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 Programming Language with theirs Founders & Use

 C Programming Language:

Founder: Dennis Ritchie

Common Use: Systems programming, embedded systems, operating systems.

 C++ Programming Language:

Founder: Bjarne Stroustrup

Common Use: Game development, high-performance software, system software.

 Java Programming Language:

Founder: James Gosling

Common Use: Enterprise software, Android app development, web applications.

 Python Programming Language:

Founder: Guido van Rossum

Common Use: Web development, data analysis, artificial intelligence, scripting.

 JavaScript Programming Language:

Founder: Brendan Eich

Common Use: Web development (frontend and backend), interactive web pages.

 Ruby Programming Language:

Founder: Yukihiro Matsumoto

Common Use: Web development, scripting, prototyping.

 PHP Programming Language:

Founder: Rasmus Lerdorf

Common Use: Web development (server-side scripting), dynamic web pages.

 Swift Programming Language:

Founder: Apple Inc. (Chris Lattner and team)

Common Use: iOS, macOS, and watchOS app development.

 Perl Programming Language:

Founder: Larry Wall

Common Use: Text processing, system administration, web development.

 SQL Query Language:

Founder: Donald D. Chamberlin and Raymond F. Boyce

Common Use: Data Engineers, Data Scientists, and Data Analysts in Software Development

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 Time Complexity

Here is a table listing common sorting algorithms along with their best-case, average-case, and worst-case time
complexities:

Sorting Algorithm Best Case Time Complexity Average Case Time Complexity Worst Case Time Complexity

Linear Search O(1) O(n) O(1)

Binary Search O(1) O(log n) O (log n)
Bubble Sort O(n) O(n^2) O(n^2)
Selection Sort O(n^2) O(n^2) O(n^2)
Insertion Sort O(n) O(n^2) O(n^2)
Merge Sort O(n log n) O(n log n) O(n log n)
Quick Sort O(n log n) O(n log n) O(n^2) (but can be avoided)
Heap Sort O(n log n) O(n log n) O(n log n)
Counting Sort O(n + k) O(n + k) O(n + k)
Radix Sort O(d * (n + k)) O(d * (n + k)) O(d * (n + k))
Bucket Sort O(n + k) O(n + k) O(n^2) (improved: O(n + k))
Tim Sort O(n) O(n log n) O(n log n)

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 Invention & Founders

 Father of Computer – Charles Babbage

 Father of C Language – Dennis Ritchie
 Father of C++ language – Bjarne Stroustrup
 Father of Java - James Gosling
 Father of Computer Animations- John Whitney
 Father of Computer Hard Disk- Reynold Johnson
 Founder of Mouse – Douglas Engelbart
 Founder of Google – Larry Page and Sergey Brin
 Founder of Yahoo – Jurry Yang and David Filo
 Founder of Apple Computers – Steve Jobs
 Founder of Artificial Intelligence – John McCarthy
 Founder of Bluetooth – Ericsson
 Founder of Email – Shiva Ayyadurai
 Founder of Internet – Vint Cerf
 Founder of Linux – Linus Torvalds
 Founder of Microsoft – Bill Gates and Paul Allen
 Founder of Mobile Phones – Martin Cooper
 Founder of Php – Rasmus Lerdorf
 Founder of USB – Ajay V.Bhatt
 Founder of WWW – Tim Berners-Lee
 Computer Graphics was developed by – William Fetter
 ARPANET was developed by – DARPA
 Compiler was developed by – Dr. Grace Murray Hopper
 Keyboard was invented by- Christopher Latham Sholes
 Laptop Computer was invented by – Adam Osborne
 First GUI Computer Game was invented by- A.S. Douglas
 Computer BIOS was invented by – Gary Kildall
 Inventors of Computer Chip– Jack Kilby & Robert Noyce
 Inventor of First Data Base – Dr. Edgar Frank Codd
 Inventor of Computer Scanner – Ray Kurzweil
 Inventor of Computer Speakers- Abinawan Puracchidas
 Inventor of MS-DOS Operating Systems- Microsoft
 Inventor of Punch Cards in Computer – Hollerith
 First Commercial Computer – UNIVAC
 ENIAC and UNIVAC was developed by – John Mauchly and J. Presper Eckert
 First Modern Computer in the World- ENIAC

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 Computer Abbreviations

RAM - Random Access Memory

DRAM - Dynamic Random Access Memory SMPS - Switch Mode Power Supply
SRAM - Static Random Access Memory UPS - Uninterrupted Power Supply

ROM - Read Only Memory DMP - Dot Matrix Printer.

PROM - Programmable Read Only Memory
EPROM - Erasable Programmable Read Only IC - Integrated Circuit
Memory LSI - Large Scale Integration
EEPROM - Electrically Erasable Programmable VLSI - Very Large Scale Integration
Read Only Memory
BASIC - Beginner's All Purpose Symbolic
CPU - Central Processing Unit Instruction Code
ALU - Arithmetical Logic Unit ASCII - American Standard Code for
MU - Memory Unit Information Interchange
CU - Control Unit
WWW - World Wide Web
HDD - Hard Disk Drive LAN - Local Area Network
FDD - Floppy Disk Drive MAN - Metropolitan area network
WAN - Wide Area Network
CD - Compact Disk CAN - Campus Area Network
CDROM - Compact Disk Read Only Memory PAN - Personal Area Network
DVD - Digital Versatile Disc SAN - Storage Area Network
VAN - Virtual Private Network
HLL - High Level Language
Wi-Fi - Wireless Fidelity
TFT - Thin Film Transistor MODEM - Modulator Demodulator
LCD - Liquid Crystal Display NIC - Network Interface Card
LED - Light Emitting Display
CRT - Cathode Ray Tube HTTP - Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
VDU - Visual Display Unit HTTPS - Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
VGA - Video Graphics Array Secure
TCP - Transmission Control Protocol
BCR - Bar Code Reader FTP - File Transport Protocol
OMR - Optical Mark Reader SFTP - Secure File Transfer Protocol
OCR - Optical Character Reader IP - Internet Protocol
MICR - Magnetic Ink Character Reader SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
BCD - Binary Coded Decimal
EBCDIC - Extended Binary Coded Decimal DBMS - Database Management System
Interchange Code RDBMS - Relational Database Management
BIOS - Basic Input Output System System
CMOS - Complementary Metal Oxide
Semiconductor IP - Internet Protocol
MSDOS - Micro Soft Disk Operating System ISP - Internet Service Provider

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PPP - Point-to-Point Protocol GIGO - Garbage in Garbage Out
LIFO - Last In First Out
SEO - Search Engine Optimization FIFO - First In First Out

URL - Uniform Resource Locator ENIAC - Electronic Numerical Integrator

And Computer
USB - Universal Serial Bus
FORTRAN - Formula Translation
SATA - Serial Advanced Technology COBOL - Common Bussiness Oriented
Attachment Language
AMD - Advance Micro Devices HTML - Hyper Text Markup Language
HDMI - High Definition Media Interface DHTML - Dynamic Hyper Text Markup
SSD - Solid State Drive Language
XML - Extensible Markup Language
IBM - International Business Machine
MIME - Multipurpose Internet Mail CSS - Cascading Style Sheets
Extensions XSS - Cross-Site Scripting
JS - JavaScript
CDMA - Code Division Multiple Access JSON - JavaScript Object Notation
GSM - Global System for Mobile
Communication SQL - Structured Query Language
GPS - Global Positioning System DDL - Data Definition Language
DQL - Data Query Language
MIPS - Million Instructions Per Second DML - Data Manipulation Language
BIPS - Billion Instructions Per Second DCL - Data Control Language
TIPS - Trillion Instructions Per Second
API - Application Programming Interface
JPEG - Joint Photographic Experts Group OOP - Object-Oriented Programming
MPEG - Moving Picture Expert Group JVM - Java Virtual Machine
GIF - Graphics Interchange Format IDE - Integrated Development
PDF - Portable Document Format Environment
CC - Carbon Copy
BCC - Blind Carbon Copy GUI - Graphical User Interface
CLI - Command Line Interface
IPV4 - Internet Protocol Version 4 MVC - Model-View-Controller
IPV6 - Internet Protocol Version 6 UI - User Interface
UX - User Experience
VIRUS - Vital Information Resources Under DOM - Document Object Model
Seize CMS - Content Management System

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 Problem Solving and Programming
Problem solving and programming are closely related concepts in the field of computer science and software
development. Problem solving refers to the process of finding solutions to complex or challenging problems.
Programming, on the other hand, is the act of writing instructions (code) that a computer can follow to solve those
problems.
Problem solving involves several steps:
Understanding the problem: This step involves analyzing the problem, identifying the requirements and constraints,
and gaining a clear understanding of what needs to be achieved.
Breaking down the problem: Complex problems are often broken down into smaller, more manageable sub-
problems. This helps in tackling the problem in a systematic and organized manner.
Designing a solution: Once the problem is broken down, a plan or strategy is devised to solve each sub-problem.
This may involve creating algorithms, flowcharts, or other visual representations to outline the steps needed to solve
the problem.
Implementing the solution: In programming, implementing the solution means translating the designed plan into a
computer program. This is done by writing code using a programming language.
Testing and debugging: After writing the program, it is important to test it thoroughly to ensure it works correctly. If
any issues or bugs are identified, they need to be debugged and fixed.
Iteration and refinement: Problem solving is often an iterative process. If the initial solution does not meet all the
requirements or if there are better approaches, the process may need to be repeated, refining the solution until the
desired outcome is achieved.

Problem Solving and Programming – One Liner Questions.

 What is the process of finding and fixing errors in a program called?

Answer: Debugging

 Which programming language is known for its simplicity and readability?

Answer: Python

 What is the output of 5 % 2?

Answer: 1

 What is the time complexity of the binary search algorithm?

Answer: O(log n)

 Which data structure follows the Last-In-First-Out (LIFO) principle?

Answer: Stack

 What is the process of repeatedly executing a block of code until a certain condition is met?
Answer: Looping

 Which operator is used for exponentiation in programming?

Answer: ** (double asterisk)

 What is the output of the following code snippet?

x=5
y=x+2

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 print(y)
Answer: 7

 Which programming language is used for creating dynamic web pages?

Answer: PHP

 What is the purpose of using functions in programming?

Answer: Reusability of code and improved modularity

 What is the time complexity of inserting an element at the beginning of an array?

Answer: O(n)

 Which sorting algorithm has the worst-case time complexity of O(n^2)?

Answer: Bubble sort

 What is the process of converting a high-level language code into machine code?
Answer: Compilation

 What is the output of the following code snippet?

x = [1, 2, 3]
x.append(4)
print(x)
Answer: [1, 2, 3, 4]

 Which operator is used to access the value at a specific index in an array?

Answer: []

 What is the purpose of using the "break" statement in a loop?

Answer: To exit the loop prematurely

 What is the output of the following code snippet?

x = "Hello"
print(x[::-1])
Answer: olleH

 What is the time complexity of searching an element in a binary search tree?

Answer: O(log n)

 Which programming language is widely used for mobile app development?

Answer: Java (for Android) and Swift (for iOS)

 What is the output of the following code snippet?

x=5
y=2
print(x / y)
Answer: 2.5

 What is the purpose of using the "continue" statement in a loop?

Answer: To skip the current iteration and continue with the next iteration
 What is the output of the following code snippet?
x = "Hello"
print(x.lower())
Answer: hello

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  What is the time complexity of inserting an element at the end of an array?
Answer: O(1)

 Which programming language is often used for web development and server-side scripting?
Answer: JavaScript

 What is the output of the following code snippet?

x = [1, 2, 3]
y=x
y.append(4)
print(x)
Answer: [1, 2, 3, 4]

 What is the purpose of using the "elif" statement in programming?

Answer: To specify an alternative condition if the previous conditions are not met

 What is the result of 2 ** 3?

Answer: 8

 What is the time complexity of the selection sort algorithm?

Answer: O(n^2)

 What is the process of combining multiple sorted arrays into a single sorted array called?
Answer: Merge

 What is the time complexity of searching an element in a hash table (average case)?
Answer: O(1)

 Which operator is used to perform integer division in programming?

Answer: // (double slash)

 What is the output of the following code snippet?

x = "Hello"
print(x[1:3])
Answer: el

 What is the purpose of using the "else" statement in programming?

Answer: To specify a block of code to be executed if the condition is false

 What is the time complexity of the bubble sort algorithm?

Answer: O(n^2)

 Which programming language is often used for database management?

Answer: SQL

 What is the output of the following code snippet?

x = [1, 2, 3]
y=x
y = [4, 5, 6]
print(x)
Answer: [1, 2, 3]

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  What is the purpose of using the "elif" statement in programming?
Answer: To specify an alternative condition if the previous conditions are not met

 What is the time complexity of the merge sort algorithm?

Answer: O(n log n)

 Which programming language is used for creating desktop applications?

Answer: C#

 What is the process of finding the minimum value in an array called?

Answer: Minimum element search

 What is the time complexity of inserting an element at a specific position in an array?

Answer: O(n)

 Which programming language is often used for game development?

Answer: C++

 What is the purpose of using the "while" loop in programming?

Answer: To repeatedly execute a block of code as long as a condition is true

 What is the time complexity of the quicksort algorithm (average case)?

Answer: O(n log n)

 Which programming language is often used for data visualization?

Answer: MATLAB

 What is the process of combining two or more strings into a single string called?
Answer: String concatenation

 What is the time complexity of searching an element in a binary search tree (average case)?
Answer: O(log n)

 Which operator is used to perform modulus division in programming?

Answer: % (percent)

 What is the purpose of using the "for" loop in programming?

Answer: To iterate over a sequence (such as a list or string)

 Which programming language is often used for machine learning and artificial intelligence?
Answer: Python

 What is the process of converting an object into a stream of bytes called?

Answer: Serialization

 What is the result of 2 ** 4?

Answer: 16

 What is the time complexity of the insertion sort algorithm?

Answer: O(n^2)

 Which programming language is often used for web scraping and automation?
Answer: Python

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  What is the output of the following code snippet?
x = "Hello"
print(x.split("e"))
Answer: ['H', 'llo']

 What is the purpose of using the "else" statement in programming?

Answer: To specify a block of code to be executed if the condition is false

 What is the time complexity of the selection sort algorithm (average case)?
Answer: O(n^2)

 Which programming language is often used for web development and server-side scripting?
Answer: JavaScript

 What is the process of combining multiple sorted arrays into a single sorted array called?
Answer: Merge

 What is the purpose of using the "continue" statement in a loop?

Answer: To skip the current iteration and continue with the next iteration

 What is the time complexity of inserting an element at the end of an array?

Answer: O(1)

Problem Solving and Programming – Objective Questions and Answer.

1. Which data structure uses the LIFO (Last-In-First-Out) principle?

a) Stack b) Queue
c) Linked List d) Tree Ans: a) Stack

2. What is the time complexity of the bubble sort algorithm?

a) O(n) b) O(log n)
c) O(n^2) d) O(1) Ans: c) O(n^2)

3. Which sorting algorithm has a worst-case time complexity of O(n^2)?

a) Quick Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Insertion Sort d) Selection Sort Ans: d) Selection Sort

4. Which operator is used for exponentiation in programming?

a) ^ b) %
c) * d) ** Ans: d) **

5. What is the output of the following code snippet?

x = [1, 2, 3]
y = x.copy()
y.append(4)
print(x)
a) [1, 2, 3] b) [1, 2, 3, 4]
c) [4, 2, 3] d) [1, 2, 3, [4]] Ans: a) [1, 2, 3]

6. What is the purpose of using the "elseif" statement in programming?

a) To check multiple conditions b) To terminate a loop
c) To handle exceptions d) To define a function
Ans: a) To check multiple conditions

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7. Which data structure is used to implement a hash table?
a) Array b) Stack
c) Queue d) Linked List Ans: a) Array

8. What is the time complexity of linear search in an array?

a) O(log n) b) O(1)
c) O(n) d) O(n^2) Ans: c) O(n)
9. Which programming language is known for its simplicity and readability?
a) C++ b) Java
c) Python d) Ruby Ans: c) Python

10. What is the output of the following code snippet?

x = "Hello World!"
print(x[6:])
a) World! b) Hello
c) Hello World d) Hello World! Ans: a) World!

11. What is the time complexity of the binary search algorithm?

a) O(n) b) O(log n)
c) O(n^2) d) O(1) Ans: b) O(log n)

12. Which data structure is used to implement a queue?

a) Stack b) Heap
c) Array d) Linked List Ans: d) Linked List

13. Which algorithm is used to find the shortest path in a graph with non-negative edge weights?
a) Dijkstra's algorithm b) Bellman-Ford algorithm
c) Depth-first search d) Breadth-first search Ans: a) Dijkstra's algorithm

14. Which sorting algorithm has a worst-case time complexity of O(n log n)?
a) Bubble Sort b) Insertion Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Merge Sort Ans: d) Merge Sort

15. Which operator is used for modulus division in programming?

a) % b) /
c) // d) * Ans: a) %

16. What is the output of the following code snippet?

x = [1, 2, 3]
y=x
y[0] = 4
print(x)
a) [1, 2, 3] b) [1, 2, 3, 4]
c) [4, 2, 3] d) [4, 2, 3, 4] Ans: c) [4, 2, 3]

17. What is the purpose of using the "else" statement in programming?

a) To check multiple conditions
b) To terminate a loop
c) To handle exceptions
d) To specify a block of code to be executed if the condition is false
Ans: d) To specify a block of code to be executed if the condition is false

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18. Which sorting algorithm is based on the "divide and conquer" strategy?
a) Quick Sort b) Heap Sort
c) Insertion Sort d) Radix Sort Ans: a) Quick Sort

19. Which programming language is commonly used for web development and server-side scripting?
a) C++ b) Java
c) Python d) JavaScript Ans: d) JavaScript
20. Which of the following is a programming paradigm that focuses on solving problems by breaking them
Down into smaller, reusable parts?
a) Procedural programming b) Object-oriented programming
c) Functional programming d) Logical programming
Ans: a) Procedural programming

21. What is the time complexity of a binary search algorithm?

a) O(n) b) O(log n)
c) O(n^2) d) O(1) Ans: b) O(log n)

22. Which data structure is best suited for implementing a stack?

a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) Tree Ans: b) Linked List

23. Which sorting algorithm has a worst-case time complexity of O(n^2)?

a) Merge Sort b) Quick Sort
c) Bubble Sort d) Insertion Sort Ans: c) Bubble Sort

24. In object-oriented programming, what is the process of creating an instance of a class called?
a) Inheritance b) Polymorphism
c) Encapsulation d) Instantiation Ans: d) Instantiation

25. What is the purpose of a constructor in object-oriented programming?

a) To create an object of a class b) To destroy an object of a class
c) To access the private members of a class d) To define the behavior of an object
Ans: a) To create an object of a class

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 Computer Organization and Assembly Language Programming

Computer organization and assembly language programming are two closely related concepts in the field of
computer science.

Computer organization refers to the design and structure of a computer system, including its hardware components
and the way they interact with each other to execute instructions and perform tasks. It involves understanding the
underlying architecture and organization of a computer system, including its central processing unit (CPU), memory
hierarchy, input/output devices, and the interconnections between these components. Computer organization deals
with topics such as processor design, memory systems, instruction set architecture, and system buses.

Assembly language programming, on the other hand, is a low-level programming language that closely resembles
the machine code instructions executed by a computer's CPU. Assembly language is specific to a particular computer
architecture and provides a more human-readable representation of the machine code instructions. It allows
programmers to write programs using mnemonic codes that correspond to the machine-level instructions, which are
then converted into machine code using an assembler.

Assembly language programming requires an understanding of computer organization because programmers need
to know how the computer's hardware components work and how to write instructions that can effectively utilize
the system resources. It involves writing programs using instructions such as load, store, arithmetic operations, and
control flow instructions that directly map to the computer's underlying hardware. Assembly language programming
provides a level of control and efficiency that higher-level programming languages cannot achieve.

Overall, studying computer organization and assembly language programming provides a deeper understanding of
how computers work at a fundamental level. It enables programmers to write more efficient and optimized code, as
well as gain insights into the inner workings of computer systems, which can be beneficial in various areas such as
system programming, embedded systems, and computer architecture design.
Here are a few sample questions and answers related to computer organization and assembly language
programming:

Q: What is the purpose of computer organization?

Ans: Computer organization refers to the design and structure of a computer system, including its hardware
components and the way they interact with each other to execute instructions and perform tasks.

Q: What is assembly language programming?

Ans: Assembly language programming is a low-level programming language that closely resembles the machine
code instructions executed by a computer's CPU. It allows programmers to write programs using mnemonic
codes that correspond to the machine-level instructions.

Q: Why is assembly language programming considered low-level?

Ans: Assembly language programming is considered low-level because it is closely related to the
underlying hardware of a computer. It provides direct access to the computer's hardware resources and
allows for fine grained control over system operations.

Q: What is the role of an assembler in assembly language programming?

Ans: An assembler is a software tool that converts assembly language code into machine code, which can be
directly executed by the computer's CPU. It performs the translation between mnemonic instructions and
their binary representations.

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Q: How does computer organization influence program performance?
Ans: The organization of a computer system, including its memory hierarchy, CPU design, and input/output
mechanisms, can significantly impact program performance. Efficient utilization of system resources and
optimization of data access patterns can result in improved program execution speed.

Q: What are the advantages of assembly language programming?

Ans: Assembly language programming offers precise control over hardware resources, direct access to system
registers and memory, and the ability to write highly optimized code. It is often used in system
programming, embedded systems, and performance-critical applications.

Q: What is the difference between assembly language and high-level programming languages?
Ans: Assembly language is a low-level language that closely corresponds to machine code instructions, while
high-level programming languages provide abstractions and higher-level constructs that make programming
easier. High-level languages are typically more portable and easier to read and maintain, but they sacrifice
some of the low-level control and efficiency offered by assembly language.

Q: What are some examples of computer organization topics?

Ans: Computer organization topics include processor design, memory systems, instruction set architecture,
input/output systems, cache memory, pipelining, parallel processing, and system buses.

Computer Organization and Assembly Language Programming – Objective Questions and Answer.

Accessing I/O Devices

1. In memory-mapped I/O ____________
a) The I/O devices and the memory share the same address space
b) The I/O devices have a separate address space
c) The memory and I/O devices have an associated address space
d) A part of the memory is specifically set aside for the I/O operation
Answer: a
Explanation: Its the different modes of accessing the i/o devices.

2. The usual BUS structure used to connect the I/O devices is ___________
a) Star BUS structure b) Multiple BUS structure
c) Single BUS structure d) Node to Node BUS structure
Answer: c
Explanation: BUS is a collection of address, control and data lines used to connect the various devices of the
computer.

3. In intel’s IA-32 architecture there is a separate 16 bit address space for the I/O devices.
a) False b) True
Answer: b
Explanation: This type of access is called as I/O mapped devices.

4. The advantage of I/O mapped devices to memory mapped is ___________

a) The former offers faster transfer of data
b) The devices connected using I/O mapping have a bigger buffer space

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 c) The devices have to deal with fewer address lines
d) No advantage as such
Answer: c
Explanation: Since the I/O mapped devices have a separate address space the address lines are limited by
the amount of the space allocated.

5. The system is notified of a read or write operation by ___________

a) Appending an extra bit of the address
b) Enabling the read or write bits of the devices
c) Raising an appropriate interrupt signal
d) Sending a special signal along the BUS
Answer: d
Explanation: It is necessary for the processor to send a signal intimating the request as either read or write.

6. To overcome the lag in the operating speeds of the I/O device and the processor we use ______
a) Buffer spaces b) Status flags
c) Interrupt signals d) Exceptions
Answer: b
Explanation: The processor operating is much faster than that of the I/O devices, so by using the status flags
the processor need not wait till the I/O operation is done. It can continue with its work until the status flag is
set.

7. The method of accessing the I/O devices by repeatedly checking the status flags is ___________
a) Program-controlled I/O b) Memory-mapped I/O
c) I/O mapped d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In this method, the processor constantly checks the status flags, and when it finds that the flag
is set it performs the appropriate operation.

8. The method of synchronising the processor with the I/O device in which the device sends a signal when it
is ready is?
a) Exceptions b) Signal handling
c) Interrupts d) DMA
Answer: c
Explanation: This is a method of accessing the I/O devices which gives the complete power to the devices,
enabling them to intimate the processor when they’re ready for transfer.

9. The method which offers higher speeds of I/O transfers is ___________

a) Interrupts b) Memory mapping
c) Program-controlled I/O d) DMA Answer: d
Explanation: In DMA the I/O devices are directly allowed to interact with the memory without the
intervention of the processor and the transfers take place in the form of blocks increasing the speed of
operation.

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10. The process wherein the processor constantly checks the status flags is called as ___________
a) Polling b) Inspection
c) Reviewing d) Echoing Answer: a

Interrupts.

1. The interrupt-request line is a part of the ___________

a) Data line b) Control line
c) Address line d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: The Interrupt-request line is a control line along which the device is allowed to send the
interrupt signal.

2. The return address from the interrupt-service routine is stored on the ___________
a) System heap b) Processor register
c) Processor stack d) Memory

Answer: c
Explanation: The Processor after servicing the interrupts as to load the address of the previous process and
this address is stored in the stack.

3. The signal sent to the device from the processor to the device after receiving an interrupt is ____
a) Interrupt-acknowledge b) Return signal
c) Service signal d) Permission signal

Answer: a
Explanation: The Processor upon receiving the interrupt should let the device know that its request is
received.

4. When the process is returned after an interrupt service ______ should be loaded again.
i) Register contents ii) Condition codes
iii) Stack contents iv) Return addresses
a) i, iv
b) ii, iii and iv
c) iii, iv
d) i, ii

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

5. The time between the receiver of an interrupt and its service is ______
a) Interrupt delay b) Interrupt latency
c) Cycle time d) Switching time

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 Answer: b
Explanation: The delay in servicing of an interrupt happens due to the time is taken for contact switch to
take place.
6. Interrupts form an important part of _____ systems.
a) Batch processing b) Multitasking
c) Real-time processing d) Multi-user

Answer: c
Explanation: This forms an important part of the Real time system since if a process arrives with greater
priority then it raises an interrupt and the other process is stopped and the interrupt will be serviced.

7. A single Interrupt line can be used to service n different devices.

a) True b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

8. ______ type circuits are generally used for interrupt service lines.
I) open-collector ii) open-drain
iii) XOR iv) XNOR
a) i, ii
b) ii
c) ii, iii
d) ii, iv

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

9. The resistor which is attached to the service line is called _____

a) Push-down resistor b) Pull-up resistor
c) Break down resistor d) Line resistor

Answer: b
Explanation: This resistor is used to pull up the voltage of the interrupt service line.

10. An interrupt that can be temporarily ignored is ___________

a) Vectored interrupt b) Non-maskable interrupt
c) Maskable interrupt d) High priority interrupt
Answer: c
Explanation: The maskable interrupts are usually low priority interrupts which can be ignored if a higher
priority process is being executed.

11. The 8085 microprocessor responds to the presence of an interrupt ___________

a) As soon as the trap pin becomes ‘LOW’
b) By checking the trap pin for ‘high’ status at the end of each instruction fetch
c) By checking the trap pin for ‘high’ status at the end of execution of each instruction
d) By checking the trap pin for ‘high’ status at regular intervals
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 Answer: c
Explanation: The 8085 microprocessor are designed to complete the execution of the current instruction
and then to service the interrupts.

12. CPU as two modes privileged and non-privileged. In order to change the mode from privileged to non-
privileged.
a) A hardware interrupt is needed
b) A software interrupt is needed
c) Either hardware or software interrupt is needed
d) A non-privileged instruction (which does not generate an interrupt)is needed

Answer: b
Explanation: A software interrupt by some program which needs some CPU service, at that time the two
modes can be interchanged.

13. Which interrupt is unmaskable?

a) RST 5.5 b) RST 7.5
c) TRAP d) Both RST 5.5 and 7.5

Answer: c
Explanation: The trap is a non-maskable interrupt as it deals with the ongoing process in the processor. The
trap is initiated by the process being executed due to lack of data required for its completion. Hence trap is
unmaskable.

14. From amongst the following given scenarios determine the right one to justify interrupt mode of data
transfer.
i) Bulk transfer of several kilo-byte
ii) Moderately large data transfer of more than 1kb
iii) Short events like mouse action
iv) Keyboard inputs
a) i and ii b) ii
c) i, ii and iv d) iv

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

15. How can the processor ignore other interrupts when it is servicing one ___________
a) By turning off the interrupt request line
b) By disabling the devices from sending the interrupts
c) BY using edge-triggered request lines
d) All of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

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 Direct Memory Access.

1. The DMA differs from the interrupt mode by __________

a) The involvement of the processor for the operation
b) The method of accessing the I/O devices
c) The amount of data transfer possible
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: d
Explanation: DMA is an approach of performing data transfers in bulk between memory and the external
device without the intervention of the processor.

2. The DMA transfers are performed by a control circuit called as __________

a) Device interface b) DMA controller
c) Data controller d) Overlooker

Answer: b
Explanation: The Controller performs the functions that would normally be carried out by the processor.

