Grade X

Social Science
Session: 2024 – 25
Assignment
Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

Multiple Choice Questions :

Q1. A force which brought about sweeping changes in the political & material world of Europe in the
nineteenth century.
a) The emergence of the nation state.
b) The multi national dynastic empire.
c) Territorial state.
d) Absolute monarchy.

Q2. The fallen Germania painted by _______ in ________.

a) Julius Hubner, 1850.
b) Louis XVI, 1760.
c) Philip Veit, 1848.
d) Eugene Delacroix, 1870.

Q3. Which region was known as Powder Keg of Europe?

a) Austria Habsburg Empire
b) Sardinia Piedmont
c) Balkans
d) Kingdom of Two Sicilies

Q4. Scottish highlanders were forbidden to speak their ________ language.

a) Scottish
b) Gaelic
c) English
d) Polish

Q5. The habsburg rulers granted autonomy to the Hungarians in __________.

a) 1867
b) 1866
c) 1868
d) 1865

Q6. The Massacre at Chios was painted by _______.

a) Eugene Delacroix
b) Frederic Sorrieu
c) Lorenz Clasen
d) Anton von Werner
Q7. Who was represented as postman on his way back to France after he lost the battle of Leipzig in 1813?
a) Louis XVI
b) Louis XVIII
c) Napoleon
d) Metternich

Q8. Who was known as sword of Italian unification?

 a) Garibaldi
b) Cavour
c) Mazzini
d) Victor Emmanuel

Q9. An elle of textile material bought in Frankfurt would get you ________ of cloth.
a) 55.1 cm
b) 54.7 cm
c) 65.6 cm
d) 53.5 cm
Q10. Louise otto Peters (1819 - 95) was a political activist who founded ________ political association.
a) German
b) Feminist
c) French
d) Men
Q11. In __________, an armed rebellion against Russian rule took place which was ultimately crushed.
a) 1832
b) 1830
c) 1848
d) 1831

Q12.Where was the Frankfurt Parliament held?

a) Indoor Tennis court
b) The Church of St. Paul's
c) The Bastille
d) The Hall of Mirrors

Q13. Silesia was part of region

a) Sardinia Piedmont
b) Prussia
c) British Isles
d) Austria

Q14. Match the following:

1. Bohemia A. Italian
2. Galicia B. Magyar
3. Hungary C. German
4. Lombardy D. Polish
a) (1 - A), (2 - C), (3 - D), (4 - B)
b) (1 - C), (2 - D), (3 - B), (4 - A)
c) (1 - B), (2 - C), (3 - A), (4 - D)
d) (1 - D), (2 - C), (3 - B), (4 - A)

Q15. Assertion: Conservatives believed that established traditional institutions of state and society should be
preserved.
Reason: Zollverein was formed to preserve conservatism

Q16. Assertion: The most serious source of nationalist tension in Europe after 1881 was the Balkans.
Reason: The spread of ideas of romantic nationalism together with the disintegration of Ottoman empire
made this region very explosive

Q17. Who was called iron Chancellor?

a) Mazzini
 b) Friedrich Wilhelm
c) Bismarck
d) Kaiser William I
Q18. 'A nation is the culmination of the long past of endeavours, sacrifice and devotion. A heroic past, great
men, glory That is this social capital upon which one basis in National idea. Who gave this definition.
a) Ernst Renan
b) Rebmann
c) Fritz
d) Mantegazza
Q19. Assertion: Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were democratic.
Reason: They did not tolerate criticism and dissent.
Q20. The place where the polish priest and bishops were punished
a) Siberia
b) Tundra
c) Mongolia
d) None of the above

Q21. Choose the correct nationality of the artist Frederic Sorrieu who visualised in his painting a society
made up of Democratic and Social Republic.
(a) German
(b) Swiss
(c) French
(d) American

Q22. ‘Nationalism’, which emerged as a force in the late 19th century, means
(a) strong devotion for one’s own country and its history and culture.
(b) strong devotion for one’s own country without appreciation for other nations.
(c) strong love for one’s own country and hatred for others.
(d) equally strong devotion for all the countries of the world.

Q23. Match the term with the statements given below:

A ‘Utopian Society’ is
(i) a society under a benevolent monarchy
(ii) a society that is unlikely to ever exist
(iii) a society under the control of a chosen few wise men
(iv) a society under Parliamentary Democracy
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iii) only

Q24. Pick out the correct definition to define the term ‘Plebiscite’.
(a) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which only the female members of a region are asked to accept or reject a
proposal.
(b) Plebiscite is a direct vote by the female members of a matriarchal system to accept or reject a proposal.
(c) Plebiscite is a direct vote by only a chosen few from the total population of a particular region to accept
or reject a proposal.
(d) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which all the citizens of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal.
Q25. Ernst Renan believed that the existence of nations is a necessity because
(a) it ensures protection to all inhabitants.
(b) it ensures liberty to all inhabitant citizens.
(c) it ensures Parliamentary form of government to its inhabitants.
(d) it ensures jobs and good health to all its inhabitants.

Q26. Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna?
(a) Britain
(b) Russia
(c) Prussia
(d) Switzerland

Q27. The first great revolution which gave the clear idea of nationalism with its core words: ‘Liberty,
Equality and Fraternity’ was:
(a) The Russian Revolution
(b) The French Revolution
(c) The American Revolution
(d) India’s First War of Independence

Q28. Which of the following statements about the ‘French Revolution’ are correct?
(i) After the end of the French Revolution it was proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth
constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
(ii) France will have a constitutional monarchy and the new republic will be headed by a member of the
royal family.
(iii) A centralised administrative system will be put in place to formulate uniform laws for all citizens.
(iv) Imposition of internal custom duties and dues will continue to exist in France.
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)
Q29. The French revolutionaries declared that the mission and destiny of the French nation was
(a) to conquer the people of Europe.
(b) to liberate the people of Europe from despotism.
(c) to strengthen absolute monarchies in all the countries of Europe.
(d) to propagate the ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in every part of the world.

Q30. The Civil Code of 1804 in France is usually known as:

(a) The French Revolutionary Code
(b) Napoleonic Code
(c) European Imperial Code
(d) The French Civil Code

Q31. The liberal nationalism stands for:

(a) freedom for the individual and equality before law.
(b) preservation of autocracy and clerical privileges.
(c) freedom for only male members of society and equality before law.
(d) freedom only for senior citizens.
Q32. Who among the following formed the secret society called ‘Young Italy’?
(a) Otto von Bismarck
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Metternich
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder

Q33. The term ‘Universal Suffrage’ means:

(a) the right to vote and get elected, granted only to men.
(b) the right to vote for all adults.
(c) the right to vote and get elected, granted exclusively to property owning men.
(d) the right to vote and get elected, granted only to educated men and women.

Q34. Which of the following is not a feature or belief of ‘Conservatism’?

(a) Conservatives believe in established, traditional institutions of state and policy.
(b) Conservatives stressed the importance of tradition and preferred gradual development to quick change.
(c) Conservatives proposed to return to the society of pre-revolutionary days and were against the ideas of
modernisation to strengthen monarchy.
(d) Conservatives believed in the monarchy, church, and other social hierarchies.

Q35. The Treaty of recognised Greece as an independent nation:

(a) Vienna 1815
(b) Constantinople 1832
(c) Warsaw 1814
(d) Leipzig 1813

Q36. Who said ‘When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’?
(a) Garibaldi
(b) Bismarck
(c) Mazzini
(d) Duke Metternich

Q37. What happened to Poland at the end of 18th century. Which of the following answers is correct?
(a) Poland achieved independence at the end of the 18th century.
(b) Poland came totally under the control of Russia and became part of Russia.
(c) Poland became the part of East Germany.
(d) Poland was partitioned at the end of the 18th century by three Great Powers: Russia, Prussia and Austria.

Q38. Who played the leading role in the unification of Germany?

(a) German Emperor (formerly King of Prussia) — Kaiser William I.
(b) Otto Von Bismarck (Prussian Chief Minister).
(c) Johann Gottfried Herder — German philosopher.
(d) Austrian Chancellor — Duke Metternich.

Q39. Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark, Germany and France, ended in
(a) Danish victory
(b) Prussian victory
(c) French victory
(d) German victory

Correct the following statements :

Q40. Young Italy, the secret society of Italy was set up by Victor Emmanuel II.
Ans.

Q41. Slav were inhabitant of Germany.

Ans.

Q42. Victor Emmanuel II was proclaimed king of united Italy in 1761.

Ans.

Q43. Napoleonic code provided political equality.

Ans.

Q44. Conservative regime setup in 1815 were democratic.

Ans.

Fill in the Blanks :

Q45. The first clear expression of Nationalism came with ………………… in 1789.
Q46. In 1834, a custom union or Zollverein was formed at the initiative of ……………..
Q47. After Russian occupation of Poland the ……………… language was forced out of school and the
Russian language was imposed everywhere.
Q48. During the middle of the 19th century, Italy was divided into seven states, of which
………………………… was ruled by an Italian Princely House.
Q49. The Act of Union between England and …………………. resulted in the formation of the United
Kingdom of Great Britain.
 Grade – X
Session 2024 – 25
Chapter – 2 Nationalism in India
Assignment

Q1. Who was the writer of the book ‘Hind Swaraj’?

(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawahar Lai Nehru

Q2. Khilafat Committee was formed in 1919 in the city of

(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lucknow
(d) Amritsar

Q3. The Non - cooperation Khilafat Movement began in

(a) January 1921
(b) February 1922
(c) December 1929
(d) April 1919

Q4. Which of the following was the reason for calling off the Non-cooperation Movement by
Gandhiji?
(a) Pressure from the British Government
(b) Second Round Table Conference
(c) Gandhiji’s arrest
(d) Chauri – Chaura incident

Q5. Baba Ramchandra, a sanyasi, was the leader of which of the following movements?
(a) Khilafat Movement
(b) Militant Guerrilla Movement of Andhra Pradesh
(c) Peasants Movement of Awadh
(d) Plantation Workers Movement in Assam

Q6. Who set up the ‘Oudh Kisan Sabha’?

