I India n Natio nal .Junio r Scien ce Olym piad (IN.

JS O) - 2025
India n Assoc iation of Physi cs Teach ers (IAPT )

QUESTION PAPER
Roll Numbe r: lc2 ls lo IAl-(3 lo lo lo 1-1°1~,7 f(, I Date: 2 nd February 2025

Duration: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 180

Please Note:

1) Please write your roll number in the space provided above.

2) Use of non-programmable scientific calculators is allowed.
3) The answer -sheet must be return ed to the invigil ator. You can carry
this question paper with you.
4) Section I of this question paper has 15 questions (45 marks).
i. For each question in this section, only one of the four options is a correct
answer.
11. For each question, a correct answer will earn 3 marks, a wrong answer will
earn (-1) mark, and an un-attempted question will earn O marks.
111. If you mark more than one option, it would be treated as a wrong answer.
5) Section II contains 9 questions worth 5 marks each. There is no negative
marking (45 marks).

' 1v. For each of these questions one or more option(s) may be correct.
v. You will get full credit for each question only if you mark all correct options
and no wrong option. There are no partial marks for· these 9 quest~ons.
6) Section III contains 8 questions (90 marks).
v1. For all the questions in this section, the process involved in arriving at the
solution is as importa nt as the final answer. Valid assumpt ions /
approximations are perfectly acceptable. Please write your method clearly,
explicitly stating all the reasonings/ assump tions I approxi mations .
vii. In case you fall short of writing space for any question, you can ask for an extra
sheet. You can ask for maximum of two extra sheets.

Happy Solving

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USEFUL CONSTANTS
2
Gravitational constant G ~ 6.674 x 10- 11 N m2/kg

Gravitational acceleration g ~ 9.8 m/s 2

Mass of electron me ~ 9 .109 x 1o-31 kg

Charge of an electron e ~ 1.602 x 10- 19 C

Avogadro constant NA ~ 6.022 x 1023/mol

Specific heat capacity of water s = 4.2 JI (g 0 c)

Density of water Pw = 103 kg/m3

Universal gas constant R ~ 8.314 J / (mol K) and 0.0821 L.atm/mol.K

Atmospheric pressure 1 atm ~ 101 325 Pa

Molar volume of gas at STP VsrP ~ 22.4 L

STP 273 K and 1 atm

Molar volume of gas at 1 atm and 100 °C Vioo ~ 30.6 L

Permitivity of free space Eo ~ 8.854 X 10- 12 c2 N- 1m-2

Radius of the Earth R$ ~ 6400 km

Radius of the Moon Rmoon ~ 1700 km

Element Atomic Atomic Element Atomic Atomic

Number Mass Number Mass

H 1 1.0 Cl 17 35.5
C 6 12.0 K 19 39.0
N 7 14.0 Ca 20 40.0

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0 8 16.0 Fe 26 56.0
Na 11 23.0 Zn 30 65.4
Al 13 27.0 Ag 47 107.9
s 16 32.0 Au 79 197.0

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 Section I
(Only one of the four options is correct)

1) An unusual and fatal neurological disease was observed in a sheeJLberd. Treatment with a
broad-spectrum antihlotic proved ineffective. Upon autopsy~ veterinarians discovered
extensive damage and deformity in the brain tissue. Noting similarities to mad cow disease,
they sought to confirm their hypothesis by processing the damaged tissue. The tissue was
sectioned, blended in a mixer, and filtered through a 0.2 µm sieve. The resulting filtrate was
then divided into three fractions for further testing under different treatments:
Fraction X: Exposed to 90°C for 20 minutes.
Fraction Y: Treated with high concentration of sodium hypochlorite for 60 minutes.
Fraction Z: Treated with highly active nuclease for 20 minutes at 25°C.

If these fractions are injected into healthy individual sheep, which of these fractions will
cause same disease in sheep?
A) Only fraction X
B) Only fraction Y
C) Fractions Y and Z
D) Fractions X and Z

2) A farmer in Udupi, a town in North costal Kamataka, decided to boost her income by
planting popular fruit trees like Alphonso mangoes and Kashrniri apples in her very own
optimised greenhouse facility. She purchased fresh fruits from organic farms of Goa and
Kashmir, respectively. The seeds were removed and sowed in appropriate soil conditions
and waited for them to germinate. Seeds of mango germinated easily whereas apple seeds
remained intact and unsprouted. What is the likely reason for lack of germination from the
apple seeds?

A) The warm temperature but not humidity was required to break dormancy of apple
seeds.
B) Seeds needed cold period to break its dormancy.
C) Seeds came from a farm in a colder region rather than a warmer region.
D) Apple seeds have amygdalin, which upon metabolism releases cyanide, deters
breaking of dormancy.

3) Two hundred years ago, Assam (India) had a large population of migratory stork birds.
During that time, infections caused by the West Nile Virus (WNV 1 serotype) resulted in a
mortality rate of only 10%. However, in the early 1900s, widespread superstitious beliefs
and habitat destruction led to the mass killing of storks and the destruc,ion of their nests,
causing a drastic decline in their population. Thanks to decades of conservation efforts and
increased awareness, the stork population has rebounded to a significant size. However, a
recent outbreak of WNV 1 has shown a 40% mortality rate among the birds. Which of the
following option rightly explains the higher mortality rate?