3. In DMA transfers, the required signals and addresses are given by the __________
a) Processor b) Device drivers
c) DMA controllers d) The program itself

Answer: c
Explanation: The DMA controller acts as a processor for DMA transfers and overlooks the entire process.

4. After the completion of the DMA transfer, the processor is notified by __________
a) Acknowledge signal b) Interrupt signal
c) WMFC signal d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: The controller raises an interrupt signal to notify the processor that the transfer was complete.

5. The DMA controller has _______ registers.

a) 4 b) 2
c) 3 d) 1
Answer: c
Explanation: The Controller uses the registers to store the starting address, word count and the status of the
operation.

6. When the R/W bit of the status register of the DMA controller is set to 1.
a) Read operation is performed b) Write operation is performed
c) Read & Write operation is performed d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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7. The controller is connected to the ____
a) Processor BUS b) System BUS
c) External BUS d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: The controller is directly connected to the system BUS to provide faster transfer of data.

8. Can a single DMA controller perform operations on two different disks simultaneously?
a) True b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: The DMA controller can perform operations on two different disks if the appropriate details
are known.

9. The technique whereby the DMA controller steals the access cycles of the processor to operate is called
a) Fast conning b) Memory Con
c) Cycle stealing d) Memory stealing

Answer: c
Explanation: The controller takes over the processor’s access cycles and performs memory operations.

10. The technique where the controller is given complete access to main memory is __________
a) Cycle stealing b) Memory stealing
c) Memory Con d) Burst mode

Answer: d
Explanation: The controller is given full control of the memory access cycles and can transfer blocks at a
faster rate.

11. The controller uses _____ to help with the transfers when handling network interfaces.
a) Input Buffer storage b) Signal enhancers
c) Bridge circuits d) All of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: The controller stores the data to transfer in the buffer and then transfers it.

12. To overcome the conflict over the possession of the BUS we use ______
a) Optimizers b) BUS arbitrators
c) Multiple BUS structure d) None of the mentioned

Answer: b
Explanation: The BUS arbitrator is used to overcome the contention over the BUS possession.

13. The registers of the controller are ______

a) 64 bits b) 24 bits
c) 32 bits d) 16 bits
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 Answer: c
14. When the process requests for a DMA transfer?
a) Then the process is temporarily suspended
b) The process continues execution
c) Another process gets executed
d) process is temporarily suspended & Another process gets executed

Answer: d
Explanation: The process requesting the transfer is paused and the operation is performed, meanwhile
another process is run on the processor.

15. The DMA transfer is initiated by _____

a) Processor b) The process being executed
c) I/O devices d) OS

Answer: c
Explanation: The transfer can only be initiated by an instruction of a program being executed.

Memory Locations and Addresses

1. The smallest entity of memory is called _______

a) Cell b) Block
c) Instance d) Unit

Answer: a
Explanation: Each data is made up of a number of units.

2. The collection of the above mentioned entities where data is stored is called ______
a) Block b) Set
c) Word d) Byte

Answer: c
Explanation: Each readable part of the data is called blocks.

3. An 24 bit address generates an address space of ______ locations.

a) 1024 b) 4096
c) 248 d) 16,777,216

Answer: d
Explanation: The number of addressable locations in the system is called as address space.

4. If a system is 64 bit machine, then the length of each word will be _______
a) 4 bytes b) 8 bytes
c) 16 bytes d) 12 bytes
Answer: b
Explanation: A 64 bit system means, that at a time 64 bit instruction can be executed.

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5. The type of memory assignment used in Intel processors is _____
a) Little Endian b) Big Endian
c) Medium Endian d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: The method of address allocation to data to be stored is called as memory assignment.

6. When using the Big Endian assignment to store a number, the sign bit of the number is stored in _____
a) The higher order byte of the word
b) The lower order byte of the word
c) Can’t say
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

7. To get the physical address from the logical address generated by CPU we use ____________
a) MAR b) MMU
c) Overlays d) TLB

Answer: b
Explanation: Memory Management Unit, is used to add the offset to the logical address generated by the
CPU to get the physical address.

8. _____ method is used to map logical addresses of variable length onto physical memory.
a) Paging b) Overlays
c) Segmentation d) Paging with segmentation

Answer: c
Explanation: Segmentation is a process in which memory is divided into groups of variable length called
segments.

9. During the transfer of data between the processor and memory we use ______
a) Cache b) TLB
c) Buffers d) Registers

Answer: d
Explanation: None.

10. Physical memory is divided into sets of finite size called as ______
a) Frames b) Pages
c) Blocks d) Vectors
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

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 Read-Only Memory

1. If the transistor gate is closed, then the ROM stores a value of 1.

a) True b) False
Answer: b
Explanation: If the gate of the transistor is closed then, the value of zero is stored in the ROM.

2. PROM stands for __________

a) Programmable Read Only Memory b) Pre-fed Read Only Memory
c) Pre-required Read Only Memory d) Programmed Read Only Memory

Answer: a
Explanation: It allows the user to program the ROM.

3. The PROM is more effective than ROM chips in regard to _______

a) Cost b) Memory management
c) Speed of operation d) Both Cost and Speed of operation
Answer: d
Explanation: The PROM is cheaper than ROM as they can be programmed manually.

4. The difference between the EPROM and ROM circuitry is _____

a) The usage of MOSFET’s over transistors b) The usage of JFET’s over transistors
c) The usage of an extra transistor d) None of the mentioned

Answer: c
Explanation: The EPROM uses extra transistor where the ground connection is there in ROM chip.

5. The ROM chips are mainly used to store _______

a) System files b) Root directories
c) Boot files d) Driver files
Answer: c
Explanation: The ROM chips are used to store boot files required for the system startup.

6. The contents of the EPROM are erased by ________

a) Overcharging the chip b) Exposing the chip to UV rays
c) Exposing the chip to IR rays d) Discharging the Chip

Answer: b
Explanation: To erase the contents of the EPROM the chip is exposed to the UV rays, which dissipate the
charge on the transistor.

7. The disadvantage of the EPROM chip is _______

a) The high cost factor b) The low efficiency
c) The low speed of operation
d) The need to remove the chip physically to reprogram it
Answer: d

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8. EEPROM stands for Electrically Erasable Programmable Read Only Memory.
a) True b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: The disadvantages of the EPROM led to the development of the EEPROM.

9. The disadvantage of the EEPROM is/are ________

a) The requirement of different voltages to read, write and store information
b) The Latency read operation
c) The inefficient memory mapping schemes used
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: None.

10. The memory devices which are similar to EEPROM but differ in the cost effectiveness is ______
a) Memory sticks b) Blue-ray devices
c) Flash memory d) CMOS
Answer: c
Explanation: The flash memory functions similar to the EEPROM but is much cheaper.

11. The only difference between the EEPROM and flash memory is that the latter doesn’t allow bulk data to
be written.
a) True b) False
Answer: a
Explanation: This is not permitted as the previous contents of the cells will be overwritten.

12. The flash memories find application in ______

a) Super computers b) Mainframe systems
c) Distributed systems d) Portable devices
Answer: d
Explanation: The flash memories low power requirement enables them to be used in a wide range of hand
held devices.

13. The memory module obtained by placing a number of flash chips for higher memory storage called as
a) FIMM b) SIMM
c) Flash card d) RIMM Answer: c

14. The flash memory modules designed to replace the functioning of a hard disk is ______
a) RIMM b) Flash drives
c) FIMM d) DIMM
Answer: b
Explanation: The flash drives have been developed to provide faster operation but with lesser space.

15. The reason for the fast operating speeds of the flash drives is ____________
a) The absence of any movable parts b) The integrated electronic hardware
c) The improved bandwidth connection d) All of the mentioned Answer: a

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 System Analysis and Design

System analysis and design is a process of examining, modeling, and designing an efficient and effective system to
meet specific business requirements. It involves understanding the existing system, identifying problems or
inefficiencies, and proposing solutions to improve the system's functionality, performance, and user experience.

The process of system analysis and design typically consists of several stages:

Requirements Gathering: This stage involves gathering information about the current system's functionality, user
requirements, business processes, and constraints. It may include conducting interviews, surveys, and workshops
with stakeholders to understand their needs and expectations.

Feasibility Study: A feasibility study is conducted to assess the practicality and viability of the proposed system. It
involves analyzing technical, operational, economic, and legal factors to determine if the project is worth pursuing.

System Analysis: In this stage, the current system is analyzed in detail to identify its strengths, weaknesses, and
areas for improvement. This includes studying existing documentation, conducting interviews with users and
stakeholders, and analyzing data and processes. The goal is to gain a thorough understanding of the system's
requirements and constraints.

System Design: Once the requirements are gathered and analyzed, the system design phase begins. The design
includes defining the architecture of the system, specifying the components and their interactions, and creating
system models, such as data flow diagrams, entity-relationship diagrams, and system flowcharts. The design phase
also involves selecting appropriate hardware, software, and technologies.

Implementation: During the implementation phase, the system is developed based on the design specifications. This
may involve programming, configuring software components, integrating third-party systems, and setting up
hardware infrastructure. The implementation phase also includes testing and debugging to ensure that the system
functions correctly and meets the specified requirements.

Deployment and Maintenance: Once the system is implemented, it is deployed and made available to the users.
User training and documentation are provided to ensure smooth adoption. The maintenance phase involves
monitoring and supporting the system, addressing any issues or bugs that arise, and implementing updates or
enhancements as needed.

Throughout the entire system analysis and design process, it is crucial to involve stakeholders, users, and subject
matter experts to ensure that the proposed system meets their needs and aligns with the organization's goals.
Iterative approaches, such as prototyping and user feedback, are often employed to refine the system design and
ensure its success.

Overall, system analysis and design is a structured and systematic approach to designing and implementing
information systems that effectively support business processes and meet user requirements. It combines technical
expertise, problem-solving skills, and a deep understanding of organizational needs to create efficient, user-friendly,
and sustainable systems.

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Here are a few sample questions and answers related to system analysis and design:

Q: What is the goal of system analysis?

Ans: The goal of system analysis is to understand the current system's functionality, identify its strengths and
weaknesses, and propose improvements to meet user requirements and business needs.

Q: What is the purpose of conducting a feasibility study?

Ans: The purpose of a feasibility study is to assess the practicality and viability of a proposed system, considering
technical, operational, economic, and legal factors.

Q: What are some techniques used for requirements gathering?

Ans: Techniques for requirements gathering include interviews, surveys, workshops, observation, and analyzing
existing documentation.

Q: What is the difference between functional requirements and non-functional requirements?

Ans: Functional requirements specify what the system should do, while non-functional requirements describe
how the system should perform, such as usability, performance, reliability, and security.

Q: What is system modeling, and why is it important?

Ans: System modeling is the process of creating visual representations, such as data flow diagrams, entity-
relationship diagrams, and system flowcharts, to depict the system's structure, data flows, and processes. It
helps in understanding and communicating the system's design and functionality.

Q: What is the purpose of user acceptance testing?

Ans: User acceptance testing is conducted to ensure that the system meets user requirements and performs as
expected before it is deployed. Users simulate real-world scenarios to verify system functionality and
provide feedback.

Q: What is the role of a system analyst?

Ans: A system analyst is responsible for conducting system analysis, gathering requirements, designing system
solutions, coordinating with stakeholders, facilitating communication between technical and non-technical
team members, and ensuring the successful implementation of the system.

Q: How does system design differ from system analysis?

Ans: System analysis focuses on understanding the current system and identifying requirements, while system
design involves creating a detailed plan for the proposed system, including its architecture, components,
interfaces, and data structures.

Q: What are some important considerations for system implementation?

Ans: System implementation considerations include software development, hardware setup, data migration,
testing, training, documentation, and user support.

Q: Why is maintenance an important phase in system analysis and design?

Ans: The maintenance phase ensures the smooth operation of the system after its deployment, including
monitoring performance, addressing issues or bugs, implementing updates, and providing ongoing support
to users.

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 System Analysis and Design – Objective Questions and Answer.

Q: What is the primary goal of system analysis?

a) To develop new software applications
b) To understand the current system's functionality and user requirements
c) To maintain and support existing software systems
d) To manage hardware infrastructure

Ans: b) To understand the current system's functionality and user requirements

Q: What is the purpose of a feasibility study in system analysis and design?

a) To determine the profitability of the project
b) To assess the technical capabilities of the development team
c) To analyze the system's performance under different workloads
d) To evaluate the practicality and viability of the proposed system

Ans: d) To evaluate the practicality and viability of the proposed system

Q: Which technique involves observing users as they perform their tasks to gather requirements?
a) Interviews b) Questionnaires
c) Prototyping d) Observation

Ans: d) Observation

Q: What does a data flow diagram (DFD) represent?

a) The physical layout of the hardware components
b) The sequence of steps in a business process
c) The flow of data between different components of the system
d) The relationships between different entities in a database

Ans: c) The flow of data between different components of the system

Q: Which type of requirement specifies the system's response time and availability?
a) Functional requirements b) Non-functional requirements
c) Business requirements d) Technical requirements

Ans: b) Non-functional requirements

Q: Which testing phase involves validating the system against user requirements?
a) Unit testing
b) Integration testing
c) User acceptance testing
d) Regression testing

Ans: c) User acceptance testing

Q: What is the role of a system analyst?

a) Developing software code
b) Managing project timelines and budgets
c) Gathering requirements and designing system solutions
d) Providing technical support to end-users

Ans: c) Gathering requirements and designing system solutions

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Q: Which design phase involves creating a detailed plan for the proposed system?
a) System analysis b) System modeling
c) System implementation d) System design

Ans: d) System design

Q: What is the purpose of a use case diagram?

a) To describe the system's architecture and components
b) To visualize the flow of data between different system processes
c) To depict the interactions between system actors and the system itself
d) To define the system's functional requirements

Ans: c) To depict the interactions between system actors and the system itself

Q: Why is maintenance important in system analysis and design?

a) To ensure the system meets user requirements
b) To address issues or bugs that arise after system deployment
c) To gather user feedback and make system improvements
d) All of the above

Ans: d) All of the above

Q: What is the purpose of system analysis and design?

A. To develop software B. To improve system efficiency
C. To provide training to employees D. To monitor system performance

Ans: B. To improve system efficiency

Explanation: System analysis and design is the process of examining an existing system, identifying its
strengths and weaknesses, and proposing improvements that will make it more efficient and effective.

Q: Which of the following is not a phase of the SDLC (Software Development Life Cycle)?
A. Planning B. Analysis
C. Implementation D. Review

Ans: D. Review
Explanation: The phases of the SDLC are Planning, Analysis, Design, Implementation, and Maintenance.

Q: What is the purpose of the planning phase of the SDLC?

A. To determine the system requirements B. To develop a detailed project plan
C. To design the system D. To implement the system

Ans: B. To develop a detailed project plan

Explanation: The planning phase of the SDLC involves developing a detailed project plan that outlines the
project goals, scope, timeline, budget, and resources required.

Q: Which of the following is not a type of system requirement?

A. Functional B. Non-functional
C. User D. Technical
Ans: C. User

Q: What is the purpose of a feasibility study?

A. To determine if a project is technically feasible
B. To determine if a project is financially feasible

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 C. To determine if a project is socially feasible
D. To determine if a project is politically feasible

Ans: B. To determine if a project is financially feasible

Explanation: A feasibility study is conducted to determine if a project is financially feasible, that is, if it can
be completed within the allocated budget and generate a positive return on investment.

Q: What is the purpose of a data flow diagram?

A. To illustrate the system architecture
B. To depict the system inputs and outputs
C. To depict the system data and relationships
D. To illustrate the system processes

Ans: B. To depict the system inputs and outputs

Explanation: A data flow diagram is a graphical representation of inputs, processes & outputs of a
system.

Q: Which of the following is not a component of UML (Unified Modeling Language)?

A. Use case diagram B. Activity diagram
C. Entity-relationship diagram D. Class diagram

Ans: C. Entity-relationship diagram

Explanation: The components of UML include use case diagram, activity diagram, sequence diagram, state
diagram, communication diagram, and class diagram.

Q: What is the purpose of a use case diagram?

A. To depict the system architecture
B. To depict the system inputs and outputs
C. To depict the system data and relationships
D. To illustrate the system functionality

Ans: D. To illustrate the system functionality

Explanation: A use case diagram is a graphical representation of the system’s functionality from the user’s
perspective.

Q: Which of the following is not a software development methodology?

A. Agile B. Waterfall
C. RAD (Rapid Application Development) D. UML (Unified Modeling Language)

Ans: D. UML (Unified Modeling Language)

Explanation: UML is a modeling language used to represent software systems, while Agile, Waterfall, and
RAD are software development methodologies.

Q: What is the difference between black box testing and white box testing?
A. Black box testing is conducted by the development team, while white box testing is conducted by the
testing team.
B. Black box testing focuses on the system’s internal logic, while white box testing focuses on the system’s
external behavior.
C. Black box testing is conducted without knowledge of the system’s internal workings, while white box
testing is conducted with knowledge of the system’s internal workings.
D. Black box testing is conducted using automated tools, while white box testing is conducted manually.
Ans: C. Black box testing is conducted without knowledge of the system’s internal workings, while white box
testing is conducted with knowledge of the system’s internal workings.

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 Explanation: Black box testing is conducted without knowledge of the system’s internal workings, while
white box testing is conducted with knowledge of the system’s internal workings.

Q: What is the purpose of a use case?

A. To describe the system requirements
B. To describe the system design
C. To describe the system architecture
D. To describe the system functionality

Ans: D. To describe the system functionality

Explanation: A use case describes the functionality of a system from the perspective of an actor.

Q: What is the purpose of a sequence diagram?

A. To depict the system inputs and outputs
B. To depict the system processes
C. To depict the system data and relationships
D. To illustrate the interactions between objects in a system

Ans: D. To illustrate the interactions between objects in a system

Explanation: A sequence diagram illustrates the interactions between objects in a system in a time-ordered
sequence.

Q: What is the purpose of a class diagram?

A. To depict the system inputs and outputs
B. To depict the system processes
C. To depict the system data and relationships
D. To illustrate the system architecture

Ans: C. To depict the system data and relationships

Explanation: A class diagram is a graphical representation of the classes, interfaces, and relationships in a
system.

Q: What is the purpose of a state diagram?

A. To depict the system inputs and outputs
B. To depict the system processes
C. To depict the system data and relationships
D. To illustrate the behavior of an object in a system

Ans: D. To illustrate the behavior of an object in a system

Explanation: A state diagram is a graphical representation of the behavior of an object in a system.

Q: What is the purpose of a communication diagram?

A. To depict the system inputs and outputs
B. To depict the system processes
C. To depict the system data and relationships
D. To illustrate the interactions between objects in a system

Ans: D. To illustrate the interactions between objects in a system

Explanation: A communication diagram is a graphical representation of the interactions between objects in
a system.

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Q: What is the purpose of a use case scenario?
A. To describe the system requirements B. To describe the system design
C. To describe the system architecture D. To describe the system functionality
Ans: D. To describe the system functionality
Explanation: A use case scenario describes the steps involved in a use case.
Q: What is the purpose of a system flowchart?
A. To illustrate the system architecture B. To depict the system inputs and outputs
C. To depict the system data and relationships D. To illustrate the system processes

Ans: D. To illustrate the system processes

Explanation: A system flowchart is a graphical representation of the system’s processes.

Q: What is the purpose of a data dictionary?

A. To provide a glossary of terms used in the system
B. To provide a description of the system’s data structures
C. To provide a list of all the system components
D. To provide a description of the system’s processes

Ans: B. To provide a description of the system’s data structures

Explanation: A data dictionary provides a description of the data structures used in a system, including data
types, field sizes, and relationships between data elements.

Q: What is the purpose of a context diagram?

A. To illustrate the system architecture B. To depict the system inputs and outputs
C. To depict the system data and relationships D. To illustrate the system processes

Ans: B. To depict the system inputs and outputs

Explanation: A context diagram is a graphical representation of the inputs and outputs of a system, showing
how the system interacts with external entities. It is a high-level view of the system that provides an
overview of the system’s boundaries and interactions with other systems.

Q: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a good requirement?

A. Specific B. Measurable
C. Achievable D.

Ans: D. Ambiguous
Explanation: A good requirement should be specific, measurable, achievable, and unambiguous. Ambiguous
requirements can lead to misunderstandings and misinterpretations, which can result in the delivery of an
incorrect solution.

Q: System Study involves

(a) study of an existing system
(b) documenting the existing system.
(c) identifying current deficiencies and establishing new goals
(d) All of the above Ans: D

Q: The primary tool used in structured design is a:

(a) structure chart (b) data-flow diagram
(c) program flowchart (d) module Ans: A

Q: In a _____ one module of the new information system is activates at a time.

(a) System Development Life Cycle (b) CASE tool
(c) Phased Conversion (d) Success factors Ans: C

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Q: In Prototyping
(a) BASIC is used (b) COBOL is used
(c) 4GLs are used (d) system is documented Ans: C

Q. The step-by-step instructions that solve a problem are called _____.

(a) An algorithm (b) A list
(b) A plan (d) A sequential structure Ans: A

Q. Which of the following is the most critical requirement of a Passenger Reservation System?
(A) Ease of programming (B) Response time
(C) Graphical user Interface (D) Printing of tickets
Answer: B

Q. The black-box concept:

(A) Is invoked by describing a system in terms of inputs and outputs, leaving the transformation
process a black box
(B) Assumes that the black box is independent
(C) Assumes that inputs and outputs will remain stable
(D) None of the above
Answer: D

Q. To reconstruct a system, which of the following key element(s) must be considered:

(A) Feedback and environment
(B) Control and processors
(C) Outputs and inputs
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. In Decision trees
(A) Nodes represent the conditions, with the right side of tree listing the actions to be taken
(B) The root is drawn on the left and is the starting point on the decision sequence
(C) The branch depends on the condition and decisions to made
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. Branch mark programs are best characterized as

(A) Simulator programs (B) Hallmarking
(C) Actual system programs (D) Vendor software for applications
Answer: B

Q. A group of related fields, is known as

(A) Tuple (B) Schema
(C) Records (D) File
Answer: A

Q. When desk-checking an algorithm, you should set up a table that contains _______.
(A) One column for each input item
(B) One column for each output item
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 (C) One column for each processing item
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. On the feasibility committee, department representatives serve as

(A) Ready source of information (B) Liaison to their departments
(C) Direct users of the new system (D) Both (a) and (c)
Answer: A

Q. The short statements that represent the steps the computer needs to follow to solve a problem are called
(A) Flowcharts (B) Flow diagrams
(C) IPO charts (D) Pseudo code
Answer: D

Q. A pseudo code is
(A) A machine code
(B) A computer generated random number
(C) A protocol used in data communication
(D) An easy way to communicate the logic of a program, in English like statements
Answer: D

Q. The data stored on a tape or disk file may be recorded in a report form; described as
(A) A soft copy ledger (B) Printer spacing form
(C) Proof listing (D) All of the above
Answer: Option C

Q. A structure chart is
(A) A document of what has to be accomplished
(B) A hierarchical partitioning of the program
(C) A statement of information processing requirements
(D) All of the above
Answer: B

Q. The term scheme means

(A) The relationship service bureau (B) A map of overall structure of a database
(C) A parent with no owners (D) Two dimensional table
Answer: B

Q. The background and experience of analyst include;

(A) A background in systems theory and organization behavior
(B) Familiarity with the makeup and inner workings of major application areas such as financial
accounting, personnel administration, marketing and sales, operations management, model
building, and production control
(C) Competence in system tools and methodologies and a practical knowledge of one or more
programming and data base languages
(D) All of the above
Answer: D
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Q. Which of the following is done in order a data in phase 1 of the system development life cycle?
(A) Reviewing policies and procedures (B) Conducting interviews
(C) Using questionnaires to conduct surveys (D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. A common reason for changing an information system is

(A) New requirements (B) New technology
(C) Problems in the existing system (D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. A checksum digit is used for detecting Errors in

(A) Data transmission (B) Arithmetic operations
(C) Logical operations (D) All of the above
Answer: A

Q. Which of the following statements is not true

(A) A structured chart is a sequential representation of program design
(B) The Real-Time system is a particular case of a on-line-system
(C) Batch totals are not incorporated while designing real-time applications
(D) 4GLs are used for application proto typing
Answer: A

Q. The main purpose of the system investigation phase is to produce

(A) A design report (B) A requirement report
(C) A feasibility report (D) None of the above
Answer: C

Q. A system analyst designs a new system by

(A) Identifying sub systems and the interfaces between sub systems
(B) Adopting a developed system to the present environment
(C) Developing the system as a large, single unit
(D) Propose alternatives to the current system
Answer: A

Q. An example of a hierarchical data structure is

(A) Array (B) Link list
(C) Tree (D) Ring
Answer: C

Q. System prototyping helps the designer in

(A) Making the programmers understand how the system will function
(B) Communicating to the user, quickly, how the system, when developed, will look like and get a
feedback
(C) Giving a demo of the software, to the system manager to whom he reports
(D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: B

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Q. The longest method of conversion is
(A) Direct (B) Parallel
(C) Phased (D) Pilot
Answer: A

Q. A statement - by - statement description of a procedure is detailed in a;

(A) Written narrative (B) Procedure's log
(C) Systems flowchart (D) Record layout
Answer: A

Q. Which of the following is an integrated collection of data with minimum redundancy, so that different
applications can use the required data?
(A) Records (B) File
(C) DBMS (D) Schema
Answer: C

Q. Sequential or series testing is

(A) Running the system with line data by the actual user
(B) Making sure that the new programs do in fact process certain transactions according to
Specifications
(C) Is checking the logic of one or more programs in the candidate system
(D) Testing changes made in an existing or a new program
Answer: C

Q. Which of the following is (are) the characteristic(s) of a system?

(A) Organization (B) Interaction
(C) Interdependence (D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. A programmer reviews the accuracy of an algorithm by _______ it.

(A) Analyzing (B) Coding
(C) Desk-checking (D) Planning
Answer: C

Q. The conditions immediately outside a system is called

(A) The boundary (B) The interface
(C) The environment (D) The protocols
Answer: C

Q. A problem's _______ will answer the question, "What does the user want to see either printed or
displayed on the screen?"
(A) Input (B) Output
(C) Processing (D) Purpose
Answer: B

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Q. The system study project includes
(A) System analysis (B) System design
(C) Implementation (D) Both (a) and (b) Answer: D

Q. Advantages of data base system is (are)

(A) Storage space duplication is eliminated
(B) All applications share centralized files
(C) Data are stored once in the data base and are easily accessible when needed
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. A data flow diagram is

(A) The modern version of flowchart
(B) Mainly used at the systems specification stage
(C) The primary output of the systems design phase
(D) All of the above
Answer: B

Q. Difference between Decision - Tables and Decision Trees is (are):

(A) Value to end user (B) Form of representation
(C) One shows the logic while other shows the process
(D) All of the above
Answer: B

Q. Which of the following is a function of the process step of data processing?

(A) Protect (B) Index
(C) Retrieval (D) Update
Answer: C

Q. Advantages of Relational Database Management systems are

(A) Flexibility, of relating different logical files
(B) Security controls can be more easily implemented
(C) Data independence since it allows the database to grow by adding new attributes and relations
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. The systems conversion technique of totally removing the existing system and immediately implementing
the new system is called as
(A) Crash conversion (B) Phased conversion
(C) Pilot conversion (D) Parallel run
Answer: A

Q. Tracing, of any input record or process, performed on a system, back to its original source, is an
(A) Audit trial (B) Report generation
(C) Batch processing (D) Conversion
Answer: A

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Q. Which of the following represents processor activities, methods, and procedures in a data flow diagram?
(A) Datagram (B) Actigram
(C) Feed back (D) Flow chart
Answer: C

Q. Structured programming involves

(A) Functional modularization (B) Decentralization of program activity
(C) Localization of errors (D) Centralized processing
Answer: A
Q. _______ use standardized symbols to represent an algorithm.
(A) Flowcharts (B) Flow diagrams
(C) IPO charts (D) Pseudo code
Answer: A

Q. The communication problem involves the

(A) Analyst and the programmer (B) Manager and the analyst
(C) Programmer and the computer (D) Operate and the computer
Answer: B

Q. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a system?