(a) Alluri Sitaram Raju
(b) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Baba Ramchandra
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Shaukat Ali
(d) Mahatma Gandhi

Q7. Under the presidency of Jawahar Lal Nehru, the Lahore Congress Session of 1929
formalised the demand of
(a) abolition of Salt Tax
(b) ‘Poorna Swaraj’ or complete independence
 (c) boycott of Simon Commission
(d) separate electorate for the ‘Dalits’

Q8. The ‘Simon Commission’ was boycotted because

(a) there was no British Member in the Commission.
(b) it demanded separate electorates for Hindus and Muslims.
(c) there was no Indian Member in the Commission.
(d) it favoured the Muslims over the Hindus.

Q9. Who formed the ‘Swaraj Party’ within the Congress?

(a) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Motilal Nehru
(b) Abdul Ghaffar Khan and Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru

Q10. Who founded the ‘Depressed Classes Association’ in 1930?

(a) Alluri Sitaram Raju
(b) C.R. Das
(c) M.R. Jayakar
(d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar

Q11. Which party did not boycott the Council elections held in the year 1921?
(a) Swaraj Party
(b) Justice Party
(c) Muslim League
(d) Congress Party

Q12. What do you mean by the term ‘Begar’?

(a) An Act to prevent plantation workers to leave the tea gardens without permission.
(b) The forced recruitment of soldiers in rural areas during World War I.
(c) Labour that villagers were forced to contribute without any payment.
(d) Refusal to deal and associate with people, or participate in activities as a form of
protest.

Q13. Where did Mahatma Gandhi start his famous ‘Salt March’ on 12th March 1930?
(a) Dandi
(b) Chauri – Chaura
(c) Sabarmati
(d) Surat

Q14. Which industrialist attacked colonial control over Indian economy and supported the
Civil Disobedience Movement?
(a) Dinshaw Petit
(b) Purshottamdas Thakurdas
(c) Dwarkanath Tagore
(d) Seth Hukumchand

Q15. Who visualised and depicted the image of ‘Bharat Mata’ through a painting?
(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
 (b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Natesa Sastri
(d) Abindranath Tagore

Q16. Which of the following was Mahatma Gandhi’s novel method of fighting against the
British?
(a) He used violent method of stone pelting.
(b) He used arson to bum down government offices.
(c) He fought with the principle of ‘an eye for i an eye’.
(d) He practised open defiance of law, ; peaceful demonstration, satyagraha and non-
violence.

Q17. What does satyagraha mean? Choose one from the following options.
(a) ‘Satyagraha’ means use of physical force to inflict pain while fighting.
(b) ‘Satyagraha’ does not inflict pain, it is a : non-violent method of fighting against
oppression.
(c) ‘Satyagraha’ means passive resistance and is a weapon of the weak.
(d) ‘Satyagraha’ was a racist method of mass agitation.

Q18. What was the purpose of imposing the Rowlatt Act?

(a) The Rowlatt Act forbade the Indians to : qualify for administrative services.
(b) The Rowlatt Act had denied Indians the right to political participation.
(c) The Rowlatt Act imposed additional taxes on Indians who were already groaning
under the burden of taxes.
(d) The Rowlatt Act authorised the government to imprison any person i without trial
and conviction in a court of j law

Q19. Where did the brutal ‘Jallianwala Massacre’ take place?

(a) Amritsar
(b) Meerut
(c) Lahore
(d) Lucknow

Q20. Why did General Dyer order to open fire on a peaceful demonstration at Jallianwala
Bagh?Choose from the given options.
(a) He wanted to show his power.
(b) Firing was ordered because it was an unruly crowd.
(c) Because his object, as he declared later, was to ‘produce a moral effect’ to create
fear in the minds of ‘satyagrahis’.
(d) He ordered to fire because he noticed a sudden unrest in the crowd.

Q21. By whom was the song ‘Vande Mataram’ composed?

(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Sarat Chandra Chatterjee
(d) Natesa Sastri

Q22. Which province did not boycott the council election?

 (a) Madras
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Ahmadabad
(d) Lucknow

Q23. The resolution of Purna Swaraj was adopted at which congress session?
(a) Bombay
(b) Lahore.
(c) Karachi
(d) Madras

Q24. Who was the writer of the book ‘Hind Swaraj’?

(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(c) Mahatma Gandhi

Q25. When did Mahatma Gandhi reach in Dandi to violate the salt law?
(a) On 5th April 1930
(b) On 6th April 1930
(c) On 6th May 1930
(d) On 7th April 1930

Q26. When was Non – Cooperation Movement called off by Gandhiji?

(a) 1920
(b) 1921
(c) 1922
(d) 1923

Correct the following statements and rewrite :

Q27. In 1918, Mahatma Gandhi went to Ahmedabad to organise a satyagraha movement to
inspire the peasants to struggle against the oppressive plantation system.

Q28. Mahatma Gandhi organised the Dalits into the Depressed classes Association.

Fill in the Blanks :

Q29. In 1916 Mahatma Gandhi travelled to…………………….....to inspire the peasants to struggle
against the oppressive plantation system.

Q30. Under the………………………………..plantation workers were not permitted to leave the tea
gardens of Assam.

Q31. "Vande Mataram' a hymn to the motherland was written by………………………….... .

Q32. During the Swadeshi Movement in Bengal, a tricolour flag was designed with eight
lotuses representing …………………………. .

Q33. By.……………………….. pact Gandhiji consented to participate in a Round Table Conference

and government agreed to release the political prisoners.

Match the following items in column A with those in column B and choose the correct
answer from the options given below :
Q34.
Column A Column B

(i) Salt March (a) Amritsar

(ii) Jallianwala Bagh (b) Lahore

(iii) Purna Swaraj (c) Awadh

(iv) Peasants Movement (d) Dandi

(A) (i) - (a) (ii) - (b) (iii) - (d) (iv) - (c)

(B) (i) - (d) (ii) - (b) (iii) - (c) (iv) - (a)
(C) (i) - (c) (ii) - (b) (iii) - (a) (iv) - (d)
(D) (i) - (d) (ii) - (a) (iii) - (b) (iv) - (c)

Q35.
Column A Column B

(i) Depressed classes Association (a) G.D. Birla

(ii) Nationalist in Gudem Hills (b) C.R. Das

(iii) Indian Industrialist (c) Alluri Sita Ram Raju

(iv) Swaraj Party (d) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar

(A) (i) - (a) (ii) - (b) (iii) - (d) (iv) - (c)

(B) (i) - (d) (ii) - (c) (iii) - (a) (iv) - (b)
(C) (i) - (c) (ii) - (b) (ili) - (a) (iv) - (d)
(D) (i) - (d) (ii) - (b) (iii) - (a) (iv) - (c)

Assertion & Reasoning Based Questions :

Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as given below:
(i) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(ii) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(iii) A is true but R is false.
(iv) A is false but R is true.

Q36. Assertion: In 1919, Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch a nationwide satyagraha against
the proposed Rowlatt Act.
Reason: The act was passed to repress political activities.
 •

Q37. Assertion: In February 1922, Mahatma Gandhi decided to withdraw the NonCooperation
Movement.
Reason: There was an atmosphere of suspicion and distrust between communities and a
large section of Muslims could not respond to the call of Non Cooperation Movement.

Q38. Assertion: When the Simon Commission arrived in India in 1928, it was greeted with the
slogan 'Go back Simon'
Reason: The Commission did not have a single Indian member.

Q39. Assertion: Some of the Muslim political organisations in India were lukewarm in their
response to the Civil Disobedience Movement.
Reason: The First World War had ended with the defeat of Ottoman Turkey and there
were rumours that a harsh peace treaty was going to be imposed on the Ottoman
Emperor.

Q40. Assertion: Mahatma Gandhi found salt a powerful symbol that could unite the nation.
Reason: Salt was something essential, consumed by the rich and the poor alike.

•
 Grade – X
Session 2024 – 25
Chapter – 3 Print Culture and the modern world
Assignment

Q1. Where did Kitagawa Utamaro's prints travel?

(a) Asia
(b) Africa
(c) Australia
(d) Europe
Q2. Who said, "Printing is the ultimate gift of God and the greatest one?"
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Martin Luther
(c) Charles Dickens
(d) None of these
Q3. After printed material reached the countryside, the country poor spent evenings
(a) Singing songs
(b) Listening to stories of hobgoblins
(c) Listening to tales and romances read out to them by their sons and daughters
(d) Playing board games
Q4. Which of the following countries had the earliest kind of print technology?
(a) China
(b) Korea
(c) Japan
(d) All of these
Q5. Who wrote My Childhood and My University?
(a) Thomas Wood
(b) Maxim Gorky
(c) George Eliot
(d) Jane Austen
Q6.Which one of the following began to edit the ‘Bengal Gazette’ a weekly magazine?
(a) James Augustus Hickey
(b) George Eliot
(c) Jane Austen
(d) William Bolts
Q7. Who was James Lockington?
(a) Publisher
(b)Painter
(c) Scholar
(d)Reformer
Q8.Who began to publish the weekly Bengal Gazette?
(a) Bal GangadharTilak
(b) Gangadhar Bhattachary
(c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(d) Madan Mohan Malviya
Q9.Which scholar expressed a deep anxiety about printing?
(a) Martin Luther
(b) Erasmus
(c) Johann Gutenberg
(d) None of these
Q10. Arrange the following in the correct sequence of old tradition of handwritten manuscripts
(i) Vernacular languages
(ii) Persian
 (iii) Arabic
(iv) Sanskrit
Option:
(a) iv-i ii-ii-I
(b) iv-i-ii-iii
(c) iv-ii-i-iii
(d) iv-iii-i-ii
Q11.What is calligraphy?
(a) Stylized writing
(b) Poetry
(c) Textbooks
(d) Flower arrangement
Q12. At which of the following places, a children’s press was set up in1857?
(a) England
(b)Spain
(c) France
(d)China
Q13. Which book of Jyotiba Phule was based on the caste system?
(a) Amar Jiban
(b) Istri DharamVichar
(c) SacchiKavitayen
(d)Gulamgiri
Q14. Which of the following books is the oldest Japanese book, printed in 868 AD containing six sheets of
text and woodcut illustrations?
(a) Diamond Sutra
(b) Harshcharita
(c) Brihatsutrae
(d)Mrichkatika
Q15. Who introduced the printing press in India?
(a)French
(b)Italian
(c) Portuguese
(d) None of these
Q16. Printing was first developed in:
(a) Japan
(b) Portugal
(c) China
(d) Germany
Q17. Which of the following cities became the hub of the Western style-school culture printing?
(a) Berlin
(b) Shanghai
(c) Paris
(d) Britain
Q18. Offset press was developed in
(a) Nineteenth century
(b) Sixteenth century
(c) Eighteenth century
(d) Seventeenth century
Q19. The first Tamil book was printed in the year

(a) 1579
(b) 1679
(c)1879
(d)1778
Q20. Who among the following published the Sambad kaumudi?
 (a) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(b) Tulsidas
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Raja Rammohun Roy

Q21. Shamsul Akhbar was published in which language ?

