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Class 9 Science Olympiad Guidelines

The document outlines the instructions and structure for the Class 9 IFSO Science Olympiad, which consists of 50 multiple-choice questions to be completed in 60 minutes. It includes guidelines for exam conduct, technical requirements, and the evaluation process. Additionally, it provides a sample of the types of questions that may be included in the examination.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
74 views14 pages

Class 9 Science Olympiad Guidelines

The document outlines the instructions and structure for the Class 9 IFSO Science Olympiad, which consists of 50 multiple-choice questions to be completed in 60 minutes. It includes guidelines for exam conduct, technical requirements, and the evaluation process. Additionally, it provides a sample of the types of questions that may be included in the examination.

Uploaded by

anandaniket256
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Class-9

Class 9 - IFSO (Science Olympiad)

Total Time : 60 Minutes

Total Questions : 50

Total Marks : 50
Instructions : PLEASE READ CAREFULLY BEFORE ENTERING IN TEST SCREEN:
1. International Olympiad Foundation, one of the world's premier academic and
research institutions, welcomes you to the Online Olympiad Platform and
wishes you ALL THE BEST.
2. Make sure that pop-up blocker is disabled on your browser before logging in for
the examination.
3. During the examination, do not switch from the test page to any other page.
4. Once logged-in through one browser tab, user cannot login from any other
browser/same browser tab.
5. In case of power failure, you can resume the examination from where you left by
logging in again.
6. In case of internet failure, wait till your internet resumes and resume the
examination.
7. If internet speed is unreasonably slow, images and tables in the questions may
take little longer to appear.
8. This is a Multiple-Choice Question (MCQ) type examination. You can go back to
the previous questions.
9. Once an examination is attempted, you can not appear for it again.
Examination window will be activated on the declared time and date only.
10. You should manage your time wisely and not spend too much or too little of it
on any one question. A timer is present on the console which will help you keep
track of time during the course of the examination.
11. Check your work before you submit it. Ensure that every answer is complete
and appears as you intended. Try to attempt all the questions as no Negative
marking is applied in this examination.
12. The examination is one-hour long. You cannot pause the timer or test in
between. Answers will be submitted automatically after one hour after student
begins.
13. Registration itself will not fetch a participation certificate. Students who will
appear for exam and attempt the paper will be eligible for a certificate.
14. After successful online paper submission, you will be notified about the result
on your email ID/SMS by last week of January 2023.
15. IOF evaluation process is totally computer oriented and generated. No request
for revaluation will be entertained. No questions and queries regarding the
result is subject to addressal.
16. The student will be disqualified if he / she use any unfair means, or receive
unfair assistance from parent or any other source.
17. No secondary devices in the room or test area are allowed.
18. Decision of International Olympiad Foundation is final in all matters.
Section1 : ONLINE Total Questions : 50 Total Marks : 50

Q1. In the following letter series, some of the letters are missing. Select the correct option to fill the blank spaces. [+1]
[-0]

A. abddbd
B. bbaab
C. adbbad
D. adbcad
E. None of these
Q2. Choose the number pair which is different from others. [+1]
A. 43 - 70 [-0]
B. 55 – 64
C. 51 - 60
D. 72 – 36
E. 15 – 82
Q3. Select the option which is similar to the given words. [+1]
[-0]

A. Bituminous
B. Granite
C. Basalt
D. Cock
E. None of these
Q4. If in a certain language, POPULAR is coded as ONOTKZQ, which word would be coded as GBNPVT? [+1]
[-0]
A. FARMER
B. FAMOUS
C. FRAMES
D. FARMES
E. None of these
Q5. If the animals living on land and the animals living in water are represented by two big circles and the animals that live [+1]
[-0]
both in water and on land are represented by a small circle, then the combination of these three can be correctly shown
by