A) Natural selection
B) Chance event
C) Genetic drift
D) Migratory effect

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4) Identify the components of the freshly fertilised egg and select_the right labelling options •

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1
2

A) 1) Zona pellucida; 2) Polar body; 3) Pronucleus; 4) Sperm

B) 1) Pronucleus; 2) Polar body; 3) Zona pellucida; 4) Sperm
C) 1) Zona pellucida; 2) Sperm; 3) Polar body; 4) Zona pellucida
D) 1) Sperm; 2) Pronucleus; 3) Polar body; 4) Zona pellucida

5) The following property of nucleic acid is most relevant for its ability to function as genetic
material when compared to a protein.

A) Complementary base pairing.

B) Having a high density of negative charge enables them to form chromatins.
C) Having 4 (bases) instead of 20 (amino acids) in numbers.
D) Creates maximum structural diversity.

6) In his examination, Aryan writes differences between voltaic cell and electrolytic cell. But
he did not get full marks in this answer as he wrongly placed his statements in wrong
column. Find ALL INCORRECT difference(s) from his answer given below:

Differences Voltaic cell Electrolytic cell

(i) Anode is the positive electrode, Anode is the negative electrode, and
and cathode is the negative cathode is the positive electrode.
electrode.

(ii) The current flows in the cell The current flows in the cell from
from negative to positive positive to negative electrode.
electrode.

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/ (iii) A spontaneous chemical A non-spontaneous chemical reaction
reaction occurs in the cell to takes place in the cell.
produce electricity.

(iv) The external battery drives the The electrons flow from anode to
electrons that flow through cathode through the external circuit.
cathode to anode.

(v) Oxidation takes place at Oxidation takes place at negative

positive electrode. electrode.

(vi) Reduction takes place at Reduction takes place at negative

positive electrode. electrode.
(vii) Discharge of ions occur at both Discharge of ions occur only at
electrodes. cathode.

A) (vii)
B) (i), (iv), (v)
C) (iv), (vii)
D) (i), (iv), (v), (vii)

7) In the following graph, ionization enthalpies of successive elements in the periodic table are
plotted against number of successive removal of electrons. Analyse the graph and predict
the elements from the graph.

8000 ---- --- -----------------·····--·-- - ·,·-····-·-···---------

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NUMBER OF SUCCSESSIVE REMOVAL OF'ELECTRONS

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 A) (i)- N, (ii) - 0, (iii) - C, (iv) - B
B) (i)- N, (ii) - C, (iii) - Be, (iv) - B
C) (i)- Ne, (ii) - Mg, (iii) - F, (iv) - Na
D) (i)- P, (ii) - S, (iii) - Si, (iv) -Al
8) In the Haber process, 60 litres of hydrogen gas and 20
litres of nitrogen gas were taken for
reaction which yielded only 25% of the expected produ
ct due to malfunctioning of the
production unit. What is the mole fraction of ammonia in the
mixture and what is the volume
of ammonia extracted from the mixture at the same pressu
re ?
A) 0.33, 40L
B) 0.14, 20L
C) 0.14, l0L
D) 0.33, l0L

9) Given below are the boiling points of hydrocarbons

containing 6 carbons. Choose the
correct statement based on the data given.

neohexane 2,3-dimethlybutane isohexane n-hexane cyclohexane

so c
0
ss c
0
60°C 69°C 81°C

A) Cyclohexane has a higher boiling point than n-hexane

because cyclohexane has a
higher molecular weight than n-hexane.
B) n-hexane has a higher boiling point than isohexane,
because n-hexane is a linear
molecule and has lesser intermolecular Van der Waal 's intera
ction than isohexane.
C) Replacing a carbon in any of the above given 6-carbon
compounds with an oxygen,
result in a molecule whose boiling point will be higher than
the parent compound.
D) Fractional distillation is an efficient way to separate
every hydrocarbon from each
other from a mixture that contains equal amounts of all these
compounds.
10) During the Second World War, engineers developed
rocket-powered aircraft. The aircraft
carried these two liquids: hydrazine (N2H4) and hydrogen
peroxide, (H2O2). When these
two liquids mix in the combustion chamber,
they evaporate and then
react rapidly to form nitrogen gas and steam. The equation
for the reaction is
N2H4 + 2H2O2---+ N2 + 4H2O

Bond dissociation energy (BDE) is the amount of energ

y required to break a specific
chemical bond in a molecule in its gaseous state.

BOND BOND DISSOCIATION ENERGY in kJ/mol

N=N 945
N-N 159
N-H 391
O-O 143
O-H 463

Use the data given in the table above to calculate the total
amount of energy released or
absorbed by the chemical process.

