protein synthesizing
membrane. machinery
(4) The inner membrane is highly convoluted (4) Spharosomes are single membrane
forming a series of infoldings bonds and are associated with synthesis
and storage of lipids

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Q.137 In which one of the following would you expect Q.142 If you are provided with root-tips of onion in
to find glyoxysomes - [AIMS- 2005] your class and are asked to count the
(1) Endosperm of wheat chromosomes which of the following stages
can your most convnintly look into -
(2) Endosperm of castor
[CBSE- 2004]
(3) Palisade cells in leaf
(1) Telophase (2) Anaphase
(4) Root hairs
(3) Prophase (4) Metaphase
Q.138 Which of the following statements regarding
Q.143 Protein synthesis in an animal cell occurs-
cilia is not correct - [CBSE- 2006]
[CBSE- 2005]
(1) Cilia contain an outer of nine doublet
microtubules surrounding two single (1) On ribosomes present in cytoplasm as
microtubules well as in mitochondria
(2) On ribosomes present in the nucleolus
(2) The organized beating of cilia is
as well as in cytoplasm
controlled by fluxes of Ca2+ across the
membrane (3) Only on ribosomes attached to the
nulecar envelope and endoplasmic
(3) Cilia are hair-like cellular appendages.
reticulum
(4) Microtubules of cilia are composed of
(4) Only on the ribosomes present in cytosol
tubulin
Q.144 Telomerase is an enzyme which is a -
Q.139 The contractile protein of skeletal muscle
involving ATPase activity is - [CBSE- 2006] [CBSE- 2005]
(1) RNA (2) Ribonucleoprotein
(1) -Actinin (2) Troponin
(3) Repetitive DNA (4) Simple protein
(3) Tropomyosin (4) Myosin
Q.145 The length of DNA moelcule greatly exceeds
Q.140 Select the wrong statement from the following-
the dimensions of the nucleus in eukaryotic
[CBSE- 2007] cells. How is the DNA accomodated ?
(1) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria [CBSE- 2007]
contain an inner and outer membrane (1) Deletion of non-essential genes
(2) Both chloroplast and mitochondria have (2) Supper-coiling in nucleosomes
an internal compartment, the thylakoid
(3) DNase digestion
space bounded by the thylakoid
membrane. (4) Through elimination of repetitive DNA
Q.146 Which one of the following proceeds re-formation
(3) Both chloroplasts and mitochondria
of the nuclear envelope during M phase of the
contain DNA
cell cycle - [CBSE 2004]
(4) The chloroplasts are generally much
(1) Transcription from chromosomes and
larger than mitochondria
reassembly of the of the nuclear lamina
Q.141 The telomeres of euaryotic chromosomes
(2) Formation of the contractile ring and formation
consists of short sequences of -[CBSE- 2004] of the phragmoplast
(1) Cytosine rich repeats (3) Formation of the contractile ring and
(2) Adenine rich repeats transcription from chromosome
(3) Guanine rich repeats (4) Decondensation from chromosomes and
reassembly of the nuclear lamina
(4) Thymine rich repeats

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Q.147 Crossing ov er that results in genetic Q.153 Plasmodesmata are - [CBSE 2009]
recombination in higher organisms occurs (1) Connections between adjacent cells
between - [CBSE 2004] (2) Lignified cemented layers between cells
(1) Non-sister chromatids of a bivalent (3) Locomotary structures
(2) Two daughter nuclei (4) Membranes connecting the nucleus with
(3) Two different bivalents plasmalemma

(4) Sister chromatids of a bivalents Q.154 Synapsis occurs between - [CBSE 2009]

Q.148 In the somatic cell cycle - (1) Two homologous chromosomes

(2) A male and a female gamete
[CBSE 2004]
(3) mRNA and ribosomes
(1) DNA replication takes place in S-phase
(4) Spindle fibres and centromere
(2) A short interphase is followed by a long
mitotic phase Q.155 Middle lamella is composed mainly of -
[CBSE 2009]
(3) G2 phase follows mitotic phase
(1) Phosphoglycerides
(4) In G1 phase DNA content is double the
amount of DNA present in the orginal cell (2) Hemicellulose

Q.149 When synapsis is complete all along the (3) Muramic acid
chromosome, the cell is said to have entered (4) Calcium pectate
a stage called - [CBSE 2004] Q.156 Cytoskeleton is made up of - [CBSE 2009]
(1) Zygotene (2) Pachytene (1) Proteinaceous filaments
(3) Diplotene (4) Diakinesis (2) Calcium carbonate granules
Q.150 Many cells function properly and divide mitotically (3) Callose deposits
though they do not have - [AIIMS 2005] (4) Cellulosic microfibrils
(1) Plasma membrane (2) Cytoskeleton Q.157 The cell junctions called tight, adhering and
(3) Mitochondria (4) Plastids gap junctions are found in - [CBSE 2009]