(a) Urdu
(b) Arabic
(c) Persian
(d)Sanskrit
Q22. Bombay Samachar made its appearance in the year
(a) 1857
(b) 1822
(c) 1864
(d) 1828
Q23. Who were Bronte sisters?
(a) They were novelists
(b) They were philosophers
(c) They were historians
(d) They were Journalists
Q24. Lending libraries became instruments for educating which of the following ?
(a) White collar workers only
(b) Lower middleclass workers only
(c) Artisans only
(d) White collar workers, artisans and lower middleclass people
Q25. How many copies of the Gutenberg's printed bible have survived?
(a) 25
(b) 100
(c) 75
(d) 50
Q26. Metal frames in which types are laid and the text composed is known as
(a) Compositor
(b) Ballad
(c) Platen
(d) Galley

Correct the following statements and rewrite :

Q27. Marco Polo wrote 95 Theses criticising practices and rituals of the Roman Catholic Church.

Q28. The printing press first came to India through Buddhist priests in the mid 16th century.

Q29. Johann Gutenberg had perfected the power driven cylindrical press by the mid 19th century.

Fill in the Blanks :

Q30. ....... in Germany spent years compiling traditional folk tales gathered from peasants.
Q31. The printing press first came to Goa with ……..………missionaries.
Q31. .…………….……….. published the Sambad Kaumudi.
Q32. During early 19th century in north India………….. were deeply anxious about the collapse of Muslim
dynasties.
Q33. Buddhist missionaries from China introduced hand-printing technology into ………………. around
A.D. 768-770.
Q34. By 1448, Gutenberg perfected the system of printing. The first book he printed was the…………. .
Match the following items in column A with those in column B and choose the correct answer from
the options given below :
Q35.
Column A Column B
(i) Amar Jiban (a) Jyotiba Phule
(ii) Gulamgiri (b) Martin Luther
(iii) Ninety Five Theses (c) Jayadeva
(iv) Gitagovinda (d) Rashsundari Debi

(A) (i) - (a) (ii) - (b) (iii) - (d) (iv) - (c)

(B) (i) - (d) (ii) - (b) (iii) - (c) (iv) - (a)
(C) (i) - (c) (ii) - (b) (iii) - (a) (iv) - (d)
(D) (i) - (d) (ii) - (a) (iii) - (b) (iv) - (c)

Q35.
Column A Column B
(i) Martin Luther (a) Printed Bible
(ii) Johann Guttenberg (b) China
(iii) Indian Industrialist (c) Ninety Five Theses
(iv) Paper (d) Japan

(A) (i) - (a) (ii) - (b) (iii) - (d) (iv) - (c)

(B) (i) - (d) (ii) - (c) (iii) - (a) (iv) - (b)
(C) (i) - (c) (ii) - (b) (ili) - (a) (iv) - (d)
(D) (i) - (d) (ii) - (b) (iii) - (a) (iv) - (c)

Assertion & Reasoning Based Questions :

Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as given below:
(i) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(ii) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(iii) A is true but R is false.
(iv) A is false but R is true.

Q36. Assertion A: Hand written manuscripts could not satisfy the ever increasing demand for books during
the 13 century in Europe.
Reason: With the growing demand for books, wood block printing gradually became more and more
popular.
•
Q37.Assertion A: The Roman Church began to maintain an index of prohibited books from 1558.
Reason R: The Roman Church was troubled by the questioning of the faith due to popular religious
literature.
•
Q38. Assertion A: India had a very rich and old tradition of manuscripts in various languages.
Reason R: Manuscripts were produced by using woodblock technology.
•
 Grade X
Social Science
Session: 2024 – 25
Assignment
Chapter 1 Power Sharing

Multiple Choice Questions :

Q1. In Belgium, the percentage of French community is:
(a) 54%
(b) 40%
(c) 30%
(d) 20%

Q2. Which is the major social group of Sri Lanka ?

(a) Sinhalese
(b) Indian Tamils
(c) Sri Lankan Tamils
(d) Muslims

Q3. The power sharing arrangement in Belgium prevented the possible division of the country on :
(a) Linguistic basis
(b) Religious basis
(c) Regional basis
(d) None of the above

Q4. Which language is spoken by the majority of Belgians?

(a) German
(b) Dutch
(c) French
(d) English

Q5. In which year Sri Lanka emerged as an independent country ?

(a) 1947
(b) 1948
(c) 1949
(d) 1950

Q6. Which language was declared as the only official language of Sri Lanka by an Act passed in 1956 ?
(a) Tamil
(b) Sinhala
(c) Hindi
(d) English

Q7. In which part of Sri Lanka are the Sri Lankan Tamils concentrated ?
(a) North and South
(b) East and West
(c) North and East
(d) South and East

Q8. Which language is spoken by 20% people of capital Brussels ?

(a)French
(b) German
(c) Dutch
(d) Latin

Q9. Arrange the following events in correct sequence.

(i) The relations between the Sinhala and Tamil communities strained over time.
(ii) The Sri Lankan Tamils launched parties and struggles for the recognition of Tamil as an official
language, for regional autonomy and equality of opportunity in securing education and jobs.
(iii) In 1956, an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the only official language.
(iv) All the government measures gradually increased the feeling of alienation among the Sri Lankan
Tamils.
Options –
(a) ii-iv-i-iii
(b) iii-iv-i-ii
(c) iii-iv-ii-i
(d) i-ii-iv-iii

Q10. Which religion is followed by Sinhala speaking people ?

(a) Hinduism
(b) Buddhism
(c) Islam
(d) None of the above

Q11. Which is the state religion of Sri Lanka ?

(a) Buddhism
(b) Islam
(c) Hinduism
(d) Christianity

Q12. Which of the following was not one of the initial demands of Sri Lankan Tamils ?
(a) Regional autonomy.
(b) Recognition of Tamil as an official language.
(c) Equal opportunities in securing jobs and education.
(d) Creation of an independent Tamil Eelam (state).

Q13. Which is the capital city of Belgium ?

(a) Brussels
(b) Bonn
(c) Wallonia
(d) Paris

Q14. Power struggle demanding separate Eelam was launched by:

(a) Sinhalese
(b) Buddhists
(c) Tamilians
(d) none of these
Q15. Belgium shares its border with:
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Luxembourg
(d) all of the above

Q16. Power shared among governments at different levels is also called:

(a) horizontal distribution
(b) vertical distribution
(c) slant distribution
(d) none of the above

Q17. A war-like conflict between two opposite groups in a country is called

(a) Cold war
(b) Civil war
(c) Ethnic war
(d) None of these

Q18. Sri Lanka is an island nation, just a few kilometres from the Southern coast of
(a) Goa
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Lakshadweep

Q19. What is the percentage of Sinhala-speaking people in Sri Lanka?

(a) 74%
(b) 75%
(c) 14%
(d) 19%

Q20. Power sharing is desirable because it

(a) helps the people of different communities to celebrated their festivals.
(b) imposes the will of the majority community over others.
(c) reduces the conflict between social groups.
(d) ensures the stability of political order.

Q21. Division of power between higher and lower level of government is known as
(a) vertical division of power
(b) horizontal distribution of power
(c) union division of power
(d) community division of power

Q22. Power sharing is a good way to ensure the stability of:

(a) population
(b) political order
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above

Q23. Which of the following is not the benefit of power sharing?

(a) It upholds the spirit of democracy.
 (b) Political parties get their expected share.
(c) It ensures political stability in the long-run.
(d) It reduces the possibility of conflicts between social groups.

Q24. Which of the following is not the form of power sharing?

(a) Vertical division of power
(b) Horizontal division of power
(c) Division of power between people
(d) Division of power among social groups

Q25. The idea of power-sharing has emerged in opposition to the notions of undivided ____ .
(a) political power
(b) judiciary power
(c) legislative power
(d) executive power

Q26. With which of the following countries, Belgium does not share its borders?
(a) Luxemburg
(b) Italy
(c) Netherlands
(d) Germany

Q27. Name the community who got the benefit of economic development and education much later in
Belgium?
(a) French-speaking
(b) German-speaking
(c) English-speaking
(d) Dutch-speaking

Correct the following statements and rewrite :

Q28. In 1956, an act was passed in Belgium to recognise Sinhala as the only official language.
Ans.

Q29. The principle of Community Government is followed in Sri Lanka.

Ans.

Q30. Power sharing between state and local government is known as horizontal power sharing.
Ans.

Q31. Moral reasons of power sharing stress that the power sharing will bring out better outcome.
Ans.

Q32. German speaking people constituted a majority in the whole Belgium, but a minority in the capital.
Ans.

Fill in the blanks:

Q33. ………….. emerged as an independent country in 1948.
Q34. Sinhala was recognised as an official language of Sri Lanka in an act passed in …………. .

Q35. The minority ……………. speaking community was relatively rich and powerful in Belgium.

Q36. The sharing of power at different levels of government is called ………….. divisions.

Q37. …………….. government in Belgium is a good example of power sharing among different social
groups.

Q38. Power sharing is the very spirit of democracy because

………………………………………………………………………………………………………………

Read the information and write a single term :

Q39. A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by
disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority

Ans

Q40. It is a government under which two or more than two sets of governments govern the country.
Ans.

Match the following items in column A with those in column B and choose the correct answer from
the options given below:

Q41.