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 i
A) Absorbs 788 kJ/mol
B) Releases 788 kJ/mol
C) Absorbs 2640 kJ/mol
D) Releases 2640 kJ/mol

11) The shadow of a plank of length L is formed on the floor due to a point source, as shown
in the figure. If the source comes down by 20% of the present vertical length (2L) from the
plank, find the percentage change in the length of the shadow formed at the previous level.

source
t
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L

L I
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A)25%
B) 6.33%
C) 8.33%
0)21%
A
12) A portion of an electrical network is shown in the adjacent
figure. Electrostatic potential of terminals A and B are
VA = 150 V and V8 . = 40 V respectively, the terminal C is
open. Read the following statements:

Statement S1: If the terminal C is at potential Ve= 30 V, the

current passing through 2 0 n r~sistor will be 3 A.
Statement S2: If terminal C is connected to the ground (i.e.
Ve = 0 V), no current will flow through the 50 n resistor.
Statement S3: If terminal C is connected to terminal A, the
electric power dissipated in the 30 n resistor will be about
15. l W. B C
Now, choose the correct option.

A) Statements S1, S2 and S3 are incorrect.

B) Statements S1 and S3 are correct, and S2 is incorrect.
C) Statements S2 and S3 are correct, and SI is incorrect.
D) All the statements S1, S2 and S3 are correct.

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13) A beaker partly filled with a liquid of density 1.2 g cm-3 is ~laced on a digital bal_ance, and
the reading is 440 g. A metal piece is tied at the end of a stnng, and the free end ts held by
hand. The metal piece is now completely immersed in the liquid without touching any side
\ or bottom of the beaker. The reading in the digital balance has now become 500 g. The
I string is cutoff, and the metal-piece is dropped into the liquid without spilling water. It gets
completely immersed in the liquid, rests at the bottom, and the reading becomes 680 g.
l\ The density of the metal is

A) 5200 kg m-3
B) 4800 kg m-3
C) 4000 kg m- 3
D) 6000 kg m-3

14) A small block B of mass 0.6 kg starts moving on a rough horizontal surface with an initial
velocity of 6.0 m s- 1. The coefficient of friction between the block and surface, µ = 0.1.
frictional force on the block is expressed as
f = µ x Normal force between the block and surface.
After travelling through a distance of 10.2 m on the rough horizontal surface, block B
collides with a plate P of mass 0.4 kg connected to the free end of an elastic massless spring
of the force constant k = 400 N m- 1 . The other end of the spring is attached to a rigid
support S. After collision, block B and plate P stick together and move on a perfectly
smooth surface ahead to compress the spring. •
Assume that the spring obeys Hooke's law during compression. There is no frictional force
on the block during the collision and thereafter. You may neglect the size of the block B
and plate P for calculation.

B 000006(

µ
Statement 1: The velocity of block B just before the collision is close to 4.0 m s- 1.
Statement 2: Maximum compression produced in the spring is 12 cm.
Statement 3: Work done by the friction on the block during the entire motion is close to
-6.0 J.
Choose the correct option.
A) Statements 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
B) Statements 1 and 3 alone are correct.
C) Statements 1 and 2 alone are correct.
D) Statements 2 and 3 alone are correct.

8/22

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15) AB is a section of a long conductor

carrying constant current (indicated by the P
/We st
arrow) placed along the north-south 1 \
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direction, as shown in the figure. P, Q, R I \s/
B
and S are four points around the conductor south ~ <r
near the centre and close to the conductor A -• 7 I • North
as shown in the figure. A small magnetic " \ I
compass can be placed horizontally at East ~ \ /
point P and Q. At point R and S, the plane -;
of compass is placed vertically (axis along
East-West). The magnetic needle is free to
rotate in the plane of the compass, and its mass is negligible. The direction of the north
pole of the compass deflects in the direction of the resultant magnetic field at that point.
Choose the correct statement.

A) At point Q, the North pole of the compass will deflect towards the East.
B) At point P, the North pole of the compass will deflect towards the East.
C) At point R, the North pole of the compass will deflect vertically down.
D) At point S, the North pole of the compass will not deflect.

Section II
(One or more than one option(s) may be correct)
16) Scientists have discovered that the desert moss Syntrichia caninervis, found in Antarctica,
can survive extreme ~artian conditions. Known for its resilience to drought, furthes
research shows it can withstand temperatures as low as - l 96°C., lg_w oxygen (95% CO2),
and tolerate high levels of gamma radiation, making it a strong candidate for colonizing
Mars. Researchers suggest it could play a crucial role in building biologically sustainable
lia6Itats • for humans on other planets. Which of the following properties makes S.
caninervis a potential candidate for colonizing Mars?

A) Cellular activities generate water as a net by-product.

B) High reproductive rate as an advantageous trait.
C) Sexual reproduction.
D) Low nutrient requirements.