Q.151 Centromere is required for - (1) Neural tissue

(2) Muscular tissue
[AIIMS 2005]
(3) Connective tissue
(1) Movement of chromosomes towards poles
(4) Epithelial tissue
(2) Cytoplasmic cleavage
Q.158 Given below is a schematic break-up of the
(3) Crossing over
phases/stages of cell cycle - [CBSE 2009]
(4) Transcription
Q.152 At what stage of the cell cycle are histone
proteins synthesized in a eukaryotic cell -
[CBSE 2005]
(1) During telophase
(2) During S-phase
(3) During G2-stage of prophase
(4) During entire prophase

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Which one of the following is the correct indication Q.163 Which stages of cell division do the following
of the state/phase in the cell cycle - figures A and B represent respectively ?
(1) A - Cytokinesis (2) B - Metaphse [CBSE 2010]
(3) C - Karyokinesis (4) D - Synthetic phase
Q.159 There is no DNA in - [CBSE 2009]
(1) Hair root
(2) An enucleated ovum
(3) Mature RBCs
(4) A mature spermatozoan
(1) Metaphse - Telophase
Q.160 A student wishes to study the cell structure
under a light microscope having 10X eye (2) Telophase - Metaphse
piece and 45X objective. He should illuminate (3) Late Anaphase - Prophase
the object by which one of the follwoing (4) Prophase - Anaphase
colours of light so as to get the best possible
Q.164 The main area of variuos types of activites of a
resolution ? [CBSE 2005]
cell is – [CBSE 2010]
(1) Yellow (2) Grren
(1) Plasma membrane (2) Mitochondrian
(3) Red (4) Blue
(3) Cytoplasm (4) Nucleus
Q.161 A major breakthrough in the studies of cell
Q.165 Carrier ions like Na+ facilitate the absorption of
came with the development of electron
substances like – [CBSE 2010]
microscope. This is because [CBSE 2006]
(1) amino acids and glucose
(1) electron beam can pass through thick
mater als, whereas light microscopy (2) glucose and fatty acids
requires thin section. (3) fatty acids and glycerol
(2) the electron microscope is more powerful (4) fructose and some amino acids
than the light microscope as it uses a
Q.166 The plasma membrane consists mainly of –
beam of electrons which has wavelength
[CBSE 2010]
much loger than that of photons
(3) the resolution power of the electron (1) phospholipids embedded in a protein bilayer
microscope is much higher than that of (2) proteins embedded in a phospholipid bilayer
the light microscope (3) proteins embedded in a polymer of glucose
(4) the resolving power of the electron molecules
microscope is 200-350 nm as compared (4) proteins embedded in a carbohydrate bilayer
to 0.1-0.2 nm for the light microscope Q.167 An elaborate network of f ilamentous
Q.162 During mitosis ER and nucleolus begin to dis- proteinaceous structures present in the
appear at – [CBSE 2010] cytoplasm which helps in the maintenance of
cell shape is called - [AIPMT MAINS 2010]
(1) Late prophase
(1) Endosplasmic Reticulum
(2) Early metaphase
(2) Plasmalemma
(3) Late metaphase
(3) Cytoskeleton
(4) Early prophase
(4) Thylakoid

