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VAJIRAM & RAVI

PowerUp Prelims Test Series – 2025
GS Test – 15 – Polity (V4425)
TEST BOOKLET
Time Allowed: Two Hours Maximum Marks: 200

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4. This Test Booklet contains 100 items (questions). Each item comprises four responses (answers). You
will select the response which you want to mark on the Answer Sheet. In case you feel that there is more
than one correct response, mark the response which you consider the best. In any case, choose ONLY
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DO NOT OPEN THIS TEST BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO

 VAJIRAM & RAVI
1. Which one of the following best describes the 4. With reference to Pitt’s India Act of 1784, consider
‘Instrument of Instructions’ as enumerated in the the following statements:
Government of India Act, 1935? 1. It introduced a dual system of governance
(a) These were directives issued to the Governors comprising the Board of Control and the
of British Indian provinces Court of Directors.
(b) These were powers granted to Viceroy 2. It required civilians and military officers to
to override the decisions of provincial submit a full inventory of their property in
governments India and Britain.
(c) These were guidelines outlining the rights Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
and duties of British subjects in India
(a) 1 only
(d) These were instructions guiding the judiciary
(b) 2 only
in resolving disputes between princely states
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Consider the following pairs:
Act Feature 5. Which of the following changes were made by
1. Government of Abolition of the Board the Indian Independence Act, 1947 regarding the
India Act, 1858 of Control and Court of Constituent Assembly?
Directors
1. It was made a fully sovereign body.
2. Indian Councils Recognition to the 2. It became the first Parliament of free India.
Act, 1861 ‘portfolio’ system
3. Its strength was reduced to 299 members from
3. Indian Councils Nomination of non-of- the original 389 under the Cabinet Mission
Act, 1892 ficial members to the
Plan.
Central Legislative
Council Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
4. Indian Councils Inclusion of Indians in
Act, 1909 the Viceroy’ executive (a) 1 and 2 only
councils (b) 2 and 3 only
How many of the pairs given above are correctly (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
matched?
(a) Only one pair
6. Consider the following statements regarding the
(b) Only two pairs
Union Territories in India:
(c) Only three pairs
1. The Constitution of India provides for direct
(d) All four pairs
elections of the representatives from Union
Territories to the Lok Sabha.
3. What was the exact status of the Constitution of 2. A prior approval of the Central Government
India on November 26, 1949? is required for the introduction of certain
(a) It was still under debate and awaiting categories of Bills in the Legislative Assembly
adoption and enactment. of a Union Territory.
(b) It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly Which of the statements given above is/are
but was not enforced. correct?
(c) It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly (a) 1 only
and was enforced with some provisions. (b) 2 only
(d) It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly (c) Both 1 and 2
and was fully enforced. (d) Neither 1 nor 2

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
7. Consider the following: 10. With reference to the Supreme Court of India,
1. Model Code of Conduct consider the following statements:
1. The original jurisdiction of the Supreme
2. Representation of the People Act, 1951
Court regarding federal disputes is exclusive,
3. Representation of the People Act, 1950 while its writ jurisdiction is concurrent with
The Election Commission of India can deregister the High Courts.
a party for violating how many of the above? 2. Unlike High Courts, the Supreme Court
(a) Only one can issue writs for the enforcement of
Fundamental Rights as well as for the
(b) Only two
enforcement of ordinary legal rights.
(c) All three Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) None correct?
(a) 1 only
8. Which of the following statements is/are correct (b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
regarding the Senior Advocates of the Supreme
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Court of India?
1. The Chief Justice of India deals with all the 11. Consider the following statements regarding laws
matters relating to the designation of Senior affecting the Fundamental Rights of members of
Advocates in the Supreme Court. the armed forces:
1. Both Parliament and State Legislatures have
2. A Senior Advocate is only allowed to appear
the authority to make such laws.
in the Supreme Court with an Advocate-on- 2. Such laws are immune from being challenged
Record. in any court for violating Fundamental Rights.
3. Only Senior Advocates are entitled to file 3. Such laws can exclude court-martial
any matter or document before the Supreme proceedings from the writ jurisdiction of the
Supreme Court and High Courts.
Court.
Which of the statements given above is/are
Select the correct answer using the code given correct?
below: (a) 1 only
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 2 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only 12. As per Article 19 of the Constitution of India,
the State can impose ‘reasonable’ restrictions on
9. Which of the following are considered as part of which of the following grounds?
the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution of India? 1. Sovereignty and integrity of India
2. Security of the State
1. Rule of law
3. Friendly relations with foreign states
2. Secularism 4. Decency or morality
3. Independence of judiciary 5. Defamation
Select the correct answer using the code given 6. Contempt of court
below: Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only (b) 2, 4, 5 and 6 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (c) 1, 3, 5 and 6 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
13. Consider the following statements: 16. Which one of the following is not allowed under
1. No person holding an office of profit under the Constitution of India?
the State can accept a foreign present without (a) Enacting laws which operate differently
the consent of the President of India. for different classes of people based on
2. Bharat Ratna and Padma Vibhushan do not reasonable classification
amount to ‘titles’ within the meaning of (b) Imposition of restraints or restrictions on the
Article 18 of the Constitution of India. activities of the individuals
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Providing special privileges to a section of
correct? the society through class legislation
(a) 1 only (d) Providing special assistance in the form of
(b) 2 only affirmative actions
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 17. What do you understand by the phrase ‘the
harmony and balance between the Fundamental
14. Consider the following statements with reference Rights and Directive Principles of State Policy is
to Article 20 of the Constitution of India: an essential feature of the basic structure of the
1. The protection against double jeopardy is not Constitution of India’?
available in proceedings before departmental (a) The Directive Principles must conform to
authorities. and run as subordinate to the Fundamental
2. An individual cannot be compelled to give Rights.
thumb impressions or blood specimens in (b) The Fundamental Rights cannot be amended
their own criminal prosecution. for the implementation of the Directive
3. Unlike criminal cases, penalties for civil Principles.
cases cannot be imposed retrospectively. (c) The Parliament can take away a Fundamental
Which of the statements given above is/are Right for implementing a Directive Principle
correct? only through a Constitutional Amendment.
(a) 1 only (d) The Fundamental Rights can be amended
(b) 1 and 2 only to implement the Directive Principles but
(c) 1 and 3 only without altering the basic structure of the
(d) 2 only Constitution.