(A) Operates for some purpose (B) Has homogeneous components
(C) Operates within a boundary (D) Has interacting components
Answer: B

Q. Which of the following is a graphic representation of the modules in the System and the interconnection
between them?
(A) Pie chart (B) Flow chart
(C) Structural chart (D) System chart
Answer: C

Q. The person communicating with the manager to identify information needs is the
(A) Executive vice-president (B) Vice- president of information system
(C) Programmer (D) System analyst
Answer: D

Q. Changes made periodically to a system, after its implementation, is known as system

(A) Analysis (B) Design
(C) Development (D) Maintenance
Answer: D

Q. Which of the following is not a factor in the failure of a systems development project?
(A) Inadequate user involvement
(B) Failure of systems integration
(C) Size of company
(D) Continuation of a project that should have been cancelled
Answer: C

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Q. Procedure development occurs within the
(A) Structured design phase (B) Conversion phase
(C) System building phase (D) Maintenance
Answer: C

Q. Rapid prototyping proves the quality of a design by

(A) Having a program simulate the real system
(B) Having the system analyst present an overview of the design to users, programmers, and
consultants
(C) Having a data flow diagram
(D) Both (a) and (b) Answer: A

Q. Structured design methodology is an approach to design that adheres to rules based on principles such as
(A) Top-down refinement (B) Bottom-up design
(C) Data flow analysis (D) All of the above
Answer: C

Q. Pointers are useful in

(A) Locating a particular sector of a magnetic disk
(B) Pointing mistakes in input data
(C) Traversing a linked list
(D) All of the above
Answer: C

Q. An open rectangle
(A) Defines a source or destination of system data
(B) Identifies data flow
(C) Represents a process that transforms incoming data flow(s) into outgoing data flows
(D) Is a data store-data at rest, or a temporary repository of data
Answer: D

Q. Data structuring is refined through a process called

(A) Structuring process (B) Hierarchical structure
(C) Normalization (D) Relation structure
Answer: C

Q. The term used to refer to the checking of outputs of a computer, with the corresponding input
documents, is called
(A) Auditing around the computer (B) Auditing through the computer
(C) Process control (D) Beta-test
Answer: A

Q. The systems conversion technique of totally removing the existing system and immediately implementing
the new system is called a
(A) Pilot conversion (B) Crash conversion
(C) Phased conversion (D) Parallel run
Answer: B
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Q. Mistakes made in the requirements analysis stage show up in
(A) System design (B) System development
(C) System testing (D) System implementation
Answer: D

Q. Announcement of MIS implementation is made by

(A) Operational level managers (B) Tactical level managers
(C) The president (D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. A system design is said to be functionally modular if

(A) The system is able to handle all the function of the application
(B) Each module performs a specific function and can be developed relatively independently by
programmers
(C) The system makes extensive use of function keys for maximum user assistance
(D) The system is developed using structured programming through COBOL or PASCAL
Answer: B

Q. In top down analysis and design

(A) Each succeeding phase is more detailed than the phase before it
(B) Each succeeding phase is as detailed as the phase before it
(C) Each succeeding phase is less detailed than the phase before it
(D) All of the above
Answer: A

Q. System Specifications are used to

(A) Describe system flows (B) Get an accurate picture of the system
(C) Avoids ambiguity (D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. The first step in systems Development Life Cycle is

(A) Database design (B) System design
(C) Preliminary investigation and analysis (D) Graphical user interface
Answer: C

Q. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a system

(A) Operates for some purpose (B) Has homogeneous components
(C) Has interacting components (D) Operates within a boundary
Answer: B

Q. On-line data entry is most suitable in the case of

(A) Updating payroll master (B) Entering monthly journal entries
(C) Processing payment of cheque in a bank (D) All of the above
Answer: C

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Q. The feasibilities studied in preliminary investigation is (are):
(A) Technical feasibility (B) Economic feasibility
(C) Operational feasibility (D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. Most algorithms follow the format of

(A) Entering the input items, then displaying the input items, and then processing the output items
(B) Entering the input items, then processing the output items, and then displaying the output items
(C) Entering the input items, then processing the input items, and then displaying the output items
(D) Entering the output items, then displaying the output items, and then processing the output items
Answer: C

Q. Cost-Benefit analysis
(A) Evaluates the tangible and non-tangible factors
(B) Compares the cost, with the benefits, of introducing a computer-based system
(C) Estimates the hardware and software costs
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. Which of the following statements is not true?

(A) At example of a hierarchical data structure is tree
(B) Pointers are useful in traversing a linked list
(C) A checksum digit is used for detecting Errors in data transmission
(D) None of the above
Answer: B

Q. Unit testing is
(A) Running the system with line data by the actual user
(B) Making sure that the new programs do in fact process certain transactions according to Specifications
(C) Is checking the logic of one or more programs in the candidate system
(D) Testing changes made in an existing or a new program
Answer: D

Q. The "big picture" diagram of a system is the

(A) Block diagram (B) Logic diagram
(C) System flowchart (D) Program flowchart
Answer: C

Q. Structured design produces computer programs that are

(A) Easily (B) Maintained
(C) Easily understood (D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: D

Q. "User friendly" computers have ensured that

(A) Management requires no system analysis and design
(B) Programmers are no longer needed
(C) Structured programming is not needed
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 (D) None of the above
Answer: D

Q. A turnkey package includes

(A) Software (B) Hardware
(C) Training (D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. What type of software is most useful in financial planning and calculation?

(A) Graphics (B) Communication
(C) Database (D) Spreadsheet
Answer: D

Q. The _______ symbol is used in a flowchart to represent a calculation task.

(A) Input (B) Output
(C) Process (D) Start
Answer: C

Q. Which of the following is a function of the process step of data processing?

(A) Index (B) Update
(C) Protect (D) Retrieval
Answer: D

Q. Which of the following tools is not used in modeling the new system?
(A) Decision tables (B) Data dictionary
(C) Data-flow diagrams (D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. A feasibility document should contain all of the following except:

(A) Project name (B) Problem descriptions
(C) Feasible alternative (D) Data-flow diagrams
Answer: B

Q. A Pseudo code is
(A) A machine - level code
(B) A random number
(C) A flow chart
(D) Structured English to communicate the logic of a program
Answer: D

Q. Conversion method in which users, being used to an old system, continue to use the old system, alongside
the new system, is
(A) Multi processing (B) Multitasking
(C) Parallel run (D) All of the above
Answer: C

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Q. Which of the following is used when a company goes outside its organization to develop a new system?
(A) Request for proposal (B) Data flow diagram
(C) Systems flowchart (D) Project directory
Answer: A

Q. A hierarchical chart that divides a large program into modules, in which greater details is designed in
successively lower programming levels, is called a
(A) Scheme (B) Sub-schema
(C) Structure (D) All of the above
Answer: C

Q. In Data structure, main characteristic of "ring" is:

(A) Last, record points to the first record (B) First record points only to the last record
(C) Many records point to one record (D) All of the above
Answer: A

Q. Backup and recovery procedures are primarily implemented to

(A) Handle the contingency when a file gets corrupted
(B) To provide data redundancy
(C) To show different versions of data and programs
(D) All of the above
Answer: A

Q. Which of the following is not a requirement of structured design?

(A) It should use many GO TO statements
(B) The code should be executed in a top-to-bottom fashion within each module
(C) It should be made up of a hierarchy of modules
(D) Each module should be as independent as possible of all other modules, except its parent
Answer: A

Q. Coding and testing are done in a

(A) Top-down manner (B) Bottom-up manner
(C) Ad hoc manner (D) Cross sectional manner
Answer: A

Q. Which of the following systems implementation approaches should be used if you want to run the old
system and the new system at the same time for a specified period?
(A) Direct (B) Pilot
(C) Parallel (D) Phased
Answer: C

Q. A Square Symbols
(A) Defines a source or destination of system data
(B) Identifies data flow
(C) Represents a process that transforms incoming data flow(s) into outgoing data flows
(D) Is a data store-data at rest, or a temporary repository of data
Answer: A
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Q. A design that consists of a hierarchy of modules; each module has a single entry and a single exit
subroutine, is known as
(A) Hierarchy structure (B) Top-down design
(C) Tulle (D) Turnaround
Answer: B

Q. Which of the following systems implementation approaches should be used if you want to run the old
system and the new system at the same time for a specified period?
(A) Direct (B) Pilot
(C) Phased (D) Parallel
Answer: D

Q. A Decision table
(A) Represents the information flow
(B) Documents rules, that select one or more actions, based on one or more conditions, from a set of
possible conditions
(C) Gets an accurate picture of the system
(D) Shows the decision paths
Answer: B

Q. Which of the following file types has the least life

(A) Master file (B) Program file
(C) Transaction file (D) Work file
Answer: D

Q. Decision tree uses

(A) Pictorial depiction of alternate conditions
(B) Nodes and branches
(C) Consequences of various depicted alternates
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. The two classification of inputs are:

(A) Energies and maintenance (B) Products and waste
(C) Maintenance and waste (D) Maintenance and signal
Answer: D

Q. A graphic representation of an information system is called

(A) Flow chart (B) Pictogram
(C) Data flow diagram (D) Histogram
Answer: C

Q. Which of the following is not a part of a Data Flow Diagram?

(A) Disk storage (B) Arrow
(C) Data store (D) Process represented by a bubble circle (circle)
Answer: A

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Q. Main characteristic of "ring", in Data structure, is
(A) First record points only to the last record (B) Last record points to the first record
(C) Many records point to one record (D) Each record points to all other records
Answer: B

Q. Data dictionary contains detail of

(A) Data structures (B) Data flows
(C) Data stores (D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. Which of the following is not a programming control structure?

(A) Repetition (B) Selection
(C) Sequence (D) Sorting
Answer: Option D

Q. Which of the following is not considered a tool at the system Design phase?
(A) Data-Flow Diagram (B) Decision Table
(C) Pie chart (D) System Flowchart
Answer: C

Q. You record the algorithm in the _______ column of the IPO chart.
(A) Input (B) Output
(C) Processing (D) Purpose
Answer: C

Q. Graphic representation of the control logic of processing functions or modules representing a system is
known as:
(A) Structured analysis (B) Structured chart
(C) Structured English (D) System Flow chart
Answer: B

Q. In functional decomposition, the data flow diagram

(A) Is ignored
(B) Is partitioned according to the "closeness" of the datagrams and data storage items
(C) Is partitioned according to the logical "closeness" of the actigrams
(D) Both (a) and (c)
Answer: C

Q. Which of the following is not a requirement of structured design?

(A) It should be made up of a hierarchy of modules
(B) It should use many GOTO statements
(C) The code should be executed in a top-to-bottom fashion within each module
(D) Each module should be as independent as possible of all other modules, except its parent
Answer: B

Q. The first step to the system study project is to

(A) Define system performance criteria (B) Describe information needs
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 (C) Staff for the study project (D) Announce the study project
Answer: D

Q. Which of the following is not considered as a tool at the system design phase?
(A) Pie chart (B) Data-flow diagram
(C) Decision table (D) Systems flowchart
Answer: A

Q. During system study, data can be collected through

(A) Questionnaires (B) Interviews
(C) On-site observations (D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. The four icons used in building Data Flow Diagram are

(A) Flow, Source, Store, Process (B) Flow, Process, Source, Store
(C) Flow, Process, Source/Destination, Store (D) Source, Process, Destination, Store
Answer: C

Q. In a Decision tree
(A) The root is drawn on the left and is the starting point on the decision sequence
(B) The branch, to be followed, depends on the conditions and decisions, to be made
(C) The nodes represent the conditions, with the right wise of tree listing the actions to be taken
(D) All of the above
Answer: D

Q. A feasibility study
(A) Includes a statement of the problems
(B) Considers a single solutions
(C) Both (a) and (b)
(D) A list of alternative solution considered
Answer: A

Q. Where one has to process all the data records in a file, the best tile organization is
(A) Indexed (B) Sequential
(C) Direct access (D) Random access
Answer: B

Q. Which of the following is used to derive the address, of a record from the record key
(A) Comma (B) Hashing
(C) Variable (D) Field
Answer: B

Q. Environment in systems parlance refers to

(A) A sub-system (B) The boundary
(C) A part outside the boundaries (D) All of the above
Answer: C

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Q. Structured design produces computer programs that are:
(A) Easily maintained (B) Easily understood
(C) Tested in a bottom-up fashion (D) Both (a) and (b)
Answer: D

Q. A system design aid should primarily

(A) Help analyze both data and activities (B) Help in documentation
(C) Generate code (D) Using a graphical user interface
Answer: A

Q. A word processor designed for programmers is called

(A) A formatter (B) A compiler
(C) An editor (D) A debugger
Answer: C

Q. A _______ is software that is designed for drawing diagrams of information systems, writing process
specifications, and maintaining data dictionaries.
(A) System Development Life Cycle (B) CASE tool
(C) Phased Conversion (D) Success factors
Answer: B
Q. Reverse video is a technique of
(A) Showing data with half brightness
(B) Showing data upside down on the screen
(C) Hiding confidential data on the screen
(D) Emphasizing data by reversing the foreground and background
Answer: D

Q. Which of the following' is NOT a characteristic of good test data?

(A) Should be comprehensive
(B) Users do not participate at this preliminary stage
(C) Every statement should be executed
(D) Expected output from the module's execution should be determined manually
Answer: B

Q. A channel for communicating across a boundary between two or more subsystems is known as
(A) Interface (B) Actigram
(C) Walk through (D) Data path
Answer: B

Q. Direct-access organization
(A) Means storing records in contiguous blocks according to a key
(B) Stores records sequentially but uses an index to locate records
(C) Uses an index for each key type
(D) Has records placed randomly throughout the file
Answer: D

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Q. The term Parallel Run refers to
(A) The same job run on two different computer to test their speeds
(B) The processing of two different jobs initiated from two terminals
(C) The concurrent operation of an existing system and a new system
(D) All of the above
Answer: C

Q. The data base be prepared until

(A) The computer has been selected (B) The MIS staff has been acquired and organized
(C) The preparation of physical facilities (D) All of the above
Answer: A

Q. The structure chart is:

(A) A document of what has to be accomplished
(B) A hierarchical partitioning of the program
(C) A statement of information-processing requirements
(D) All of the above
Answer: B

Q. In data-flow diagrams, an originator or receiver of the data is usually designated by

(A) A circle (B) An arrow
(C) A square box (D) A rectangle
Answer: C

Q. The time lag, between the keying of the last character on the keyboard input and the appearance of the
first output character on the screen, is known as
(A) Key (B) System review
(C) Response time (D) Batch Processing
Answer: C

Q. Structured Programming involves

(A) Decentralization of program activity (B) Functional modularization
(C) Localization of errors (D) All of the above
Answer: B

Q. The outstanding Invoice file should be stared on a Pardon Access Storage Device if
(A) Invoice data entry is on-line
(B) Payment recording is done in a batch rode
(C) Inquires concerning payable are to be answered on-line
(D) Last record points to the first record
Answer: C

Q. Which of the following control structures is used in every program?

(A) Repetition (B) Selection
(C) Sequence (D) Switching
Answer: C

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 Internet Concepts and Web Design

Internet Concepts and Web Design encompass the fundamental principles and techniques related to the functioning
of the internet and the creation of visually appealing and user-friendly websites. It involves understanding how the
internet works, exploring web technologies, and designing websites that effectively communicate and engage with
users. Here are some key aspects of Internet Concepts and Web Design:

Internet Basics:

 Understanding the internet infrastructure, including networks, protocols, and data transmission.
 Exploring the client-server model and the role of web browsers and web servers.
 Familiarity with IP addresses, domain names, and the Domain Name System (DNS).
 Understanding internet protocols such as HTTP, HTTPS, FTP, and SMTP.

HTML (Hypertext Markup Language):

 Knowledge of HTML tags and elements for structuring and presenting content on webpages.
 Understanding semantic HTML and the proper use of headings, paragraphs, lists, and links.
 Knowledge of HTML forms for user input and interaction.
 Mastery of HTML5 features, including audio, video, canvas, and responsive design.

CSS (Cascading Style Sheets):

 Understanding CSS syntax, selectors, and inheritance.

 Knowledge of CSS properties for controlling the layout, typography, colors, and visual effects.
 Applying CSS media queries for responsive web design.
 Understanding CSS frameworks and pre-processors like Bootstrap and Sass.

Web Design Principles:

 Knowledge of user interface (UI) and user experience (UX) design principles.
 Creating visually appealing and accessible websites.
 Applying principles of color theory, typography, and visual hierarchy.
 Designing intuitive navigation and interactive elements.

Responsive Web Design:

 Understanding the importance of mobile-friendly websites.

 Applying responsive design techniques using media queries and flexible grid systems.
 Optimizing images and media for different devices.
 Testing and debugging websites across multiple devices and screen sizes.

Web Accessibility:

 Understanding the importance of inclusive design and web accessibility standards.

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  Applying accessibility guidelines to ensure websites are usable by people with disabilities.
 Implementing proper markup, alternative text for images, and keyboard navigation support.

Web Development Tools:

 Familiarity with integrated development environments (IDEs) and code editors.

 Knowledge of browser developer tools for debugging and inspecting webpages.
 Understanding version control systems like Git for collaborative web development.
 Awareness of content management systems (CMS) like WordPress for website creation and management.

Web Performance Optimization:

 Knowledge of techniques to optimize website loading speed and performance.

 Minifying and compressing CSS, JavaScript, and images.
 Caching and browser caching mechanisms.
 Implementing techniques like lazy loading and code splitting.

Search Engine Optimization (SEO):

 Understanding SEO best practices to improve website visibility in search engine results.
 Implementing proper HTML tags, meta tags, and structured data.
 Optimizing website content for keywords and relevancy.
 Building quality backlinks and improving website authority.

Web Analytics:

 Knowledge of web analytics tools like Google Analytics for tracking website performance.
 Analyzing user behavior, traffic sources, and conversion rates.
 Using data insights to make informed decisions and optimize website design and content.

These topics provide a comprehensive overview of Internet Concepts and Web Design. Mastering these concepts
and techniques can help create visually appealing, user-friendly, and successful websites.

Internet Concept and Web Design.

 Internet Basics:
100 objective questions with their answers related to Internet concepts:

 What does the acronym "HTTP" stand for?

Answer: Hypertext Transfer Protocol.

 What does the acronym "URL" stand for?

Answer: Uniform Resource Locator.

 Which protocol is used to send emails over the Internet?

Answer: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).

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  Which organization is responsible for assigning IP addresses globally?
Answer: Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA).

 What does the acronym "DNS" stand for?

Answer: Domain Name System.
 Which protocol is used to retrieve email from a mail server?
Answer: POP (Post Office Protocol) or IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol).

 Which organization is responsible for managing domain names and registration?

Answer: Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN).

 What is the purpose of a firewall in network security?

Answer: To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic.

 Which protocol is used for secure communication over the Internet?

Answer: HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure).

 What is the maximum number of characters allowed in a domain name?

Answer: 63 characters (excluding the top-level domain).

 What does the acronym "IP" stand for?

Answer: Internet Protocol.

 Which protocol is used for transferring files over the Internet?

Answer: FTP (File Transfer Protocol).

 What is the purpose of a VPN (Virtual Private Network)?

Answer: To create a secure and private network connection over a public network.

 What does the acronym "ISP" stand for?

Answer: Internet Service Provider.

 What is the purpose of a cookie in web browsing?

Answer: To store information about a user's interactions with a website.

 Which organization developed the World Wide Web?

Answer: CERN (European Organization for Nuclear Research).

 Which protocol is used for sending and receiving emails?

Answer: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol).

 What is the purpose of a router in a network?

Answer: To forward data packets between different networks.

 What does the acronym "LAN" stand for?

Answer: Local Area Network.
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  What is the purpose of an SSL certificate?
Answer: To establish a secure and encrypted connection between a server and a client.

 What does the acronym "WAN" stand for?

Answer: Wide Area Network.

 Which organization is responsible for the maintenance and development of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
Answer: Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).

 What is the purpose of a proxy server?

Answer: To act as an intermediary between a client and a server, providing various functions such as caching
and anonymity.

 Which protocol is used for retrieving email from a mail server?

Answer: POP (Post Office Protocol) or IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol).

 Which organization is responsible for managing top-level domain names (e.g., .com, .org, .net)?
Answer: Internet Corporation for Assigned Names and Numbers (ICANN).

 What is the purpose of a DNS server?

Answer: To translate domain names into their corresponding IP addresses.

 What does the acronym "URL" stand for?

Answer: Uniform Resource Locator.

 Which protocol is used for secure web browsing?

Answer: HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure).

 What does the acronym "IP" stand for?

Answer: Internet Protocol.

 Which organization is responsible for assigning IP addresses globally?

Answer: Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA).

 What is the purpose of a firewall in network security?

Answer: To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic.

 What is the purpose of a cookie in web browsing?

Answer: To store information about a user's interactions with a website.

 What is the purpose of an SSL certificate?

Answer: To establish a secure and encrypted connection between a server and a client.

 Which organization developed the World Wide Web?

Answer: CERN (European Organization for Nuclear Research).

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  What does the acronym "WAN" stand for?
Answer: Wide Area Network.

 Which organization is responsible for the maintenance and development of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
Answer: Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).

 What is the purpose of a proxy server?

Answer: To act as an intermediary between a client and a server, providing various functions such as caching
and anonymity.

 Which protocol is used for retrieving email from a mail server?

Answer: POP (Post Office Protocol) or IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol).

 What is the purpose of a DNS server?

Answer: To translate domain names into their corresponding IP addresses.

 What does the acronym "URL" stand for?

Answer: Uniform Resource Locator.

 Which protocol is used for secure web browsing?

Answer: HTTPS (Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure).

 What does the acronym "IP" stand for?

Answer: Internet Protocol.

 Which organization is responsible for assigning IP addresses globally?

Answer: Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA).

 What is the purpose of a firewall in network security?

Answer: To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic.

 What is the purpose of a cookie in web browsing?

Answer: To store information about a user's interactions with a website.

 Which protocol is used for real-time communication over the Internet?

Answer: VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol).

 What is the purpose of an SSL certificate?

Answer: To establish a secure and encrypted connection between a server and a client.

 What is the purpose of an IP address?

Answer: To uniquely identify a device on a network.

 Which organization developed the World Wide Web?

Answer: CERN (European Organization for Nuclear Research).

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  What does the acronym "SSH" stand for?
Answer: Secure Shell.

 Which organization is responsible for the maintenance and development of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
Answer: Internet Engineering Task Force (IETF).

 What is the purpose of a proxy server?

Answer: To act as an intermediary between a client and a server, providing various functions such as caching
and anonymity.

 Which protocol is used for retrieving email from a mail server?

Answer: POP (Post Office Protocol) or IMAP (Internet Message Access Protocol).

 What is the purpose of a DNS server?

Answer: To translate domain names into their corresponding IP addresses.

 Which organization is responsible for assigning IP addresses globally?

Answer: Internet Assigned Numbers Authority (IANA).

 What is the purpose of a firewall in network security?

Answer: To monitor and control incoming and outgoing network traffic.

 What does the acronym "VPN" stand for?

Answer: Virtual Private Network.

 What is the purpose of a cookie in web browsing?

Answer: To store information about a user's interactions with a website.

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Here are 100 objective questions with their answers related to HTML:

 What does HTML stand for?

Answer: Hypertext Markup Language.

 Which tag is used to define the root of an HTML document?

Answer: <html> tag.

 Which tag is used to define the title of an HTML document?

Answer: <title> tag.

 Which tag is used to define the header section of an HTML document?

Answer: <header> tag.

 Which tag is used to define the main content of an HTML document?

Answer: <main> tag.

 Which tag is used to define a paragraph in HTML?

Answer: <p> tag.

 Which tag is used to create a hyperlink in HTML?

Answer: <a> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the URL of the linked document in an <a> tag?
Answer: href attribute.

 Which tag is used to define a table in HTML?

Answer: <table> tag.

 Which tag is used to define a table row in HTML?

Answer: <tr> tag.

 Which tag is used to define a table cell in HTML?

Answer: <td> tag.

 Which tag is used to define a list item in HTML?

Answer: <li> tag.

 Which tag is used to create an ordered list in HTML?

Answer: <ol> tag.

 Which tag is used to create an unordered list in HTML?

Answer: <ul> tag.

 Which tag is used to define a form in HTML?

Answer: <form> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the method used to submit form data in an <form> tag?
Answer: method attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the action to be performed when a form is submitted in an <form> tag?
Answer: action attribute.

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  Which tag is used to create a text input field in HTML?
Answer: <input> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the type of input field in an <input> tag?
Answer: type attribute.

 Which tag is used to define a line break in HTML?

Answer: <br> tag.

 Which tag is used to display an image in HTML?

Answer: <img> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the source URL of an image in an <img> tag?
Answer: src attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the alternative text for an image in an <img> tag?
Answer: alt attribute.

 Which tag is used to define a heading in HTML?

Answer: <h1> to <h6> tags.

 Which tag is used to define a line of code or a programming instruction in HTML?

Answer: <code> tag.

 Which tag is used to define a section of a document in HTML?

Answer: <section> tag.

 Which tag is used to emphasize text in HTML?

Answer: <em> tag.

 Which tag is used to highlight text in HTML?

Answer: <mark> tag.

 Which tag is used to define a subscripted text in HTML?

Answer: <sub> tag.

 Which tag is used to define a superscripted text in HTML?

Answer: <sup> tag.

 Which tag is used to define a horizontal rule in HTML?

Answer: <hr> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the width of a table column in an <td> tag?
Answer: width attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the height of an image in an <img> tag?

Answer: height attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the width of an image in an <img> tag?

Answer: width attribute.

 Which tag is used to define a comment in HTML?

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 Answer: <!--> tag.

 Which attribute is used to define the text direction in an HTML document?

Answer: dir attribute.

 Which tag is used to define a division or a section in HTML?

Answer: <div> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the background color of an HTML element?

Answer: style attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the font size in an HTML element?

Answer: style attribute.

 Which attribute is used to align text within an HTML element?

Answer: align attribute.

 Which tag is used to create a button in HTML?

Answer: <button> tag.

 Which attribute is used to disable a button in an <button> tag?

Answer: disabled attribute.

 Which tag is used to create a checkbox in HTML?

Answer: <input> tag with type attribute set to "checkbox".

 Which attribute is used to specify the checked state of a checkbox in an <input> tag?
Answer: checked attribute.

 Which tag is used to create a radio button in HTML?

Answer: <input> tag with type attribute set to "radio".

 Which tag is used to create a dropdown list in HTML?

Answer: <select> tag.

 Which tag is used to create an option within a dropdown list in HTML?

Answer: <option> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the selected option in a dropdown list in an <option> tag?
Answer: selected attribute.

 Which tag is used to define a text area in HTML?

Answer: <textarea> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the number of visible rows in a text area in a <textarea> tag?
Answer: rows attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the maximum number of characters allowed in a text area in a
<textarea> tag?
Answer: maxlength attribute.

 Which tag is used to create a submit button in HTML?

Answer: <input> tag with type attribute set to "submit".

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  Which attribute is used to specify the label for a form element in an <input> tag?
Answer: id attribute.

 Which attribute is used to group related form elements together in an <input> tag?
Answer: name attribute.

 Which attribute is used to provide additional information about an HTML element in a <input> tag?
Answer: title attribute.

 Which attribute is used to associate a label with a form element in an <input> tag?
Answer: for attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the width of a table border in a <table> tag?
Answer: border attribute.

 Which tag is used to create a navigation menu in HTML?

Answer: <nav> tag.

 Which tag is used to define an image map in HTML?

Answer: <map> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the shape of an area in an image map in an <area> tag?
Answer: shape attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the coordinates of an area in an image map in an <area> tag?
Answer: coords attribute.

 Which tag is used to define a video player in HTML?

Answer: <video> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the source URL of a video in a <video> tag?
Answer: src attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify whether the video should start playing automatically in a <video> tag?
Answer: autoplay attribute.

 Which tag is used to define an audio player in HTML?

Answer: <audio> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the source URL of an audio file in an <audio> tag?
Answer: src attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify whether the audio should start playing automatically in an <audio> tag?
Answer: autoplay attribute.

 Which tag is used to create a progress bar in HTML?

Answer: <progress> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the value of a progress bar in a <progress> tag?
Answer: value attribute.

 Which tag is used to create a slider control in HTML?

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 Answer: <input> tag with type attribute set to "range".

 Which attribute is used to specify the minimum value of a slider control in an <input> tag?
Answer: min attribute.
 Which attribute is used to specify the maximum value of a slider control in an <input> tag?
Answer: max attribute.

 Which tag is used to define a canvas element in HTML?

Answer: <canvas> tag.

 Which tag is used to display a video in HTML?

Answer: <video> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the width of a video element in an <video> tag?
Answer: width attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the height of a video element in an <video> tag?
Answer: height attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify whether the video controls should be displayed in an <video> tag?
Answer: controls attribute.

 Which tag is used to define an iframe in HTML?

Answer: <iframe> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the source URL of an iframe in an <iframe> tag?
Answer: src attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the width of an iframe element in an <iframe> tag?
Answer: width attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the height of an iframe element in an <iframe> tag?
Answer: height attribute.

 Which tag is used to define a footer section in HTML?

Answer: <footer> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the alignment of text in an HTML table?

Answer: align attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the background image of an HTML element?

Answer: background attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the target window or frame for a hyperlink in an <a> tag?
Answer: target attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify whether a table cell should span multiple columns in an <td> tag?
Answer: colspan attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify whether a table cell should span multiple rows in an <td> tag?
Answer: rowspan attribute.

 Which tag is used to define a definition list in HTML?

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 Answer: <dl> tag.

 Which tag is used to define a term in a definition list in HTML?

Answer: <dt> tag.

 Which tag is used to define a definition in a definition list in HTML?

Answer: <dd> tag.

 Which attribute is used to specify the maximum number of characters allowed in a text input field in an
<input> tag?
Answer: maxlength attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the pattern that a value should match in a text input field in an <input>
tag?
Answer: pattern attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify a placeholder text for a text input field in an <input> tag?
Answer: placeholder attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify whether a text input field is required in an <input> tag?
Answer: required attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the step size for a number input field in an <input> tag?
Answer: step attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify whether a checkbox or radio button is checked by default in an <input>
tag?
Answer: checked attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the default value for a text input field in an <input> tag?
Answer: value attribute.