Column A Column B
(a) Dutch speaking people in
(i) Brussels majority
(b) Dutch speaking people in
(ii) India minority
(c) Majoritarianism
(iii) Belgium
(d) Secular State
(iv) Sri Lanka

(A) (i) - (b) (ii) - (d) (iii) - (a) (iv) - (c)

(B) (i) - (d) (ii) - (a) (iii) - (b) (iv) - (c)
(C) (i) - (c) (ii) - (a) (iii) - (d) (iv) - (b)
(D) (i) - (d) (ii) - (b) (iii) - (a) (iv) - (c)

Assertion And Reasoning type questions:

DIRECTION : Mark the option which is most suitable :
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

Q42. Assertion : In Belgium, the leaders realized that the unity of the country is possible by respecting the
feelings and interest of different countries.
Reason : Belgium favoured Dutch speaking community.
Q43. Assertion : In a democracy, everyone has voice in the shaping of public policies.
Reason : India has federal system.

Q44. Assertion : Belgium and Sri Lanka both faced ethical tension among different communities.
Reason : Both the countries resolved the conflict by power sharing arrangement which gave equal
representation to all the communities.

Q45. Assertion : Power Sharing is good.

Reason : It leads to ethical ten sion.
 Grade – X
Session 2024 – 25
Chapter – Federalism

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. Which of the following is not a feature of federalism?

a) Two or more levels of government
b) Single integrated judiciary
c) Distribution of powers between various levels of government
d) Each level of government has its own jurisdiction
2. Which of the following countries is an example of a federal system?
a) China
b) United Kingdom
c) United States of America
d) France
3.In India, which of the following subjects is included in the Union List?
a) Agriculture
b) Education
c) Defence
d) Police
4. Which level of government in India can make laws on subjects in the Concurrent List?
a) Only the Union Government
b) Only the State Governments
c) Both Union and State Governments
d) Only the local government
5. What is the primary objective of federalism?
a) To promote a unitary government
b) To divide the powers between central and state governments
c) To create a single level of government
d) To centralize all powers
6. Which amendment to the Indian Constitution made Panchayati Raj a constitutional institution?
a) 42nd Amendment
b) 44th Amendment
c) 73rd Amendment
d) 86th Amendment
7. What is the main feature of a federal government?
a) Power is centralized
b) Power is shared between central and state governments
c) Only central government has the power
d) State governments are more powerful
8. Which of the following is a unitary feature of the Indian Constitution?
a) Rigid Constitution
b) Supremacy of the Constitution
c) Single citizenship
d) Independent judiciary
9. Which body in India is responsible for resolving disputes between different levels of government?
a) President
b) Parliament
c) Supreme Court
d) Election Commission
10. Which one of the following is not a source of revenue for the state governments in India?
a) Sales tax
b) Land revenue
c) Income tax
d) Excise duty on alcohol
11. Which of the following is included in the State List?
a) Defence
b) Police
c) Banking
d) Foreign affairs
12. The division of powers between the central and state governments in India is outlined in which part of
the Constitution?
a) Part I
b) Part III
c) Part V
d) Part XI
13. Which institution conducts elections for local governments in India?
a) Election Commission of India
b) State Election Commissions
c) Panchayati Raj Institutions
d) Municipal Corporations
14. Which of the following is not a federal country?
a) Canada
b) Brazil
c) Sri Lanka
d) Australia
15. The residuary powers in India are vested in:
a) State Governments
b) Local Governments
c) Union Government
d) Judiciary
16. Which article of the Indian Constitution deals with the establishment of a Finance Commission?
a) Article 280
b) Article 370
c) Article 352
d) Article 123
17. How many schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?
a) 8
b) 10
c) 12
d) 14
18. Who has the power to reorganize the states in India?
a) President
b) Prime Minister
c) Parliament
d) Supreme Court
19. Which of the following states in India has its own Constitution?
a) Punjab
b) Maharashtra
c) Jammu and Kashmir
d) Karnataka
20. Which of the following is an essential characteristic of a federal state?
a) Centralization of power
b) Decentralization of power
c) Single level of government
d) No written constitution
21. In a federal system, the powers of the different levels of government are specified in the:
a) Constitution
b) Supreme Court decisions
c) Parliamentary laws
d) Executive orders
22. Which of the following is a subject of the Concurrent List?
a) Defence
b) Education
 c) Police
d) Banking
23. Which level of government has the authority to levy taxes on income, other than agricultural income, in
India?
a) Central Government
b) State Governments
c) Both Central and State Governments
d) Local Governments
24. The system of Panchayati Raj involves:
a) Central government control
b) Direct elections at all levels
c) Decentralization of power to local governments
d) Strong central oversight
25. Which one of the following languages is included in the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
a) English
b) French
c) Spanish
d) Konkani

Fill in the Blanks:

26. In a federal system, the powers are divided between the central government and the ____________
government.

27. The _____________ Amendment Act of 1992 provided constitutional status to local self-government
institutions in India.

28. In India, the _____________ List contains subjects on which both the central and state governments
can legislate.

29. The __________________ Commission is set up to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between
the central and state governments.

30. The ______________ system of government divides the power and responsibilities between different
levels of government to ensure a balance of power.

Correct the Statement and Rewrite

31. In a federal system, power is centralized in the hands of the national government.

32. The Indian Constitution does not provide for a federal system of government.

33. Education is exclusively a subject of the Union List in India.

34. The 42nd Amendment Act of 1976 provided constitutional status to local self-government institutions in
India.

35. The residuary powers in India are vested in the state governments.

36. Match the following and mark the correct option below:
Column A Column B
 1. Union List a. Subjects on which both Union and State governments can legislate
2. State List b. Panchayati Raj Institutions Act
3. Concurrent List. c. Subjects under the central government jurisdiction
4. 73rd Amendment Act. d. Subjects under the state government jurisdiction
5. Residuary Powers e. Powers not listed in the Union, State, or Concurrent Lists
Options:
a) 1. - c., 2. - d., 3. - a., 4. - b., 5. - e.
b) 1. - a., 2. - d., 3. - c., 4. - e., 5. - b.
c) 1. - b., 2. - a., 3. - d., 4. - e., 5. - c.
d) 1. - c., 2. - a., 3. - b., 4. - b., 5. - e.

Assertion and Reasoning type questions:

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true

37. Assertion (A): Federalism ensures the division of powers between the central and state governments.
Reason (R): It helps in maintaining unity among diversity and accommodating regional diversity within
a country.

38. Assertion (A): The Union List in India includes subjects of national importance such as defence and
foreign affairs.
Reason (R): States have no authority to legislate on subjects included in the Union List.

39. Assertion (A): The 73rd and 74th Amendment Acts of the Indian Constitution strengthened federalism
by decentralizing power to local self-government institutions.
Reason (R): These amendments aimed to ensure democratic participation and decision-making at the
grassroots level.

40. Assertion (A): Federalism leads to a dual polity with separate governments for the Centre and the
states.
Reason (R): Each level of government in a federal system has its own jurisdiction and can operate
independently within its sphere.
 Grade – X
Session 2024 – 25
Chapter – Political Parties
Assignment

Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)

1. What is the primary function of political parties?
a) To conduct the census
b) To represent citizens’ interests
c) To manage the judiciary
d) To implement the budget
2. Which of the following is a feature of political parties?
a) Conducting elections
b) Providing public services
c) Forming government
d) Regulating trade
3. Which of the following is a component of a political party?
a) The Legislature
b) The President
c) The Organization
d) The Judiciary
4. Which of these countries has a multi-party system?
a) China
b) United States
c) India
d) Saudi Arabia
5. Which Indian political party was formed in 1885?
a) Bharatiya Janata Party
b) Communist Party of India
c) Indian National Congress
d) Nationalist Congress Party
6. What is a coalition government?
a) Government formed by a single party
b) Government formed by a few independent candidates
c) Government formed by two or more political parties
d) Government formed by the President
7. Which political party is associated with the colour red?
a) Indian National Congress
b) Bharatiya Janata Party
c) Communist Party of India
d) Bahujan Samaj Party
8. Who can become a member of a political party in India?
a) Only people from a certain region
b) Only people from a certain caste
c) Any Indian citizen
d) Only government employees
9. What is the symbol of the Indian National Congress?
a) Lotus
b) Hand
c) Elephant
d) Cycle
10. Which body oversees the election process in India?
a) Supreme Court
b) Parliament
c) Election Commission
d) President
11. What is a recognized political party in India?
 a) A party that wins any election
b) A party recognized by the Supreme Court
c) A party recognized by the Election Commission
d) A party with more than 1000 members
12. Which of the following is a regional party in India?
a) Indian National Congress
b) Bharatiya Janata Party
c) Shiv Sena
d) Communist Party of India
13. Which system allows only one political party to control and run the government?
a) Multi-party system
b) Two-party system
c) One-party system
d) Coalition system
14. Which party dominated Indian politics for several decades after independence?
a) Bharatiya Janata Party
b) Indian National Congress
c) Communist Party of India
d) Nationalist Congress Party
15. Who is responsible for the day-to-day functioning of a political party?
a) The Prime Minister
b) The Election Commission
c) The President of the party
d) The Judiciary
16. What is the symbol of the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP)?
a) Hand
b) Lotus
c) Elephant
d) Cycle
17. Which of the following is a function of political parties?
a) Conducting judicial trials
b) Conducting financial audits
c) Educating the electorate
d) Forming policies for trade unions
18. Which of these is not a challenge faced by political parties?
a) Lack of internal democracy
b) Dynastic succession
c) Public relations campaigns
d) Growing role of money and muscle power
19. What is a national party?
a) A party operating only in one state
b) A party with influence in several states
c) A party that contests only local elections
d) A party that represents a particular religion
20. Which political party has the symbol of an elephant?
a) Indian National Congress
b) Bharatiya Janata Party
c) Bahujan Samaj Party
d) Communist Party of India
21. Which of the following statements about political parties is correct?
a) They help in the formation of government policies
b) They work independently of citizens’ interests
c) They avoid making election promises
d) They cannot be registered with the Election Commission
22. Which party system exists in China?
a) One-party system
b) Two-party system
c) Multi-party system
d) Coalition system
23. Match the Following:
 Column A Column B
1. Indian National Congress a. Elephant
2. Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP). b. Lotus
3. Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP) c. Hand
4. Election Commission of India. d. Regulates elections
5. Multi-party system e. India

Options:
a) 1. - c., 2. - b., 3. - a., 4. - d., 5. - e.
b) 1. - a., 2. - d., 3. - c., 4. - e., 5. - b.
c) 1. - b., 2. - a., 3. - d., 4. - e., 5. - c.
d) 1. - c., 2. - a., 3. - b., 4. - b., 5. - e.