15. Consider the following rights: 18. Consider the following parts of the Constitution
1. Right to life, liberty and security of person of India:
2. Right to recognition 1. Part IX
3. Right to access internet 2. Part III
4. Right to a nationality 3. Part IV-A
5. Right to own property 4. Part IV
How many of the above are enshrined in the 5. Part XVII
Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) How many of the above have a bearing on
of 1948? education?
(a) Only two (a) Only two
(b) Only three (b) Only three
(c) Only four (c) Only four
(d) All five (d) All five
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
19. Consider the following statements: 22. Consider the following statements with reference
1. ‘Substantive due process’ provides for to the provisions related to Indian citizenship:
the application of a fair legal process before 1. A person who has voluntarily acquired
any violation of a person’s life or liberty. citizenship of a foreign state ceases to be a
2. ‘Procedural due process’ examines whether citizen of India.
the fundamental elements of the legislation 2. The Parliament of India has the authority to
are consistent with the Constitution. make laws on matters related to acquiring,
Which of the statements given above is/are terminating and regulating Indian citizenship.
3. The Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 2019,
correct?
allows persons belonging to any minority
(a) 1 only
community from all neighbouring countries
(b) 2 only
to acquire citizenship of India.
(c) Both 1 and 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(a) 1 and 3 only
20. Which one of the following is not listed as a (b) 1 only
Fundamental Duty under Article 51A of the (c) 2 and 3 only
Constitution of India? (d) 1 and 2 only
(a) To promote harmony and the spirit of common
brotherhood 23. In which of the following conditions, the
(b) To safeguard public property and not to use registration of a person as an Overseas Citizen of
violence India (OCI) Cardholder can be cancelled?
(c) To protect monuments, places and objects of 1. If she/he has ordinarily resided outside India
national importance for a continuous period of seven years
(d) To protect and improve the natural 2. If it is necessary to do so in the interests of
environments the general public
3. If she/he has been sentenced to imprisonment
21. Consider the following statements: of two years within five years of registration
Statement-I: Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
All countries that have a Constitution are
(a) 1 and 2 only
necessarily democratic.
(b) 2 and 3 only
Statement-II:
(c) 1 and 3 only
A Constitution helps in the responsible governance
(d) 1, 2 and 3
by the elected representatives.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of 24. Who among the following is/are eligible to be
the above statements? elected to the office of the President of India?
(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct 1. A Citizen of India by birth
and Statement–II explains Statement–I 2. A Naturalized Citizen of India
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are 3. An Overseas Citizen of India (OCI)
correct, but Statement–II does not explain Select the correct answer using the code given
Statement–I below:
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is (a) 1 only
incorrect (b) 1 and 2 only
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is (c) 2 and 3 only
correct (d) 1, 2 and 3