 Which attribute is used to disable an input field in an <input> tag?

Answer: disabled attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the position of an element in relation to the surrounding text flow in an
<input> tag?
Answer: float attribute.

 Which attribute is used to specify the color of an HTML element in a <input> tag?
Answer: color attribute.

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 Internet Concepts & Design – Objective Questions and Answer.

Q. What does the acronym "HTTP" stand for?

a) Hypertext Transfer Protocol b) Hyperlink Text Transport Protocol
c) Hypertext Terminal Protocol d) Hypertext Transmission Protocol
Answer: a) Hypertext Transfer Protocol

Q. Which protocol is used for transferring files over the Internet?

a) FTP b) HTTP
c) SMTP d) DNS
Answer: a) FTP

Q. What does the acronym "URL" stand for?

a) Universal Resource Locator b) Uniform Resource Link
c) Unified Resource Locator d) Universal Reference Link
Answer: a) Universal Resource Locator

Q. Which organization is responsible for managing domain names and registration?

a) ICANN b) IEEE
c) ISO d) IETF
Answer: a) ICANN

Q. What is the purpose of a DNS server?

a) To encrypt data transmitted over the Internet b) To translate domain names into IP addresses
c) To authenticate users on a network d) To block unauthorized access to a website
Answer: b) To translate domain names into IP addresses

Q. What is the maximum number of characters allowed in a domain name?

a) 63 b) 128
c) 256 d) 512
Answer: a) 63

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Q. Which protocol is used for secure web browsing?
a) HTTPS b) HTTP
c) FTP d) SMTP
Answer: a) HTTPS

Q. What does the acronym "IP" stand for?

a) Internet Provider b) Internet Protocol
c) Information Protocol d) Internet Port
Answer: b) Internet Protocol

Q. Which protocol is used for real-time communication over the Internet?

a) VoIP b) FTP
c) HTTP d) SMTP
Answer: a) VoIP

Q. Which protocol is used for retrieving email from a mail server?

a) POP b) SMTP
c) FTP d) HTTP
Answer: a) POP

Q. What does the acronym "VPN" stand for?

a) Virtual Personal Network b) Virtual Private Network
c) Verified Private Network d) Verified Personal Network
Answer: b) Virtual Private Network

Q. Which organization developed the World Wide Web?

a) CERN b) NASA
c) DARPA d) NSA
Answer: a) CERN

Q. What is the purpose of a firewall in network security?

a) To protect against viruses and malware b) To monitor and control network traffic
c) To encrypt data transmission d) To provide wireless connectivity
Answer: b) To monitor and control network traffic

Q. What does the acronym "WAN" stand for?

a) Wide Access Network b) Wide Area Node
c) Wireless Access Network d) Wide Area Network
Answer: d) Wide Area Network

Q. Which protocol is used for transferring web pages from a server to a browser?
a) HTTP b) FTP
c) SMTP d) DNS
Answer: a) HTTP

Q. Which protocol is used for transferring emails between mail servers?

a) SMTP b) POP
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 c) IMAP d) FTP
Answer: a) SMTP

Q. What is the purpose of an SSL certificate?

a) To authenticate the identity of a website b) To compress data during transmission
c) To block spam emails d) To encrypt email attachments
Answer: a) To authenticate the identity of a website

Q. Which organization is responsible for assigning IP addresses globally?

a) IANA b) IEEE
c) ISO d) ICANN
Answer: a) IANA

Q. What does the acronym "SSH" stand for?

a) Secure Socket Hosting b) Secure Shell
c) Secure Server Hosting d) Socket Secure Hosting
Answer: b) Secure Shell

Q. Which protocol is used for translating domain names into IP addresses?

a) DNS b) DHCP
c) FTP d) SMTP
Answer: a) DNS

Q. What is the purpose of a proxy server?

a) To provide secure access to a private network
b) To store website data for faster access
c) To filter and block certain websites
d) To route network traffic between clients and servers
Answer: d) To route network traffic between clients and servers

Q. What does the acronym "SMTP" stand for?

a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol b) Secure Mail Transmission Protocol
c) Simple Messaging and Transfer Protocol d) Secure Messaging and Transmission Protocol
Answer: a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

Q. Which organization is responsible for the maintenance and development of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
a) IETF b) ICANN
c) IEEE d) ISO
Answer: a) IETF

Q. What does the acronym "POP" stand for?

a) Post Office Protocol b) Point of Presence
c) Personal Online Portal d) Public Online Platform
Answer: a) Post Office Protocol

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Q. Which protocol is used for secure email communication?
a) SMTP b) POP
c) IMAP d) S/MIME Answer: d) S/MIME

Q. What does the acronym "IMAP" stand for?

a) Internet Mail Access Protocol b) Internet Message and Access Protocol
c) Internet Messaging Application Protocol d) Internet Mail and Attachment Protocol
Answer: a) Internet Mail Access Protocol

Q. What is the purpose of a cookie in web browsing?

a) To enable location tracking of users
b) To store information about a user's interactions with a website
c) To block pop-up advertisements
d) To encrypt data during transmission
Answer: b) To store information about a user's interactions with a website

Q. What does the acronym "RSS" stand for?

a) Really Simple Syndication b) Remote System Services
c) Rapid Streaming Service d) Reliable Storage System
Answer: a) Really Simple Syndication

Q. Which protocol is used for real-time chat communication?

a) IRC b) IMAP
c) SNMP d) SSH
Answer: a) IRC

Q. What does the acronym "VPN" stand for?

a) Virtual Personal Network b) Virtual Private Network
c) Verified Private Network d) Verified Personal Network
Answer: b) Virtual Private Network

Q. Which protocol is used for streaming audio and video over the Internet?
a) RTP b) RTSP
c) SMTP d) SNMP
Answer: b) RTSP

Q. What is the purpose of a firewall in network security?

a) To protect against viruses and malware b) To monitor and control network traffic
c) To encrypt data transmission d) To provide wireless connectivity
Answer: b) To monitor and control network traffic

Q. What is the purpose of an IP address?

a) To identify a website's domain name
b) To translate web addresses into IP addresses
c) To uniquely identify a device on a network
d) To encrypt data during transmission
Answer: c) To uniquely identify a device on a network
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Q. Which protocol is used for transferring emails between mail servers?
a) SMTP b) POP
c) IMAP d) FTP
Answer: a) SMTP

Q. What is the purpose of an SSL certificate?

a) To authenticate the identity of a website b) To compress data during transmission
c) To block spam emails d) To encrypt email attachments
Answer: a) To authenticate the identity of a website

Q. Which organization is responsible for assigning IP addresses globally?

a) IANA b) IEEE
c) ISO d) ICANN
Answer: a) IANA

Q. What does the acronym "SSH" stand for?

a) Secure Socket Hosting b) Secure Shell
c) Secure Server Hosting d) Socket Secure Hosting
Answer: b) Secure Shell

Q. Which protocol is used for translating domain names into IP addresses?

a) DNS b) DHCP
c) FTP d) SMTP
Answer: a) DNS

Q. What is the purpose of a proxy server?

a) To provide secure access to a private network
b) To store website data for faster access
c) To filter and block certain websites
d) To route network traffic between clients and servers
Answer: d) To route network traffic between clients and servers

Q. What does the acronym "SMTP" stand for?

a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol b) Secure Mail Transmission Protocol
c) Simple Messaging and Transfer Protocol d) Secure Messaging and Transmission Protocol
Answer: a) Simple Mail Transfer Protocol

Q. Which organization is responsible for the maintenance and development of the TCP/IP protocol suite?
a) IETF b) ICANN
c) IEEE d) ISO
Answer: a) IETF

Q. What does the acronym "POP" stand for?

a) Post Office Protocol b) Point of Presence
c) Personal Online Portal d) Public Online Platform
Answer: a) Post Office Protocol

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Q. Which protocol is used for secure email communication?
a) SMTP b) POP
c) IMAP d) S/MIME
Answer: d) S/MIME

Q. What does the acronym "IMAP" stand for?

a) Internet Mail Access Protocol b) Internet Message and Access Protocol
c) Internet Messaging Application Protocol d) Internet Mail and Attachment Protocol
Answer: a) Internet Mail Access Protocol

Q. What is the purpose of a cookie in web browsing?

a) To enable location tracking of users
b) To store information about a user's interactions with a website
c) To block pop-up advertisements
d) To encrypt data during transmission
Answer: b) To store information about a user's interactions with a website

Q. Which protocol is used for transferring data securely over the Internet?
a) HTTPS b) HTTP
c) FTPS d) FTP
Answer: a) HTTPS

Q. What does the acronym "RSS" stand for?

a) Really Simple Syndication b) Remote System Services
c) Rapid Streaming Service d) Reliable Storage System
Answer: a) Really Simple Syndication
Q. Which protocol is used for real-time chat communication?
a) IRC b) IMAP
c) SNMP d) SSH
Answer: a) IRC

Q. What does the acronym "VLAN" stand for?

a) Virtual Local Area Network b) Virtual Long Area Network
c) Verified Local Area Network d) Verified Long Area Network
Answer: a) Virtual Local Area Network

Q. Which protocol is used for remotely accessing and controlling a computer?

a) RDP b) FTP
c) TFTP d) ICMP
Answer: a) RDP

Q. What does the acronym "UDP" stand for?

a) User Datagram Protocol b) Unified Data Protocol
c) Universal Datagram Protocol d) Uniform Data Protocol
Answer: a) User Datagram Protocol

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Q. Which organization is responsible for assigning domain names globally?
a) ICANN b) IANA
c) IETF d) IEEE
Answer: a) ICANN

Q. What does the acronym "NAT" stand for?

a) Network Authentication Technology b) Network Address Translation
c) Network Access Terminal d) Network Activity Tracker
Answer: b) Network Address Translation

Q. Which protocol is used for secure shell access to a remote server?

a) SSH b) SNMP
c) SMTP d) SFTP
Answer: a) SSH

Q. Which protocol is used for transferring data between web browsers and web servers?
a) HTTP b) HTTPS
c) FTP d) FTPS
Answer: a) HTTP

Q. What does the acronym "DNSSEC" stand for?

a) Domain Name System Security Extensions b) Domain Name Server Security Encryption
c) Domain Network Security Service Extension d) Distributed Network System Security Encryption
Answer: a) Domain Name System Security Extensions

Q. Which protocol is used for remotely managing network devices?

a) SNMP b) SMTP
c) SFTP d) SSH
Answer: a) SNMP

Q. What does the acronym "XML" stand for?

a) Extensible Markup Language b) Exclusive Markup Language
c) Extended Markup Language d) Exploratory Markup Language
Answer: a) Extensible Markup Language

Q. Which protocol is used for secure file transfer over SSH?

a) SFTP b) FTP
c) TFTP d) SMTP
Answer: a) SFTP

Q. What does the acronym "HTTP/2" refer to?

a) Hypertext Transfer Protocol 2 b) Hyperlink Text Transport Protocol 2
c) Hypertext Terminal Protocol 2 d) Hypertext Transmission Protocol 2
Answer: a) Hypertext Transfer Protocol 2

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Q. Which organization is responsible for assigning Autonomous System Numbers (ASNs)?
a) IANA b) IEEE
c) ICANN d) ARIN
Answer: d) ARIN

Q. What does the acronym "VoIP" stand for?

a) Voice over IP b) Video over IP
c) Virtual Office IP d) Voice of Internet Protocol
Answer: a) Voice over IP

Q. Which protocol is used for real-time video conferencing?

a) RTP b) RTSP
c) RDP d) SMTP
Answer: a) RTP

Q. What does the acronym "VPN" stand for?

a) Virtual Personal Network b) Virtual Private Network
c) Verified Private Network d) Verified Personal Network
Answer: b) Virtual Private Network

Q. Which protocol is used for securely transferring files over SSH?

a) SFTP b) FTP
c) TFTP d) SMTP
Answer: a) SFTP

Q. What does the acronym "IPv6" refer to?

a) Internet Protocol Version 6 b) Internet Provider Version 6
c) Information Protocol Version 6 d) Internet Protocol Variation 6
Answer: a) Internet Protocol Version 6
Q. Which protocol is used for remote command execution on a server?
a) SSH b) SNMP
c) SMTP d) FTP Answer: a) SSH

Q. Which protocol is used for securely accessing and managing network devices?
a) SNMPv3 b) SNMPv2
c) SNMPv1 d) SMTP
Answer: a) SNMPv3

Q. Which protocol is used for secure email communication?

a) SMTPS b) POP3S
c) IMAPS d) S/MIME
Answer: c) IMAPS

Q. What does the acronym "IMAP" stand for?

a) Internet Mail Access Protocol b) Internet Message and Access Protocol
c) Internet Messaging Application Protocol d) Internet Mail and Attachment Protocol
Answer: a) Internet Mail Access Protocol
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Q. What is the purpose of a cookie in web browsing?
a) To enable location tracking of users
b) To store information about a user's interactions with a website
c) To block pop-up advertisements
d) To encrypt data during transmission
Answer: b) To store information about a user's interactions with a website

Q. Which protocol is used for transferring data securely over the Internet?
a) HTTPS b) HTTP
c) FTPS d) FTP Answer: a) HTTPS

Q. What does the acronym "RSS" stand for?

a) Really Simple Syndication b) Remote System Services
c) Rapid Streaming Service d) Reliable Storage System
Answer: a) Really Simple Syndication
Q. Which protocol is used for real-time chat communication?
a) IRC b) IMAP
c) SNMP d) SSH
Answer: a) IRC

Q. What does the acronym "VPN" stand for?

a) Virtual Personal Network b) Virtual Private Network
c) Verified Private Network d) Verified Personal Network
Answer: b) Virtual Private Network

Q. Which protocol is used for streaming audio and video over the Internet?
a) RTP b) RTSP
c) SMTP d) SNMP
Answer: b) RTSP

Q. What is the purpose of a firewall in network security?

a) To protect against viruses and malware b) To monitor and control network traffic
c) To encrypt data transmission d) To provide wireless connectivity
Answer: b) To monitor and control network traffic

Q. Which protocol is used for transferring emails between mail servers?

a) SMTP b) POP
c) IMAP d) FTP
Answer: a) SMTP

Q. What is the purpose of an SSL certificate?

a) To authenticate the identity of a website b) To compress data during transmission
c) To block spam emails d) To encrypt email attachments
Answer: a) To authenticate the identity of a website

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Q. What does the acronym "SSH" stand for?
a) Secure Socket Hosting b) Secure Shell Hosting
c) Secure Server Hosting d) Socket Secure Hosting
Answer: b) Secure Shell Hosting

Q. Which protocol is used for translating domain names into IP addresses?

a) DNS b) DHCP
c) FTP d) SMTP
Answer: a) DNS

Q. What is the purpose of a proxy server?

a) To provide secure access to a private network
b) To store website data for faster access
c) To filter and block certain websites
d) To route network traffic between clients and servers
Answer: d) To route network traffic between clients and servers

C Language & Assembly Language Programming

C and Assembly Language Programming are two different programming languages used for different purposes.

C Programming:

C is a high-level programming language that was developed in the 1970s. It is a general-purpose language known for
its efficiency, simplicity, and portability. C is widely used for system programming, embedded systems, and
application development. It provides a structured and procedural approach to programming, allowing developers to
write modular and reusable code.

Key features of C programming include:

 Structured programming constructs: C supports constructs like loops, conditionals, and functions, allowing
developers to write structured and organized code.

 Pointers: C allows direct manipulation of memory addresses using pointers, which enables low-level
memory operations and efficient data manipulation.
Standard Library: C provides a rich set of library functions for various operations, such as input/output,
string manipulation, mathematical calculations, and memory management.

 Portability: C programs can be compiled and executed on different platforms with minor modifications,
making it a highly portable language.

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Assembly Language Programming:

Assembly language is a low-level programming language that represents machine instructions using
mnemonic codes. It is specific to the architecture of a particular computer system and provides direct
control over the hardware resources. Assembly language is often used for tasks that require precise control
of hardware, such as device drivers, operating systems, and embedded systems.

Key features of Assembly language programming include:

 Low-level operations: Assembly language allows direct manipulation of hardware resources, including
registers, memory, and I/O devices.
 Mnemonic instructions: Assembly language uses mnemonic codes to represent machine instructions,
making it easier for programmers to understand and write code.
 Close-to-hardware control: Assembly language provides fine-grained control over the underlying hardware,
allowing programmers to optimize code for specific tasks.
 Platform-specific: Assembly language programs are highly specific to a particular hardware architecture and
may require modifications to work on different systems.

Relationship between C and Assembly Language:

C and Assembly language are closely related as C can be used to write low-level code that interfaces with
assembly language. In fact, C compilers often generate assembly language code as an intermediate step
before translating it into machine code. Programmers can also write inline assembly code within C programs
to perform specific low-level operations. This combination allows developers to take advantage of both the
high-level abstraction and low-level control offered by C and assembly language, respectively.

Overall, C and Assembly language programming serve different purposes, with C focusing on high-level
abstraction and portability, while assembly language offers low-level control and direct hardware access.
The choice between the two depends on the specific requirements of the task at hand and the level of
control and optimization needed.

1. What is the C programming language?

Answer: The C programming language is a general-purpose programming language that was developed in
the early 1970s. It provides low-level access to memory, efficient execution, and a wide range of
programming constructs.

2. What is a variable in C?
Answer: A variable in C is a named storage location that holds a value of a specific data type. It is used to
store and manipulate data within a program.

3. What is the syntax for declaring a variable in C?

Answer: The syntax for declaring a variable in C is: data_type variable_name;

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4. What is the difference between a local variable and a global variable in C?
Answer: A local variable is declared within a function and has a limited scope, accessible only within that
function. A global variable is declared outside of any function and can be accessed by any function within
the program.

5. What is a function in C?
Answer: A function in C is a reusable block of code that performs a specific task. It can accept inputs
(parameters), execute a series of statements, and return a value (optional).

6. What is the main() function in C?

Answer: The main() function is the entry point of a C program. It is where program execution begins and
returns an integer value to the operating system indicating the program's exit status.

7. What is a header file in C?

Answer: A header file in C is a file that contains function prototypes, constants, and macro definitions. It is
included in a C program using the #include directive.

8. How do you comment a single line in C?

Answer: A single-line comment in C can be created by using // at the beginning of the line. Anything after //
is considered a comment and is ignored by the compiler.

9. How do you comment multiple lines in C?

Answer: Multiple-line comments in C can be created by enclosing the comments between /* and */.
Anything between these symbols is considered a comment and is ignored by the compiler.

10. What is the purpose of the printf() function in C?

Answer: The printf() function is used to display formatted output on the console. It allows printing variables,
strings, and formatted text.

11. What is the scanf() function in C used for?

Answer: The scanf() function is used to read formatted input from the user. It allows accepting input for
variables based on specified format specifiers.

12. What are the arithmetic operators in C?

Answer: The arithmetic operators in C are + (addition), - (subtraction), * (multiplication), / (division), and %
(modulo).

13. What are the relational operators in C?

Answer: The relational operators in C are == (equal to), != (not equal to), > (greater than), < (less than), >=
(greater than or equal to), and <= (less than or equal to).

14. What are the logical operators in C?

Answer: The logical operators in C are && (logical AND), || (logical OR), and ! (logical NOT).

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15. What is the if statement in C used for?
Answer: The if statement in C is used to execute a block of code conditionally. It allows the program to make
decisions based on a given condition.

16. What is the switch statement in C used for?

Answer: The switch statement in C is used to select one of many code blocks to be executed based on the
value of an expression.

17. What is the purpose of a loop in C?

Answer: A loop in C allows repeating a block of code multiple times. It helps in automating repetitive tasks
and iterating over data structures.

18. What is the difference between the while loop and the do-while loop in C?
Answer: In a while loop, the condition is checked at the beginning. If the condition is false, the loop is not
executed. In a do-while loop, the condition is checked at the end, ensuring that the loop is executed at least
once.

19. What is an array in C?

Answer: An array in C is a collection of elements of the same data type stored in contiguous memory
locations. It provides a way to store and access multiple values using a single variable name.

20. What is the purpose of the return statement in C?

Answer: The return statement is used to terminate the execution of a function and return a value (if
required) to the calling function.
21. What is a pointer in C?
Answer: A pointer in C is a variable that stores the memory address of another variable. It allows indirect
access to the value stored at that memory address.
22. How do you declare a pointer variable in C?
Answer: A pointer variable in C is declared by using the asterisk (*) symbol before the variable name. For
example, int *ptr; declares a pointer to an integer.

23. What is the dereference operator () in C?

Answer: The dereference operator () in C is used to access the value stored at the memory address pointed
to by a pointer. For example, *ptr returns the value stored at the address pointed to by ptr.

24. What is dynamic memory allocation in C?

Answer: Dynamic memory allocation in C allows you to allocate memory dynamically at runtime using
functions like malloc(), calloc(), and realloc(). It helps in managing memory for variables and data structures.

25. How do you allocate memory for an array dynamically in C?

Answer: Memory for an array can be allocated dynamically in C using the malloc() function.
For example, int *arr = (int *)malloc(n * sizeof(int)); allocates memory for an integer array of size n.

26. What is the difference between the "++i" and "i++" increment operators?
Answer: The "++i" operator increments the value of i and returns the updated value, while "i++" increments
the value of i but returns the original value before the increment.

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27. What are the bitwise operators in C?
Answer: The bitwise operators in C are used for manipulation of individual bits of an operand. They include
bitwise AND (&), bitwise OR (|), bitwise XOR (^), left shift (<<), and right shift (>>).

28. What is the purpose of the sizeof() operator in C?

Answer: The sizeof() operator in C is used to determine the size in bytes of a data type or variable. It is often
used in memory allocation and array calculations.

29. What is the difference between a structure and a union in C?

Answer: A structure is a collection of different data types grouped together under a single name, while a
union is a data structure that allows storing different data types in the same memory location.

30. What is recursion in C?

Answer: Recursion in C is a programming technique where a function calls itself directly or indirectly. It
allows solving complex problems by breaking them down into smaller, similar subproblems.

31. What is the difference between pass by value and pass by reference in C?
Answer: In pass by value, a copy of the variable is passed to a function, so any changes made to the
parameter within the function do not affect the original variable. In pass by reference, the memory address
of the variable is passed, allowing changes to be reflected in the original variable.

32. What is the purpose of the const keyword in C?

Answer: The const keyword in C is used to declare constants that cannot be modified once defined. It helps
in creating read-only variables.
33. What is the difference between an array and a pointer in C?
Answer: An array in C is a collection of elements of the same data type, while a pointer is a variable that
stores the memory address of another variable. However, arrays and pointers have a close relationship, and
array names can be used as pointers in certain contexts.

34. What is a file pointer in C?

Answer: A file pointer in C is a pointer variable that keeps track of the current position in a file. It is used to
perform input/output operations on files.

35. What are the storage classes in C?

Answer: The storage classes in C determine the scope, lifetime, and visibility of variables. They include auto,
extern, static, and register.

36. What is the purpose of the break statement in C?

Answer: The break statement in C is used to terminate the execution of a loop or switch statement and
transfers control to the next statement outside the loop or switch.

37. What is the purpose of the continue statement in C?

Answer: The continue statement in C is used to skip the remaining statements in a loop and move to the
next iteration of the loop.

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38. What is the difference between strcpy() and strncpy() functions in C?
Answer: strcpy() function is used to copy a null-terminated string from one character array to another, while
strncpy() function allows specifying the maximum number of characters to be copied.

39. What is a structure in C?

Answer: A structure in C is a user-defined data type that allows combining different variables of different
types under a single name. It helps in creating complex data structures.

40. What is the purpose of the typedef keyword in C?

Answer: The typedef keyword in C is used to create aliases or alternative names for existing data types,
making code more readable and maintainable.

41. What is the difference between the "strcpy()" and "memcpy()" functions in C?
Answer: The "strcpy()" function is used to copy a string from one character array to another until it
encounters a null character. The "memcpy()" function, on the other hand, is used to copy a specified
number of bytes from one memory location to another.

42. What is the purpose of the "const" keyword when declaring function parameters in C?
Answer: The "const" keyword when used with function parameters in C indicates that the parameter is
read-only and cannot be modified within the function.

43. What are the storage modifiers "extern" and "static" used for in C?
Answer: The "extern" keyword is used to declare a variable that is defined in a different file, while the
"static" keyword is used to declare a variable with file scope, limiting its visibility to the current file.

44. What is the purpose of the "fgets()" function in C?

Answer: The "fgets()" function is used to read a string from a specified stream, such as standard input
(stdin), up to a specified maximum length.

45. What is the purpose of the "feof()" function in C?

Answer: The "feof()" function is used to check whether the end-of-file indicator has been set for a specified
file stream. It returns a non-zero value if the end of the file has been reached.

46. What is the purpose of the "malloc()" function in C?

Answer: The "malloc()" function is used to dynamically allocate memory for a specified number of bytes
during program execution. It returns a pointer to the allocated memory.

47. What is the purpose of the "free()" function in C?

Answer: The "free()" function is used to deallocate memory previously allocated with the "malloc()"
function. It releases the memory back to the system for reuse.

48. What is the purpose of the "sizeof()" operator in C when used with arrays?
Answer: When used with arrays, the "sizeof()" operator in C returns the total size in bytes occupied by the
entire array.

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49. What is the purpose of the "enum" keyword in C?
Answer: The "enum" keyword in C is used to define an enumeration type, which represents a set of named
integer constants. It provides a way to create symbolic names for integer values.

50. What is the difference between a structure and a union in C?

Answer: In a structure, each member has its own storage space, whereas in a union, all members share the
same storage space. As a result, a union can only hold the value of one member at a time.

51. What is a function pointer in C?

Answer: A function pointer in C is a variable that stores the memory address of a function. It allows dynamic
function invocation and facilitates callback mechanisms.

52. What is the purpose of the "typedef" keyword when used with structures in C?
Answer: The "typedef" keyword when used with structures in C allows creating a new type name (alias) for
the structure. It provides a way to simplify the declaration of structure variables.

53. What is the purpose of the "volatile" keyword in C?

Answer: The "volatile" keyword in C is used to indicate to the compiler that a variable can be modified
unexpectedly by external factors, such as interrupts. It prevents certain optimizations that could affect the
variable's value.

54. What is recursion depth in C?

Answer: Recursion depth refers to the number of times a recursive function calls itself. It determines the
maximum number of recursive calls that can be made before encountering a stack overflow.

55. What is the purpose of the "strupr()" function in C?

Answer: The "strupr()" function is used to convert a string to uppercase by converting all lowercase
characters to uppercase in place.

56. What is the purpose of the "strncpy()" function in C?

Answer: The "strncpy()" function is used to copy a specified number of characters from one string to
another, allowing the option to pad the destination string with null characters.

57. What is a macro in C?

Answer: A macro in C is a preprocessor directive that defines a symbol or a function-like construct. It is
processed by the preprocessor before the compilation stage.

58. What is the purpose of the "assert()" macro in C?

Answer: The "assert()" macro in C is used to test assumptions made in the program. If the given condition
evaluates to false, the macro displays an error message and terminates the program.

59. What is the difference between "++x" and "x++" increment operators in C?
Answer: The "++x" operator increments the value of x and returns the updated value, while "x++" also
increments the value of x but returns the original value before the increment.

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60. What is the purpose of the "pow()" function in C?
Answer: The "pow()" function is used to calculate the power of a given base raised to a specified exponent.
It is part of the math library in C.

61. What is the purpose of the "strcmp()" function in C?

Answer: The "strcmp()" function is used to compare two strings lexicographically. It returns an integer value
indicating the relationship between the strings (greater than, equal to, or less than).

62. What is the purpose of the "isdigit()" function in C?

Answer: The "isdigit()" function is used to check whether a given character is a decimal digit (0-9). It returns
a non-zero value if the character is a digit.

63. What is the purpose of the "toupper()" function in C?

Answer: The "toupper()" function is used to convert a lowercase character to its corresponding uppercase
equivalent. If the character is already uppercase or not an alphabet, it remains unchanged.

64. What is a command-line argument in C?

Answer: A command-line argument in C is an argument provided to a program when it is executed from the
command line. They are passed as strings and can be used to provide input or options to the program.

65. What is the purpose of the "getchar()" function in C?

Answer: The "getchar()" function is used to read a single character from the standard input (stdin). It waits
for the user to enter a character and returns the ASCII value of that character.

66. What is the purpose of the "putchar()" function in C?

Answer: The "putchar()" function is used to display a single character on the standard output (stdout). It
takes an ASCII value as input and displays the corresponding character.
67. What is the purpose of the "rand()" function in C?
Answer: The "rand()" function is used to generate a pseudo-random number in C. It returns an integer
within a specified range.

68. What is the purpose of the "srand()" function in C?

Answer: The "srand()" function is used to seed the random number generator in C. It takes an integer value
(seed) as input and initializes the random number sequence.