Fill in the Blanks:

24. The __________ is a recognized political party that operates at the national level in India.
25. The Election Commission of India is responsible for ensuring free and fair __________ in the country.
26. A __________ system is one in which only two main political parties have a significant chance of winning
elections and forming the government.
27. The Indian National Congress was formed in the year __________.
28. Political parties play a crucial role in __________ public opinion and providing choices to voters.

Assertion and Reasoning Questions:

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.

29. Assertion (A): Political parties are essential in a democratic system.

Reason (R): They provide a platform for different policies and programs and ensure accountability of the
government to the people.

30. Assertion (A): India has a single-party system.

Reason (R): The Election Commission of India allows only one political party to contest in elections.

Correct the Statement and Rewrite:

31. Political parties do not play any role in forming government policies.

32. The Election Commission of India does not regulate political parties.

33. India has a single-party system..

34. The primary function of political parties is to conduct business.

35. Regional parties operate only at the national level.

 Grade – X
Session 2024 – 25
Chapter – 1 Development
Assignment

QI. Which is the most common method of measuring economic development?

A. Profit loss
B. Income
C. Sales
D. Import-export

Q2. What are the developmental goals of landless rural labourers?

A. More days of work and better wages
B. Acquirement of land for self tilling
C. More hours of work
D. Self-reliance

Q3.What brings about stable income?

A. Better wages
B. Work opportunities
C. Regular work
D. decent price for their crops or other products

Q4. Besides seeking more income, there is something people resent, what is it?
A. Getting fewer wages for more work
B. Discrimination
C. No work
D. Poverty

Q5. What is the one factor on which our life depends?

A. employment
B. Security of work
C. Money, or material things that one can buy with it
D. Freedom

Q6. If women are engaged in paid work, what difference does it make?
A. Their dignity in the household and society decreases
B. No difference
C. No dignity
D. their dignity in the household and society increases

Q7. Different persons could have ……….notions of a country’s development.

A. different as well as conflicting
B. Same
C. Indifferent
D. No

Q8. What is considered to be one of the most important attributes when we compare countries at
the level of development?
A. Industrial development
B. Resources of the country
C. Income
D. Import-export

Q9. More income means …………..

A. Average out of needs of people
B. more of all things that human beings need.
C. No effect on the common man
D. More business

Q10. …………….. is the total income of the country divided by its total population?
A. per capita income
B. Gross income
C. Net income
D. Total income

Q11. In World Development Reports, brought out by the World Bank, which criterion is used in
classifying countries?
A. Total income
B. Gross income
C. per capita income
D. Net income

Q12. Which of the following neighbouring countries has better performance in terms of human
development than India?
A. Bangladesh
B. Sri Lanka
C. Nepal
D. Pakistan

Q13. Countries with per capita income of US$ ………… per annum and above in 2017, are called rich
countries?
A. 12,126
B. 11246
C. 12056
D. 10056

Q14. Countries with per capita income of US$ ____ or less are called low-income countries.
A. 995
B. 885
C. 955
D. 855

Q15. Which category does India come under?

A. High-income countries
B. Low middle-income countries
C. Low-income countries
D. High middle-income countries

Q16. What was India’s per capita income in 2017?

A. US$ 1950 per annum
B. US$ 1880 per annum
C. US$ 1930 per annum
D. US$ 1820 per annum.
Q17. What can money not buy you?
A. Unadulterated medicines
B. Water
C. Pollution-free environment
D. Organic food

Q18. Why does Kerala have a low Infant Mortality Rate?

A. adequate provision of basic health and educational facilities
B. Suitable climate
C. Pollution Free environment
D. Good water

Q19. Over the past decade or so, ……………indicators have come to be widely used along with income
as a measure of development?
A. Health and nutrition
B. health and education
C. Child development
D. Human development

Q20. According to the Human Development Report, 2018, United Nations Development Programme
which two countries have a higher Life expectancy at Birth rate than India?
A. Sri Lanka and Myanmar
B. Pakistan and Nepal
C. Pakistan and Bangladesh
D. Nepal and Bangladesh

Q21. Per Capita Income is calculated in ………. for all countries?

A. Pounds
B. Euros
C. Dollars
D. Rupees

Q22. About ……….. districts have reported a water level decline of over 4 meters during the past 20
years?
A. 300
B. 500
C. 450
D. 350

Q23. Nearly ………..of the country is overusing their groundwater reserves?

A. Two-third
B. One-third
C. Half
D. One fourth

Q24. Where is groundwater overuse particularly found?

A. Assam
B. Shillong
C. Punjab
D. Karnataka

Q25. Groundwater is an example of …………..resources?

A. Renewable
B. Non-renewable
C. Protected
D. Reserve

Q26. Since the second half of the twentieth century, a number of scientists have been warning
that…………
A. Health and nutrition is declining
B. per capita income is unstable
C. Levels of resources are not sustainable
D. levels of development are not sustainable.

Q27. How can we find out if we are properly nourished?

A. Through good weight and scale
B. Body Mass Index
C. Nutrient table
D. Height and weight table

Q28. The literacy rate for the rural population of males in Uttar Pradesh is………
A. 73%
B. 70%
C. 76%
D. 78%

Q29. In the comparative data on Haryana, Kerala, and Uttar Pradesh which state has the highest
literacy rate?
A. Haryana
B. Kerala
C. UP
D. All are equal

Q30. In the data for the Per capita income of Haryana, Kerala, Bihar-which state has the lowest per
capita income?
A. Haryana
B. Kerala
C. Bihar
D. All equal
 Grade – X
Session 2024 – 25
Chapter – Sectors of Indian economy

Assignment
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Which sector is also known as the agricultural and related sector?
A) Primary Sector
B) Secondary Sector
C) Tertiary Sector
D) Quaternary Sector
2. Which of the following activities is included in the primary sector?
A) Banking
B) Manufacturing
C) Farming
D) Software Development
3. The secondary sector includes activities related to:
A) Agriculture
B) Services
C) Industry and Manufacturing
D) Education
4. Which sector is also known as the service sector?
A) Primary Sector
B) Secondary Sector
C) Tertiary Sector
D) Quinary Sector
5. Which of the following is an example of a tertiary sector activity?
A) Mining
B) Fishing
C) Construction
D) Healthcare
6. The GDP of a country is the total value of:
A) Goods produced
B) Services produced
C) Goods and services produced
D) Taxes collected
7. Which sector contributes the most to India’s GDP?
A) Primary Sector
B) Secondary Sector
C) Tertiary Sector
D) Quinary Sector
8. Employment in the secondary sector involves:
A) Raw material extraction
B) Manufacturing and construction
C) Service provision
D) Technology development
9. Which of the following is a characteristic of the primary sector?
A) Capital intensive
B) Service-oriented
C) Labour intensive
D) Technology driven
10. Which sector is primarily responsible for providing services like transportation, communication, and banking?
A) Primary Sector
B) Secondary Sector
C) Tertiary Sector
 D) Quaternary Sector
11. The industrial sector is another name for the:
A) Primary Sector
B) Secondary Sector
C) Tertiary Sector
D) Quaternary Sector
12. Which of the following sectors has the largest workforce in India?
A) Primary Sector
B) Secondary Sector
C) Tertiary Sector
D) Quaternary Sector
13. The term ‘GDP’ stands for:
A) Gross Domestic Product
B) General Domestic Product
C) Gross Development Product
D) General Development Product
14. Which of the following activities is not a part of the tertiary sector?
A) Banking
B) Teaching
C) Software Development
D) Mining
15. Which of the following is true about the tertiary sector in India?
A) It is shrinking in size
B) It has the smallest share in GDP
C) It is growing and becoming more important
D) It is only related to agriculture
16. Which sector includes activities like tailoring and carpentry?
A) Primary Sector
B) Secondary Sector
C) Tertiary Sector
D) Quaternary Sector
17. In a developed economy, which sector typically has the largest share of employment?
A) Primary Sector
B) Secondary Sector
C) Tertiary Sector
D) Quinary Sector
18. Public services like police, fire departments, and defense are part of which sector?
A) Primary Sector
B) Secondary Sector
C) Tertiary Sector
D) Quaternary Sector
19. Which of the following is an example of an activity in the quaternary sector?
A) Agriculture
B) Manufacturing
C) IT services and research
D) Retail trade
20. Which sector is associated with the extraction of raw materials?
A) Primary Sector
B) Secondary Sector
C) Tertiary Sector
D) Quaternary Sector
21. Which of the following best describes the secondary sector?
A) Provides raw materials
B) Produces finished goods
C) Offers services
D) Conducts research
22. Which sector is most directly affected by technological advancements?
 A) Primary Sector
B) Secondary Sector
C) Tertiary Sector
D) Quinary Sector
23. Which sector is most likely to employ workers with high levels of education and specialized skills?
A) Primary Sector
B) Secondary Sector
C) Tertiary Sector
D) Quaternary Sector
24. Which of the following is true about the primary sector in India?
A) It is the largest contributor to GDP
B) It employs the largest share of the workforce
C) It is the most technologically advanced
D) It is shrinking in size
25. Which sector often acts as the backbone of the economy in terms of providing infrastructure?
A) Primary Sector
B) Secondary Sector
C) Tertiary Sector
D) Quaternary Sector

26. Match the following:

Column A Column B
1. Primary Sector A. Banking and Education
2. Secondary Sector B. Agriculture and Mining
3. Tertiary Sector C. Manufacturing and Construction
4. Gross Domestic Product (GDP) D. Total value of goods and services produced
5. Public Distribution System (PDS) E. Distribution of subsidized food grains
Options:
a) 1. - c., 2. - b., 3. - d., 4. - a., 5. - e.
b) 1. - a., 2. - d., 3. - c., 4. - e., 5. - b.
c) 1. - b., 2. - c., 3. - a., 4. - d., 5. - e.
d) 1. - c., 2. - d., 3. - a., 4. - b., 5. - e.