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
25. Which of the following Union Territories of India 28. With reference to the membership of Parliament,
was/were acquired by India from the Portuguese? consider the following statements:
1. Lakshadweep 1. In case of lack of intimation from a member
2. Dadra and Nagar Haveli
upon election to both Houses of Parliament,
3. Puducherry
her/his seat in Lok Sabha becomes vacant.
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: 2. If a person is elected to the Parliament and
(a) 1 and 2 only State Legislature at the same time, her/his
(b) 2 only seat in Parliament becomes vacant if s/he
(c) 2 and 3 only does not resign from the State Legislature
(d) 1 and 3 only
within 14 days.
3. If a person gets elected from two Lok Sabha
26. The President of India can nominate 12 members
to the Rajya Sabha from which of the following constituencies, s/he has to vacate the seat
fields? from where her/his victory margin is lower.
1. Art Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Literature correct?
3. Science (a) 2 only
4. Social Service
(b) 1 and 3 only
5. Sports
(c) 1 and 2 only
6. Entrepreneurship
Select the correct answer using the code given (d) 1, 2 and 3
below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only 29. Which of the following statements is not correct
(b) 4, 5, and 6 only regarding the Committee on Public Undertakings
(c) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 only (CPU)?
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 only
(a) Both the members of the Lok Sabha and the
Rajya Sabha are eligible to be included in the
27. Which one of the following is the main feature of
consociational polity? CPU.
(a) A disproportional representation system in (b) The chairperson of the CPU can only be from
politics the Lok Sabha.
(b) A majoritarian system where the majority (c) The CPU was first institutionalized on the
holds decision-making power
recommendations of the Krishna Menon
(c) A symmetric federalism model that grants
Committee in 1964.
equal powers to all regions
(d) A power-sharing arrangement through a (d) All Public Sector Undertakings are under the
coalition government purview of the CPU.

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30. Consider the following: 33. Consider a bill is placed in the Lok Sabha on the
1. Payment made to satisfy a court decree following matters:
2. Pension of Central Vigilance Commissioner 1. Imposition or abolition of any taxes
3. Salary of Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
2. Regulation of borrowing by the Union
4. Salaries of the High Court Judges
Government
How many of the above expenditures are
3. Demand of fees for a licence
“charged” on the Consolidated Fund of India?
(a) Only one 4. Appropriation of money out of the
(b) Only two Consolidated Fund of India
(c) Only three 5. Regulation of any tax by any local authority
(d) All four for local purposes
The Rajya Sabha has limited powers in the passing
31. Consider the following:
of how many of the above matters?
1. If the resolution for the removal of the
(a) Only two
Speaker is under consideration
2. If the Motion of Thanks is being voted (b) Only three

3. If the impeachment of the President is in (c) Only four

question (d) All five
In how many of the above cases, the Speaker of
the Lok Sabha votes in the first instance, not in the 34. Which of the following statements best explains
case of equality of votes?
the polity of the United Kingdom (UK) as different
(a) Only one
from that of India?
(b) Only two
1. The Speaker in the UK resigns from her/his
(c) All three
(d) None political party by convention.
2. The UK Constitution is more flexible and can
32. Consider the following: be amended by an ordinary law passed by the
1. Impeachment of the President of India Parliament.
2. Removal of the Vice President of India 3. Every order of the king for any public act is
3. Legislating on any subject from the State’s
countersigned by a Minister in the UK.
list by the Parliament of India
Select the correct answer using the code given
How many of the above resolutions can be
below:
introduced in the Lok Sabha only?
(a) Only one (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only two (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All three (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) None (d) 1, 2 and 3

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35. Consider the following statements: 38. In context of the Parliament of India, which of the
1. The President of India is not answerable for following statements is/are correct?
1. The Leader of the House in both Lok Sabha
the acts done in exercise of her/his powers
and Rajya Sabha is always the Prime Minister,
and duties, except during the investigation of irrespective of her/his membership.
a charge under Article 61 of the Constitution 2. The Constitution of India explicitly provides
of India. for the office of Leader of Opposition in both
2. No civil proceedings can be instituted against Houses of the Parliament.
Select the correct answer using the code given
the President in any court in respect of any
below:
act done by him before he entered upon his (a) 1 only
office as President. (b) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (c) Both 1 and 2
correct? (d) Neither 1 nor 2
(a) 1 only
39. With reference to the Parliamentary procedures in
(b) 2 only India, consider the following statements:
(c) Both 1 and 2 1. The Presiding officer is not empowered to
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 prorogue the House.
2. A House of the Parliament can be prorogued
only after it is adjourned sine die.
36. With reference to the recruitment through lateral
3. Once a House is adjourned sine die, it can
entry into the bureaucracy, consider the following meet only after being summoned by the
statements: President.
1. It is aimed at achieving the twin objectives Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
of bringing in fresh talent as well as augment
(a) 1 only
the availability of manpower. (b) 2 and 3 only
2. There is no provision of reservations for (c) 1 and 3 only
Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in (d) 1, 2 and 3
lateral entry.
40. Consider the following:
Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Setting up of a State Finance Commission
correct? 2. Giving representation to members of State
(a) 1 only Legislature in the Panchayats
(b) 2 only 3. Reservation of seats for backward classes at
(c) Both 1 and 2 all levels of Panchayats
4. Authorising the Panchayats to levy taxes and
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
duties
5. Indirect elections to the post of chairperson
37. The concept of ‘Principled Distance’ is related to of panchayats at district levels
which one of the following? Which of the above provisions are voluntary under
(a) Formation of Coalition government the 73rd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1992?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Indian model of Secularism
(b) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) Speaker’s conduct in the House (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) Governor’s functioning in a State (d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