69. What is the purpose of the "strcat()" function in C?

Answer: The "strcat()" function is used to concatenate (join) two strings by appending the characters of one
string to the end of another.

70. What is the purpose of the "strchr()" function in C?

Answer: The "strchr()" function is used to search for the first occurrence of a specified character in a string.
It returns a pointer to the found character or NULL if the character is not found.

71. What is the purpose of the "strstr()" function in C?

Answer: The "strstr()" function is used to find the first occurrence of a substring within a string. It returns a
pointer to the found substring or NULL if the substring is not found.

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72. What is the purpose of the "sprintf()" function in C?
Answer: The "sprintf()" function is used to format a string and store the resulting characters into a buffer. It
is similar to the "printf()" function but writes the formatted output to a character array.

73. What is the purpose of the "scanf()" function in C?

Answer: The "scanf()" function is used to read formatted input from the standard input (stdin). It takes a
format string as input and reads values from the user according to the specified format.

74. What is the purpose of the "printf()" function in C?

Answer: The "printf()" function is used to format and display output on the standard output (stdout). It
takes a format string as input and displays the formatted output to the screen.

75. What is the purpose of the "feof()" function in C?

Answer: The "feof()" function is used to check whether the end-of-file indicator has been set for a file
stream. It returns a non-zero value if the end of the file has been reached.

76. What is the purpose of the "fgets()" function in C?

Answer: The "fgets()" function is used to read a string from a specified stream, such as standard input
(stdin), up to a specified maximum length.

77. What is the purpose of the "strlen()" function in C?

Answer: The "strlen()" function is used to determine the length of a string (number of characters) excluding
the null character ('\0') at the end.

78. What is the purpose of the "strcpy()" function in C?

Answer: The "strcpy()" function is used to copy a string from one character array to another until it
encounters a null character.
79. What is the purpose of the "strncpy()" function in C?
Answer: The "strncpy()" function is used to copy a specified number of characters from one string to
another, allowing the option to pad the destination string with null characters.

80. What is the purpose of the "strlen()" function in C?

Answer: The "strlen()" function is used to determine the length of a string (number of characters) excluding
the null character ('\0') at the end.

81. What is the purpose of the "strcmp()" function in C?

Answer: The "strcmp()" function is used to compare two strings lexicographically. It returns an integer value
indicating the relationship between the strings (greater than, equal to, or less than).

82. What is the purpose of the "strtok()" function in C?

Answer: The "strtok()" function is used to tokenize (split) a string into smaller tokens based on a specified
delimiter. It is commonly used for string parsing.

83. What is the purpose of the "isdigit()" function in C?

Answer: The "isdigit()" function is used to check whether a given character is a decimal digit (0-9). It returns
a non-zero value if the character is a digit.

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84. What is the purpose of the "isalpha()" function in C?
Answer: The "isalpha()" function is used to check whether a given character is an alphabetic character (A-Z
or a-z). It returns a non-zero value if the character is an alphabet.

85. What is the purpose of the "isalnum()" function in C?

Answer: The "isalnum()" function is used to check whether a given character is an alphanumeric character
(alphabet or digit). It returns a non-zero value if the character is alphanumeric.

86. What is the purpose of the "islower()" function in C?

Answer: The "islower()" function is used to check whether a given character is a lowercase alphabet
character (a-z). It returns a non-zero value if the character is lowercase.

87. What is the purpose of the "isupper()" function in C?

Answer: The "isupper()" function is used to check whether a given character is an uppercase alphabet
character (A-Z). It returns a non-zero value if the character is uppercase.

88. What is the purpose of the "isprint()" function in C?

Answer: The "isprint()" function is used to check whether a given character is a printable character
(including space and other visible characters). It returns a non-zero value if the character is printable.

89. What is the purpose of the "isdigit()" function in C?

Answer: The "isdigit()" function is used to check whether a given character is a decimal digit (0-9). It returns
a non-zero value if the character is a digit.

90. What is the purpose of the "toupper()" function in C?

Answer: The "toupper()" function is used to convert a lowercase character to its corresponding uppercase
equivalent. If the character is already uppercase or not an alphabet, it remains unchanged.
91. What is the purpose of the "tolower()" function in C?
Answer: The "tolower()" function is used to convert an uppercase character to its corresponding lowercase
equivalent. If the character is already lowercase or not an alphabet, it remains unchanged.

92. What is the purpose of the "atof()" function in C?

Answer: The "atof()" function is used to convert a string representation of a floating-point number to its
corresponding double-precision floating-point value.

93. What is the purpose of the "atoi()" function in C?

Answer: The "atoi()" function is used to convert a string representation of an integer to its corresponding
integer value.

94. What is the purpose of the "atol()" function in C?

Answer: The "atol()" function is used to convert a string representation of a long integer to its corresponding
long integer value.

95. What is the purpose of the "sprintf()" function in C?

Answer: The "sprintf()" function is used to format a string and store the resulting characters into a buffer. It
is similar to the "printf()" function but writes the formatted output to a character array.

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96. What is the purpose of the "sscanf()" function in C?
Answer: The "sscanf()" function is used to read formatted input from a string. It takes a format string as
input and extracts values from the string according to the specified format.

97. What is the purpose of the "memset()" function in C?

Answer: The "memset()" function is used to fill a block of memory with a specified value. It takes a pointer
to the memory, the value to be set, and the number of bytes to set.

98. What is the purpose of the "memcpy()" function in C?

Answer: The "memcpy()" function is used to copy a specified number of bytes from one memory location to
another.

99. What is the purpose of the "memmove()" function in C?

Answer: The "memmove()" function is used to copy a specified number of bytes from one memory location
to another, even if the source and destination overlap.

100. What is the purpose of the "exit()" function in C?

Answer: The "exit()" function is used to terminate the program and return control to the operating system.
It can optionally specify an exit status code.

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 C Programming MCQ (Multiple Choice Questions)

1. Who is the father of C language?

a) Steve Jobs b) James Gosling
c) Dennis Ritchie d) Rasmus Lerdorf
Answer: c
Explanation: Dennis Ritchie is the father of C Programming Language. C programming language was
developed in 1972 at American Telephone & Telegraph Bell Laboratories of USA.

2. What is #include <stdio.h>?

a) Preprocessor directive b) Inclusion directive
c) File inclusion directive d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

3. C preprocessors can have compiler specific features.

a) True b) False
c) Depends on the standard d) Depends on the platform
Answer: a
Explanation: #pragma is compiler specific feature.

4. Which of the following are C preprocessors?

a) #ifdef b) #define
c) #endif d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d

5. The C-preprocessors are specified with _________ symbol.

a) # b) $
c) ” ” d) &
Answer: a
Explanation: The C-preprocessors are specified with # symbol.

6. How many number of pointer (*) does C have against a pointer variable declaration?
a) 7 b) 127
c) 255 d) No limits
Answer: d

7. Which of the following return-type cannot be used for a function in C?

a) char * b) struct
c) void d) none of the mentioned
Answer: d

8. All keywords in C are in ____________

a) LowerCase letters b) UpperCase letters
c) CamelCase letters d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a

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9. Which of the following is true for variable names in C?
a) They can contain alphanumeric characters as well as special characters
b) It is not an error to declare a variable to be one of the keywords(like goto, static)
c) Variable names cannot start with a digit
d) Variable can be of any length
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the syntax for C variable name, it cannot start with a digit.

10. Which of the following is true for variable names in C?

a) They can contain alphanumeric characters as well as special characters
b) It is not an error to declare a variable to be one of the keywords(like goto, static)
c) Variable names cannot start with a digit
d) Variable can be of any length
Answer: c
Explanation: According to the syntax for C variable name, it cannot start with a digit.

5. Which is valid C expression?

a) int my_num = 100,000; b) int my_num = 100000;
c) int my num = 1000; d) int $my_num = 10000;
Answer: b
Explanation: Space, comma and $ cannot be used in a variable name.

6. Which of the following cannot be a variable name in C?

a) volatile b) true
c) friend d) export
Answer: a
Explanation: volatile is C keyword.

7. What is short int in C programming?

a) The basic data type of C b) Qualifier
c) Short is the qualifier and int is the basic data type
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c

8. Which of the following declaration is not supported by C language?

a) String str;
b) char *str;
c) float str = 3e2;
d) Both “String str;” and “float str = 3e2;”
Answer: a
Explanation: It is legal in Java, but not in C language.

9. Which keyword is used to prevent any changes in the variable within a C program?
a) immutable b) mutable
c) const d) volatile
Answer: c
Explanation: const is a keyword constant in C program.
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10. What is the result of logical or relational expression in C?
a) True or False
b) 0 or 1
c) 0 if an expression is false and any positive number if an expression is true
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

11. Which of the following typecasting is accepted by C language?

a) Widening conversions b) Narrowing conversions
c) Widening & Narrowing conversions d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

12. Where in C the order of precedence of operators do not exist?

a) Within conditional statements, if, else b) Within while, do-while
c) Within a macro definition d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d

13. Which of the following is NOT possible with any 2 operators in C?

a) Different precedence, same associativity
b) Different precedence, different associativity
c) Same precedence, different associativity
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c

14. What is an example of iteration in C?

a) for b) while
c) do-while d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d

15. Functions can return enumeration constants in C?

a) true b) false
c) depends on the compiler d) depends on the standard
Answer: a

16. Functions in C Language are always _________

a) Internal b) External
c) Both Internal and External d) External and Internal are not valid terms for functions
Answer: b

17. Which of following is not accepted in C?

a) static a = 10; //static as
b) static int func (int); //parameter as static
c) static static int a; //a static variable prefixed with static
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c

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18. The standard header _______ is used for variable list arguments (…) in C.
a) <stdio.h > b) <stdlib.h>
c) <math.h> d) <stdarg.h>
Answer: d

19. In C language, FILE is of which data type?

a) int b) char *
c) struct d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c

20. What is the sizeof(char) in a 32-bit C compiler?

a) 1 bit b) 2 bits
c) 1 Byte d) 2 Bytes
Answer: c

32. scanf() is a predefined function in______header file.

a) stdlib. H b) ctype. h
c) stdio. H d) stdarg. H
Answer: c
Explanation: scanf() is a predefined function in "stdio.h" header file.printf and scanf() carry out input and
output functions in C. These functions statements are present in the header file stdio.h.

33. What is meant by ‘a’ in the following C operation?

fp = fopen("Random.txt", "a");
a) Attach b) Append
c) Apprehend d) Add
Answer: b

34. What will be the output of the following C code?

#include <stdio.h>
int main()
{
int y = 10000;
int y = 34;
printf("Hello World! %d\n", y);
return 0;
}
a) Compile time error b) Hello World! 34
c) Hello World! 1000 d) Hello World! followed by a junk value
Answer: a
Explanation: Since y is already defined, redefining it results in an error.
Output:
$ cc pgm2.c
pgm2.c: In function ‘main’:
pgm2.c:5: error: redefinition of ‘y’
pgm2.c:4: note: previous definition of ‘y’ was here

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35. What will happen if the following C code is executed?
#include <stdio.h>
int main()
{
int main = 3;
printf("%d", main);
return 0;
}
a) It will cause a compile-time error b) It will cause a run-time error
c) It will run without any error and prints 3 d) It will experience infinite looping
Answer: c
Explanation: A C program can have same function name and same variable name.
$ cc pgm3.c
$ a.out
3

36. What will be the output of the following C code?

int main()
{
signed char chr;
chr = 128;
printf("%d\n", chr);
return 0;
}
a) 128 b) -128
c) Depends on the compiler d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The range of signed character is from -128 to +127. Since we are assigning a value of 128 to the
variable ‘chr’, the result will be negative. 128 in binary is represented as “1000 0000” for character datatype.
As you can see that the sign bit is set to 1, followed by 7 zeros (0), its final decimal value will be -128
(negative 128).
Output:
$ cc pgm2.c
$ a.out
-128

37. What will be the final value of x in the following C code?

void main()
{
int x = 5 * 9 / 3 + 9;
}
a) 3.75 b) Depends on compiler
c) 24 d) 3
Answer: c

43. What will be the output of the following C code considering the size of a short int is 2, char is 1 and int is 4
bytes?
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 int main()
{
short int i = 20;
char c = 97;
printf("%d, %d, %d\n", sizeof(i), sizeof(c), sizeof(c + i));
return 0; }
a) 2, 1, 2 b) 2, 1, 1
c) 2, 1, 4 d) 2, 2, 8
Answer: c
44. How many times i value is checked in the following C program?
#include <stdio.h>
int main()
{
while (i < 3)
i++;
printf("In while loop\n"); }
a) 2 b) 3
c) 4 d) 1
Answer: c

52. What will be the data type returned for the following C function?
#include <stdio.h>
int func()
{
return (double)(char)5.0;
}
a) char b) int
c) double d) multiple type-casting in return is illegal
Answer: b

54. Which option should be selected to work the following C expression?

string p = "HELLO";
a) typedef char [] string;
b) typedef char *string;
c) typedef char [] string; and typedef char *string;
d) Such expression cannot be generated in C
Answer: b

55. What is the meaning of the following C statement?

printf(“%10s”, state);
a) 10 spaces before the string state is printed
b) Print empty spaces if the string state is less than 10 characters
c) Print the last 10 characters of the string
d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b

56. Why is a macro used in place of a function?

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 a) It reduces execution time. B) It reduces code size.
c) It increases execution time. D) It increases code size.
Answer: (d) It reduces code size.
Explanation: Macro is used in place of a function because it reduces code size, and very efficient.

57. In the C language, the constant is defined _______.

a) Before main b) After main
c) Anywhere, but starting on a new line. d) None of the these.
Answer: (c) Anywhere, but starting on a new line.
Explanation: In the C language, the constant is defined anywhere, but starting on a new line.

58) How many times will the following loop execute?

for(j = 1; j <= 10; j = j-1)
a) Forever b) Never
c) 0 d) 1
Answer: (a) Forever

59) Directives are translated by the

a) Pre-processor b) Compiler
c) Linker d) Editor
Answer: (a) Pre-processor
Explanation: In C language, the pre-processor is a macro processor that is dynamically used by the C
programmer to modify the program before it is properly compiled (Before construction, pro-processor
directives are implemented).
60) How many bytes does "int = R" use?
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 or 4 (d) 10
Answer: (c) 2 or 4
Explanation: The int type takes 2 or 4 bytes.

61. Which of the following is not a valid data type in C?

a) int b) float
c) double d) boolean
Answer: d) boolean

62. What is the output of the following code snippet?

#include <stdio.h>
int main()
{
int x = 5;
printf("%d", ++x);
return 0;
}
Answer: The output of the code snippet is "6".

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63. What is the purpose of the "sizeof" operator in C?
a) To return the size in bytes of a data type or variable
b) To perform arithmetic operations
c) To compare two variables
d) To convert data types
Answer: a) To return the size in bytes of a data type or variable

64. What is the result of the expression 5 / 2 in C?

a) 2 b) 2.5
c) 3 d) Compiler error
Answer: c) 3

65. What is the output of the following code snippet?

#include <stdio.h>
int main()
{
int i = 0;
while (i < 5)
{
printf("%d ", i);
i++;
}
return 0;
}
Answer: The output of the code snippet is "0 1 2 3 4".

66. What is the purpose of the "break" statement in C?

a) To terminate the current iteration of a loop
b) To skip the remaining statements in a switch case
c) To exit from a loop or switch case entirely
d) To jump to a specified label within a function
Answer: c) To exit from a loop or switch case entirely

67. What will be the value of "x" after the execution of the following code snippet?
int x = 10;
x = x++ + ++x;
Answer: The value of "x" will be 23.

68. Which header file is required to use the functions like malloc() and free() in C?
a) stdio.h b) math.h
c) stdlib.h d) string.h
Answer: c) stdlib.h

69. What is the output of the following code snippet?

#include <stdio.h>
int main()
{
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 int arr[5] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};
printf("%d", arr[3]);
return 0;
}
Answer: The output of the code snippet is "4".

70. What is the purpose of the "strcpy()" function in C?

a) To compare two strings
b) To concatenate two strings
c) To copy a string from one character array to another
d) To extract a substring from a string
Answer: c) To copy a string from one character array to another

71. What is the output of the following code snippet?

#include <stdio.h>
int main()
{
int i = 0;
for (; i < 5; i++) {
if (i == 2)
continue;
printf("%d ", i);
}
return 0;
}
Answer: The output of the code snippet is "0 1 3 4".
72. What is the purpose of the "strcmp()" function in C?
a) To compare two strings
b) To concatenate two strings
c) To copy a string from one character array to another
d) To extract a substring from a string
Answer: a) To compare two strings

73. What will be the value of "x" after the execution of the following code snippet?
int x = 10;
x += 5 * 2;
Answer: The value of "x" will be 20.

74. Which of the following is a valid way to declare a string in C?

a) string str = "Hello";
b) char[] str = "Hello";
c) char str[6] = "Hello";
d) str = "Hello";
Answer: c) char str[6] = "Hello";

75. What is the output of the following code snippet?

#include <stdio.h>
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 int main()
{
int i = 5;
printf("%d", i++);
return 0;
}
Answer: The output of the code snippet is "5".

76. What is the purpose of the "scanf()" function in C?

a) To read input from the standard input (stdin)
b) To write output to a file
c) To read input from a file
d) To write formatted output to the standard output (stdout)
Answer: a) To read input from the standard input (stdin)

77. What will be the value of "num" after the execution of the following code snippet?
int num = 5;
num = -num--;
Answer: The value of "num" will be -5.

78. Which of the following is not a valid way to initialize an array in C?

a) int arr[] = {1, 2, 3, 4}; b) int arr[4] = {1, 2, 3, 4};
c) int arr[4] = {1, 2}; d) int arr[4] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};
Answer: d) int arr[4] = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};

79. What is the output of the following code snippet?

#include <stdio.h>
int main()
{
int i = 10;
while (i--)
{
printf("%d ", i);
}
return 0;
}
Answer: The output of the code snippet is "9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1 0".

80. What is the purpose of the "fclose()" function in C?

a) To open a file for reading
b) To close a file
c) To write a string to a file
d) To read input from a file
Answer: b) To close a file

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 Data & File Structures

Data and File Structures is a branch of computer science that deals with the organization, storage, and retrieval of
data in various data structures and files. It focuses on designing efficient algorithms and data structures to manage
and manipulate large volumes of data.

Here are some key concepts related to Data and File Structures:

 Data Structures: Data structures refer to the organization and storage of data in a computer's memory. They
provide efficient ways to access, insert, delete, and manipulate data. Common data structures include
arrays, linked lists, stacks, queues, trees, graphs, and hash tables.

 Abstract Data Types (ADTs): ADTs are high-level data structures that define a set of operations without
specifying the underlying implementation details. They encapsulate the data and the operations that can be
performed on that data. Examples of ADTs include lists, stacks, queues, and dictionaries.

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  Algorithm Analysis: Algorithm analysis involves analyzing the efficiency and performance of algorithms in
terms of time complexity and space complexity. It helps in evaluating the efficiency of different algorithms
and selecting the most suitable algorithm for a specific task.

 File Structures: File structures refer to the organization and storage of data in files. Different file
organizations, such as sequential, direct, indexed, and hashed, are used to optimize data access and retrieval
based on specific requirements.

 Sorting and Searching: Sorting and searching algorithms are essential in data and file structures. Sorting
algorithms arrange data in a specific order, such as ascending or descending, while searching algorithms
help locate specific data efficiently.

 Trees and Graphs: Trees and graphs are hierarchical data structures used to represent relationships
between data elements. Trees have a hierarchical structure with a root node and child nodes, while graphs
have nodes connected by edges. Tree structures include binary trees, AVL trees, B-trees, and heaps, while
graph structures include directed and undirected graphs.

 Hashing: Hashing is a technique used to map data to a fixed-size array or table, called a hash table, based on
a hash function. It provides fast access and retrieval of data by generating a unique index for each data item.
Hashing is commonly used for implementing dictionaries and databases.

 Dynamic Memory Allocation: Dynamic memory allocation allows programs to allocate memory at runtime
dynamically. Functions like malloc(), calloc(), and realloc() are used to allocate memory for data structures
based on the program's requirements.

 File Operations: File operations involve reading from and writing to files. It includes opening and closing
files, reading and writing data, positioning the file pointer, and performing file-related operations such as
appending, deleting, or modifying records.

 Data Compression: Data compression techniques are used to reduce the size of data to save storage space
and optimize data transfer. It includes methods like Huffman coding, run-length encoding, and Lempel-Ziv-
Welch (LZW) compression.
Understanding data and file structures is crucial for efficient data management, algorithm design, and software
development. It helps in creating optimized and scalable solutions for handling large volumes of data and
implementing efficient data storage and retrieval systems.

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 Data & File Structures.

Here are 100 objective questions with answers related to Data and File Structures for a competitive exam:

1. Which data structure is used to store a collection of elements with a last-in-first-out (LIFO) order?
a) Queue b) Stack
c) Linked List d) Tree
Answer: b) Stack

2. Which of the following is not a linear data structure?

a) Array b) Linked List
c) Stack d) Tree
Answer: d) Tree

3. Which file organization technique allows direct access to records using a key field?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B-tree File
Answer: b) Indexed File

4. Which of the following sorting algorithms has a worst-case time complexity of O(n^2)?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Radix Sort
Answer: a) Bubble Sort

5. Which data structure uses the First-In-First-Out (FIFO) principle?

a) Stack b) Queue
c) Linked List d) Tree
Answer: b) Queue

6. Which searching algorithm is used to search a sorted array by repeatedly dividing the search interval in
half?
a) Linear Search b) Binary Search
c) Depth-First Search d) Breadth-First Search
Answer: b) Binary Search

7. Which file organization technique provides efficient access to records by using a hash function?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B-tree File
Answer: c) Hashed File

8. Which sorting algorithm is based on the divide-and-conquer strategy?

a) Insertion Sort b) Selection Sort
c) Merge Sort d) Quick Sort
Answer: c) Merge Sort

9. Which data structure represents a collection of elements with no specific order and may contain
duplicates?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Set d) Tree
Answer: c) Set

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10. Which of the following operations is not supported by a queue?
a) Enqueue b) Dequeue
c) Push d) Peek
Answer: c) Push

11. Which data structure is used to implement a dictionary with fast search, insert, and delete operations?
a) Stack b) Queue
c) Hash Table d) Tree
Answer: c) Hash Table

12. Which file organization technique allows random access to records using an index?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B-tree File
Answer: b) Indexed File

13. Which sorting algorithm has a time complexity of O(n log n) in the average and worst cases?
a) Bubble Sort b) Insertion Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Radix Sort
Answer: c) Quick Sort

14. Which data structure is used to represent a set of disjoint sets?

a) Array b) Linked List
c) Stack d) Union-Find
Answer: d) Union-Find

15. Which of the following is a self-adjusting data structure that moves accessed elements to the front for
faster access?
a) Stack b) Queue
c) Linked List d) Cache
Answer: d) Cache

16. Which searching algorithm is used to find the shortest path between two nodes in a graph?
a) Linear Search b) Binary Search
c) Depth-First Search d) Breadth-First Search
Answer: d) Breadth-First Search

17. Which file organization technique is used to handle large amounts of data that cannot fit into memory?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) External File d) B-tree File
Answer: c) External File

18. Which sorting algorithm is based on the comparison of adjacent elements and swapping if they are in the
wrong order?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Radix Sort
Answer: a) Bubble Sort

19. Which data structure is used to store and retrieve data in the order of their arrival?
a) Stack b) Queue
c) Linked List d) Heap
Answer: b) Queue

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20. Which searching algorithm is used to search a tree data structure?
a) Linear Search b) Binary Search
c) Depth-First Search d) Breadth-First Search
Answer: c) Depth-First Search

21. Which file organization technique uses a balanced tree structure to provide efficient access to records?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B-tree File
Answer: d) B-tree File

22. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of repeatedly dividing the input array into smaller
subarrays and conquering them individually?
a) Insertion Sort b) Selection Sort
c) Merge Sort d) Quick Sort
Answer: d) Quick Sort

23. Which data structure is used to implement a priority queue?

a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) Heap
Answer: d) Heap

24. Which of the following is a non-linear data structure with a hierarchical arrangement of elements?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Stack d) Tree
Answer: d) Tree

25. Which file organization technique provides the fastest access to records but requires the records to be in
sorted order?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B-tree File
Answer: b) Indexed File

26. Which sorting algorithm is based on the comparison of adjacent elements and swapping if they are in the
wrong order, repeatedly until the entire array is sorted?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Radix Sort
Answer: a) Bubble Sort

27. Which data structure is used to implement undo-redo operations in text editors?
a) Stack b) Queue
c) Linked List d) Tree
Answer: a) Stack

28. Which searching algorithm is used to find the maximum or minimum value in a set of elements?
a) Linear Search b) Binary Search
c) Depth-First Search d) Breadth-First Search
Answer: a) Linear Search

29. Which file organization technique uses a hash function to calculate the storage location of a record?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B-tree File
Answer: c) Hashed File

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30. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of dividing the input array into two halves, sorting them
recursively, and then merging them together?
a) Insertion Sort b) Selection Sort
c) Merge Sort d) Quick Sort
Answer: c) Merge Sort

31. Which data structure is used to efficiently find the maximum or minimum element in a set of elements?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Stack d) Heap Answer: d) Heap
32. Which of the following is a non-linear data structure that represents a collection of elements with a
hierarchical relationship?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) Tree
Answer: d) Tree

33. Which file organization technique provides efficient access to records by storing an index that maps key
values to their corresponding record addresses?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B-tree File
Answer: b) Indexed File

34. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of selecting the smallest (or largest) element from the
unsorted part of the array and swapping it with the first element?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Selection Sort
Answer: d) Selection Sort

35. Which data structure is used to implement a double-ended queue that allows insertion and deletion at
both ends?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) Deque
Answer: d) Deque

36. Which searching algorithm is used to find the shortest path between two nodes in a weighted graph?
a) Linear Search b) Binary Search
c) Dijkstra's Algorithm d) A* Algorithm
Answer: c) Dijkstra's Algorithm

37. Which file organization technique uses a balanced tree structure to provide efficient access to records and
supports range queries?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B-tree File Answer: d) B-tree File

38. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of repeatedly finding the minimum element from the
unsorted part of the array and swapping it with the element at the beginning of the unsorted part?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Selection Sort
Answer: d) Selection Sort
39. Which data structure is used to represent a collection of elements in a sorted order with efficient
insertion and deletion operations?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) Binary Search Tree
Answer: d) Binary Search Tree

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40. Which of the following is a non-linear data structure that represents a collection of elements in a
hierarchical order with a single root node?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) Tree
Answer: d) Tree

41. Which file organization technique provides efficient access to records by using a secondary index along
with the primary index?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B+ Tree File Answer: d) B+ Tree File
42. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of repeatedly dividing the input array into two subarrays
and conquering them individually using a pivot element?
a) Insertion Sort b) Selection Sort
c) Merge Sort d) Quick Sort
Answer: d) Quick Sort

43. Which data structure is used to efficiently find the maximum or minimum element in a set of elements, as
well as perform insert and delete operations?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Stack d) Heap
Answer: d) Heap

44. Which of the following is a non-linear data structure that represents a collection of elements in a
hierarchical order with no cycles?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) Directed Acyclic Graph (DAG)
Answer: d) Directed Acyclic Graph (DAG)

45. Which file organization technique allows efficient access to records by using a multi-level index structure?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B-tree File
Answer: d) B-tree File

46. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of repeatedly partitioning the array into smaller parts
and sorting them individually?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Radix Sort
Answer: c) Quick Sort

47. Which data structure is used to implement a priority queue with efficient insert and delete operations?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Stack d) Heap
Answer: d) Heap

48. Which searching algorithm is used to find a particular element in a binary search tree?
a) Linear Search b) Binary Search
c) Depth-First Search d) Breadth-First Search
Answer: b) Binary Search
49. Which file organization technique provides efficient access to records by storing them in the order of their
primary key values?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B-tree File
Answer: a) Sequential File

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50. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of repeatedly dividing the input array into digits and
sorting them individually?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Radix Sort
Answer: d) Radix Sort

51. Which data structure is used to implement a first-in-first-out (FIFO) queue with efficient enqueue and
dequeue operations?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Stack d) Queue
Answer: b) Linked List

52. Which searching algorithm is used to find the shortest path between two nodes in a graph with weighted
edges?
a) Linear Search b) Binary Search
c) Dijkstra's Algorithm d) A* Algorithm
Answer: c) Dijkstra's Algorithm

53. Which file organization technique provides efficient access to records by using a secondary index for
faster search operations?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B+ Tree File
Answer: b) Indexed File

54. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of comparing adjacent elements and swapping them if
they are in the wrong order, repeatedly until the entire array is sorted?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Selection Sort
Answer: a) Bubble Sort

55. Which data structure is used to represent a collection of elements in a sorted order with efficient search,
insert, and delete operations?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) Balanced Search Tree
Answer: d) Balanced Search Tree

56. Which of the following is a non-linear data structure that represents a collection of elements in a
hierarchical order with multiple root nodes?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) Forest
Answer: d) Forest

57. Which file organization technique allows efficient access to records by using a balanced tree structure
with multiple keys per node?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B+ Tree File
Answer: d) B+ Tree File

58. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of repeatedly selecting the maximum (or minimum)
element from the unsorted part of the array and placing it in its final position?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Selection Sort
Answer: d) Selection Sort

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59. Which data structure is used to implement a double-ended queue that allows insertion and deletion at
both ends, and supports efficient random access to elements?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) Deque
Answer: a) Array

60. Which searching algorithm is used to find the shortest path between two nodes in a weighted graph with
heuristic values?
a) Linear Search b) Binary Search
c) Dijkstra's Algorithm d) A* Algorithm
Answer: d) A* Algorithm

61. Which file organization technique provides efficient access to records by using a multi-level index
structure with variable-sized nodes?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B+ Tree File
Answer: d) B+ Tree File

62. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of dividing the input array into two subarrays, sorting
them recursively, and then merging them together using a merge operation?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Radix Sort
Answer: b) Merge Sort

63. Which data structure is used to implement a stack with efficient push and pop operations?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Stack d) Queue
Answer: c) Stack

64. Which searching algorithm is used to find a particular element in a binary search tree by comparing the
element with the current node and moving left or right accordingly?
a) Linear Search b) Binary Search
c) Depth-First Search d) Breadth-First Search
Answer: b) Binary Search

65. Which file organization technique provides efficient access to records by using a hash function and a
bucket structure?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B+ Tree File
Answer: c) Hashed File

66. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of dividing the input array into smaller subarrays,
sorting them individually, and then combining them in a bottom-up manner?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Radix Sort
Answer: b) Merge Sort

67. Which data structure is used to implement a queue with efficient enqueue and dequeue operations?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Stack d) Queue
Answer: a) Array

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68. Which searching algorithm is used to find the shortest path between two nodes in a graph with weighted
edges and heuristic values?
a) Linear Search b) Binary Search
c) Dijkstra's Algorithm d) A* Algorithm
Answer: d) A* Algorithm

69. Which file organization technique provides efficient access to records by using a multi-level index
structure with fixed-sized nodes?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B-tree File
Answer: d) B-tree File

70. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of comparing adjacent elements and swapping them if
they are in the wrong order, repeatedly until the entire array is sorted, but in a modified way to improve
performance?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Cocktail Shaker Sort Answer: d) Cocktail Shaker Sort
71. Which data structure is used to efficiently store a collection of key-value pairs with fast retrieval and
insertion operations based on the key?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Hash Table d) Binary Search Tree
Answer: c) Hash Table

72. Which of the following is a non-linear data structure that represents a collection of elements in a
hierarchical order with a single root node and an ordering property?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) Binary Search Tree
Answer: d) Binary Search Tree

73. Which file organization technique allows efficient access to records by using a hash function and a bucket
structure with overflow handling?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) Extendible Hashing
Answer: c) Hashed File

74. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of repeatedly selecting the maximum (or minimum)
element from the unsorted part of the array and placing it at the end (or beginning) of the sorted part?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Insertion Sort
Answer: a) Bubble Sort

75. Which data structure is used to represent a collection of elements in a sorted order with efficient search,
insert, and delete operations, and supports dynamic resizing?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) Balanced Search Tree
Answer: d) Balanced Search Tree

76. Which of the following is a non-linear data structure that represents a collection of elements in a
hierarchical order with multiple root nodes and an ordering property?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) Forest of Binary Search Trees
Answer: d) Forest of Binary Search Trees

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77. Which file organization technique allows efficient access to records by using a balanced tree structure
with variable-sized nodes and supports range queries?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B+ Tree File
Answer: d) B+ Tree File

78. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of repeatedly partitioning the array into smaller parts
and sorting them individually using a pivot element, but with the use of additional space?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Bucket Sort
Answer: b) Merge Sort

79. Which data structure is used to implement a stack with efficient push, pop, and top operations?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Stack d) Queue
Answer: c) Stack

80. Which searching algorithm is used to find a particular element in a binary search tree by traversing the
tree in a depth-first manner and comparing the element with the current node?
a) Linear Search b) Binary Search
c) Depth-First Search d) Breadth-First Search Answer: c) Depth-First Search
81. Which file organization technique provides efficient access to records by using a secondary index that is
smaller in size compared to the primary index?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) Dense Index File
Answer: d) Dense Index File

82. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of dividing the input array into two subarrays, sorting
them recursively using a base case, and then combining them together?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Shell Sort
Answer: b) Merge Sort

83. Which data structure is used to implement a queue with efficient enqueue, dequeue, and peek
operations?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Stack d) Queue
Answer: b) Linked List

84. Which searching algorithm is used to find the shortest path between two nodes in a graph with weighted
edges and no negative cycles?
a) Linear Search b) Binary Search
c) Dijkstra's Algorithm d) Bellman-Ford Algorithm
Answer: c) Dijkstra's Algorithm

85. Which file organization technique provides efficient access to records by using a multi-level index
structure with variable-sized nodes and supports range queries?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B+ Tree File
Answer: d) B+ Tree File

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86. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of repeatedly comparing adjacent elements and
swapping them if they are in the wrong order, but with the optimization of skipping unnecessary
comparisons?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Comb Sort
Answer: d) Comb Sort

87. Which data structure is used to implement a priority queue with efficient insert, delete, and retrieve-min
operations?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Stack d) Heap
Answer: d) Heap

88. Which searching algorithm is used to find a particular element in a binary search tree by traversing the
tree in a breadth-first manner and comparing the element with the current node?
a) Linear Search b) Binary Search
c) Depth-First Search d) Breadth-First Search
Answer: d) Breadth-First Search

89. Which file organization technique allows efficient access to records by using a hash function and a bucket
structure with dynamic overflow handling?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) Extendible Hashing
Answer: c) Hashed File

90. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of dividing the input array into smaller subarrays,
sorting them individually using a base case, and then combining them together using an insertion-like
operation?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Tim Sort
Answer: d) Tim Sort

91. Which data structure is used to represent a collection of elements in a sorted order with efficient search,
insert, and delete operations, and supports dynamic resizing and fast random access?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) Balanced Search Tree
Answer: a) Array

92. Which of the following is a non-linear data structure that represents a collection of elements in a
hierarchical order with multiple root nodes and an ordering property, but with additional constraints on
the maximum number of children per node?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) B-tree
Answer: d) B-tree

93. Which file organization technique provides efficient access to records by using a multi-level index
structure with fixed-sized nodes and supports range queries?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B-tree File
Answer: d) B-tree File

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94. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of comparing adjacent elements and swapping them if
they are in the wrong order, repeatedly until the entire array is sorted, but with the optimization of
moving smaller elements to the beginning and larger elements to the end?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Cocktail Shaker Sort
Answer: d) Cocktail Shaker Sort

95. Which data structure is used to efficiently store a collection of key-value pairs with fast retrieval,
insertion, and deletion operations based on the key, and supports ordered traversal of the keys?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Hash Table d) Balanced Search Tree
Answer: d) Balanced Search Tree

96. Which of the following is a non-linear data structure that represents a collection of elements in a
hierarchical order with a single root node and an ordering property, but with additional constraints on the
maximum number of children per node?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Queue d) K-ary Tree
Answer: d) K-ary Tree

97. Which file organization technique allows efficient access to records by using a balanced tree structure
with variable-sized nodes and supports efficient range queries?
a) Sequential File b) Indexed File
c) Hashed File d) B+ Tree File
Answer: d) B+ Tree File
98. Which sorting algorithm is based on the principle of dividing the input array into smaller subarrays,
sorting them individually using a base case, and then combining them together using an insertion-like
operation, but with the optimization of run-length encoding?
a) Bubble Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Timsort
Answer: d) Timsort
99. Which data structure is used to implement a stack with efficient push, pop, and top operations, and
supports dynamic resizing?
a) Array b) Linked List
c) Stack d) Dynamic Array
Answer: d) Dynamic Array

100. Which searching algorithm is used to find the shortest path between two nodes in a graph with weighted
edges, no negative cycles, and heuristic values?
a) Linear Search b) Binary Search
c) Dijkstra's Algorithm d) A* Algorithm
Answer: d) A* Algorithm

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 Operating System Concepts

Operating System concepts refer to the fundamental principles and components of an operating system, which is a
software program that acts as an intermediary between computer hardware and software applications. The main
purpose of an operating system is to manage and coordinate the various resources and processes of a computer
system, providing an environment for efficient and reliable execution of programs.

Here are some key concepts related to operating systems:

 Process Management: Involves creating, scheduling, and terminating processes, as well as managing their
communication, synchronization, and resource allocation.

 Memory Management: Deals with allocating and managing the computer's memory, including processes'
memory requirements, virtual memory, and memory protection mechanisms.

 File Systems: Organizes and manages the storage of files on secondary storage devices, providing functions
for file creation, deletion, manipulation, and access control.

 Device Management: Handles the interaction between the operating system and peripheral devices, such as
input/output devices, storage devices, and network devices.

 User Interface: Provides a means for users to interact with the computer system, including command-line
interfaces, graphical user interfaces (GUI), and other user-friendly interfaces.

 Process Scheduling: Determines the order in which processes are executed, ensuring fairness, efficiency,
and responsiveness of the system.

 Interprocess Communication (IPC): Facilitates communication and data sharing between different
processes, either through shared memory, message passing, or synchronization mechanisms.

 File Protection and Security: Implements access control mechanisms to protect files and resources from
unauthorized access, ensuring data integrity and system security.

 Multithreading: Enables concurrent execution of multiple threads within a single process, allowing for
better utilization of system resources and improved responsiveness.

 Networking and Distributed Systems: Deals with networking protocols, communication between
distributed systems, and managing network resources.

Understanding these operating system concepts is crucial for computer scientists, system administrators,
and software developers as it provides a foundation for designing, developing, and maintaining efficient and
reliable computer systems.

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 Here is a list of common full forms related to operating systems:

 OS - Operating System
 CPU - Central Processing Unit
 RAM - Random Access Memory
 ROM - Read-Only Memory
 HDD - Hard Disk Drive
 SSD - Solid State Drive
 GUI - Graphical User Interface
 CLI - Command Line Interface
 BIOS - Basic Input/Output System
 API - Application Programming Interface
 GUI - Graphical User Interface
 CLI - Command Line Interface
 GUI - Graphical User Interface
 CLI - Command Line Interface
 BIOS - Basic Input/Output System
 API - Application Programming Interface
 ACPI - Advanced Configuration and Power Interface
 FAT - File Allocation Table
 NTFS - New Technology File System
 FAT32 - File Allocation Table 32-bit
 GUI - Graphical User Interface
 CLI - Command Line Interface
 GUI - Graphical User Interface
 CLI - Command Line Interface
 BIOS - Basic Input/Output System
 API - Application Programming Interface
 ACPI - Advanced Configuration and Power Interface
 FAT - File Allocation Table
 NTFS - New Technology File System
 FAT32 - File Allocation Table 32-bit
 GUI - Graphical User Interface
 CLI - Command Line Interface
 GUI - Graphical User Interface
 CLI - Command Line Interface
 BIOS - Basic Input/Output System
 API - Application Programming Interface
 ACPI - Advanced Configuration and Power Interface
 FAT - File Allocation Table
 NTFS - New Technology File System
 FAT32 - File Allocation Table 32-bit

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 Operating System Concepts MCQs.
1. What is an operating system?
a) interface between the hardware and application programs
b) collection of programs that manages hardware resources
c) system service provider to the application programs
d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: An Operating System acts as an intermediary between user/user applications/application
programs and hardware. It is a program that manages hardware resources. It provides services to
application programs.

2. What is the main function of the command interpreter?

a) to provide the interface between the API and application program
b) to handle the files in the operating system
c) to get and execute the next user-specified command
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The main function of a command interpreter is to get and execute the next user-specified
command. Command Interpreter checks for valid command and then runs that command else it will throw
an error.

3. In Operating Systems, which of the following is/are CPU scheduling algorithms?

a) Priority b) Round Robin
c) Shortest Job First d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: In Operating Systems, CPU scheduling algorithms are:
i) First Come First Served scheduling
ii) Shortest Job First scheduling
iii) Priority scheduling
iv) Round Robin scheduling
v) Multilevel Queue scheduling
vi) Multilevel Feedback Queue scheduling
All of these scheduling algorithms have their own advantages and disadvantages.

4. To access the services of the operating system, the interface is provided by the ___________
a) Library b) System calls
c) Assembly instructions d) API
Answer: b
Explanation: To access services of the Operating System an interface is provided by the System Calls.
Generally, these are functions written in C and C++. Open, Close, Read, Write are some of most prominently
used system calls.

5. CPU scheduling is the basis of ___________

a) multiprogramming operating systems b) larger memory sized systems
c) multiprocessor systems d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
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6. Which one of the following is not true?
a) kernel remains in the memory during the entire computer session
b) kernel is made of various modules which can not be loaded in running operating system
c) kernel is the first part of the operating system to load into memory during booting
d) kernel is the program that constitutes the central core of the operating system
Answer: b
Explanation: Kernel is the first program that is loaded in memory when OS is loading as well as it remains in
memory till OS is running. Kernel is the core part of the OS which is responsible for managing resources,
allowing multiple processes to use the resources and provide services to various processes. Kernel modules
can be loaded and unloaded in run-time i.e. in running OS.

7. Which one of the following errors will be handle by the operating system?
a) lack of paper in printer b) connection failure in the network
c) power failure d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: All the mentioned errors are handled by OS. The OS is continuously monitoring all of its
resources. Also, the OS is constantly detecting and correcting errors.

8. Where is the operating system placed in the memory?

a) either low or high memory (depending on the location of interrupt vector)
b) in the low memory
c) in the high memory
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a

9. If a process fails, most operating system write the error information to a ______
a) new file b) another running process
c) log file d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: If a process fails, most operating systems write the error information to a log file. Log file is
examined by the debugger, to find out what is the actual cause of that particular problem. Log file is useful
for system programmers for correcting errors.

10. Which one of the following is not a real time operating system?
a) RTLinux b) Palm OS
c) QNX d) VxWorks
Answer: b
Explanation: VxWorks, QNX & RTLinux are real-time operating systems. Palm OS is a mobile operating
system. Palm OS is developed for Personal Digital Assistants (PDAs).

11. What does OS X has?

a) monolithic kernel with modules b) microkernel
c) monolithic kernel d) hybrid kernel
Answer: d
Explanation: OS X has a hybrid kernel. Hybrid kernel is a combination of two different kernels. OS X is
developed by Apple and originally it is known as Mac OS X.

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12. In operating system, each process has its own __________
a) open files b) pending alarms, signals, and signal handlers
c) address space and global variables d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d
Explanation: In Operating Systems, each process has its own address space which contains code, data, stack,
and heap segments or sections. Each process also has a list of files that is opened by the process as well as
all pending alarms, signals, and various signal handlers.

13. In a timeshare operating system, when the time slot assigned to a process is completed, the process
switches from the current state to?
a) Suspended state b) Terminated state
c) Ready state d) Blocked state
Answer: c
Explanation: In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed, the
process goes from the running state to the Ready State. In a time-sharing operating system, unit time is
defined for sharing CPU, it is called a time quantum or time slice. If a process takes less than 1 time
quantum, then the process itself releases the CPU.

14. Cascading termination refers to the termination of all child processes if the parent process terminates
______
a) Normally or abnormally b) Abnormally
c) Normally d) None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Cascading termination refers to the termination of all child processes if the parent process
terminates Normally or Abnormally. Some systems don’t allow child processes to exist if the parent process
has terminated. Cascading termination is normally initiated by the operating system.

15. When a process is in a “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the service is completed, it
goes to the __________
a) Terminated state b) Suspended state
c) Running state d) Ready state
Answer: d
Explanation: Suppose that a process is in “Blocked” state waiting for some I/O service. When the service is
completed, it goes to the ready state. Process never goes directly to the running state from the waiting
state. Only processes which are in ready state go to the running state whenever CPU allocated by operating
system.

16. Transient operating system code is a code that ____________

a) stays in the memory always b) never enters the memory space
c) comes and goes as needed d) is not easily accessible
Answer: c

17. The portion of the process scheduler in an operating system that dispatches processes is concerned with
________
a) assigning ready processes to waiting queue b) assigning running processes to blocked queue
c) assigning ready processes to CPU d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c
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18. The FCFS algorithm is particularly troublesome for ____________
a) operating systems b) multiprocessor systems
c) time sharing systems d) multiprogramming systems
Answer: c
Explanation: In a time sharing system, each user needs to get a share of the CPU at regular intervals.

19. For an effective operating system, when to check for deadlock?

a) every time a resource request is made at fixed time intervals
b) at fixed time intervals
c) every time a resource request is made
d) none of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: In an effective operating system, we must verify the deadlock each time a request for
resources is made at fixed time intervals.

21. Swapping _______ be done when a process has pending I/O, or has to execute I/O operations only into
operating system buffers.
a) must never b) maybe
c) can d) must
Answer: a

22. The main memory accommodates ____________

a) cpu b) user processes
c) operating system d) all of the mentioned
Answer: c

23. The operating system is responsible for?

a) bad-block recovery b) booting from disk
c) disk initialization d) all of the mentioned
Answer: d

24. The operating system and the other processes are protected from being modified by an already running
process because __________
a) every address generated by the CPU is being checked against the relocation and limit registers
b) they have a protection algorithm
c) they are in different memory spaces
d) they are in different logical addresses
Answer: a

25. In real time operating system ____________

a) process scheduling can be done only once
b) all processes have the same priority
c) kernel is not required
d) a task must be serviced by its deadline period
Answer: d

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26. Hard real time operating system has ______________ jitter than a soft real time operating system.
a) equal b) more
c) less d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Jitter is the undesired deviation from the true periodicity.

27. For real time operating systems, interrupt latency should be ____________
a) zero b) minimal
c) maximum d) dependent on the scheduling
Answer: b
Explanation: Interrupt latency is the time duration between the generation of interrupt and execution of its
service.

28. Which one of the following is a real time operating system?

a) Windows CE b) RTLinux
c) VxWorks d) All of the mentioned
Answer: d

29. Network operating system runs on ___________

a) every system in the network b) server
c) both server and every system in the network d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b

30. What are the types of distributed operating systems?

a) Zone based Operating system b) Level based Operating system
c) Network Operating system d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c

31. In Unix, which system call creates the new process?

a) create b) fork
c) new d) none of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: In UNIX, a new process is created by fork() system call. fork() system call returns a process ID
which is generally the process id of the child process created.

32. Which of the following is not an operating system?

(a) Windows (b) Linux
(c) Oracle (d) DOS
Answer: (c) Oracle
Explanation: Oracle is an RDBMS (Relational Database Management System). It is known as Oracle
Database, Oracle DB, or Oracle Only. The first database for enterprise grid computing is the Oracle database.

33. What is the maximum length of the filename in DOS?

(a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 8 (d) 12
Answer: (c) 8

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 Explanation: The maximum length of the filename is 8 characters in the DOS operating system. It is
commonly known as an 8.3 filename.

34. When was the first operating system developed?

(a) 1948 (b) 1949
(c) 1950 (d) 1951
Answer: (c) 1950
Explanation: The first operating system was developed in the early 1950's. It was also called a single-stream
batch processing system because it presented data in groups.

35) When were MS windows operating systems proposed?

(a) 1994 (b) 1990
(c) 1992 (d) 1985
Answer: (d) 1985
Explanation: The first MS Windows operating system was introduced in early 1985.

36) Which of the following is the extension of Notepad?

(a) .txt (b) .xls
(c) .ppt (d) .bmp
Answer: (a) .txt
Explanation: The .txt file extension is a standard text document extension that contains the unformatted
text. It is the default file extension for the notepad.

37) What else is a command interpreter called?

(a) prompt (b) kernel
(c) shell (d) command
Answer: (c) shell
Explanation: The command interpreter is also called the shell.

38) What is the full name of FAT?

(a) File attribute table (b) File allocation table
(c) Font attribute table (d) Format allocation table
Answer: (b) File allocation table.
Explanation: The FAT stands for File allocation table. The FAT is a file system architecture. It is used in
computer systems and memory cards. A FAT of the contents of a computer disk indicates which field is used
for which file.

39) BIOS is used?

(a) By operating system (b) By compiler
(c) By interpreter (d) By application software
Answer: (a) By operating system
Explanation: BIOS is used by the operating system. It is used to configure and identify the hardware in a
system such as the hard drive, floppy drive, optical drive, CPU, and memory.

40) What is the mean of the Booting in the operating system?

(a) Restarting computer (b) Install the program
(c) To scan (d) To turn off
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 Answer: (a) Restarting computer
Explanation: Booting is a process of the restart the computer. After restarting it, there is no software in the
computer's main memory.

41) When does page fault occur?

(a) The page is present in memory. (b) The deadlock occurs.
(c) The page does not present in memory. (d) The buffering occurs.
Answer: (c) The page does not present in memory.
Explanation: Page faults occur when a process tries to access a block page of the memory and that page is
not stored in RAM (Read only memory) or memory.

42) Banker's algorithm is used?

(a) To prevent deadlock (b) To deadlock recovery
(c) To solve the deadlock (d) None of these
Answer: (a) To prevent deadlock
Explanation: Banker's algorithm is used to prevent the deadlock condition. The banker algorithm is
sometimes called the detection algorithm. It is named the banker algorithm because it is used to determine
whether a loan can be granted in the banking system or not.

43) When you delete a file in your computer, where does it go?
(a) Recycle bin (b) Hard disk
(c) Taskbar (d) None of these
Answer: (a) Recycle bin
Explanation: When you delete a file on your computer device, it is transferred to your computer system's
recycle bin or trash.

44) Which is the Linux operating system?

(a) Private operating system (b) Windows operating system
(c) Open-source operating system (d) None of these
Answer: (c) Open-source operating system
Explanation: The Linux operating system is an open-source operating system made up of a kernel. It is a very
safe operating system.

45) What is the full name of the DSM?

(a) Direct system module (b) Direct system memory
(c) Demoralized system memory (d) Distributed shared memory
Answer: (d) Distributed shared memory
Explanation: The DSM stands for Distributed Shared Memory.

46) What is the full name of the IDL?

(a) Interface definition language (b) Interface direct language
(c) Interface data library (d) None of these
Answer: (a) Interface definition language
Explanation: The IDL stands for Interface Definition Language. It is used to establish communications
between clients and servers in RPC (Remote Procedure Call).

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47) What is bootstrapping called?
(a) Cold boot (b) Cold hot boot
(c) Cold hot strap (d) Hot boot
Answer: (a) Cold boot
Explanation: Bootstrapping is also known as the cool boot.

48) If the page size increases, the internal fragmentation is also....?

(a) Decreases (b) Increases
(c) Remains constant (d) None of these
Answer: (b) Increases

49) Which of the following is a single-user operating system?

(a) Windows (b) MAC
(c) Ms-Dos (d) None of these
Answer: (c) Ms-Dos
Explanation: The single-user operating system is the operating system in which only one user can access the
computer system at a time, and Ms-DOS is the best example of a single-user operating system.

50. The size of virtual memory is based on which of the following?

(a) CPU (b) RAM
(c) Address bus (d) Data bus
Answer: (c) Address bus
Explanation: The size of virtual memory is based on the address bus.

51. If a page number is not found in the translation lookaside buffer, then it is known as a?
(a) Translation Lookaside Buffer miss (b) Buffer miss
(c) Translation Lookaside Buffer hit (d) All of the mentioned
Answer: (a) Translation Lookaside Buffer miss
Explanation: A Translation Lookaside Buffer miss arises when the page table entry needed to translate a
virtual address to a physical address is not available in the translation lookaside buffer.

52. Which of the following is not application software?

(a) Windows 7 (b) WordPad
(c) Photoshop (d) MS-excel
Answer: (a) Windows 7
Explanation: Windows 7 is not an application software because it is a operating system.

53. Which of the following supports Windows 64 bit?

(a) Window XP (b) Window 2000
(c) Window 1998 (d) None of these
Answer: (a) Window XP
Explanation: Windows XP supports the 64-bits. Windows XP is designed to expand the memory address
space. Its original name is Microsoft Windows XP Professional x64 and it is based on the x86-64 architecture.

54. Which of the following operating systems does not support more than one program at a time?
(a) Linux (b) Windows
(c) MAC (d) DOS
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 Answer: (d) DOS
Explanation: DOS stands for Disk operating system. Disk operating system is a single-user operating system
that does not support more than one program at a time.

55. Which of the following is a condition that causes deadlock?

(a) Mutual exclusion (b) Hold and wait
(c) Circular wait (d) No preemption
All of these Answer: (e) All of these
56. Who provides the interface to access the services of the operating system?
(a) API (b) System call
(c) Library (d) Assembly instruction
Answer: (b) System call
Explanation: The system call provides an interface for user programs to access the services of the operating
system through the API (Application Program Interface).

57. Where are placed the list of processes that are prepared to be executed and waiting?
(a) Job queue (b) Ready queue
(c) Execution queue (d) Process queue
Answer: (b) Ready queue
Explanation: The ready queue is a set of all the processes that processes are ready to execute and wait.

58. Who among the following can block the running process?
(a) Fork (b) Read
(c) Down (d) All of these
Answer: (d) All of these

59. Which of the following does not interrupt the running process?
(a) Timer interrupt (b) Device
(c) Power failure (d) Scheduler process
Answer: (b) Scheduler process
Explanation: Scheduler process does not interrupt in any running process. Its job is to select the processes
for long-term, short-term, and short-term scheduler.

60. What is Microsoft window?

(a) Operating system (b) Graphics program
(c) Word Processing (d) Database program
Answer: (a) Operating system
Explanation: Microsoft Windows is an operating system that was developed by Microsoft company. The
Microsoft Windows is available in 32-bits and 64-bits in the market.

61. Which of the following is group of programs?

(a) Accessories (b) Paint
(c) Word (d) All of above
Answer: (a) Accessories
Explanation: The windows accessories are a group of programs in the operating system. Windows XP offers
many accessories or software that you can use to help with your work. The accessories are not full features

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 programs, but it is useful for a specific task in the operating systems. It provides many programs such as a
painting program, a calculator, a word processor, a notepad, and Internet software.
62. Which of the following is an example of a Real Time Operating System?
(a) MAC (b) MS-DOS
(c) Windows 10 (d) Process Control
Answer: (d) Process Control
Explanation: Process control is a best example of a Real time operating system.

63. Which of the following operating systems do you use for a client-server network?
(a) MAC (b) Linux
(c) Windows XP (d) Windows 2000
Answer: (d) Windows 2000
Explanation: Windows 2002 operating systems were used to implement a client Server Network. It is a
server OS that was developed by Microsoft in April 24, 2002. It includes some features of Windows XP.

64. Which command is used to fetch a group (.doc) of files that have just been deleted?
(a) Undelete (b) Undelete/all
(c) Undelete *.doc (d) All of above
Answer: (c) Undelete *.doc
Explanation: Undelete *.doc command is used to fetch a group (.doc) of files that have just been deleted.

65. Which of the following is system software?

(a) Operating system (b) Compiler
(c) Utilities (d) All of the above
Answer: (d) All of the above
Explanation: The system software is a type of computer program designed to run hardware and software
programs on a computer.
According to some definitions, system software also includes system utilities, system restore, development
tools, compilers, and debuggers.

66. Which program runs first after booting the computer and loading the GUI?
(a) Desktop Manager (b) File Manager
(c) Windows Explorer (d) Authentication

Answer: (d) Authentication

Explanation: The authentication program is run first after booting the computer and loading the GUI.
Authentication is a process of verifying the person or device. For example, when you log in to Facebook, you
enter a username and password.

67. Which of the following keys does the user use to switch between applications running simultaneously in
the Windows operating system?
(a) FN + TAB (b) ALT + TAB
(c) CTRL + TAB (d) SHIFT + TAB
Answer: (b) ALT + TAB
Explanation: The user uses the Alt + Tab button to switch from one window to another in the Windows
operating system. Also, the user can use the Ctrl + Tab button to switch from tab to tab in internet explorer.

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68. Which of the following operating system runs on the server?
(a) Batch OS (b) Distributed OS
(c) Real-time OS (d) Network OS
Answer: (d) Network OS
Explanation: The network operating system runs on a server. This operating system has some functions that
work to connect local area networks and computers.

69. What type of memory stores data in a swap file on a hard drive?
(a) Secondary memory (b) Virtual memory
(c) Low memory (d) RAM
Answer: (b) Virtual memory
Explanation: A swap file is a type of file that stores the data retrieved from Read-Only-Memory (RAM) or
main memory. It is also a virtual memory because it is not stored in physical RAM.

70. Which of the following operating system does not require a command to run?
(a) Kali Linux (b) Windows
(c) Unix (d) All of the these
Answer: (b) Windows
Explanation: Windows is a GUI operating system. This operating system does not require a command to run.
Only one mouse is required to run this operating system.

71. The operating system work between

(a) User and Computer (b) Network and User
(c) One user to another user (d) All of the these
Answer: (a) User and Computer
Explanation: The OS is software that acts as an interface between a device and users and is also known as
system software.

72. What is the paging in the operating system?

(a) Memory management scheme (b) Network management scheme
(c) Internet management scheme (d) None of the these
Answer: (a) Memory management scheme
Explanation: In the operating system, paging is a memory management scheme (MMS) in which memory is
divided into pages of fixed size.