Fill in the blanks:

27. .The __________ sector is also known as the agricultural and related sector.
28. The ______________ sector includes activities related to industry and manufacturing.
29. The __________ sector is responsible for providing services like banking, education, and healthcare.
30. The Gross Domestic Product (GDP) of a country is the total value of __________ and __________ produced
within a country during a given period.
31. The ______________ sector employs the largest share of the workforce in India.

Correct the statement and rewrite:

32. The tertiary sector only includes government services.
•

33. Agriculture is a part of the secondary sector.

•

34. The secondary sector involves the extraction of raw materials.

•
35. The primary sector is the largest contributor to India’s GDP.
•

36. The Public Distribution System (PDS) is responsible for exporting food grains.
•

Assertion and reasoning type questions:

A) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true, but R is false.
D) A is false, but R is true.
37. Assertion (A): The primary sector is the largest employer in India.
Reason (R): The primary sector involves high levels of mechanization and advanced technology.
•
38. Assertion (A): The tertiary sector contributes the most to India’s GDP.
Reason (R): The tertiary sector includes a wide range of services such as education, banking, and healthcare which
are vital for economic growth.
•
39. Assertion (A): The secondary sector is also known as the industrial sector.
Reason (R): The secondary sector includes activities related to manufacturing and construction.
•
40. Assertion (A): The primary sector has a higher GDP contribution than the tertiary sector in developed countries.
Reason (R): Developed countries have advanced service industries that significantly contribute to their GDP.
•
 Grade – X
Session 2024 – 25
Chapter – 3 Money and Credit
Assignment

Multiple choice questions:

Q1. What is the primary function of money?
- A. Medium of exchange
- B. Store of value
- C. Unit of account
- D. All of the above

Q2. Which of the following is not a form of modern money?**

- A. Currency notes
- B. Demand deposits
- C. Barter system
- D. Cheques

Q3. What do we mean by the term 'double coincidence of wants'?**

- A. When one person’s wants match exactly with another person’s wants
- B. When two people want to buy the same product
- C. When two people want to sell the same product
- D. When both parties agree on a price

Q4. Which institution issues currency notes in India?**

- A. State Bank of India
- B. Reserve Bank of India
- C. Ministry of Finance
- D. Indian Government

Q5. Which of the following is not a function of commercial banks?**

- A. Accepting deposits
- B. Providing loans
- C. Issuing currency
- D. Providing financial services

Q6. Which of the following is an example of a formal source of credit?*

- A. Moneylender
- B. Cooperative bank
- C. Employer
- D. Friends and family

Q7. What does SHG stand for?

- A. Self Help Group
- B. Small Help Group
- C. Smart Help Group
- D. Self Housing Group

Q8. Which of the following is not a characteristic of informal sources of credit?**

- A. No proper documentation
- B. High interest rates
- C. Flexibility in terms
- D. Government regulation
Q9. Which term describes the additional amount paid by the borrower to the lender along with
the principal?
- A. Credit
- B. Loan
- C. Interest
- D. Mortgage
Q10. What is collateral?
- A. A type of loan
- B. Security against a loan
- C. Interest rate on a loan
- D. The amount of loan

Q11. Which of the following is not a feature of SHGs?

- A. They help in pooling savings
- B. They provide loans to members
- C. They charge high interest rates
- D. They are self-managed

Q12. What is the major difference between formal and informal sources of credit?
- A. The purpose of the loan
- B. The interest rate
- C. The lender’s profession
- D. Government regulation

Q13. Which sector is the largest employer in India?

- A. Industrial sector
- B. Agricultural sector
- C. Service sector
- D. IT sector

Q14. What does the term 'terms of credit' refer to?

- A. The length of time to repay the loan
- B. The conditions under which the loan is given
- C. The amount of loan
- D. The number of lenders

Q15. **What is the primary purpose of a bank?

- A. To provide employment
- B. To serve as a place for storing money
- C. To facilitate financial transactions
- D. To provide insurance

Q16. **Which among the following is a formal sector credit source?

- A. Moneylenders
- B. Relatives and friends
- C. Cooperative societies
- D. Traders
Q17. **What is the full form of RBI?**
- A. Regional Bank of India
- B. Reserve Bank of India
- C. Royal Bank of India
- D. Rural Bank of India
Q18. **Which of the following is not a money-related term?
- A. Demand deposits
- B. Fixed deposits
 - C. Time deposits
- D. Agricultural deposits

Q19. **Who benefits the most from the formal sources of credit?
- A. Small farmers
- B. Big business persons
- C. Daily wage workers
- D. Landless labourers

Q20. Which one of the following statements is true about modern currency?
- A. It has value of its own
- B. It is made of precious metals
- C. It is authorized by the government
- D. It is issued by moneylenders

Q21. Which sector in India is known to have a significant informal credit system?**
- A. Urban sector
- B. Rural sector
- C. Industrial sector
- D. Corporate sector

Q22.Why do people prefer borrowing money from SHGs?**

- A. Lower interest rates
- B. High flexibility
- C. No need for collateral
- D. All of the above

Q23. **Which of the following is a feature of money?

- A. It is perishable
- B. It is a medium of exchange
- C. It cannot be divided
- D. It loses value over time

Q24. **What is the primary advantage of demand deposits?

- A. They can be withdrawn anytime
- B. They earn high interest rates
- C. They require no minimum balance
- D. They are given by informal sources

Q25. **Which of the following institutions primarily provide long-term loans?

- A. Commercial banks
- B. Cooperative banks
- C. Development banks
- D. Moneylenders

Q26. Which of the following is a non-banking financial institution?

- A. RBI
- B. NABARD
- C. SBI
- D. None of the above

Q27. What is meant by ‘barter system’?

- A. Buying goods with money
- B. Exchanging goods without money
- C. Saving money
- D. Lending money
Q28. Which type of loans does not require collateral?
- A. Gold loans
- B. Educational loans
- C. Personal loans
- D. Mortgage loans

Q29. Who supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans?

- A. Government of India
- B. RBI
- C. Commercial banks
- D. Cooperative societies

Q30. What is the significance of credit in the economy?**

- A. It leads to increased production and employment
- B. It decreases purchasing power
- C. It reduces the GDP
- D. It lowers the standard of living

Correct the following statements and rewrite :

Q31. The barter system involves the use of money as a medium of exchange.
•

Q32. Informal sources of credit are supervised by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
•

Q33. Self Help Groups (SHGs) charge high interest rates and require collateral for loans.
•

Fill in the Blanks :

Q34. _________ is anything that is widely accepted in exchange for goods and services.
Q35. In India, the ___________ is responsible for issuing currency notes.
Q36. The interest rate, collateral, documentation requirement, and the mode of repayment
together comprise the ___________ of credit.
Q 37. A ___________ is a financial institution that accepts deposits from the public and lends out
money for various purposes.
Q38. Self Help Groups (SHGs) are small groups of people who come together to ___________ and
provide mutual support.
Assertion & Reasoning Based Questions :
Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as given below:
(i) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of the assertion.
(ii) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
(iii) A is true but R is false.
The (iv) A is false but R is true.