17) Bacterial transformation is process where a bacterial cell takes up DNA from its
environment. Gram-positive bacteria have this as an inherent property, but Gram-negative
bacteria do require assistance. A student is tasked to perform bacterial transformation of
an Escherichia coli strain with a suitable expression plasmid that allows the student to
select the transformed cells having ampicillin resistance. The resistance to ampicillin was
due to its degradation by the encoded protein that is secreted outside the cell. After
transformation procedure, the bacterial cells were spread on plate containing ampicillin
and incubated for 12 and 24 hr at 37°C. Parallelly, two more spread plates were done. One,
to be sure of quality of antibiotic, bacterial cells alone were spread on plate with antibiotics.
Second,,,to be assured that the bacterial strain is viable, they were spread on another plate
without any antibiotics. These control plates were incubated as mentioned above.
The experimental observations are labelled as Plate 1, 2, 3a and 3b where the black dots
on the plate indicate growth of bacterial colonies. The proposed hypothesis that can

9/22

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potentially explain the observations are stated as the options below. Mark the statements
which is/are true. •

Plate 2 Pl■te 3 .,
Components Pl■te 1
106 106 106
Bacterial cells spread
lOOmg/ml Omg/ml 100 mg/ml
Plate with ampicillin
Ong 10 ng IOng
Plasmid DNA
12 hr 12 hr Plate 3■: 12 hr ( Plate 3b: 24 hr
Incubation time

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A) Instead of ampicillin, if a monobactam was used (both belong to same family of

classification), a similar profile is expected to be observed.
B) The formation of big and small colonies as observed in Plate 3b results from fast
growing and slow-growing transformants, usually observed after longer periods of
incubation. .
C) If Plate 1 was incubated further for 24 hrs, some small colonies would have appeared
like in Plate 3b.
D) In Plate 3b, longer incubation led to ampicillin depletion around the transformant
colonises and that allowed a few non-transformed cells to grow around as tiny
colonies.

18) Imagine a fascinating scenario where a fertilized frog egg begins its journey of
development. This zygote has now undergone its· very first division, resulting in two
identical cells that together hold the potential to create a complete organism. This is a
crucial phase in the early development of the frog embryo, where each of these two cells
is identical in appearance. A scientist thought what would happen if one of the cells is
pricked with a hot needle, without damaging the other cell?
Mark the statements which is/are true.
Hot needle

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Cleavage

Fertilized frog egg 2-Cell stage

A) The other cell develops into half embryo but then doesn't survive.
B) The other cell develops into complete embryo.
C) The other cell develops into a mature frog of half the natural size.
D) The pricked cell does not contribute to the development of embryo.

10/22
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19) In the final examination of Class X, a chemistry teacher asked her students to make
different solutions of acid and alkali. The students prepared different mixtures according
to the table given below. Each student ultimately mixed the solutions that they prepared
into one flask.

HClcaq) solution H2SO4(aq) solution NaOH(aq) solution Pure

Student (mL) (mL) (mL) water

0.1 M 0.2M 0.5M 0.1 M 0.2M 0.5 M 0.1 M 0.2M 0.5 M (mL)

u - 20 - 25 - - - - 20 35

V 50 - - - - 10 - 25 - 15

w 25 - - - 25 - - - 25 25

X - 20 - - 20 - 20 - - 40

y - - 14 35 - - - - 8 43

z - - 20 - 15 • - - 30 - 35

After the tnixing activity, which set of the students got a solution of approximately pH = I ?
A) U, W, X
B) V, X, Z
C) U, W, Y
D) V, Y, Z

20) Electron gain enthalpy is the energy change that occurs when an isolated gaseous atom
gains an electron to form a negatively charged ion. It reflects the tendency of an atom to
attract and bind an extra electron. Following experimental results are provided in the table
as shown below:
Process Electron gain enthalpy Process Electron gain
(kJmoI- 1) enthalpy (kJmoI- 1)

Ocg) + e- ➔ Ocg) -140 Scg) + e- -4 Scg) -200

Ocg) + e- -4 of~) +780 s(g) + e- -4 sf~) +640

Choose the correct statement(s):

A) First electron gain process is more favourable for sulphur than that of oxygen because
electron-electron repulsion is more in the valence shell of oxygen atom than that of
sulphur atom. ,
B) Second electron gain process is more favourable for oxygen than that of sulphur
because the size of 0 2- anion is less than the size of s2-.
C) O(g) + 2e- - 4 of~) process is more favourable than Scg) + 2e- - 4 Sl~) because the first
ionisation energy of neon is higher than the first ionisation energy of argon
D) In general, the second electron gain enthalpy is positive because a negatively charged
anion resists accepting an additional electron more than a neutral atom does.

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21) A salt mixture is made with 0.03 mole ~ach of iro? (II) oxala~e, iro~ (III~ ~xalate, iron (ll)
sulphite, iron (Ill) sulphite, iron (II) nitrate and iron (Ill) nitrate m ac1d1c medium. The
mixture is oxidised separately with potassium permanganate and potassium dichromate.
Find the CORRECT statement(s) relating to above oxidatiqn processes.
A) 33.53 g potassium dichromate is required for the oxidation process and two ions present
in the salt mixture will not participate in the oxidation process.
B) 27.95 g potassium dichromate is required for the oxidation process and three ions
present in the salt mixture will participate in the oxidation process.
C) 15.01 g potassium permanganate is required for the oxidation process and three ions
present in the salt mixture will participate in the oxidation process.
D) 18.02 g potassium permanganate is required for the oxidation process and two ions
present in the salt mixture will not participate in the oxidation process.
-
22) Four geometrical areas iri the shapes of a parallelogram, a rhombus, a right-angled
isosceles triangle and an equilateral triangle are taken. A point mass m is placed on the
comers of every area. A unit mass must be placed at a point within the boundary of each
of these areas so that it remains in equilibrium (masses interact gravitattonally). Ignore the
gravitational attraction due to the earth while working out this problem. Identify the correct
options.
A) If the unit mass is kept at the centroid of each geometrical areas, it will be in
equilibrium. •
B) In the parallelogram and in the rhombus, the unit mass will be in equilibrium if placed
at the intersection of their diagonals, and for equilibrium in the equilateral triangle, it
should be kept on its in-centre.
C) In the rhombus and the parallelogram, the unit mass must be kept on the respective
centroids, and in the equilateral triangle, the unit mass must be kept on its circumcentre.
D) There is no point inside the right-angled isosceles triangle for keeping this unit mass so
th~t it remains in equilibrium.