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41. With reference to the powers and functions of the 44. Consider the following:
Parliament and the State Legislatures, consider 1. Chairperson of the State Public Service
the following statements: Commission
1. While the Parliament can sometimes legislate 2. State Election Commissioner
3. Advocate General of the State
on a subject of the State List, the State
4. Members of the State Human Rights
Legislature can never legislate on Union List
Commission
matters. How many of the above are appointed by the
2. State laws can be applicable outside the Governor of a State but can be removed only by
territory of the State concerned in certain the President of India?
instances. (a) Only one
3. During the National Emergency, the (b) Only two
legislative powers of the State are suspended. (c) Only three
(d) All four
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
45. Consider the following pairs:
(b) 2 and 3 only
Veto Power Feature
(c) 1 and 3 only
1. Absolute Cannot be exercised in
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Veto case of Money Bills
2. Qualified Not available to the Presi-
42. Which of the following powers is/are enjoyed
Veto dent of India
exclusively by the State Legislative Assembly,
3. Pocket Veto Cannot be exercised by
and not by the State Legislative Council? the President in case of
1. Approval of ordinances issued by the State Bills, reserved by the
Governor Governor
2. Ratification of a Constitutional Amendment 4. Suspensive Can be overridden only by
3. Electing the members of the Rajya Sabha Veto a higher majority of the
Select the correct answer using the code given Parliament
below: How many of the pairs given above are correctly
(a) 1 and 2 only matched?
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) 3 only
(c) Only three pairs
(d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) All four pairs

43. Which one of the following amendments to the 46. Consider the following statements:
Constitution of India authorised the President 1. India does not have a fixed parliamentary
to return an advice tendered by the Council of calendar.
Ministers for reconsideration? 2. The maximum gap between two sessions of
(a) The 24th Constitutional Amendment Act of Parliament cannot be more than six months.
1971 3. The Constitution of India does not prescribe
any minimum number of days of attendance
(b) The 38th Constitutional Amendment Act of
for a Member of Parliament in a year.
1975
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(c) The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act of (a) 1 and 2 only
1976 (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) The 44th Constitutional Amendment Act of (c) 1 and 3 only
1978 (d) 1, 2, and 3
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
47. With reference to the post of Vice-President, 50. Consider the following statements regarding Anti-
consider the following statements: defection law:
1. Unlike in the United States of America 1. A person disqualified on the grounds of
(USA), the Vice-President of India does not defection cannot be appointed as a Minister.
assume the office of the President for the 2. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha needs to decide
unexpired term when it falls vacant. on the defection plea within three months.
2. The Vice-President serves as the head of the 3. Once disqualified on the charge of defection,
Upper House of the Legislature in both India
the person is not allowed to contest in re-
and the USA.
elections for the same House.
3. Unlike the USA, India hasn’t had a female
How many of the above statements are correct?
Vice-President to date.
(a) Only one
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(b) Only two
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) All three
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) None
(d) 1, 2 and 3
51. Which one of the following is not an objective
48. Which one of the following is the correct mentioned in the Preamble to the Constitution of
decreasing order of the following States according India?
to the number of seats in their respective State (a) Liberty of faith
Legislative Assembly? (b) Liberty of belief
(a) Odisha > Maharashtra > Haryana > Jharkhand (c) Liberty of worship
(b) Maharashtra > Odisha > Jharkhand > Haryana (d) Liberty of conscience
(c) Maharashtra > Odisha > Haryana > Jharkhand
(d) Maharashtra > Haryana > Odisha > Jharkhand 52. Consider the following statements regarding the
parliamentary government in India:
49. Consider the following statements regarding the
1. The President is head of the state as well as
Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha:
head of the government.
1. S/He is elected by the members of the House
2. The ruling party must have a majority in both
by a simple majority.
the Houses of Parliament.
2. The Chairperson, like the Speaker of the Lok
3. The Ministers are members of both the
Sabha, has the power of casting vote in case
legislature and the executive.
of an equality of votes.
4. The Lok Sabha can be dissolved before the
3. The Chairperson tenders its resignation to the
Deputy Chairman of the House. completion of its term.
Which of the above statements is/are not correct? Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 2 only (a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 3 only (c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1 and 2 only (d) 1 and 4 only