A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
E. None of these
Q6. Raju is facing south. He turns 135° in the anti-colockwise direction and then 180° in the clockwise direction. Which direction is [+1]
he facing now? [-0]
A. North-East
B. North-West
C. South-West
D. West
E. None of these
Q7. Manik is fourteenth from the right end in a row of 40 boys. What is his position from the left end? [+1]
A. 24th [-0]
B. 25th
C. 26th
D. 27th
E. None of these
Q8. Arrange the given words as in a dictionary and select the word which will come in the middle? [+1]
A. Nozzle [-0]
B. Nausea
C. Nostril
D. Normal
E. Nomenclature
Q9. X introduces Y saying, ‘He is the husband of the grand daughter of the father of my father.’ How is Y related to X? [+1]
[-0]
A. Brother
B. Son
C. Brother-in-law
D. Nephew
E. None of these
Q10. Five children take part in a tournament. Each one has to play every other one. How many games must they play? [+1]
[-0]
A. 10
B. 24
C. 30
D. 36
E. None of these
Q11. Choose the figure which is different from others. [+1]
[-0]

A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
E. (e)
Q12. Select one of the figures from the set of Answer figures which will continue the sequence of problem figures. [+1]
[-0]

A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
E. (e)
Q13. Select the pair that has a relationship similar to that in the unnumbered pair. [+1]
[-0]

A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
E. (e)
Q14. Select a figure from the given options that would complete the pattern. [+1]
[-0]

A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
E. None of these
Q15. Find out the correct alternative in which fig ( X ) can be embedded. [+1]
[-0]

A. (a)
B. (b)
C. (c)
D. (d)
E. (e)

Q16. Which of the following statements is not true about an atom? [+1]
[-0]
A. Atoms are not able to exist independently.
B. Atoms are the basic units from which molecules and ions are formed.
C. Atoms are always neutral in nature.
D. Atoms aggregate in large numbers to form the matter that we can see, feel or touch.
E. None of these
Q17. Some information about X, Y, Z and Q particles is given in the table. Accordingly, which of the following about X, Y, Z and Q is [+1]
[-0]
incorrect?

A. The mass number of X is 31


B. Y is a charged cation
C. X and Y are particles of the same element.
D. The neutron numbers of Z and Y are the same.
E. None of these
Q18. A laser signal sent towards the moon returns after T seconds. If C is the speed of light, then the distance of the moon [+1]
from the observer is given by [-0]
A. cT
B. cT-2

C.

D. 2cT
E. None of these
Q19. A particle experiences constant acceleration for 20s after starting from rest. If it travels a distance X 1, in the first 10s and [+1]
distance X , in the remaining 10s, then which of the following is true? [-0]
A. X1 = 2X2
B. X1 = X2
C. X1 = 3X2
D. X1 = 4X2
E. None of these
Q20. A bullet of mass A and velocity B is fired into a block of wood of mass C. If loss of any mass or friction be neglected, [+1]
the velocity of the system must be [-0]

A.

B.

C.

D.

E. None of these
Q21. A machine gun fires n bullets per second and the mass of each bullet is m. If the speed of bullets is v, then the force exerted [+1]
[-0]
on the machine gun is
A. mng
B. mnv
C. mnvg

D.

E. None of these
Q22. If both the mass and radius of the earth, each decrease by 50%, the acceleration due to gravity would [+1]
[-0]
A. increase by 50%
B. decrease by 50%
C. increase by 100%
D. remain the same
E. None of these
Q23. Chemical nature of ribosomes is [+1]
[-0]
A. Protein and RNA
B. beta glactosidase
C. Proteins and Lipids
D. glucose and mannans
E. None of these
Q24. Granular endoplasmic reticulum is involved in [+1]
[-0]
A. Proteolysis
B. Peptide bond formation
C. Glycosidic bond formation
D. Fatty acid and cholesterol synthesis
E. None of these
Q25. The causative agent of the disease. “Sleeping sickness” in human beings is an [+1]
[-0]
A. Intracellular parasite found in RBC
B. Extracellular parasite found in blood plasma
C. Intracellular parasite found in WBC
D. Extracellular parasite found on the surface of platelets
E. None of these
Q26. Excessive exposure of humans to UV rays results in [+1]
[-0]

A. (i) and (ii)


B. (ii) and (iv)
C. (i) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)
E. None of these
Q27. Choose the correct option: [+1]
Assertion (A) : No carbon dioxide is released during the day in plants. [-0]
Reason (R) : Only photosynthesis occurs during the day.
A. A is true and R is false
B. A is false and R is true
C. Both A and R are false
D. Both A and R are true but R does not explain A
E. None of these
Q28. Study the Position time graphs of X and Y objects . What is the ratio average velocities of X to Y in 0 – 4t? [+1]
[-0]

A.