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Q.168 Identify the components labelled A, B, C and D Q.172 Important site for formation of glycoproteins and
in the diagram below from the list (i) to (viii) given glycolipids is : [AIPMT Pre- 2011]
along with – [AIPMT MAINS 2010] (1) Lysosome (2) Vacuole
(3) Golgi apparatus (4) Plastid
Q.173 Peptide synthesis inside a cell takes place in :
[AIPMT Pre- 2011]
(1) Ribosomes (2) Chloroplast
(3) Mitochondria (4) Chromoplast
Q.174 In land plants, the guard cells differ from other
epidermal cells in having : [AIPMT Pre- 2011]
(1) Chloroplasts
(2) Cytoskeleton
Components : (3) Mitochondria
(i) Cristae of mitochondria (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
(ii) Inner membrane of mitochondria Q.175 What would be the number of chromosomes of
(iii) Cytoplasm the aleurone cells of a plant with 42 chromo-
(iv) Smooth endoplasmic reticulum somes in its root tip cells ?
(v) Rough endoplasmic reticulum [AIPMT Pre- 2011]
(1) 21 (2) 42 (3) 63 (4) 84
(vi) Mitochondrial matrix
(vii) Cell vacuole Q.176 At metaphase, chromosomes are attached to
(viii) Nucleus the spindle fibres by their : [AIPMT Mains- 2011]
(1) Centromere
The correct components are :
(2) Satellites
A B C D (3) Secondary constrictions
(1) (i) (iv) (viii) (vi) (4) Kinetochores
(2) (vi) (v) (iv) (vii) Q.177 Which one of the following is not considered as
(3) (v) (i) (iii) (ii) a part of the endomembrane system ?
(4) (v) (iv) (viii) (iii) [AIPMT Mains- 2011]
(1) Lysosome (2) Golgi complex
Q.169 In eubacteria, a cellular component that re- (3) Peroxisome (4) Vacuole
sembles eukaryotic cell is :[AIPMT Pre- 2011] Q.178 The figure below shows the structure of a mito-
(1) Cell wall (2) Plasma membrane chondrion with its four parts labelled (A), (B),
(3) Nucleus (4) Ribosomes (C). and (D) Select the part correctly matched
Q.170 Which one of the following organisms is not an with its function. – [AIPMT Mains- 2011]
example of eukaryotic cells ?[AIPMT Pre- 2011]
(1) Amoeba proteus
(2) Paramccium caudatum
(3) Escheria coli
(4) Euglena viridis
Q.171 Select the correct opition with respect to
mitosis. [AIPMT Pre- 2011]
(1) Chromosomes move to the spindle equator (1) Part (A) : Matrix – major site for respiratory
and get aligned along equatorial plate in chain enzymes
metaphase (2) Part (D) : Outer membrane – gives rise to
(2) Chromatids separate but remain in the cen- inner membrane by splitting
tre of the cell in anaphase
(3) Part (B) : Inner membrane – forms infoldings
(3) Chromatids start moving towards opposite
called cristae
poles in telophase
(4) Golgi complex and endoplasmic reticulum (4) Part (C) : Cristae – possess single circular
are still visible at the end of prophase DNA molecule and ribosome

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ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE-II
Ques. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. 2 2 1 3 2 4 4 1 4 2 3 2 1 1 1 3 4 2 1 1
Ques. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. 1 1 3 3 4 1 3 3 4 1 1 1 3 1 2 2 4 4 2 4
Ques. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. 2 2 2 1 1 2 4 2 3 2 2 4 2 3 4 3 3 3 3 1
Ques. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. 2 3 2 2 1 1 4 3 2 1 2 3 1 1 2 3 2 3 2 3
Ques. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. 2 2 3 4 2 4 4 2 1 1 3 3 2 4 4 4 3 4 4 2
Ques. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. 1 2 4 3 2 3 1 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 1 3 1 1 1 3
Ques. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
Ans. 2 4 1 3 1 3 1 3 1 1 3 3 4 4 4 1 2 2 4 2
Ques. 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160
Ans. 3 4 1 1 2 2 1 1 2 4 1 2 1 1 4 1 4 4 3 3
Ques. 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178
Ans. 3 1 3 3 4 2 3 4 2 3 1 3 1 1 3 4 3 3

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EXERCISE-III
Following question given below consist of Q.4 Assertion : Janus green B is a vital stain for
Assertion and Reason. Use the following Key locating mitochondria.
to choose the appropriate answer. Reason : Janus green i s oxi dised by
(A) If both Assertion and Reason are true, and cytochrome a2 present in mitochondria.
Statement-II is the correct explanation of
Statement-I.
Q.5 Assertion : Lysosomes help in digestion of
(B) If both Assertion and Reason are true but foreign particles in the animal cells.
Statement-II is not the correct explanation
Reason : They have respiratory enzymes.
of Statement-I.
(C) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
Q.6 Assertion : Endomitosis does not cause
(D) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
karyokinesis or cytokinesis.
Statement-II In endomitosis, mitosis occurs
Q.1 Assertion : RBC membrane is highly within nucleus.
flexible.
Reason : Amount of external protein in
Q.7 Assertion : Synaptonemal complex develops
cytoplasmic face of membrane is more.
between two synapsed homologous chromosomes.
Reason : Mitosis cannot be completed without
Q.2 Assertion : Lampbrush chromosomes shows the synaptonemal complex.
transcripitionally active loops.
Reason : Informosomes can be used in future
Q.8 Assertion : During anaphase-II, chormatids of
for embryo development.
a chromosomes separate.
Reason : Centromere of a mitotic chromosome
Q.3 Assertion : Centriole does not form any divides during anaphase.
compartment in a cell.
Reason : Centriole is a non-membranous cell
Q.9 Assertion : Dictyotene stage restriction occurs
organelle.
in female only.
Reason : Gemetogenesis rests for a long period
at diplotene stage in female.

ANSWER KEY
EXERCISE-III
Que s. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9
Ans. 1 2 1 1 3 1 3 2 1

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