23) In the graph shown below, the time-acceleration of a particle that has started from an initial
velocity of 2 m s- 1 is given. Identify the correct options given below.

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A) The particle will have a displacement of 657 m at the end of 32 s.

B) The displacement of the particle cannot be determined using average acceleration as
the particle is not moving with constant acceleration.
C) The particle will have a velocity 41 m s· 1 after 32 s.
D) The velocity of the particle at the end of 32 s is 43 m s· 1.

24) On an experiment board, four R R

resistors, each of R = 100 n rated 25
W, are connected to a DC supply of the
emf equal to E volt and negligible R R
internal resistance, as shown in the
figure. A fuse wire of negligible E..I..
resistance has been connected for
protection. Choose the correct
option/options.
A) The maximum possible value of E that can be applied, keeping the components safe is
E = 125 V.
B) The maximum power that can be dissipated in all four resistors together is 62.5 W.
C) The current rating of fuse in the circuit is I max = 1 A.
D) The total power dissipated in all four resistors together when E = 50 Vis 10 W.

Section III

25) A decade ago, Suresh, ~ a , Guizar, David, Moriri,. Indali, and Udit were schoolmates
in ,Pelhi, united by tfieir shared passion for long-distance running. Moriri and Neema
hailed from the pighlands ofHimachal Pradesh and 6010acha) Pradesli, respectively, while
Indali and Guizar were born in ~oastal towns - Maogaluru and Vapi. Suresh, I Tdit, and
~ on the other hand, were born in the plains: ~hhattisgarh, Patna, and ~nanta2ur,
respectively.
Fast forward to present; now they are spread across various parts of India, each following
different career paths. Suresh now supervises operations at the Mumbai dockyard, while
Moriri works with an IT company in Bengalun,.-:.elndalh a sports representative for Indian
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llailways, continues her passion for athletics. Guizar leads a team in a textile industry, and
Udit is part of an R&D team in a biotech company in ljyderab!!_d. ~vid serves in the
:Indian-Army and is·currently stationed i n ~ , whileNeema is a science communicator
based in ..Bhopal
David planned for a hiking and trekking adventure to reunite with friends at Leh region
after 6 months during summer. All happily agreed upon and Neema reached a month ahead
via a roadway and took this opportunity to trek throughout Leh-Ladakh, interacting and
spreading awareness among locals on issues of global warming. (8 marks)

QI) During summer, rest others reached Leh by flight. Within a weeks' time some of them
started to have mild to severe headache. Write the name(s) of people who had
headache. (2 Marks)

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Q2) Write the names of people who are relatively having higher RB Cs in blood circulation
than their other friends? (2 l\larks)
Q3) If all of them start to trek within a weeks' time who all will be having higher lactic
acid production in muscles? (2 Marks)
Q4) Doctor said that these headaches are outcome of . To have relief
from this headache, locals suggested them to take ginger tea, which causes
- - - - - ~ · Fill in the blanks with appropriate reasons. (2 Marks)

26) There are four sub-questions. There is no negative marking for any sub-questions.
(22 marks)
Q 1) T~nspira tion takes place predominantly by st~ta. They are specialised apparatus
in e,Eidermis with a pore space surrounded by two specialised cells called guard cell,$.
These cells functio~ a~m!!!_ti~nsory.lly_d.rn.uJ.ic{.v.:abte. Environmental factors like)ight,
tmiperatu re, relative humidity, and intracellular CO2 are sensed by these guard'cel rs
• and response leads to qgeiiing and closing of stomata. Mark the statement below as
true and false with respect to stomatal movements. (6 marks)
A) Blue light activates proton pumps in guard cells. It will lead to ion uptake and water
influx, which opens the stomata.
B) During stress conditions levels of abscisic acid increases. It will ti:-igger opening of
stomata to allow CO2 intake to increase photosynthetic activity. •
C) To open stomata, guard cells reduce turgidity and shrink itself reversibly.
D) Proton pump present in membrane of guard cells facilitates potassium ion uptake.
E) Potassium ions movement play key role and are actively transported into the guard
cell during the opening and out during closing of stomata.
F) Low CO2 concentration in leaves triggers stomata! opening meeting the requirement
for photosynthesis

Q2) Graft is a widely used horticultural technique for plant propagation and development of
new plant varieties using two segments (Scion and Stock) of plants from two different
resources. (2 marks)

~
I
Scion

Stock-,

Arrange the statements given below that describes the sequential steps leading to a
successful graft formation.
A) Formation of plasmodesmata at the cell-cell interface between scion and stock.
B) Regeneration of the cortex and epidermis at the interface between scion and stocks.
C) Coordinated development of vascular tissues at the interface between scion and
stocks.