73. Which of the following algorithms is used to avoid deadlock?

(a) Dynamic Programming algorithm (b) Primality algorithms
(c) Banker's algorithm (d) Deadlock algorithm
Answer: (c) Banker's algorithm
Explanation: Banker's algorithm is a deadlock avoidance and resource allocation algorithm. This algorithm
was developed by Edger Dijkstra. It is also called a detection algorithm.

74. Buffer is a ___________

(a) Permanent area (b) Temporary area
(c) Small area (d) Large area
Answer: (b) Temporary area
Explanation: Buffer is a temporary area where data is stored for some time before being transferred to the
main memory.

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75. Which of the following operating systems supports only real-time applications?
(a) Batch OS (b) Distributed OS
(c) Real-time OS (d) Network OS
Answer: (c) Real-time OS
Explanation: The real-time OS supports real-time applications. This OS is used for industrial and scientific
work. It completes the tasks in a given time.

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 Database Management System (DBMS)

A Database Management System (DBMS) is a software system that enables users to create, manipulate, and manage
databases. It provides an interface for interacting with databases and facilitates the storage, retrieval, modification,
and deletion of data.

The primary goal of a DBMS is to provide a structured and organized approach to storing and managing large
volumes of data efficiently. It offers a way to define and enforce data integrity, security, and consistency rules. A
DBMS also supports concurrent access to the database by multiple users or applications.

Key Concepts in Database Management Systems:

 Data: Refers to the raw facts, figures, and statistics that are stored in a database.

 Database: A collection of related data organized and structured in a particular way to facilitate efficient
storage, retrieval, and management.

 Database Schema: A blueprint or logical structure that defines the organization, relationships, and
constraints of the data in a database.

 Database Management System (DBMS): Software that provides an interface for managing databases,
including creating, modifying, and querying data.

 Data Models: Abstract representations of how data is organized and structured in a database. Common data
models include the relational model, hierarchical model, network model, and object-oriented model.

 Relational Database Management System (RDBMS): A type of DBMS that manages data using the relational
model, which organizes data into tables with rows and columns.

 SQL (Structured Query Language): A standard language for managing relational databases. SQL allows users
to perform various operations such as querying, inserting, updating, and deleting data.

 Database Administrator (DBA): An individual responsible for overseeing the design, implementation, and
maintenance of databases, as well as ensuring data integrity, security, and performance.

 Data Integrity: Ensuring the accuracy, consistency, and validity of data stored in a database. This is achieved
through constraints, such as primary keys, foreign keys, and data validation rules.

 Data Security: Measures taken to protect the confidentiality, integrity, and availability of data stored in a
database. This includes access control, encryption, backup, and recovery mechanisms.

 Data Normalization: The process of organizing data in a database to minimize redundancy and improve data
integrity and efficiency.

 Indexing: Creating data structures (indexes) to optimize the retrieval of data from a database, improving
query performance.

 Transaction: A logical unit of work that consists of one or more database operations. Transactions ensure
the atomicity, consistency, isolation, and durability (ACID properties) of database operations.

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  Data Warehousing: The process of collecting, organizing, and analyzing large volumes of data from various
sources to support decision-making processes.

 Data Mining: The process of discovering patterns, relationships, and insights from large datasets using
various techniques and algorithms.

Here is a list of common full forms related to Database Management Systems (DBMS):

 DBMS - Database Management System

 RDBMS - Relational Database Management System
 SQL - Structured Query Language
 DDL - Data Definition Language
 DML - Data Manipulation Language
 DCL - Data Control Language
 ACID - Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
 CRUD - Create, Read, Update, Delete
 ER - Entity-Relationship
 DBA - Database Administrator
 ODBC - Open Database Connectivity
 JDBC - Java Database Connectivity
 ORM - Object-Relational Mapping
 OLAP - Online Analytical Processing
 OLTP - Online Transaction Processing
 RAID - Redundant Array of Independent Disks
 BLOB - Binary Large Object
 CLOB - Character Large Object
 API - Application Programming Interface
 GUI - Graphical User Interface
 XML - Extensible Markup Language
 JSON - JavaScript Object Notation
 CAP - Consistency, Availability, Partition tolerance
 MVCC - Multi-Version Concurrency Control
 UPSERT - Update or Insert
 UDF - User-Defined Function
 DWH - Data Warehouse
 ETL - Extract, Transform, Load
 SQLI - SQL Injection
 DBMS - Distributed Database Management System
 ROLAP - Relational Online Analytical Processing
 MOLAP - Multidimensional Online Analytical Processing
 HDFS - Hadoop Distributed File System
 ACID - Atomicity, Consistency, Isolation, Durability
 GPU - Graphics Processing Unit
 ORM - Object Relational Mapping
 MVCC - Multi-Version Concurrency Control

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 Database Management System MCQs.
1. What is the full form of DBMS?
a) Data of Binary Management System b) Database Management System
c) Database Management Service d) Data Backup Management System
Answer: b
Explanation: DBMS is abbreviated as Database Management System. Database Management System stores
the data and allows authorized users to manipulate and modify the data.

2. What is a database?
a) Organized collection of information that cannot be accessed, updated, and managed
b) Collection of data or information without organizing
c) Organized collection of data or information that can be accessed, updated, and managed
d) Organized collection of data that cannot be updated
Answer: c
Explanation: It is defined as an organized collection of data or information for easy access, updating, and
management in a computer.

3. What is DBMS?
a) DBMS is a collection of queries b) DBMS is a high-level language
c) DBMS is a programming language d) DBMS stores, modifies and retrieves data
Answer: d
Explanation: DBMS is nothing but a storehouse wherein the authorized user can create a database to store,
modify or retrieve the organized data in the table. It can be modified or retrieved by users who have access
to DBMS only.

4. Who created the first DBMS?

a) Edgar Frank Codd b) Charles Bachman
c) Charles Babbage d) Sharon B. Codd
Answer: b
Explanation: Charles Bachman along with his team invented the first DBMS known as Integrated Data Store
(IDS).

5. Which type of data can be stored in the database?

a) Image oriented data b) Text, files containing data
c) Data in the form of audio or video d) All of the above
Answer: d
Explanation: The reason for creating the database management system was to store large data and these
data can be of any form image, text, audio, or video files, etc. DBMS allows the users to store and access the
data of any format.

6. In which of the following formats data is stored in the database management system?
a) Image b) Text
c) Table d) Graph
Answer: c
Explanation: The data is stored in a table format intended to manage the storage of data and manipulate
stored data to generate information.
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7. Which of the following is not a type of database?
a) Hierarchical b) Network
c) Distributed d) Decentralized
Answer: d
Explanation: Different types are:
1) Centralized
2) Distributed
3) Relational
4) NoSQL
5) Cloud
6) Object-oriented
7) Hierarchical
8) Network

8. Which of the following is not an example of DBMS?

a) MySQL b) Microsoft Acess
c) IBM DB2 d) Google
Answer: d
Explanation: MySQL, Microsoft Access, IBM DB2 are database management systems while Google is a
search engine. MySQL is a Linux-based database management system, Microsoft Access is a tool that is a
part of Microsoft Office used to store data, IBM DB2 is a database management system developed by IBM.
Google’s Bigtable is the database that runs Google’s Internet search, Google Maps, YouTube, Gmail, and
other products.

9. Which of the following is not a feature of DBMS?

a) Minimum Duplication and Redundancy of Data
b) High Level of Security
c) Single-user Access only
d) Support ACID Property
Answer: c
Explanation: Single-user Access only” is not a feature of DBMS. DBMS allows multiple users to access and
manipulate the database concurrently. It provides mechanisms to handle concurrent access and ensure data
consistency and integrity among multiple users.
The important features of a database management system are:
 Minimum Duplication and Redundancy of Data
 High Level of Security
 Mulitple-user Access
 Support ACID Property

10. Which of the following is a feature of the database?

a) No-backup for the data stored b) User interface provided
c) Lack of Authentication d) Store data in multiple locations
Answer: b
Explanation: The important features are:
1) Provides backup for the data stored by the user and the user can retrieve the data whenever required.
2) Provides User-interface to access the data.

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 3) Only authorized users can access the stored data.
4) Data is stored in one central location but multiple authorized users can access the data.

11. Which of the following is not a function of the database?

a) Managing stored data b) Manipulating data
c) Security for stored data d) Analysing code
Answer: d
Explanation: It allows authorized users to update, store, manipulate, or access data. Since data is stored in
table format it is easy to access the data and perform the required functions. It also removes duplicate and
redundant data.

12. Which of the following is a function of the DBMS?

a) Storing data b) Providing multi-users access control
c) Data Integrity d) All of the above
Answer: d
Explanation: The purpose of creating DBMS was to store the data. The data stored in the database
management system can be can accessed by multiple users if the access is provided. The data stored will be
accurate and complete hence providing data integrity.

13. Which of the following is a component of the DBMS?

a) Data b) Data Languages
c) Data Manager d) All of the above
Answer: d
Explanation: The components of DBMS are as follows:
1) Hardware: Like a hard drive, monitor, etc.
2) Software: Provides a user interface
3) Data Manager: Manages operations of DBMS.
4) Data: The collection of information on the DB is known as data.
5) Data Languages: Languages like DDL, DML, DAL, and DCL allow to perform operations like creating,
modifying, storing, or retrieving data.

14. Which of the following is known as a set of entities of the same type that share same properties, or
attributes?
a) Relation set b) Tuples
c) Entity set d) Entity Relation model
Answer: c
Explanation: In the actual world, an entity is a distinct “thing” or “object” from all other objects. For
example: Each employee of an organization is an entity.

15. What is information about data called?

a) Hyper data b) Tera data
c) Meta data d) Relations
Answer: c
Explanation: Information about data is known as Metadata. Metadata describes the data in detail by
providing additional information like type, length of the data, etc. Metadata helps the user to understand
the data.

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16. What does an RDBMS consist of?
a) Collection of Records b) Collection of Keys
c) Collection of Tables d) Collection of Fields
Answer: c
Explanation: It consists of a collection of tables i.e., the data is organized in tabular format. The columns of
the relation are known as Fields and rows of the relation are known as fields. Constraints in a relation are
known as Keys.

17. The values appearing in given attributes of any tuple in the referencing relation must likewise occur in
specified attributes of at least one tuple in the referenced relation, according to _____________________
integrity constraint.
a) Referential b) Primary
c) Referencing d) Specific
Answer: a
Explanation: Consider 2 relations r1 and r2. r1 may include among its attributes the primary key of relation
r2. This attribute is called a foreign key from r1, referencing r2. The relation r1 is also called the referencing
relation of the foreign key dependency, and r2 is called the referenced relation of the foreign key.

18. _____________ is a hardware component that is most important for the operation of a database
management system.
a) Microphone b) High speed, large capacity disk to store data
c) High-resolution video display d) Printer
Answer: b
Explanation: Since all the data are stored in form of memory in the disk, a high speed, and large-capacity
disk is required for the operation of the database management system.

19. The DBMS acts as an interface between ________________ and ________________ of an enterprise-class
system.
a) Data and the DBMS b) Application and SQL
c) Database application and the database d) The user and the software
Answer: c
Explanation: A database management system is an application that acts as an interface between the user
and the database. The user interacts with the application to access data.

20. The ability to query data, as well as insert, delete, and alter tuples, is offered by ____________
a) TCL (Transaction Control Language) b) DCL (Data Control Language)
c) DDL (Data Definition Langauge) d) DML (Data Manipulation Langauge)
Answer: d
Explanation: A query is a request for data or information. Relational Schema is the design and structure of
the relation. DDL consists of commands that help in modifying. DML performs the change in the values of
the relation.

21. ______________ is a set of one or more attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify a record.
a) Primary Key b) Foreign key
c) Super key d) Candidate key
Answer: c

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 Explanation: Foreign key creates a relationship between two relations. Super key is the superset of all the
keys in a relation. A candidate key is used to identify tuples in a relation.

22. Which command is used to remove a relation from an SQL?

a) Drop table b) Delete
c) Purge d) Remove
Answer: a
Explanation: Delete command is used to delete the existing record from the table. The drop table deletes
the whole structure of the relation. Purge removes the table which cannot be obtained again.

23. Which of the following set should be associated with weak entity set for weak entity to be meaningful?
a) Neighbour set b) Strong entity set
c) Owner set d) Identifying set
Answer: d
Explanation: Every weak entity must be linked to an identifying entity; in other words, the existence of the
weak entity set is contingent on the presence of the identifying entity set. The weak entity set that the
identifying entity set identifies is said to be owned by the identifying entity set. Owner entity set is another
name for it.

24. Which of the following command is correct to delete the values in the relation teaches?
a) Delete from teaches; b) Delete from teaches where Id =’Null’;
c) Remove table teaches; d) Drop table teaches;
Answer: a
Explanation: To delete the entries from the table Delete from table command should be used.

25. Procedural language among the following is __________

a) Domain relational calculus b) Tuple relational calculus
c) Relational algebra d) Query language
Answer: c
Explanation: Non-Procedural Languages are Domain relational calculus and Tuple relational calculus.
Relational algebra is a procedural language that takes input in the form of relation and output generated is
also a relation.

26. _________________ operations do not preserve non-matched tuples.

a) Left outer join b) Inner join
c) Natural join d) Right outer join
Answer: b
Explanation: Left outer join returns all the rows from the table that is on the left side and matching rows on
the right side of the join. Inner join returns all rows when there is at least one match in BOTH tables. Natural
join returns the common columns from the tables being joined. A right outer join returns all the rows from
the table that is on the right side and matching rows on the left side of the join.

27. Which forms have a relation that contains information about a single entity?
a) 4NF b) 2NF
c) 5NF d) 3NF
Answer: a

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 Explanation: If and only if, for each of its non-trivial multivalued dependencies X \twoheadrightarrow Y, a
table is in 4NF. X is a superkey—that is, X is either a candidate key or a superset thereof.

28. The top level of the hierarchy consists of ______ each of which can contain _____.
a) Schemas, Catalogs b) Schemas, Environment
c) Environment, Schemas d) Catalogs, Schemas
Answer: d
Explanation: Schemas represent the logical configuration of the DBMS. Catalogs consist of metadata of the
objects and system settings used.

29. _______ indicates the maximum number of entities that can be involved in a relationship.
a) Greater Entity Count b) Minimum cardinality
c) Maximum cardinality d) ERD
Answer: c
Explanation: The term cardinality refers to the uniqueness of data values included in a single column
(attribute) of a table in SQL (Structured Query Language).

30. The user IDs can be added or removed using which of the following fixed roles?
a) db_sysadmin b) db_accessadmin
c) db_securityadmin d) db_setupadmin
Answer: b
Explanation: Along with security, as the name suggests the db_accessadmin role also handles access.
db_sysadmin refers to the system administrator. db_securityadmin as the name suggests it involves granting
or declining permission to access the data ensuring security.

31. Why the following statement is erroneous?

SELECT dept_name, ID, avg (salary)
FROM instructor
GROUP BY dept_name;
a) Dept_id should not be used in group by clause
b) Group by clause is not valid in this query
c) Avg(salary) should not be selected
d) None
Answer: a
Explanation: Any property that does not occur in the group by clause must only appear in an aggregate
function if it also appears in the select clause; otherwise, the query is considered incorrect.

32. Which of the following is not the utility of DBMS?

i) Backup ii) Loading iii) Process Organization iv) File organization
a) i, ii, and iv only
b) i, ii and iii only
c) i, iii and iv only
d) All i, ii, iii, and iv
Answer: a
Explanation: Backup utility is used to create a copy of the db as a backup. Loading utility is used to load
existing file. File organization is used to relocate the files and create new access path. Processing is not an
utility.
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33. What does a foreign key combined with a primary key create?
a) Network model between the tables that connect them
b) Parent-Child relationship between the tables that connects them
c) One to many relationship between the tables that connects them
d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Using the two relationships mother and father gives us a record of a child’s mother, even if we
don’t know who the father is; if the ternary connection parent is used, a null value is necessary. In this
scenario, binary relationship sets are preferred.

34. What is the function of the following command?

Delete from r where P;
a) Clears entries from relation b) Deletes relation
c) Deletes particular tuple from relation d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: In the command the P gives condition to delete a particular tuple.

35. ______ resembles Create view.

a) Create table . . . as b) Create view as
c) Create table . . .like d) With data
Answer: a
Explanation: The ‘create table… as’ statement is similar to the ‘create view… as’ statement in that both are
defined with queries. The main distinction is that table contents are set when the table is built, whereas
view contents always reflect the current query result.

36. Which of the following is the best way to represent the attributes in a large db?
a) Dot representation b) Concatenation
c) Relational-and d) All of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Concatenation in DBMS is used to join two or more table fields of the same table or different
tables. Example inst sec and student sec.

37. Which of the following is the subset of SQL commands used to manipulate Oracle Structures, including t
ables?
a) Data Described Language b) Data Retrieval Language
c) Data Manipulation Language d) Data Definition Language
Answer: d
Explanation: DDLs are used to define schema and table characters and consist of commands that help in
modifying. DML performs the change in the values of the relation.

38. Which of the following functions construct histograms and use buckets for ranking?
a) Ntil() b) Newtil()
c) Rank() d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: ntile(n) returns the number of the bucket in which each tuple is stored, with bucket numbers
beginning with 1.

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39. __________ command is used in SQL to issue multiple CREATE TABLE, CREATE VIEW and GRANT
statements in a single transaction.
a) CREATE CLUSTER b) CREATE PACKAGE
c) CREATE SCHEMA d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A schema is a description of a system’s structure in a formal language supported by the
database management system, and it refers to data organization as a blueprint for how a db is built.

40. Which of the following key is required in to handle the data when the encryption is applied to the data so
that the unauthorised user cannot access the data?
a) Primary key b) Authorised key
c) Encryption key d) Decryption key
Answer: d
Explanation: The encryption key is used to encrypt the message. Even if the message is intercepted by an
enemy, the enemy will be unable to decrypt and interpret the message because he lacks the key.

41. Which of the following is known as the process of viewing cross-tab with a fixed value of one attribute?
a) Dicing b) Pivoting
c) Slicing d) Both Pivoting and Dicing
Answer: c
Explanation: Slice procedure takes one dimension from a cube and turns it into a new sub-cube. Dice takes
two or more dimensions from a cube and creates a new sub-cube from them.

42. For designing a normal RDBMS which of the following normal form is considered adequate?
a) 4NF b) 3NF
c) 2NF d) 5NF
Answer: b
Explanation: Because most 3NF tables are free of insertion, update, and deletion anomalies, an RDBMS
table is sometimes regarded as “normalized” if it is in the Third Normal Form.

43. Which of the following is popular for applications such as storage of log files in a database management
system since it offers the best write performance?
a) RAID level 0 b) RAID level 1
c) RAID level 2 d) RAID level 3
Answer: b
Explanation: RAID level 0 refers to data stripping. RAID level 1 refers to disk mirroring with block striping.
RAID level 2 refers to bit-level stripping and RAID level 3 refers to byte-level striping with dedicated parity.

44. The oldest DB model is _______________

a) Network b) Physical
c) Hierarchical d) Relational
Answer: a
Explanation: Network model has data stored in a hierarchical network flow. In a relational DBMS, the data is
stored in the form of tables. Hierarchy is obtained by Parent-Child Relationship

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45. Which of the following establishes a top-to-bottom relationship among the items?
a) Relational schema b) Network schema
c) Hierarchical schema d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A data model in which the data is structured into a tree-like structure is known as a hierarchical
model. The structure allows information to be represented using parent-child relationships.

46. What happens if a piece of data is stored in two places in the db?
a) Storage space is wasted & Changing the data in one spot will cause data inconsistency
b) In can be more easily accessed
c) Changing the data in one spot will cause data inconsistency
d) Storage space is wasted
Answer: a
Explanation: One of the main features of a database management system is minimum data duplication and
redundancy. Hence, is always consistent and so there is no duplication.

47. The logical design, and the snapshot of the data at a given instant in time is known as?
a) Instance & Relation b) Relation & Schema
c) Domain & Schema d) Schema & Instance
Answer: d
Explanation: Instance is an instance of time, the relation is also known as table consists of data with similar
characteristics, Domain is the collection of values that an attribute can contain and schema is a
representation.

48. Which of the following is generally used for performing tasks like creating the structure of the relations,
deleting relation?
(a) DML(Data Manipulation Language) (b) Query
(c) Relational Schema (d) DDL(Data Definition Language)
Answer: D
Explanation: The term "DDL" stands for Data Definition Language, used to perform all other essential tasks
such as deleting relation and related schemas in defining the structure relation.

49. Which of the following provides the ability to query information from the database and insert tuples into,
delete tuples from, and modify tuples in the database?
(a) DML(Data Manipulation Language) (b) DDL(Data Definition Language)
(c) Query (d) Relational Schema
Answer: A
Explanation: The term "DML" stands for the Data Manipulation Language used to perform the required
changes in the relation's values.

50. The given Query can also be replaced with_______:

SELECT name, course_id
FROM instructor, teaches
WHERE instructor_ID= teaches_ID;
(a) Select name,course_id from teaches,instructor where instructor_id=course_id;
(b) Select name, course_id from instructor natural join teaches;
(c) Select name, course_id from instructor;
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 (d) Select course_id from instructor join teaches;
Answer: B
Explanation: Join clause joins two tables by matching the common column

51. Which one of the following given statements possibly contains the error?
(select * from emp where empid = 10003;
select empid from emp where empid = 10006;
select empid from emp;
select empid where empid = 1009 and Lastname = 'GELLER';
Answer: D
Explanation: The Query given in option D does not contain the "from" clause, which specifies the relation
from which the values have to be selected or fetched. Therefore the correct answer is D.

52. Ready the Query carefully:

SELECT emp_name
FROM department
WHERE dept_name LIKE ' _____ Computer Science';
In the above-given Query, which of the following can be placed in the Query's blank portion to select the
"dept_name" that also contains Computer Science as its ending string?
(a) & (b) _
(c) % (d) $
Answer: C
Explanation: In the above-given Query, the "%" (like) operator will be used, which is generally used while
searching for a certain pattern in the strings. It represents the single and multiple characters. In this case, it
used with "Where "louse to select the "dept_name" that contains the Computer Since as its ending string.
To understand it more clearly, consider the following syntax:
Syntax
SELECT column1, column2, ...
FROM table_name
WHERE columnN LIKE pattern;

53. What do you mean by one to many relationships?

(a) One class may have many teachers (b) One teacher can have many classes
(c) Many classes may have many teachers (d) Many teachers may have many classes
Answer: B
Explanation: We can understand the "one to many" relationship as a teacher who may have more than one
class to attend.

54. In the following Query, which of the following can be placed in the Query's blank portion to display the
salary from highest to lowest amount, and sorting the employs name alphabetically?
SELECT *
FROM instructor
ORDER BY salary ____, name ___;
Ascending, Descending
Asc, Desc
Desc, Asc
All of the above
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 Answer: C
Explanation: To sort the salary from highest to lowest amount and display the employee's name
alphabetically, one can use the "Desc and Asc" in the above-given Query.

55. A Database Management System is a type of _________software.

(a) It is a type of system software (b) It is a kind of application software
(c) It is a kind of general software (d) Both A and C
Answer: A
Explanation: The DBMS (or Database Management System) is a kind of system software used for several
operations such as creating tables/databases, storing data, managing databases. It also allows modifying the
data stored in the database as well.

56. The term "FAT" is stands for_____

(a) File Allocation Tree (b) File Allocation Table
(c) File Allocation Graph All of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: The term "FAT" can be described as a file structure (or file architecture). In which all the
information about the files where they are stored and where all these files need to be stored or in which
directory, all that information generally stored in the file structure. Therefore the Operating system creates
a table in which all the files and clusters are stored, known as the file allocation table.

57. Which of the following can be considered as the maximum size that is supported by FAT?
(a) 8GB (b) 4GB
(c) 4TB (d) None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: The files with a size of less than 4 GB or equal to 4GB are easily supported by the FAT. All files
with a size greater than the maximum size (or is 4Gb) are not supported by the FAT.

58. The term "NTFS" refers to which one of the following?

(a) New Technology File System (b) New Tree File System
(c) New Table type File System (d) Both A and C
Answer: A
Explanation: In the old operating systems, the file structure used to store and manage files is called the FAT
32 ( or File Allocation Table). Later, when the technology evolves with time, a new type of file system is
introduced, known as the New Technology File System. It overcomes all the drawbacks, issues that exist in
FAT file architecture and has many other new features such as it is fast, it can handle files whose size is even
greater than 4 GB.

59. A huge collection of the information or data accumulated form several different sources is known as
________:
(a) Data Management (b) Data Mining
(c) Data Warehouse (d) Both B and C
Answer: C
Explanation: A huge collection of different types of data/information which collected from many different
sources stored in one place is called a data warehouse. It works just like the standard warehouse, which is
generally a type of holding area/building to store the different types of different goods in huge quantities
until they are further distributed. Therefore the correct answer is Data Warehouse.
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60. Which one of the following refers to the "data about data"?
(a) Directory (b) Sub Data
(b) Warehouse (d) Meta Data
Answer: D
Explanation: The Mata Data refers to the type of data that describes the other data or information.
A general file or document is nothing more than a sequence of bytes that contains information like file
name, file size, and date & time when the document was created or modified.

To understand it in more details, consider the following example:

For a common music file, the metadata may include the singer's name, the year it was released, and the
lyrics, etc.

61. To which of the following the term "DBA" referred?

(a) Data Bank Administrator (b) Database Administrator
(c) Data Administrator (d) None of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: The term "DBA" refers to the Database Administrator that manages the whole database and
updates the database on a regular basis. In short, the database administrator has the responsibility of the
whole database and to maintain it in an optimal & stable state.

62. In general, a file is basically a collection of all related______.

(a) Rows & Columns (b) Fields
(c) Database (d) Records
Answer: D
Explanation: Whenever we have some related data, information or records, we collect all those related data
(or records), put them together, store them in one place, and give that collection a name that is known as a
file.

63. The term "Data" refers to:

(a) The electronic representation of the information( or data)
(b) Basic information
(c) Row Facts and figures
(d) Both A and C
Answer: C
Explanation: In general, the term "data" refers to the row facts and figure, whereas the information referred
to as the data, which is really important for someone or a particular person. Therefore the correct answer is
C.

64. Rows of a relation are known as the _______.

(a) Degree (b) Tuples
(c) Entity (d) All of the above
Answer: D
Explanation: In SQL, the relation is represented by a table, and a table is a collection of rows and columns.
Therefore the collection of rows & columns is called the table, whereas a table is known as the relation in
the SQL. So in a relation (or we can say table), rows are called the tuples. So, the correct answer will be
tuples.

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65. Which of the following refers to the number of tuples in a relation?
(a) Entity (b) Column
(c) Cardinality (d) None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: Cardinality refers to the number of tuples of relation because cardinality represents the
number of tuples in a relation.
To understand it in more detail, consider the following given example:
Suppose we have a relation (or table) that contains 30 tuples (or Rows) and four columns, so the cardinality
of our relation will be 30.

66. Which one of the following is a type of Data Manipulation Command?

(a) Create (b) Alter
(c) Delete (d) All of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: In data manipulation language, the command like select, insert, update, and delete is used to
manipulate the information (or data, records), for example create a table, update table delete table, etc.
Therefore the correct answer is C.

67. Which of the following command is a type of Data Definition language command?
(a) Create (b) Update
(c) Delete (d) Merge
Answer: A
Explanation: The Data definition language is generally used to maintain or define the structure of the
database. For example, creating a table, drop table, alter table. In short, we can say that the command of
data definition languages is used to work on the table's schemas inside the database.

68. In a relation database, every tuples divided into the fields are known as the______.
(a) Queries (b) Domains
(c) Relations (d) All of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: In a database, the number of rows inside a table is known as tuples, and if we further divide
those tuples (or rows) into those fields, they become the domains. So the correct answer will be B.

69. The term "TCL" stands for_____.

(a) Ternary Control Language (b) Transmission Control Language
(c) Transaction Central Language (d) Transaction Control Language
Answer: D
Explanation: The term "TCL" refers to the Transaction Control Language, which is another language just like
the "DDL" and "DML". The commands like commit, save point, rollback come under the TCL used to control
the transactions. Therefore the correct answer will be D.

70. In the relational table, which of the following can also be represented by the term "attribute"?
(a) Entity (b) Row
(c) Column (d) Both B &C
Answer: C
Explanation: In the database, the number of rows inside a table is called the tuples, and the numbers of
columns are known as the attributes. Therefore the correct answer is C.
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71. Which of the following refers to the number of attributes in a relation?
(a) Degree (b) Row
(c) Column (d) All of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: The column inside the table is called the attribute, and the total number of attributes inside
the table is called the degree. So, here as we can see, degree refers to the number of attributes in a relation.
Therefore the correct answer is C.

72. What is the relation calculus?

(a) It is a kind of procedural language (b) It is a non-procedural language
(b) It is a high-level language (d) It is Data Definition language
Answer: B
Explanation: In database management systems, relation calculus is a type of non-procedural query language
that describes what data needs to be retrieved. However, it does not explain how to retrieve the data.