B. 2

C.

D.

E. None of these
Q29. An object weighing 5N is in equilibrium in the liquid as shown in the figure I. What is the least force F applied to immerse [+1]
the object in liquid as in Fig II? [-0]

Fig I Fig II
A. 5 N
B. 10 N
C. 15 N
D. 20 N
E. None of these
Q30. Which of the following correctly represents 360g of water? [+1]
[-0]

A. (i)
B. (i) and (iv)
C. (ii) and (iii)
D. (i) and (iii)
E. None of these
Q31. Blue, red and blue litmus papers are dipped in the aqueous solutions of X, Y and Z respectively taken in the containers. [+1]
While litmus papers dipped in containers with X and Y change colour, the litmus paper in the container with Z does not [-0]
change colour. Which of the following options represent X , Y and Z ?

Q32. Deepak is trying to study flow of energy in an area and he made the following diagram for the same. How will you interpret his [+1]
observations? [-0]

A. His observations and number of trophic levels are wrong .


B. His observations are correct but the number of trophic levels can be more .
C. His observations are wrong but number of trophic levels are correct.
D. His observations as well as number of trophic level are correct.
E. None of these
Q33. A convex lens and a concave lens, each of focal length 10cm, are kept separated by a distance of 2cm as shown in the figure. [+1]
If the light is incident from left, the combinations of lenses will be [-0]

A. Converging
B. Diverging
C. behaving like a glass slab
D. converging or diverging depending on whether the lenses are arranged as shown in the figure or in the reverse order
E. None of these
Q34. The graph between the position D and time t for a body moving in a straight line is shown in the graph below. [+1]
During the interval OP, PQ, QR and RS the acceleration of the body is correctly given by which option? [-0]

A. I
B. II
C. III
D. IV
E. None of these
Q35. A car of mass 1200kg travels along a horizontal road at a speed of 10ms -1. At the time it begins to accelerate at 0.2ms-2, the [+1]
total resistive force acting on the car is 160N. What is the total output power developed by the car as it begins the acceleration? [-0]

A. 0..80 KW
B. 1.6 KW
C. 2.4 KW
D. 4.0 KW
E. None of these
Q36. As shown in the figure. Tarzan travels from one place to another by swinging in the forest. Assuming that the rope is just long [+1]
enough to swing from point A to point B. What is his initial speed in order for him to reach point B. [-0]

A. 5.69 m/s
B. 10.0 m/s
C. 8.5 m/s
D. 7.75 m/s
E. None of these
Q37. Two different ropes P and Q with different mass densities are attached to each other. A pulse is introduced into one end of the [+1]
rope P and it approaches the boundary as shown. At the boundary, a portion of the energy is transmitted into the new medium [-0]
and a portion is reflected. Which one of the following diagrams below correctly depicts the possible location and orientation of
the reflected pulse and transmitted pulse shortly after the incident pulse reaches the boundary?
Problem figure Answer Figure

A. (i)
B. (ii)
C. (iii)
D. (iv)
E. E None of these
Q38. A compound X has the following electron diagram as shown below. How many electrons are there in the outermost [+1]
shell of an atom A? [-0]

A. 2
B. 4
C. 6
D. 7
E. None of these
Q39. A balloon is filled with helium gas. The balloon is put into a chamber whose pressure is less than the atmospheric pressure. [+1]
Select the letter of the balloon diagram that corresponds to the given change in conditions. [-0]

A. X
B. Y
C. Z
D. X and Y
E. None of these
Q40. Study the graph carefully and find the average velocity of the body as it moves from 3s to 7s. [+1]
[-0]

A. 0.5 m/s
B. 2.5 m/s
C. 4.5 m/s
D. 5.3 m/s
E. None of these
Q41. The graph below represents the motion of a body. Find the average speed of the body. [+1]
[-0]

A. 375 m / minute
B. 265 m / minute
C. 255 m / minute
D. 175 m / minute
E. None of these
Q42. A man wearing a bullet-proof vest stands on roller skates. The total mass is 80Kg. A bullet of mass 20g is fired at 400m/s. It is [+1]
[-0]
stopped by the vest and falls to the ground. What is then the velocity of the man?