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
53. In the context of secularism in India, what does 56. Which of the following statements is/are correct
the absence of any ‘State religion’ imply? regarding the procedure for the removal of a judge
(a) The State will not intervene in any matters of of a High Court in India?
religion 1. An impeachment motion for the removal of
(b) The State does not support any religion from a High Court judge can be introduced only in
public funds the Lok Sabha and not in the Rajya Sabha.
(c) The State discourages religious practices in 2. The motion to impeach a judge of the High
public Court cannot be rejected by the Speaker of

(d) Religious instructions are provided in the Lok Sabha.

educational institutions wholly maintained 3. A judge of a High Court can be removed

by the State only if he is proven guilty of misbehaviour or

incapacity.
4. A motion to remove the judge of a High Court
54. Salaries and emoluments of which of the following
can be passed by a simple majority in each
authorities are not mentioned under the Second
House of the Parliament.
Schedule of the Constitution of India?
Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
below:
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(a) 2 and 3 only
(c) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
(d) Judges of the High Courts
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4 only
55. Which of the following are envisaged by the Right
against Exploitation in the Constitution of India?
57. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution
1. Prohibition of Traffic in Human Beings and
of India implicitly confer the power of judicial
Forced Labour
review on the Judiciary of India?
2. Prohibition of human sacrifices
1. Article 31B
3. Employment of children below the age of
2. Article 13
fourteen years in mines
3. Article 226
4. Prohibition of discrimination in public places
4. Article 136
Select the correct answer using the code given Select the correct answer using the code given
below: below:
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4 only (b) 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 4 only (c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (d) 2, 3 and 4 only