Q39. Assertion (A): Commercial banks create money by lending out a portion of the deposits they
receive.
Reason (R): The Reserve Bank of India allows commercial banks to keep only a fraction of their
deposits as reserves.
•
Q40. Assertion (A): Informal sources of credit are better than formal sources of credit.
Reason (R): Informal sources often do not require collateral and offer flexible terms of repayment
• .
 Grade – X
Session 2024 – 25
Chapter – 1 Resources and Development
Assignment
Q1. Which one of the following soils is ideal for growing cotton?
(a) Regur soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Desert soil
(d) Mountainous soil
Q2. Soil is formed by the process of
(a) Denudation
(b) Gradation
(c) Weathering
(d) Erosion
Q3. Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year is called
(a) Culturable waste land
(b) Current fallow land
(c) Waste land
(d) None of the above
Q4. “There is enough for everybody’s need but not for anybody’s greed”. Who said this?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
(c) M. K. Gandhi
(d) Sunder Lal Bahuguna
Q5. Resources which are surveyed and their quantity and quality have been determined
for utilisation are known as
(a) Potential resources
(b) Stock
(c) Developed resources
(d) Reserves
Q6. Which one of the following statements is correct as regard to international
resources?
(a) Resources which are regulated by international institutions.
(b) Resources which lie beyond the territorial waters.
(c) Resources which are found along the international frontier.
(d) Resources which are not yet developed.
Q7. The first International Earth Summit was held in
(a) Geneva
(b) New York
(c) Japan
(d) Rio de Janeiro
Q8. The most widespread relief feature of India is
(a) Mountains
(b) Forests
(c) Plains
(d) Plateaus
Q9. Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised
(a) Renewable
(b) Developed
(c) National
(d) Potential
Q10. Which one of the following statements is true about the term resources?
(a) Resources are free gifts of nature.
(b) They are the functions of human activities.
(c) All those things which are found in nature.
(d) Things which cannot be used to fulfill our needs.
Q11. The red soil is red in colour because:
(a) it is rich in humus.
(b) it is rich in iron compounds.
(c) it is derived from volcanic origin.
(d) it is rich in potash.
Q12. Soil formed by intense leaching is
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Red soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Desert
Q13. Which one of the following type of resource is iron ore?
(a) Renewable
(b) Biotic
(c) Flow
(d) Non-renewable
Q14. Under which of the following type of resource can tidal energy be put?
(a) Replenish able
(b) Human-made
(c) Abiotic
(d) Non-renewable
Q15. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab? (a)
Intensive cultivation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Over-irrigation
(d) Overgrazing
Q16. In which one of the following States is terrace cultivation practised?
(a) Punjab
(b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttaranchal
Q17. In which of the following States is black soil found?
(a) Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Jharkhand
Q18. What percentage of our land should be under forest according to the National Forest
Policy (1952)?
(a) 33
(b) 22.5
(c) 31
(d) 30
Q19. Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but
human beings do not have appropriate technology to access them are called:
(a) Potential resource
(b) Stock
(c) Developed resource
(d) Reserves
Q20. India’s territorial water extends upto a distance of:
(a) 12 km
(b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 19.2 miles
(d) 200 nautical miles
Q21. Resources that take long geological time for their formation are called:
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Reserve
(c) Community resources
(d) Non-renewable resources
Q22. Land that is left uncultivated for more than five agricultural years is called:
(a) Pasture land
(b) Culturable waste land
(c) Barren land
(d) Current fallow
Q23. Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as:
) Net sown area
(b) Forest cover
(c) Waste land
(d) Gross cropped area
Q24. In which of the following States mining has caused severe land degradation?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttaranchal
Q25. The main cause of land degradation in Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh
is:
(a) Mining
(b) Over irrigation
(c) Deforestation
(d) Over grazing
Q26. Which is the most common soil of Northern India?
(a) Black soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Red soil
Q27. Red soil is mostly found in:
(a) Parts of Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Upper Ganga Plains
(c) Eastern and Southern part of Deccan Plateau
(d) None of the above
Q28. Red soil is reddish in colour due to:
(a) high clay content
(b) presence of kankar nodules in the subsoil
(c) diffusion of iron in igneous and metamorphic rocks
(d) high moisture content
Q29. Which of the following is not important for soil formation?
(a) Relief
(b) Parent rock
(c) Climate
(d) Duration of day
Q30. Black soil is also called:
(a) Bangar
(b) Khadar
(c) Regur
(d) Humus
Q31. Black soils are common in:
(a) Deccan trap region
(b) Kashmir Valley
(c) Ganga Valley
(d) Northern Plains
Q32. Laterite soil is very useful for growing:
(a) Rice, wheat and mustard
(b) Tea, coffee and cashewnut
(c) Pulses, sugarcane and resin
(d) None of the above
Q33. Black soil is deficient in
(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Magnesium
(c) Potash
(d) Phosphoric contents
Q34. Which of the following soils has self-aeration capacity?
(a) Alluvial
(b) Red soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Mountain soil
Q35. Ploughing along the contour lines to decelerate the flow of water down the slopes is
called:
(a) Strip cropping
(b) Sheet erosion
(c) Contour ploughing
(d) Terrace cultivation
Q36. Which of the following is not a measure for soil conservation?
(a) Strip cropping
(b) Terrace cultivation
(c) Shelter belts
(d) Overdrawing of ground water
Q37. ___________ and ___________ are the methods of soil conservation in hilly areas.
Q38. Old alluvial soil is called ___________ .
Q39. ___________ is a method of growing rows of trees in arid regions.
Q40. ___________ soil has high water retaining capacity.
Q41. Land consisting of many gullies and ravines are called ___________ .
Correct the following statements and rewrite :
Q42. Black soil is the most widely spread and important soil of India.
Q43. Alluvial soil is also known as regur soil.
Q44. Literate soil is ideal for paddy and sugarcane.
Q45. Village commons like grazing grounds, ponds etc are national resources.
Q46. Manipur and Mizoram have more than 80% of net sown area.
Fill in the Blanks :
Q47. The entire northern plains are made of ………….. soil.
Q48. ……………. soil is very useful for growing tea and coffee.
Q49. ……………… soil develops on crystalline igneous rocks in area of low rainfall
Q49. ……………… soil is known as regur soil and ideal for growing
Q50. Continuous use of land over a long period of time without taking appropriate measures to
conserve and manage it, has resulted in …………….. .
 Grade – X
Session 2024 – 25
Chapter – Water Resources
Assignment

Multiple choice questions:

Q1. What percentage of the Earth’s surface is covered by water?
a) 50%
b) 60%
c) 70%
d) 80%
Q2. What is the primary source of freshwater on Earth?
a) Oceans
b) Rivers
c) Glaciers and ice caps
d) Underground aquifers
Q3. Which of the following is a renewable source of water?
a) Groundwater
b) Glaciers
c) Rainwater
d) All of the above
Q4. Which of these processes is part of the water cycle?
a) Evaporation
b) Condensation
c) Precipitation
d) All of the above
Q5. Which of the following is the main cause of water scarcity?
a) Overpopulation
b) Pollution
c) Industrialization
d) All of the above
Q6. What is the term for the area of land where all the water under it or draining off of it goes into
the same place?
a) Basin
b) Watershed
c) River system
d) Aquifer
Q7. Which type of irrigation method is considered most efficient for water conservation?
a) Flood irrigation
b) Drip irrigation
c) Furrow irrigation
d) Sprinkler irrigation
Q8. Which of the following can lead to the contamination of water resources?
a) Industrial waste
b) Agricultural runoff
c) Household sewage
d) All of the above
Q9. What percentage of the world’s freshwater is readily accessible for human use?
a) 0.3%
b) 2.5%
c) 10%
d) 30%
Q10. Which organization in India is responsible for the management of water resources?
a) Indian Meteorological Department
 b) Central Water Commission
c) National Water Resources Council
d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
Q11. What is the main objective of rainwater harvesting?
a) To reduce soil erosion
b) To increase groundwater levels
c) To prevent flooding
d) To increase agricultural productivity
Q12. Which river is known as the lifeline of India?
a) Ganges
b) Yamuna
c) Brahmaputra
d) Godavari
Q13. What is desalination?
a) Removing salt from seawater
b) Adding salt to freshwater
c) Cleaning polluted water
d) Recycling wastewater
Q14. Which of the following is a consequence of over-extraction of groundwater?
a) Land subsidence
b) Increased agricultural yield
c) More reliable water supply
d) Increased river flow
Q15. What does ‘groundwater recharge’ refer to?
a) The process of extracting groundwater
b) The process of replenishing groundwater
c) The depletion of groundwater
d) The contamination of groundwater
Q16. Which is the largest freshwater lake in the world by volume?
a) Lake Baikal
b) Lake Superior
c) Lake Victoria
d) Caspian Sea
Q17. Which method is used to purify water by passing it through a membrane to remove
impurities?
a) Filtration
b) Sedimentation
c) Reverse osmosis
d) Distillation
Q18. Which Indian state has the highest rainfall?
a) Maharashtra
b) Kerala
c) Meghalaya
d) Assam
Q19. What is the term for water held underground in the soil or in pores and crevices in rock?
a) Surface water
b) Groundwater
c) Rainwater
d) Freshwater
Q20. Which of the following practices can help in water conservation?
a) Fixing leaks
b) Using low-flow fixtures
c) Rainwater harvesting
d) All of the above
Q21. Which river basin is shared by the most countries?
a) Nile
 b) Amazon
c) Danube
d) Mekong
Q22. Which of the following is not a method of groundwater recharge?
a) Creating artificial ponds
b) Building check dams
c) Constructing canals
d) Rooftop rainwater harvesting
Q23. What is the main cause of water pollution?
a) Natural disasters
b) Human activities
c) Climate change
d) Geological processes
Q24. What is an aquifer?
a) A body of permeable rock that can contain or transmit groundwater
b) A surface water body
c) A type of cloud
d) An area prone to flooding
Q25. Which of the following is an effect of climate change on water resources?
a) Increased frequency of floods
b) Melting of glaciers
c) Changes in precipitation patterns
d) All of the above
Q26. Which process involves the addition of chlorine to water to kill pathogens?
a) Filtration
b) Chlorination
c) Sedimentation
d) Aeration
Q27. Which Indian river is also known as the “Sorrow of Bihar”?
a) Kosi
b) Ganga
c) Yamuna
d) Brahmaputra
Q28. Which of the following is a benefit of constructing dams?
a) Flood control
b) Hydroelectric power generation
c) Irrigation
d) All of the above
Q29. Which type of rock formation is best for storing groundwater?
a) Igneous
b) Metamorphic
c) Sedimentary
d) Volcanic
Q30. What is the most common method of water distribution in urban areas?
a) Canal irrigation
b) Drip irrigation
c) Piped water supply
d) Tanker supply

Correct the following statements and rewrite :

Q31. The Jamuna River is known as the lifeline of India.
•

Q32. Lake Baikal is the largest salt water lake in the world by volume.
•
Q33. Water pollution is not caused by human activities.
•

Fill in the Blanks :

Q34. ____________ is the process by which water vapour cools and changes into liquid droplets,
forming clouds.
Q35. The process of artificially providing water to crops is known as______ ______.
Q36. The underground layer of water-bearing rock from which groundwater can be extracted is
called an ____________.
Q37. ____________ is the practice of collecting and storing rainwater for future use, often used to
increase groundwater levels.

Assertion & Reasoning Based Questions :

Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) as given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
Q38. Assertion (A): Drip irrigation is an efficient method of watering plants.
Reason (R): Drip irrigation delivers water directly to the roots of plants, reducing water wastage.
•
Q39. Assertion (A): Groundwater recharge is important for maintaining water tables.
Reason (R): Over-extraction of groundwater can lead to land subsidence and depletion of water
resources.
•
Q40. Assertion (A): Desalination is widely used to provide freshwater in coastal areas.
Reason (R): Desalination removes salt from seawater, making it suitable for drinking and
irrigation.
•
Q41. Assertion (A): Watershed management helps in the conservation of water.
Reason (R): Watershed management involves the sustainable use of natural resources, including
soil and water conservation.
•
Q42. Assertion (A): Rainwater harvesting can help mitigate water scarcity.
Reason (R): Rainwater harvesting involves collecting and storing rainwater for future use, which
can replenish groundwater levels.
•
 Grade – X
Session 2024 – 25
Chapter – Agriculture

Assignment

Multiple Choice Questions:

Q1. Which crop is known as the ‘Golden fiber’ in India?
a) Cotton
b) Jute
c) Silk
d) Wool
Q2. Which of the following is a Rabi crop?
a) Rice
b) Maize
c) Wheat
d) Cotton
Q3. Which type of farming is characterized by large-scale, commercial operations?
a) Subsistence farming
b) Intensive farming
c) Extensive farming
d) Organic farming
Q4. What is the main purpose of mixed farming?
a) Growing only one type of crop
b) Raising animals and growing crops simultaneously
c) Practicing shifting cultivation
d) Focusing solely on horticulture
Q5. Which soil is ideal for the cultivation of cotton?
a) Red soil
b) Black soil
c) Laterite soil
d) Alluvial soil
Q6. Which irrigation method is most efficient in conserving water?
a) Flood irrigation
b) Sprinkler irrigation
c) Drip irrigation
d) Canal irrigation
Q7. Which state is the largest producer of rice in India?
a) Punjab
b) West Bengal
c) Uttar Pradesh
d) Bihar
Q8. Which crop requires a lot of water for its growth?
a) Wheat
b) Bajra
c) Rice
d) Gram
Q9. Which factor is not a climatic factor affecting agriculture?
 a) Rainfall
b) Temperature
c) Soil texture
d) Humidity
Q10. Which of the following is not a food crop?
a) Wheat
b) Sugarcane
c) Rice
d) Maize
Q11. What is the Green Revolution?
a) A program for the promotion of organic farming
b) A movement aimed at increasing dairy production
c) An initiative for increased food grain production using modern techniques
d) A program focused on reforestation
Q12. Which crop is commonly associated with the practice of shifting cultivation?
a) Coffee
b) Jute
c) Millets
d) Cotton
Q13. What is the main feature of subsistence farming?
a) Large-scale production for export
b) Mechanized farming
c) Production for the farmer’s own consumption
d) Use of chemical fertilizers
Q14. Which state is the leading producer of tea in India?
a) Assam
b) Kerala
c) Tamil Nadu
d) West Bengal
Q15. What is the primary reason for the seasonal migration of farmers in India?
a) Lack of sufficient rainfall
b) Search for better employment opportunities
c) To attend to social functions
d) Political reasons
Q16. Which agricultural practice helps in the retention of soil fertility?
a) Shifting cultivation
b) Crop rotation
c) Monoculture
d) Terrace farming
Q17. Which crop is grown during the summer season and harvested in the autumn?
a) Rabi crop
b) Kharif crop
c) Zaid crop
d) Annual crop
Q18. Which nutrient is not essential for plant growth?
a) Nitrogen
b) Phosphorus
c) Calcium
d) Sodium
Q19. Which crop is India the largest producer and exporter of?
a) Wheat
b) Rice
c) Tea
d) Cotton
Q20. Which farming technique is characterized by the use of high doses of biochemical inputs and
irrigation?
a) Extensive farming
b) Organic farming
c) Intensive farming
d) Subsistence farming
Q21. Which state is known for the highest production of spices in India?
a) Gujarat
b) Karnataka
c) Kerala
d) Maharashtra
Q22. What does HYV stand for in the context of agriculture?
a) High Yield Variety
b) Heavy Yield Vegetable
c) High Year Variety
d) Heavy Year Vegetable
Q23. Which is not a characteristic of intensive subsistence farming?
a) High population density
b) Small farm sizes
c) Use of high doses of modern inputs
d) Low productivity
Q24. Which of the following is a commercial crop?
a) Rice
b) Wheat
c) Cotton
d) Maize
Q25. Which crop is sown in winter and harvested in summer?
a) Kharif crop
b) Rabi crop
c) Zaid crop
d) Annual crop
Q26. What is the main feature of organic farming?
a) Use of genetically modified seeds
b) Use of chemical fertilizers
c) Use of organic manure and biological pesticides
d) Mechanized farming

One word answer type questions:

Q27. Which region is known for coffee production in India?
____________________

Q28. Which soil type is predominant in the Deccan Plateau?

____________________

Q29. Which crop is associated with the Green Revolution in India?

 ____________________

Q30. Which farming practice helps retain soil fertility?

____________________

Fill in the blanks questions :

Q31. _______________ soil is ideal for the cultivation of cotton.
Q32. The main crop grown during the Rabi season is ________________.
Q33. The Green Revolution in India primarily focused on increasing the production of
________________.
Q34. ________________ irrigation is the most water-efficient method.
Q35. The largest producer of rice in India is the state of __________.

Assertion Reasoning type questions:

a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.

Q36. Assertion (A): India is the largest producer of pulses in the world.
Reason (R): Pulses require less water compared to other crops like rice and sugarcane.
Ans.
Q37. Assertion (A): Shifting cultivation leads to deforestation.
Reason (R): In shifting cultivation, farmers clear a patch of forest to create agricultural fields.
Ans.
Q38. Assertion (A): The introduction of High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds led to the Green
Revolution in India.
Ans.
Reason (R): HYV seeds require more chemical fertilizers and irrigation.
Q39. Assertion (A): Drip irrigation is widely used in areas with scarce water resources.
Reason (R): Drip irrigation reduces water wastage and provides water directly to the roots of
plants.
Ans.
Q40. Assertion (A): Black soil is ideal for the cultivation of cotton.
Reason (R): Black soil retains moisture and is rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash, and
lime.
 Grade – X
Session 2024 – 25
Chapter – Manufacturing Industries

Assignment
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs)
1. Which one of the following industries is known as the backbone of the modern industry?
a) Textile Industry
b) Iron and Steel Industry
c) Chemical Industry
d) Cement Industry
2. Which of the following cities is known as the ‘Manchester of India’?
a) Mumbai
b) Kolkata
c) Ahmedabad
d) Chennai
3. Which industry is often referred to as the sunrise industry?
a) Iron and Steel Industry
b) Textile Industry
c) Information Technology (IT) Industry
d) Automobile Industry
4.Which one of the following is not a raw material for the cotton textile industry?
a) Cotton
b) Jute
c) Silk
d) Wool
5. Which of the following industries uses limestone as a raw material?
a) Textile Industry
b) Cement Industry
c) Sugar Industry
d) Automobile Industry
6. Which of the following industries is the largest consumer of chemicals?
a) Iron and Steel Industry
b) Paper Industry
c) Textile Industry
d) Fertilizer Industry
7. The first successful textile mill was established in:
a) Kolkata
b) Ahmedabad
c) Mumbai
d) Chennai
8. Which of the following factors are essential for the location of an aluminum smelting plant?
a) Raw material availability
b) Cheap and reliable power supply
c) Proximity to market
d) All of the above
9. The major IT industry hubs in India are located in:
a) Mumbai and Kolkata
b) Bengaluru and Hyderabad
c) Chennai and Pune
d) Delhi and Jaipur
10. Which of the following regions in India is known for its jute industry?
a) Gujarat
b) Maharashtra
c) West Bengal
 d) Tamil Nadu
11. Which of the following sectors does the manufacturing industry belong to?
a) Primary Sector
b) Secondary Sector
c) Tertiary Sector
d) Quaternary Sector
12. Which state is the largest producer of cotton textiles in India?
a) Gujarat
b) Maharashtra
c) Tamil Nadu
d) West Bengal
13. Which type of manufacturing industry produces goods that are directly used by consumers?
a) Basic Industries
b) Capital Goods Industries
c) Consumer Goods Industries
d) Intermediate Goods Industries
14. Which of the following is a major center for the petrochemical industry in India?
a) Bengaluru
b) Mumbai
c) Kolkata
d) Hyderabad
15. Which of the following is a public sector enterprise?
a) Reliance Industries
b) Tata Steel
c) Indian Oil Corporation
d) Infosys
16. Which of the following industries is related to the production of paper?
a) Agro-based Industry
b) Forest-based Industry
c) Mineral-based Industry
d) Marine-based Industry
17. Which state is the largest producer and exporter of tea in India?
a) Assam
b) Kerala
c) Tamil Nadu
d) Karnataka
18. Which mineral is essential for the manufacturing of cement?
a) Bauxite
b) Limestone
c) Mica
d) Copper
19. Which of the following is a factor affecting the location of industries?
a) Availability of raw materials
b) Proximity to market
c) Availability of labor
d) All of the above
20. Which industry is the largest consumer of jute in India?
a) Textile Industry
b) Paper Industry
c) Sugar Industry
d) Cement Industry
21. Which of the following is not an agro-based industry?
a) Cotton Textile Industry
b) Sugar Industry
c) Iron and Steel Industry
d) Food Processing Industry
22. Which city is known as the ‘Detroit of India’ for its automobile industry?
 a) Chennai
b) Pune
c) Kolkata
d) Mumbai
23. Which of the following is an important export item for the Indian manufacturing industry?
a) Crude oil
b) Cotton textiles
c) Natural gas
d) Iron ore
24. Which industry is known for having the largest number of industrial disputes?
a) Textile Industry
b) Cement Industry
c) IT Industry
d) Automobile Industry
25. Which of the following is a major center for the iron and steel industry in India?
a) Bengaluru
b) Jamshedpur
c) Hyderabad
d) Chennai

Fill in the Blanks

26. The _______________ industry is often referred to as the backbone of modern industry because it provides raw
materials for many other industries.
27. ________________ is known as the ‘Manchester of India’ due to its large number of textile mills.
28. ________________ is the main raw material used in the cement industry.
29. The IT industry in India is primarily concentrated in cities like ______________ and ______________.
30. The _________________ industry is the largest consumer of jute in India.

Correct the Statement and Rewrite:

31. The textile industry in India is primarily concentrated in the northern states.

32. Jamshedpur is known for its large number of cotton textile mills.

33. Limestone is the primary raw material used in the sugar industry.
.

34. The automobile industry in India is concentrated mainly in the eastern region.

35. Kolkata is the major IT hub in India.

Assertion and reasoning type questions:

Options:
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
36. Assertion (A): Iron and Steel industry is considered the backbone of modern industry.
Reason (R): Iron and steel products are used as raw materials for other industries.

37. Assertion (A): Mumbai is known as the ‘Manchester of India’.

Reason (R): Mumbai has the largest number of cotton textile mills in India.

38. Assertion (A): The IT industry is considered a labor-intensive industry.

Reason (R): The IT industry requires a large number of skilled professionals.

38. Assertion (A): The automobile industry in India is mainly located in the southern and western regions.
Reason (R): These regions have well-developed infrastructure and proximity to ports.

40. Assertion (A): The jute industry in India is mainly concentrated in Gujarat.
Reason (R): Gujarat has suitable climatic conditions for jute cultivation.