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~·
~

D) The ~ells at interface of scion and stock region go through a rapid phase of division
forming callus.

Q3) Medicinal plants generally exhibit their ·therapeutic properties through the secondary
metabolites. These are compounds that are produced by plants for various functions like
defence against pathogens and pests, attractants for pollinators, signalling etc.

Below is a list of some examples that are attributed to the functional effects of secondary
metabolites of various plants and their parts.

• Phenolics in the seeds consumed have antioxidant properties.

• European travellers to Asia and Africa were advised to take bark infusion water as a
precaution against malaria.
• Phytotoxic secretions from their roots are known to inhibit growth of other plants
around it.
• Oil extract of leaves is used traditionally for wound healing.
• The astringent effect of the seeds relieves tooth ache.
Match the secondary metabolites of Column A with the use (in Column B) and the plant
source (in Column C). (5 marks)

Column A Column B Column C

Secondary Metabolites Example Plant Source
1. Resveratrol A. Anti-malarial P. Areca catechu
2. Quinine B. Analgesic Q.Manf( iferaindi ca
3. Azadirachtin C. Anti-inflammatory R. Arachis hypof!aea
4. Mangiferin D. Insecticidal S. Azadirachta indica
5. Catechins E. Antioxidants T. Cinchona pubescens

Q4) In Arabidopsis thaliana, a small weed, is an excellent model to study _role of genes
instructing the flowering pattern and locati9n of organs. Flowers of A. thaliana are made
up of four organs: sepal, petal, stamen and carpel which are arranged in circular layers
called whorls.

Floral scheme

,::; ~
- r:,~~~~ Organ: Sepal Petal Stamen Carpel

( )i) ,e ~
~~ whorl: 1
' ~

2
~

3 4

Arabidopsls thaliana

Scientists discovered that the development of these flower parts is controlled by three
groups of special genes called the A, B, and C genes which act alone or in combination
to decide which part of the flower grows in each whorl. When they are mutated
individually, in all the instances the number of whorls remained the same (4), but the

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 \
floral parts within the whorls were replaced with floral parts frorri another whorl. It's
never a mixture of random organs in any whorl.
• Mutation of gene A (Mutant A) resulted in flowers having only stamens and carpels. ~

• Mutation of gene B (Mutant B) resulted in flowers having only sepals and carpels.
• Mutation of gene C (Mutant C) resulted in flowers having only sepals and petals.

From the above information, deduce the outcome of the mutation(s) with respect to
expression of organs in each whorl and fill in the complete words in each block. (9
marks)

Whorl number
Mutant type
l 2 3 4
Wild Type Sepals Petals Stamen Carpels
Mutant A

MutantB

MutantC

Mutant AB

Mutant AC

Mutant BC

Mutant ABC Leaf-like Leaf-like Leaf-like Leaf-like

27) pH TITRATION: Amit and Sumit have taken a joint school project under the guidance
of their subject teacher to perform a weak acid (P) - strong base (Q) titration by using a pH
meter and its theoretical verification at room temperature (30°C). Amit prepared an
aqueous solution ofQ in a 500 mL volumetric flask. 33 ml of this solution was utilised for
complete neutralisation of 25 mL of a standard 1% (w/v) dibasic acid (molecular weight=
126). In another 500 mL volumetric flask, Sumit made an aqueous solution of3.06% (w/v)
monobasic acid P (Ka= 4 x 1o-6). 25 mL of 0.12 M standard KOH solution was required
to neutralise 20 mL of solution of P.
Now, Sumit started titration of acid (P) with base (Q) with a pH meter. 10 mL of aqueous
acidic (P) solution is taken in a beaker and gradually small quantities of aqueous solution
of base (Q) is added from the burette up to 19 mL mark. He noted the readings obtained
from pH meter.
Their guide-teacher discussed the following concepts and equations for calculations of
pH theoretically.

J:,.
,,:},·'i
)!: }\o ._,·1.-l.

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~
......
......
rJl

/ HA (aq) + H 2 O (I)~ H 3 O+ (aq) + A-

[H30+J[A-J
(aq) (1)
(2)
K = [HA][H20]
[H30+][A-J (3)
Ka= [HA]
[Csalt] (4)
pH= pKa + log [Cacid]
1 1 (5)
pH= 7 + pK0 + IogCsatt
2 2

The ionization equilibrium of the acid P is represented by equation ( 1). Applying the laws
of chemical equilibrium we get equation (2). Since, concentration of water is very large
and remains almost constant in solution; it can be combined with K to give another constant
Ka, the ionization constant of acid, represented by equation (3 ). Before neutralisation or
equivalence point and after addition of Q, equation (4) is valid. And at equivalence point
equation (5) should be used.