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58. Which of the following statements regarding life 61. With reference to the State Administrative Tribunal
imprisonment in India are correct? (SAT), consider the following statements:
1. Life imprisonment means the imprisonment
of a person for a period of 14 years or 20 1. It exercises original jurisdiction in relation
years. to recruitment and all the service matters of
2. A convict serving life imprisonment does not
State government employees.
have the right to demand release.
3. Life imprisonment of a convict may be 2. Its members are appointed by the Governor
commuted or remitted in certain cases. of the State in consultation with the Chief
4. The period of life imprisonment cannot
Justice of the High Court.
be reduced until the convict has served a
minimum period of sentence. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above are correct? correct?
(a) 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only (a) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(c) Both 1 and 2
59. Which of the following best defines the term (d) Neither 1 nor 2
‘judicial service’ under the Constitution of India?
(a) A service comprising only persons designated
62. Consider the following statements:
as District Judges
(b) A service composed of individuals appointed Statement-I:
to fill the post of district judge or other civil The Constitution of India has been described as
judicial posts below the posts of District
Judge ‘quasi-federal’ in nature.
(c) A service including all persons holding Statement-II:
judicial and administrative roles
The Parliament has the power to alter the
(d) A service comprising only persons designated
as judges of the Supreme Court and High boundaries of the States, without the consent of
Courts the States.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
60. With reference to the Gram Nyayalayas Act, 2008,
consider the following statements: the above statements?
1. Nyayadhikaris who preside over Gram (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
Nyayalayas have the same powers as First
Class Magistrates working under High and Statement–II explains Statement–I
Courts. (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
2. The Gram Nyayalaya shall exercise the
correct, but Statement–II does not explain
powers of both Criminal and Civil Courts.
3. It is guided by the principles of natural justice. Statement–I
Which of the statements given above are correct? (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
(a) 1 and 2 only
incorrect
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
(d) 1, 2 and 3 correct
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
63. With reference to the adjudication of inter-state 65. With reference to the concept of Socialism,
water disputes in India, consider the following consider the following statements:
statements: Statement-I:
1. Only the Parliament of India can constitute a India follows a ‘democratic socialism’ instead of a
Water Disputes Tribunal to adjudicate inter- Marxian socialism’.
state water disputes.
Statement-II:
2. A Water Disputes Tribunal must be constituted
Democratic socialism involves the nationalisation
within 6 months of any request made by the
of all means of production and distribution, and
State Government in this regard.
the abolition of private property.
3. Since independence, five water dispute
Which one of the following is correct in respect of
tribunals have been constituted to adjudicate
inter-state water disputes. the statements given above?
4. The Supreme Court of India enjoys appellate (a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct
jurisdiction over the decisions of the Water and Statement–II explains Statement–I
Disputes Tribunal. (b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are
How many of the above statements are correct? correct, but Statement–II does not explain
(a) Only two Statement–I
(b) Only three (c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
(c) All four incorrect
(d) None (d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
correct
64. Consider the following statements regarding the
relationship between Central and State laws on a
66. Which of the following provisions of the
subject in the Concurrent List:
Constitution of India require a Special Majority
1. In case of a conflict between the Central
of Parliament for amendment?
and State laws on a Concurrent subject, the
Central law typically prevails. 1. Abolition of Legislative Councils in the
2. If a State law has been reserved for the States
President’s consideration and receives his 2. Changes to Fundamental Rights
assent, it prevails over the Central law in that 3. Increasing the number of puisne judges in the
State. Supreme Court
3. Once a State law receives the President’s 4. Amendments to the Directive Principles of
assent, Parliament cannot override it by State Policy
enacting a subsequent law on the same 5. Delimitation of constituencies
subject. Select the correct answer using the code given
Which of the statements given above is/are
below:
correct?
(a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3, 4 and 5 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
67. Consider the following statements: 69. Consider the following statements regarding the
1. The Chief Election Commissioner (CEc)and 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002:
1. It inserted Article 21A into the Constitution,
other Election Commissioners (ECs) cannot
making elementary education a Fundamental
be removed from their office except in the
Right for children between the ages of 6 and
same manner as a judge of the Supreme 14 years.
Court. 2. It introduced a new Fundamental Duty
2. The salary, allowances, and other conditions that requires parents to provide for early
of service of the CEC and ECs will be childhood care and education of children
until they complete the age of 6 years.
equivalent to that of the Cabinet Secretary.
3. It modified Article 45 of Directive Principles
3. The CEC plays a direct role in appointing
of State Policy mandating the State to provide
the Election Commissioners and determining education to all children between the ages of
their service conditions. 6 and 14 years.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(a) 1 only
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (d) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2, and 3
70. Which of the following statements are correct
68. Consider the following statements regarding the regarding the Proclamation of National Emergency
under Article 352 of the Constitution of India?
difference between amendment procedures in
1. The President is empowered to proclaim a
India and the United States of America (USA):
national emergency only after receiving
1. Unlike in India, an amendment to the US a written recommendation from the Union
Constitution can be initiated by the State cabinet.
Legislatures. 2. A proclamation of emergency must be
2. The constitutional amendments in both approved by both the Houses of Parliament
within one month from the date of its issue.
countries require ratification by at least half
3. A proclamation of emergency can be revoked
of the State Legislatures.
by the President without any parliamentary
Which of the statements given above is/are approval.
correct? Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 1 only below:
(b) 2 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
71. Consider the following statements: 73. Consider the following:
Statement-I: 1. Individualism
The President of India cannot declare President’s 2. Capitalistic economy
Rule in a State without a formal report from the 3. Limited state
Governor.
4. Welfarism
Statement-II:
5. Opposition to traditions
Article 356 of the Constitution of India clearly
How many of the above are features of liberalism?
states that the President can impose the President’s
(a) Only two
Rule in a State based on a report from the Governor.
Which one of the following is correct in respect of (b) Only three

the above statements? (c) Only four

(a) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are correct (d) All five
and Statement–II explains Statement–I
(b) Both Statement–I and Statement–II are 74. Consider the following statements:
correct, but Statement–II does not explain 1. Hindi translations of Central Acts and bye-
Statement–I laws published under the authority of the
(c) Statement–I is correct, but Statement–II is
President are recognized as authoritative
incorrect
texts.
(d) Statement–I is incorrect, but Statement–II is
2. Translations of Central laws in any language
correct
listed in the Eighth Schedule of the

72. Which of the following are the most likely Constitution are considered authoritative

consequences of the proclamation of a Financial texts.