A. 1 m/ s
B. 0.1 m / s
C. 0.01 m / s
D. 0 m / s
E. None of these
Q43. Alice throws the object as shown in the figure with an Initial velocity 10m/s. In 5s it reaches the ground. Calculate the [+1]
height h from which that object is thrown and also the distance x as shown [-0]

A. h = 125 m, x = 50 m
B. h = 120 m, x = 55 m
C. h = 120 m, x = 10 m
D. h = 225 m, x = 60 m
E. None of these
Q44. A farmer made an observation in a backwater paddy field of coastal Kerala that the paddy plants wilt during noon onwards [+1]
[-0]
everyday but appear normal next morning. What would be the possible reason for wilting?
A. The rate of water absorption is less than the rate of transpiration in the afternoon
B. The rate of water absorption is more than the rate of transpiration in the afternoon.
C. The changes in the rate of water absorption and transpiration are not associated with wilting
D. The rate of water absorption is not related to the rate of transpiration
E. None of these
Q45. Raw banana has bitter taste, while ripe banana has sweet taste. It happens because of the conversion of
A. Starch to sugar
B. Sucrose to fructose
C. Amino acids to sugar
D. Amino acids to protein
E. None of these
Q46. In the flowering plants, sexual reproduction involves several events beginning with the bud and ending in a fruit. These [+1]
[-0]
events are arranged in four different combinations. Select the combination that has the correct sequence of events.
A. Embryo, Zygote, Gametes, Fertilisation
B. Gametes, Fertilisation, Zygote, Embryo
C. Fertilisation, Zygote, Gametes, Embryo
D. Gametes, Zygote, Embryo, Fertilisation
E. None of these
Q47. Eukaryotic organisms have different levels of organisation. Select the combination where levels are arranged in the descending [+1]
[-0]
order.
A. DNA, Chromosome, Cell, Nucleus, Tissue
B. Tissue, Cell, Nucleus, Chromosome, DNA
C. Nucleus, Cell, DNA, Chromosome, Tissue
D. Tissue, Cell, Chromosome, Nucleus, DNA
E. None of these
Q48. Ammonium ion (NH4+) contains elements 147N and 11 H. Pick up the correct option about the total number of [+1]
[-0]
subatomic particles (p, e and n) in ammonium ion.
A. p = n = e
B. p>n = e
C. p = n > e
D. p > e > n
E. None of these
Q49. Match the items of column I to those of column II. [+1]
[-0]

A. 1 – ii, 2 – iii, 3 – iv, 4 – i


B. 1 – iii, 2 – i, 3 – iv, 4 – ii
C. 1 – iii, 2 – ii, 3 – iv, 4 – i
D. 1 – i, 2 – ii, 3 – iii, 4 – iv
E. None of these
Q50. Two masses are connected by a string that passes over a pulley, as shown. Find the acceleration of the masses if m = 3.1kg [+1]
and M = 4.4kg. [-0]

A. ( 1 )
B. ( 2 )
C. ( 3 )
D. ( 4 )
E. None of these
IFSO – 2022 Answer - Class 9

1 C 2 E 3 A 4 B 5 D 6 C 7 D 8 D 9 C 10 A

11 E 12 D 13 C 14 B 15 D 16 A 17 B 18 C 19 E 20 A

21 B 22 C 23 A 24 B 25 B 26 C 27 C 28 A 29 C 30 D

31 A 32 A 33 A 34 A 35 D 36 D 37 A 38 C 39 C 40 B

41 A 42 B 43 A 44 A 45 A 46 B 47 B 48 D 49 B 50 A

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