Using these equations, Amit calculated pH of the solution mixture theoretically after each
addition of Q in small quantities with above concepts and equations. Now, their guide-
teacher compared both reading obtained from pH meter and theoretical calculation.
(21 marks)

Q 1: What is the molecular weight of monobasic acid P ? (2 marks)

Q2: (6 marks)
Q 2.1: What is the molarity of solution Q?
Q. 2.2. Complete the following table in the answer sheet:

Neutralisation of 10 mL of aqueous solution of P with aqueous solution of Q

Volume of aqueous
SI. No. Calculated pH
solution of Q added (mL)

1 0.0 _..,,_

-- tt:~/

2 1.0 -' ~,.___,

J
. '-..
3 12.0
I'-·· ;a.~~
-. ~r

4 12.5

5 13.0

6 19.0

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 Q 3: (5 marks)
Q.3.1. Draw a graph of volume (mL) of Q added vs calculated pH, by connecting
the points as a smooth curve. (use the supplied graph sheet)
Q. 3.2. Label the discrete parts that you notice on the curve. (on the graph)
Q. 3.3. Show the pH at equivalence on the graph.

Q 4: Provide a one/two sentence explanation for the transition that is noticed in terms of
the concentration of the species in the solution, provide chemical equations to
support your arguments. (4 marks)
Q.4.1. below pH::::: 4.5 and
Q.4.2. between pH::::: 6.5 and pH::::: 11.5.

Q 5: Considering the nature of the acid and base being used with respect to their
ionisation power, justify the pH obtained at the equivalence point. Provide necessary
chemical equations to support. (2 marks)

Q 6: Which indicator(s) would be preferred for the above titration? Choose from the
given table and provide a 1-sentence explanation for your choice. (2 marks)

Indicator Colours Colour

Acid Base transition pH
range
Methyl violet ,,
Yellow Blue 0.0-1.6
Methyl orange Red Yellow 3.2-4.4 . \
·~
,.

Methyl red Yellow Red 4.8-6.0

Bromothymol blue Yellow Blue 6.0-7.6 <

'" --
Phenol red Yellow Pink 6.8-8.0 .. ~ ' 't

Thymol blue Yellow Blue 8.0-9.6 .

-
Phenolphthalein
Thymolphthalein
Colourless
Colourless
Pink
Blue
8.2-10.0
9.3-10.5 ,0
~
\
Alizarin yellow Yellow Orange/Red 10.2-12.0

~
~'

28) METALLURGY: Metals are extr:acted from their ores by various processes. Commonly,
the metals in different chemical forms are converted into their oxides, and then these metal
oxides are usually reduced to pure metal by using Carbon as reducing agent. Carbon
combines with the oxygen of the metal oxide.
MxDy + yC ➔ xM + yCO
Ellingham diagrams are graphical representations used in metallurgy to predict the
temperature dependence of the stability of oxides and other compounds. These diagrams
plot the Gibbs free energy change (~G) of a reaction, typically involving the formation of
a metal oxide after consuming one mole of oxygen, against temperature. Named after

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...
~-!
~

I Harold Ellingham, who introduced them in 1944, they are valuab

the thermodynamics of metal extraction and oxidation proce
le tools for understanding
sses.

-100
~ 'te,oO

- 200 t- ~ 'te,\J-i0
... 0-i
1,,C,\J -

C + 02:: CO2

-=
,..._
.: -500

--
.........
....
..__,
0 -600
<I ...
/
/
/
/
/
/

-1000
Chang e of state Eleme nt Oxide

-1100
Melting Point M !BJ
Boiling Point B @)

---- +--+ ---- +'

-1200 ---- +--- +--- +--- +--- -i--- +---
c;..._.......
400· Goo· aoo· 1000· 1200· 1400· 1600-- 1aoo· 2000· 2200• 2400·
o 200·
( 0() Temperature

y change (.i1G) for the

In an EIIingham diagram, the y-axis represents the Gibbs free energ
represents temperature,
fonnation of oxide shown as metal+ oxygen gas, and the x-axis
y, .i1G for any process at
usually in degrees Celsius or Kelvin. The change in Gibbs energ
I any specified temperature, is described by the equation:
llG = llH - TllS
e for the process. Enthalpy
·where, .i1H is the enthalpy change and /lS is the entropy chang
measure of the randomness
is a measure of the total heat content of a system. Entropy is a
s to gases due to the
or disorder of a system. Entropy increases from solids to liquid
increasing freedom of movement and arrangement of molecules.

agent can be employed to

Ellingham diagrams are useful in determining which reducing
e an oxide if it results in
reduce a particular metal oxide. A reducing agent will only reduc

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....
 ing the
a decrease in Gibbs free energy. On the diagram, this can be visualized by compar
oxygen.
position of the lines for the metal oxide and the reducing agent's reaction with
for the
The reducing agent must have a more negative ~G at the specific· temperature
~G values
reduction to be spontaneous. Therefore, the magnitude of the difference in the
difference,
for the formation of oxides helps in selecting the reducing agent. The greater the
the more spontaneous the reaction.

for the
For example, carbon is often used as a reducing agent in metallurgy. The line
metal
formation of carbon monoxide from carbon intersects with the lines for various
ture above
oxides at different temperatures. This intersection point indicates the tempera
Ellingham
which carbon can reduce that specific metal oxide to its metal form. The
ns for
diagram thus helps metallurgists determine the optimal temperatures and conditio
(9 marks)
smelting and refining metals, such as in the extraction of iron in a blast furnace.

g:
, Based on the information given about Ellingham diagrams, answer the followin
lines in the
Q 1: Explain based on the nature of the reactants and products, why most of the
(2 marks)
Ellingham diagram slope upwards.

of the oxides
Q2: Carbon forms two different oxides. Lines corresponding to formation of one
slopes downward with increase in temperature and the other one stays horizon tal. Give a
(2 marks)
one/two sentence explanation for this phenomenon.