Emergency in India? 3. All classical languages of India are included
1. The President can mandate the reduction of in the Eighth Schedule of the Constitution.
salaries and allowances of State Government Which of the statements given above are correct?
employees. (a) 1 and 2 only
2. The President can require State Legislatures (b) 2 and 3 only
to reserve all money bills for consideration
(c) 1 and 3 only
by Parliament.
(d) 1, 2 and 3
3. The President has the power to reduce the
salaries of Judges of the Supreme Court and
75. In the Indian judiciary, who is appointed by the
High Courts.
Court to represent and argue on behalf of an
Select the correct answer using the code given
below: unrepresented accused in a criminal matter?
(a) 1 and 3 only (a) Public Prosecutor
(b) 2 only (b) Advocate General
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) Amicus Curiae
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) Advocates-On-Record
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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
76. With reference to the office of Governor of a State, 79. Which of the following would be the consequences
consider the following statements: if an area is brought under the Sixth Schedule of
1. The Governor can pardon a death sentence the Constitution of India?
ordered under a State law. 1. The number of the Autonomous District
2. S/he is consulted by the President of India Councils in India would increase.
while appointing the Judges of the concerned 2. The Acts of the Parliament must be modified
State High Court. before applying them to the area.
3. S/he appoints the District Judges after 3. It can be given power to collect royalties
consultation with the High Court. from licences or leases for the extraction of
Which of the statements given above is/are minerals.
correct? Select the correct answer using the code given
(a) 2 only below:
(b) 2 and 3 only (a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only (b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
77. In India, a new district in a State can be created
80. Consider the following:
by:
1. Grants based on recommendations of the
(a) the Union Ministry of Home Affairs with the
Finance Commission of India
concurrence of the State Government
2. Devolution from the State Government based
(b) a Presidential order after a State resolution
on recommendations of the State Finance
(c) an executive order of the State Government
Commission
or by a law of the State Legislature
3. Fund allocation for Centrally Sponsored
(d) the Parliament in consultation with the State
Schemes
Legislature
4. Property tax
5. Stamp duty
78. With reference to the urban local self-government,
How many of the above are revenue sources for
consider the following statements:
the Panchayats in India?
1. The Councillors of both municipal (a) Only two
corporations and municipalities can nominate (b) Only three
Aldermen. (c) Only four
2. Both municipal corporations and (d) All five
municipalities are headed by a Mayor.
3. Both municipal corporations and 81. Assam Accord, signed in 1985, was related to
municipalities have equal resources and which of the following?
powers. (a) Regularisation of immigrants
Which of the statements given above is/are (b) Separation of North-East Frontier Agency
correct? (NEFA) from Assam
(a) 1 only (c) Agreement between Assam Government and
(b) 2 and 3 only Bodo militants
(c) 1 and 2 only (d) Inclusion of Assam under the Sixth Schedule
(d) 1, 2 and 3 of the Constitution of India

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
82. An accused person in prison can contest election 85. A new All-India Service can be created by:
but s/he cannot vote in the election because: (a) a resolution only by the Rajya Sabha with a
(a) The right to contest elections is a Fundamental
simple majority
Right
(b) The right to vote is derived from (b) a resolution in the Rajya Sabha with a two-
Representation of the People Act (RPA), thirds majority and a law passed by Parliament
1951 and the right to contest elections is from (c) a resolution in the Rajya Sabha, approved
RPA, 1950.
by both Houses of Parliament with a simple
(c) The right to vote is a Fundamental Duty
which is not justiciable. majority
(d) A person is barred from contesting election (d) a joint resolution by the Lok Sabha and Rajya
only upon conviction of an offence Sabha followed by the Presidential order

83. Consider the following:

1. Police 86. Consider the following:
2. Public order 1. Examining policy issues and ensuring
3. Anti-corruption bureau effective coordination
4. Bureaucracy
2. Directing and coordinating governmental
5. Land
The Lieutenant Governor of Jammu & Kashmir activities
has been given discretionary powers in how many 3. Reviewing and modifying laws passed by
of the above matters? Parliament
(a) Only two
4. Deciding high-level appointments in public
(b) Only three
(c) Only four enterprises
(d) All five 5. Managing government business in Parliament
Which of the above are functions of Cabinet
84. Recently, the Union Ministry of Health released
Committees in India?
the National Health Account (NHA) estimates for
India. In this reference, consider the following (a) 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
statements regarding the trends between 2014-15 (b) 1, 2 and 3 only
and 2021-22: (c) 3, 4 and 5 only
1. The share of Out-of-Pocket expenditure in
(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
total health expenditure has decreased.
2. The Government health expenditure as a
proportion of India’s GDP has increased. 87. Which one of the following would require an
3. The share of health Social Security amendment if the Right to Recall is introduced in
Expenditure (SSE) in total health expenditure
India?
has decreased.
Which of the statements given above are correct? (a) Representation of the People Act, 1951
(a) 1 and 2 only (b) Representation of the People Act, 1950
(b) 2 and 3 only (c) Delimitation Act, 2002
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) Anti-Defection Law
(d) 1, 2 and 3