. . rgic~l
Q3: Bharathi was working in the research section of.,a metallu
~ . industry. She received an
metals
oxide ore each of Zinc and chromium to determine the conditions to extract the
be the
from their respective ores. She referred the Ellingham diagram. What would
the zinc
minimum temperature at which carbon can be used 'as a reducing agent to reduce
(2 marks)
ore? Write a balanced chemical equation denoting the process.

Q4. What are the possible metals that can reduce Cr2O3? Arrange them
in the increasing order
ical
of their reducing ability at 800 °C. Which among them would be the most econom
(3 marks)
reducing agent that can be used.

track laid
29) An engine is running at a speed of 72 km hr- I towards cliff 1 along a railway
it is 2.3 km
between two cliffs I & 2 separated by d km. The engine makes a whistle when
from cliff
away from the cliff in front of it. The driver of the engine receives the first echo
find the
I after 13 s. If the engine driver receives the 2nd echo 4 s after the first one,
driver
distance between the two cliffs and the velocity of sound. When will the engine
(5 marks)
receive a third echo, and what direction would that come from?

A frictionless
30) A tank placed on the ground is filled with water up to a height of 9.00 m.
A and B,
light pulley is attached to the top edge of the tank. Two identical cubical blocks,
of a light
each of edge length 10 cm and relative density 5, are connected to two free ends
the water
inextensible string which passes over this pulley. Thus, block A is hanging inside

20/22
 ment is
and block B is in the air. A rider P of mass I kg is placed on block B. The arrange
shown in the figure given below.

t
I
I
I p
.... ..,. ............
t =0
.
I
f •
,J
t
fIh = 3.56 m
1
f I

._.,.1
t
i
9.o m I
I R
-
I• J
........ t= t
~

I I .
1 I I
I I
,,,
! 1
jh = 4.05 m
2

I
i
'
J
J
I
II
I
i♦
I ,._
._BJ- ... "'So ....
t=t
~-,.2
••

Ground
through
When the system is released at instant t = 0, block B with the rider descends
allows
a distance h 1 for time t 1 . At this instant, the rider is caught by the ring R that
ground.
block B only to pass through it. At latter instant of time t 2, the block strikes the
y
Assume that air resistance is negligible, and the effects of surface tension and viscosit
s.
of water are ignored. Density of water is I 000 kg m-3. Answer the following question
(12 marks)

QI) What are the masses of block A and B? ",

(1 mark)
Q2) Calculate the acceleration of block A and tension in the string during time\
t = 0 to t 1 . (3 marks)
Q3) Calculate the acceleration of block B and tension in the string during time
t = t1 to t 2• . (3 marks)
t . (3 marks)
Q4) Find out the values of t 1 and 2
t and t . (2 marks)
Q5) Calculate the velocities of block A at instants of time 1 2

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 ----=LC"'.I • - ~ . ! ' : ' .•

\
,.
31) A moving coil galvanometer of the resistance Ra = 50 has n
equally spaced 30 division graduated on its circular scale. ~lO
t.o-"·< &'I)
ft~G.
'

The deflection produced in galvanometer is directly > ' ~ '

~
"-

proportional to the current passing through-it.

When this galvanometer is connected in a single loop closed
circuit in series with a battery ( emf = 2.0 V, internal
resistance is negligible) and a resistor R = '9950 n, the
current produces a deflection of 10 division on the
galvanometer scale. (5 marks)

Q l) Calculate full scale deflection current lg for this

galvanometer. (1 mark)
Q2) Calculate the approximate value of resistance S that
must be connected in parallel with this galvanometer to measure !he current range 0
to 3 A. (1.5 marks)
Q3) If the shunt resistance in part (b) is a metal wire of length 15. 7 cm of material having
resistivity 2 x 10-s nm, calculate the diameter of the wire. (1.5 marks)
Q4) Estimate the resistance of the ammeter so designed. (1_ mark)

32) Consider the following grid. The first column consists of optical objects (like mirrors, glass
lenses, etc., kept in the air) and phenomena (formation of rainbow, mirage). The first row
gives a list of optical properties and types of images. The incident beam is monochromatic.
It can be diverging or parallel. Ignore partial reflection from the first surface of glass lenses
or prism. Diminished image includes point image. All you should do is to place tick mark/s
(✓) in all the applicable cell/s. For Every wrong tick, 0.25 mark will be deducted. (8 marks)

Image
Partial Image size size
Prominent Total Image
Refract Internal Real Virtual greater · smaller
reflection internal of same
ion reflecti image image than object that
reflection size
on size obj'ect
size
Metallic
Convex mirror
Metallic
Concave
mirror
Equilateral
glass orism
Thin biconvex
lens
Thin
biconcave lens
Prism
binoculars
Metalli~ plane
mirror

Rainbow

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