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
88. Consider the following statements regarding the 91. Consider the following pairs:
role of the Election Commission of India (ECI) in Initiative Objective
elections: 1. SWAYAM Delivery of educational
1. The ECI requires approval from the Governor courses
before announcing dates of the elections in 2. API Setu Fostering innovation in pub-
States. lic service delivery
2. The elections cannot be announced more 3. India Stack Enhancing citizens’ access
than six months before the State Assembly's Global to essential resources
term ends, unless the Assembly is dissolved
4. Learning Supporting a digitally em-
prematurely. Man- powered society by foster-
Which of the statements given above is/are agement ing skill development
correct? System
(a) 1 only
Which of the pairs given above are correctly
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2 matched?
(d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 4 only
89. Consider the following States:
(c) 3 and 4 only
1. Tamil Nadu
2. Jharkhand (d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
3. Chattisgarh
4. Uttarakhand 92. Consider the following statements with reference
5. West Bengal
to the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI).
Which of the above have Tribes Advisory Council
(TAC), without any notified Scheduled Area? 1. It derives its power to investigate from the
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only Delhi Special Police Establishment Act,
(b) 1, 4 and 5 only 1946.
(c) 2 and 3 only
2. The superintendence of CBI under the
(d) 1 and 5 only
Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 lies with
90. With reference to the Socially and Educationally the Ministry of Home Affairs.
Backward Classes (SEBCs) in India, consider the 3. The CBI requires only general consent from
following statements:
States to conduct investigations, while it
1. The list of SEBCs prepared by the States can
be modified by the President. needs case-specific consent in the Union
2. Only the Parliament can modify the Central Territories (UTs).
list of SEBCs. 4. The Supreme Court can allow the CBI to
3. Union Territories must consult the National
investigate a crime anywhere in the country
Commission for Backward Classes while
preparing their list of SEBCs. without the consent of the States/UTs.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above are correct?
correct? (a) 1 and 4 only
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 (d) 1, 2 and 4 only

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
93. Consider the following pairs: 95. Consider the following statements:
1. Social audits are a statutory requirement for
Institution Role
all central schemes in India.
2. The Centre for Social Audit was established
1. Serious Fraud Ensures corporate under the Right to Information Act of 2005.
Investigation governance and trans-
3. Social audits must be held at least every six
Office (SFIO) parency
months under the Mahatma Gandhi National
Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005.
2. Directorate of Enforces customs laws Which of the statements given above is/are
Revenue Intelli- and prevent smuggling correct?
gence (DRI)
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 3 only
3. Directorate of Investigates foreign (c) 2 and 3 only
Enforcement exchange violations (d) 1, 2 and 3
(ED)

96. Which of the following have similar salary and

4. Financial Combats money allowances?
Intelligence Unit laundering and terror (a) Election Commissioners and the Judges of
(FIU) financing
the Supreme Court
(b) Chairman of the Union Public Service
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
Commission and the Cabinet Secretary of
matched? India
(a) Only one (c) Judges of the Supreme Court and the
(b) Only two Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of
(c) Only three India
(d) Chief Information Commissioner and the
(d) All four
Chief Election Commissioner

94. Which one of the following statements best 97. Consider the following statements regarding the
describes Citizen’s Charter? Finance Commission (FC):
(a) It outlines government service commitments 1. The Constitution does not provide for any
qualification for the members of the FC.
to citizens including standards for service
2. The vertical devolution of tax by the FC has
delivery and grievance redressal mechanisms.
no standard formula whereas the horizontal
(b) It is a legal contract which requires the devolution is based on objective criteria.
government to perform specific duties for the 3. While surcharges are part of the divisible
citizen. pool, cesses are not shared with the States.
(c) It outlines citizen commitments for the Select the correct answer using the code given
below:
improvement of government infrastructure
(a) 1 and 2 only
and services.
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) It is a legal contract which requires the citizen (c) 1 and 3 only
to perform specific duties for the government. (d) 1, 2 and 3

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 VAJIRAM & RAVI
98. Consider the following bodies: 100. Which of the following cases are associated
1. Inter States Council with the application of the Ninth Schedule of the
2. Goods and Services Tax Council Constitution of India?
3. Animal Welfare Board of India 1. Waman Rao vs Union of India, 1981
4. National Board of Wildlife 2. I.R. Coelho vs State of Tamil Nadu, 2007
5. Council of Scientific & Industrial Research. 3. Minerva Mills vs Union of India, 1980
How many of the above are headed by the Prime Select the correct answer using the code given
Minister of India? below:
(a) Only two (a) 1 and 2 only
(b) Only three (b) 2 and 3 only
(c) Only four (c) 1 and 3 only
(d) All five (d) 1, 2 and 3

99. Consider the following pairs:

Type of Justice Implication
1. Social justice Equal opportunities to
all citizens
2. Economic justice Adequate opportu-
nities for the devel-
opment of individual
capabilities
3. Political justice Equal access to polit-
ical offices for all the
citizens
How many of the pairs given above are correctly
matched?
(a) Only one pair
(b) Only two pairs
(c) All three pairs
(d) None

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