73. Which one of the following refers to the total view of the database content?
(a) Conceptual view (b) Physical view
(c) Internal view (d) External view
Answer: A
Explanation: The conceptual view refers to the total view of the content available in the database.
Therefore the correct answer is A.

74. The term "ODBC" stands for_____

(a) Oral database connectivity (b) Oracle database connectivity
(c) Open database connectivity (d) Object database connectivity
Answer: C
Explanation: The term "ODBC" refers to the Open Database Connectivity that is a SQL based programming
interface introduced by Microsoft.

75. Which of the following is used in the application programs to request data from the database
management system?
(a) Data Manipulation language (b) Data Definition Language
(c) Data Control Language (d) All of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: To fetch data from the database management system, generally, the "select" statement is
used. Therefore, the Data Manipulation Language is used in the application programs while requesting the
data from the database management system.

76. Which one of the following command is used to delete the existing row in a table?
(a) Delete (b) Update
(c) Insert (d) None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: To delete an existing row in a table the generally, the "delete" command is used. The "delete"
command is one of the commands that belong to the Data manipulation language.

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77. Which of the following commands is used to save any transaction permanently into the database?
(a) Commit (b) Rollback
(c) Savepoint (d) None of the above
Answer: A
Explanation: The Transaction Control Language is used while working with the transactions. To save any
transaction permanently into the database generally, the "commit" command is used, by which any changes
get reflected permanently into the database, and they become irreversible.

78. Which one of the following commands is used for removing (or deleting) a relation forms the SQL
database?
(a) Delete (b) Drop
(c) Remove (d) All of the above
Answer: B
Explanation: To removing( or deleting) a relation, the "drop" command is used instead of delete because
here we are working on the objects of the database. So, to maintain the objects of a database, the Data
definition language is used. Therefore the "drop" command is used to delete a relation form a database
instead of using the "delete" command.

79. Which one of the following commands is used to restore the database to the last committed state?
(a) Savepoint (c) Rollback
(c) Commit (d) Both A & B
Answer: B
Explanation: As we all know that while working with the Transactions, the Transaction Control Language is
used. To restore the database to the last committed state ( or to undo the latest changes), the "rollback"
command is used that belongs to the Transaction Control Language.

79. The term "DFD" stands for?

(a) Data file diagram (b) Data flow document
(c) Data flow diagram (d) None of the above
Answer: C
Explanation: The term"DFD" stands for the Data Flow Diagram, and to represent the flow of the data( or
information), the data flow diagram is used. The data flow diagram also helps in understanding how the data
is managed in the application. Therefore the correct answer is C.

80. Which of the following is the property of transaction that protects data from system failure?
(a) Atomicity (b) Isolation
(c) Durability (d) Consistency
Answer - C
Explanation : The property durability protects data from system failure.

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 Object Oriented Technology and Java Programming

Object-Oriented Technology is a programming paradigm that organizes software design around objects, which are
instances of classes that encapsulate data and behavior. It focuses on the concepts of abstraction, encapsulation,
inheritance, and polymorphism. Java is a popular programming language that incorporates object-oriented
principles and is widely used for developing various applications, including web, mobile, and enterprise systems.

Key Concepts in Object-Oriented Technology:

 Class: A blueprint or template that defines the attributes and behaviors of objects.
 Object: An instance of a class that represents a real-world entity and has its own state and behavior.
 Abstraction: The process of simplifying complex entities by representing only the essential features and
hiding unnecessary details.
 Encapsulation: The bundling of data and methods within a class, where data is protected and accessed
through methods.
 Inheritance: The mechanism by which a class inherits properties and behaviors from a parent class, allowing
for code reuse and hierarchy.
 Polymorphism: The ability of an object to take on multiple forms or have different behaviors based on the
context, achieved through method overriding and method overloading.
 Object-Oriented Analysis (OOA): The process of identifying and modeling the requirements of a system
using object-oriented techniques.
 Object-Oriented Design (OOD): The process of designing the structure and relationships between objects
based on the analysis model.
 Object-Oriented Programming (OOP): The practice of implementing software systems using object-oriented
principles, focusing on classes, objects, and interactions.
 Association: A relationship between two classes that indicates a connection or dependency between their
objects.
 Aggregation: A type of association that represents a whole-part relationship, where one class contains
instances of another class.
 Composition: A stronger form of aggregation where the whole object controls the lifecycle of the part
object.
 Polymorphism: The ability of an object to take on different forms or exhibit different behaviors based on its
context.
 Method Overloading: Defining multiple methods with the same name but different parameters in a class.
 Method Overriding: Providing a new implementation for a method in a subclass that is already defined in its
super class.

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 Java Programming:
Java is a widely used programming language that follows the principles of object-oriented programming. It
was developed by James Gosling and his team at Sun Microsystems (later acquired by Oracle Corporation).
Java provides a robust and platform-independent environment for building applications, thanks to its "write
once, run anywhere" philosophy.

Key Features of Java:

 Object-Oriented: Java supports object-oriented programming with features like classes, objects,
inheritance, and polymorphism.
 Platform-Independent: Java programs can run on any platform that has a Java Virtual Machine
(JVM) installed, ensuring portability.
 Memory Management: Java handles memory management through automatic garbage collection,
relieving developers from manual memory management.
 Exception Handling: Java provides robust exception handling mechanisms to handle runtime errors
and exceptions.
 Multithreading: Java supports concurrent programming by allowing multiple threads of execution to
run simultaneously.
 Standard Library: Java comes with a vast standard library that provides ready-to-use classes and
APIs for various functionalities.
 Security: Java incorporates built-in security features to create secure applications, including
sandboxing and access control.
 Networking: Java offers extensive networking capabilities, allowing developers to create networked
applications easily.
 Rich Ecosystem: Java has a large and active developer community, with numerous frameworks,
libraries, and tools available for various application development needs.

Here are some questions and answers related to Object-Oriented Technology:

Q: What is Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: Object-Oriented Technology is a programming paradigm that organizes software design around objects,
which are instances of classes that encapsulate data and behavior.

Q: What are the main principles of Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: The main principles of Object-Oriented Technology are abstraction, encapsulation, inheritance, and
polymorphism.

Q: What is a class in Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: A class is a blueprint or template that defines the attributes and behaviors that an object can possess.

Q: What is an object in Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: An object is an instance of a class that represents a real-world entity and has its own state and behavior.

Q: What is encapsulation in Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: Encapsulation is the bundling of data and methods within a class, where data is protected and accessed
through methods.

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Q: What is inheritance in Object-Oriented Technology?
Ans: Inheritance is the mechanism by which a class inherits properties and behaviors from a parent class,
allowing for code reuse and hierarchy.

Q: What is polymorphism in Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: Polymorphism is the ability of an object to take on multiple forms or have different behaviors based on the
context, achieved through method overriding and method overloading.

Q: What is the difference between association and aggregation in Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: Association represents a relationship between two classes indicating a connection or dependency, while
aggregation represents a whole-part relationship where one class contains instances of another class.

Q: What is the difference between composition and aggregation in Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: Composition is a stronger form of aggregation where the whole object controls the lifecycle of the part
object.

Q: What are the benefits of Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: The benefits of Object-Oriented Technology include code reusability, modularity, encapsulation, easier
maintenance, and scalability.

Q: What is the role of Object-Oriented Analysis (OOA) in software development?

Ans: Object-Oriented Analysis is the process of identifying and modeling the requirements of a system using
object-oriented techniques to create a clear understanding of the problem domain.

Q: What is the role of Object-Oriented Design (OOD) in software development?

Ans: Object-Oriented Design is the process of designing the structure and relationships between objects based on
the analysis model to create an efficient and maintainable software solution.

Q: What is the purpose of method overloading in Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: Method overloading allows multiple methods with the same name but different parameters to be defined in
a class, providing flexibility and ease of use.

Q: What is the purpose of method overriding in Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: Method overriding allows a subclass to provide a new implementation for a method that is already defined
in its super class.

Q: What is the difference between object-oriented programming and procedural programming?

Ans: Object-oriented programming focuses on objects and their interactions, while procedural programming
focuses on procedures or functions that operate on data.

Q: What is the difference between abstraction and encapsulation in Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: Abstraction focuses on hiding unnecessary details and exposing essential features, while encapsulation
bundles data and methods together within a class.

Q: What is the role of constructors in Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: Constructors are special methods used to initialize objects. They are called automatically when an object is
created.

Q: What is the purpose of the "this" keyword in Java?

Ans: The "this" keyword refers to the current instance of a class and is used to differentiate between instance
variables and parameters with the same name.

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Q: What is the concept of method overloading in Object-Oriented Technology?
Ans: Method overloading allows multiple methods with the same name but different parameters to coexist in a
class.

Q: What is dynamic polymorphism in Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: Dynamic polymorphism is achieved through method overriding, where the appropriate method is
determined at runtime based on the actual object type.

Q: What is the purpose of the "super" keyword in Java?

Ans: The "super" keyword is used to refer to the super class or parent class and can be used to invoke super class
constructors and methods.

Q: What is the difference between static and non-static methods in Java?

Ans: Static methods belong to the class itself and can be accessed without creating an instance, while non-static
methods are associated with objects and require an instance to be invoked.

Q: What is the concept of inheritance in Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: Inheritance allows a class to inherit properties and behaviors from a parent class, promoting code reuse and
establishing a hierarchical relationship.

Q: What is the role of access modifiers in Java?

Ans: Access modifiers control the visibility and accessibility of classes, variables, and methods. They include
public, private, protected, and default (package-private) modifiers.

Q: What are abstract classes and interfaces in Java?

Ans: Abstract classes are classes that cannot be instantiated and are meant to be extended. Interfaces define a
contract for classes to implement certain methods and can be used to achieve multiple inheritance-like
behavior.

Q: What is the difference between method overriding and method overloading in Java?
Ans: Method overriding involves providing a different implementation of a method in a subclass, while method
overloading involves defining multiple methods with the same name but different parameters within a class.

Q: What is the concept of polymorphism in Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: Polymorphism refers to the ability of an object to take on multiple forms or have different behaviors based
on its context. It is achieved through inheritance and method overriding.

Q: What is the role of the "final" keyword in Java?

Ans: The "final" keyword can be applied to classes, methods, and variables. It indicates that the class cannot be
subclassed, the method cannot be overridden, or the variable cannot be reassigned.

Q: What is the purpose of packages in Java?

Ans: Packages provide a way to organize classes and interfaces into logical groups, allowing for better code
management, reusability, and name-spacing.

Q: What is the concept of composition in Object-Oriented Technology?

Ans: Composition is a form of aggregation where one class contains an instance of another class as a member,
representing a "has-a" relationship.

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 Object Oriented Technology MCQs

1. Who invented OOP?

a) Andrea Ferro b) Adele Goldberg
c) Alan Kay d) Dennis Ritchie
Answer: c
Explanation: Alan Kay invented OOP, Andrea Ferro was a part of SmallTalk Development. Dennis invented
C++ and Adele Goldberg was in team to develop SmallTalk but Alan actually had got rewarded for OOP.

2. Which is not a feature of OOP in general definitions?

a) Efficient Code b) Code reusability
c) Modularity d) Duplicate/Redundant data
Answer: d
Explanation: Duplicate/Redundant data is dependent on programmer and hence can’t be guaranteed by
OOP. Code reusability is done using inheritance. Modularity is supported by using different code files and
classes. Codes are more efficient because of features of OOP.

3. Which was the first purely object oriented programming language developed?
a) Kotlin b) SmallTalk
c) Java d) C++
Answer: b
Explanation: SmallTalk was the first programming language developed which was purely object oriented. It
was developed by Alan Kay. OOP concept came into the picture in 1970’s.

4. Which header file is required in C++ to use OOP?

a) OOP can be used without using any header file
b) stdlib.h
c) iostream.h
d) stdio.h
Answer: a
Explanation: We need not include any specific header file to use OOP concept in C++, only specific functions
used in code need their respective header files to be included or classes should be defined if needed.

5. Why Java is Partially OOP language?

a) It allows code to be written outside classes
b) It supports usual declaration of primitive data types
c) It does not support pointers
d) It doesn’t support all types of inheritance
Answer: b
Explanation: As Java supports usual declaration of data variables, it is partial implementation of OOP.
Because according to rules of OOP, object constructors must be used, even for declaration of variables.

6. Which feature of OOP is indicated by the following code?

class student{ int marks; };
class topper:public student{ int age; topper(int age){ this.age=age; } };
a) Encapsulation and Inheritance b) Inheritance and polymorphism
c) Polymorphism d) Inheritance
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 Answer: a
Explanation: Encapsulation is indicated by use of classes. Inheritance is shown by inheriting the student
class into topper class. Polymorphism is not shown here because we have defined the constructor in the
topper class but that doesn’t mean that default constructor is overloaded.

11. The feature by which one object can interact with another object is _____________
a) Message reading b) Message Passing
c) Data transfer d) Data Binding
Answer: b
Explanation: The interaction between two object is called the message passing feature. Data transfer is not
a feature of OOP. Also, message reading is not a feature of OOP.

12. Which among the following, for a pure OOP language, is true?
a) The language should follow at least 1 feature of OOP
b) The language must follow only 3 features of OOP
c) The language must follow all the rules of OOP
d) The language should follow 3 or more features of OOP
Answer: c
Explanation: The language must follow all the rules of OOP to be called a purely OOP language. Even if a
single OOP feature is not followed, then it’s known to be a partially OOP language.

13. How many types of access specifiers are provided in OOP (C++)?
a) 4 b) 3
c) 2 d) 1
Answer: b
Explanation: Only 3 types of access specifiers are available. Namely, private, protected and public. All these
three can be used according to the need of security of members.

14. In multilevel inheritance, which is the most significant feature of OOP used?
a) Code efficiency b) Code readability
c) Flexibility d) Code reusability
Answer: d
Explanation: The classes using multilevel inheritance will use the code in all the subsequent subclasses if
available. Hence the most significant feature among the options given is code reusability. This feature is
generally intended to use the data values and reuse the redundant functions.

15. What is encapsulation in OOP?

a) It is a way of combining various data members and member functions that operate on those data
members into a single unit
b) It is a way of combining various data members and member functions into a single unit which can
operate on any data
c) It is a way of combining various data members into a single unit
d) It is a way of combining various member functions into a single unit
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a way of combining both data members and member functions, which operate on those
data members, into a single unit. We call it a class in OOP generally. This feature have helped us modify the
structures used in C language to be upgraded into class in C++ and other languages.
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6. Which of the following is not true about polymorphism?
a) Helps in redefining the same functionality
b) Increases overhead of function definition always
c) It is feature of OOP
d) Ease in readability of program
Answer: b
Explanation: It never increases function definition overhead, one way or another if you don’t use
polymorphism, you will use the definition in some other way, so it actually helps to write efficient codes.

18. What is an abstraction in object-oriented programming?

a) Hiding the implementation and showing only the features
b) Hiding the important data
c) Hiding the implementation
d) Showing the important data
Answer: a
Explanation: It includes hiding the implementation part and showing only the required data and features to
the user. It is done to hide the implementation complexity and details from the user. And to provide a good
interface in programming.

19. Which among the following can show polymorphism?

a) Overloading && b) Overloading <<
c) Overloading || d) Overloading +=
Answer: b
Explanation: Only insertion operator can be overloaded among all the given options. And the polymorphism
can be illustrated here only if any of these is applicable of being overloaded. Overloading is type of
polymorphism.

20. In which access should a constructor be defined, so that object of the class can be created in any function?
a) Any access specifier will work b) Private
c) Public d) Protected
Answer: c
Explanation: Constructor function should be available to all the parts of program where the object is to be
created. Hence it is advised to define it in public access, so that any other function is able to create objects.

21. The copy constructors can be used to ________

a) Copy an object so that it can be passed to another primitive type variable
b) Copy an object for type casting
c) Copy an object so that it can be passed to a function
d) Copy an object so that it can be passed to a class
Answer: c
Explanation: When an object is passed to a function, actually its copy is made in the function. To copy the
values, copy constructor is used. Hence the object being passed and object being used in function are
different.

22. Which among the following represents correct constructor?

a) –classname() b) classname()
c) ()classname d) ~classname()
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 Answer: b
Explanation: The constructors must contain only the class name. The class name is followed by the blank
parenthesis or we can have parameters if some values are to be passed.

25. What happens when an object is passed by reference?

a) Destructor is called at end of function
b) Destructor is called when called explicitly
c) Destructor is not called
d) Destructor is called when function is out of scope
Answer: c
Explanation: The destructor is never called in this situation. The concept is that when an object is passed by
reference to the function, the constructor is not called, but only the main object will be used. Hence no
destructor will be called at end of function.

26. Which access specifier is usually used for data members of a class?
a) Protected b) Private
c) Public d) Default
Answer: b
Explanation: All the data members should be made private to ensure the highest security of data. In special
cases we can use public or protected access, but it is advised to keep the data members private always.

27. How to access data members of a class?

a) Dot, arrow or direct call b) Dot operator
c) Arrow operator d) Dot or arrow as required
Answer: d
Explanation: The data members can never be called directly. Dot operator is used to access the members
with help of object of class. Arrow is usually used if pointers are used.

28. Which feature of OOP reduces the use of nested classes?

a) Inheritance b) Binding
c) Abstraction d) Encapsulation
Answer: a
Explanation: Using inheritance we can have the security of the class being inherited. The subclass can access
the members of parent class. And have more feature than a nested class being used.

29. Which operator can be used to free the memory allocated for an object in C++?
a) Unallocate b) Free()
c) Collect d) delete
Answer: d
Explanation: The delete operator in C++ can be used to free the memory and resources held by an object.
The function can be called explicitly whenever required. In C++ memory management must be done by the
programmer. There is no automatic memory management in C++.

30. Which of the following is not a property of an object?

a) Properties b) Names
c) Identity d) Attributes
Answer: b
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 Explanation: The names are not property of an object. The identity can be in any form like address or name
of object but name can’t be termed as only identity of an object. The objects contain attributes that define
what type of data an object can store.
Java Programming MCQs

Here is a list of common questions and answers about Java programming:

Q: What is Java?
Ans: Java is a high-level, general-purpose programming language developed by Sun Microsystems (now owned by
Oracle Corporation). It is designed to be platform-independent and can run on various devices and operating
systems.

Q: What are the main features of Java?

Ans: The main features of Java include its platform independence, object-oriented nature, automatic memory
management (garbage collection), strong type checking, and exception handling.

Q: What is the difference between JDK and JRE?

Ans: JDK (Java Development Kit) is a software development environment that provides tools for developing,
compiling, and debugging Java applications. JRE (Java Runtime Environment) is the environment required to
run Java applications. It includes the JVM (Java Virtual Machine) and the Java class libraries.

Q: What is a class in Java?

Ans: In Java, a class is a blueprint or template for creating objects. It defines the properties (attributes) and
behaviors (methods) that objects of that class will have.

Q: What is an object in Java?

Ans: An object is an instance of a class. It represents a specific entity in a program and can have its own state
(values of instance variables) and behavior (methods).

Q: What is inheritance in Java?

Ans: Inheritance is a mechanism in Java that allows a class to inherit the properties and methods of another class.
It promotes code reusability and enables the creation of hierarchical relationships between classes.

Q: What is the difference between abstract classes and interfaces?

Ans: Abstract classes can have both abstract and non-abstract methods and can also have instance variables.
Interfaces, on the other hand, can only have abstract methods and constants (static final variables). A class
can implement multiple interfaces, but it can only inherit from one class (abstract or concrete).

Q: What is the purpose of the "final" keyword in Java?

Ans: The "final" keyword in Java is used to make a variable, method, or class constant and unchangeable. If a
variable is declared as final, its value cannot be modified once assigned. If a method is marked as final, it
cannot be overridden by subclasses. And if a class is declared as final, it cannot be subclassed.

Q: What is exception handling in Java?

Ans: Exception handling in Java allows programmers to handle runtime errors and exceptional situations in a
controlled manner. It involves the use of try-catch blocks to catch exceptions and perform appropriate
actions or error recovery.

Q: What is multithreading in Java?

Ans: Multithreading in Java is the concurrent execution of multiple threads within a single program. Threads are
lightweight processes that can run concurrently and independently, allowing for efficient utilization of
system resources and parallel execution of tasks.

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Q: What is the difference between a constructor and a method in Java?
Ans: A constructor is a special method in a class that is used to initialize objects. It is called when an object is
created using the "new" keyword. A method, on the other hand, is a regular function within a class that
performs a specific action or provides some functionality.

Q: What is method overloading in Java?

Ans: Method overloading is the ability to define multiple methods with the same name but different parameters
in a class. The compiler determines which method to call based on the number, types, and order of the
arguments provided.

Q: What is method overriding in Java?

Ans: Method overriding is the ability to provide a different implementation of a method in a subclass that is
already defined in its superclass. It allows a subclass to provide its own implementation of the inherited
method.

Q: What is the difference between checked and unchecked exceptions?

Ans: Checked exceptions are the exceptions that are checked at compile-time. It means the compiler will enforce
the programmer to handle or declare these exceptions using a "try-catch" block. Unchecked exceptions, on
the other hand, are not checked at compile-time, and the compiler does not enforce handling or declaring
them.

Q: What is the "this" keyword in Java?

Ans: The "this" keyword refers to the current instance of a class. It can be used to refer to instance variables or
invoke other constructors of the same class. It is mainly used to avoid naming conflicts between instance
variables and parameters or to differentiate between local and instance variables.

Q: What is a package in Java?

Ans: A package in Java is a way to organize related classes and interfaces. It provides a mechanism for creating a
namespace and avoids naming conflicts. Packages are hierarchical, and their names are usually written in
reverse domain name format (e.g., com.example.package).

Q: What is method chaining in Java?

Ans: Method chaining is a programming technique that allows invoking multiple methods on the same object in a
single line of code. Each method call returns an object, which is used to call the next method. It enhances
readability and reduces the number of temporary variables.

Q: What is the difference between an ArrayList and a LinkedList?

Ans: An ArrayList is implemented as a resizable array, providing fast random access and efficient iteration. A
LinkedList is implemented as a doubly-linked list, providing efficient insertion and deletion at the beginning
and end, but slower random access.

Q: What is the purpose of the "static" keyword in Java?

Ans: The "static" keyword in Java is used to declare class-level members (variables and methods) that belong to
the class itself, rather than instances of the class. Static members can be accessed without creating an object
of the class.

Q: What is the Java Virtual Machine (JVM)?

Ans: The JVM is a crucial component of the Java platform. It is an abstract machine that provides a runtime
environment for executing Java bytecode. It translates bytecode into machine-specific instructions and
handles memory management, garbage collection, and other runtime tasks.

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Q: What is the difference between an interface and an abstract class in Java?
Ans: An interface in Java is a collection of abstract methods that define a contract for classes to implement. It can
only contain method signatures and constants. An abstract class, on the other hand, is a class that may
contain both abstract and non-abstract methods. It can also include instance variables and constructors.
While a class can implement multiple interfaces, it can only extend a single abstract class.

Q: What is the purpose of the "super" keyword in Java?

Ans: The "super" keyword in Java is used to refer to the superclass or parent class of a derived class. It is used to
call the superclass's constructor, access superclass methods or variables, and invoke overridden methods
from the superclass.

Q: What is the Java API?

Ans: The Java API (Application Programming Interface) is a collection of pre-written classes and interfaces that
provide a set of reusable components and functionality for Java programmers. It includes libraries for tasks
such as input/output, networking, GUI development, database connectivity, and more.

Q: What is the difference between a stack and a heap in Java?

Ans: In Java, the stack is used for storing local variables and method calls. It operates in a last-in, first-out (LIFO)
manner and is automatically managed by the JVM. The heap, on the other hand, is used for dynamic
memory allocation, including objects and data structures. It operates in a more complex manner and is also
managed by the JVM's garbage collector.

Q: What is the difference between a shallow copy and a deep copy?

Ans: In Java, a shallow copy creates a new object that references the same memory location as the original
object. Changes made to the copy will affect the original object, and vice versa. A deep copy, however,
creates a new object with a new memory location and copies the values of all fields, recursively, to the new
object. Changes made to the copy do not affect the original object.

Q: What is the Java ternary operator?

Ans: The ternary operator (?:) in Java is a shorthand conditional operator. It takes three operands: a boolean
expression followed by a question mark (?), a value or expression to be returned if the condition is true,
followed by a colon (:), and a value or expression to be returned if the condition is false.

Q: What are Java annotations?

Ans: Annotations in Java provide metadata about program elements (classes, methods, variables, etc.) that can
be used by the compiler, runtime, or other tools for various purposes. They can be used for documentation,
code generation, runtime behavior configuration, and more.

Q: What is the Java Streams API?

Ans: The Streams API introduced in Java 8 provides a declarative and functional approach for processing
collections of objects. It allows operations such as filtering, mapping, reducing, and sorting to be performed
on streams of data in a concise and efficient manner.

Q: What is the JavaFX framework?

Ans: JavaFX is a rich client application development framework included in the Java SE platform. It provides a set
of graphical and media APIs for creating desktop and mobile applications with rich user interfaces,
animations, multimedia support, and more.

Q: How can you handle concurrent access to shared resources in Java?

Ans: Java provides several mechanisms for handling concurrent access to shared resources, such as
synchronization using the "synchronized" keyword, locks and conditions from the java.util.concurrent
package, atomic variables, and concurrent data structures like ConcurrentHashMap.

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Q: What is the difference between the "==" operator and the "equals()" method in Java?
Ans: The "==" operator in Java is used to compare the equality of two objects based on their memory addresses.
It checks if two object references point to the same memory location. The "equals()" method, on the other
hand, is a method defined in the Object class and can be overridden by classes to define their own equality
criteria. It checks if two objects are equal based on their content or specific criteria defined by the class.

Q: What are checked exceptions and unchecked exceptions in Java?

Ans: Checked exceptions are exceptions that are checked at compile-time, meaning the compiler requires the
programmer to handle or declare these exceptions. Examples include IOException and SQLException.
Unchecked exceptions, also known as runtime exceptions, are exceptions that are not checked at compile-
time, and the compiler does not enforce handling or declaring them. Examples include NullPointerException
and ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException.

Q: What is the purpose of the "transient" keyword in Java?

Ans: The "transient" keyword in Java is used to indicate that a variable should not be serialized when an object is
being serialized. When an object is serialized, its instance variables are converted into a byte stream to be
saved or transmitted. By marking a variable as transient, it is excluded from the serialization process.

Q: What is the purpose of the "volatile" keyword in Java?

Ans: The "volatile" keyword in Java is used to indicate that a variable's value may be modified by multiple
threads. It ensures that any thread reading the variable always sees the most up-to-date value. The use of
volatile variables provides a synchronized and consistent view of shared data across threads.

Q: What is the purpose of the "default" keyword in Java interfaces?

Ans: The "default" keyword in Java interfaces is used to provide a default implementation of a method. It allows
interfaces to evolve without breaking existing implementations. Classes implementing the interface can
choose to override the default method or use it as is.

Q: What is the purpose of the "strictfp" keyword in Java?

Ans: The "strictfp" keyword in Java is used to ensure consistent floating-point calculations across different
platforms. When a class or method is declared with the "strictfp" keyword, all floating-point calculations
inside it adhere to strict IEEE 754 standards, regardless of the underlying platform's floating-point behavior.

Q: How can you handle and log exceptions in Java?

Ans: Exception handling in Java involves using try-catch blocks to catch exceptions and handle them
appropriately. The caught exceptions can be logged using a logging framework like Log4j or java.util.logging,
where the exception details can be recorded for debugging or analysis purposes.

Q: What are the access modifiers in Java, and what do they mean?
Ans: Java provides four access modifiers: public, protected, private, and default (no modifier). They control the
visibility and accessibility of classes, variables, and methods. Public allows unrestricted access, protected
allows access within the same package or subclass, private allows access only within the same class, and
default allows access within the same package.

Q: What is the Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI)?

Ans: The Java Naming and Directory Interface (JNDI) is an API that provides access to naming and directory
services in

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1. Who invented Java Programming?
a) Guido van Rossum b) James Gosling
c) Dennis Ritchie d) Bjarne Stroustrup
Answer: b
Explanation: Java programming was developed by James Gosling at Sun Microsystems in 1995. James
Gosling is well known as the father of Java.

2. Which statement is true about Java?

a) Java is a sequence-dependent programming language
b) Java is a code dependent programming language
c) Java is a platform-dependent programming language
d) Java is a platform-independent programming language
Answer: d
Explanation: Java is called ‘Platform Independent Language’ as it primarily works on the principle of ‘compile
once, run everywhere’.

3. Which component is used to compile, debug and execute the java programs?
a) JRE b) JIT
c) JDK d) JVM
Answer: c
Explanation: JDK is a core component of Java Environment and provides all the tools, executables and
binaries required to compile, debug and execute a Java Program.

4. Which one of the following is not a Java feature?

a) Object-oriented b) Use of pointers
c) Portable d) Dynamic and Extensible
Answer: b
Explanation: Pointers is not a Java feature. Java provides an efficient abstraction layer for developing
without using a pointer in Java. Features of Java Programming are Portable, Architectural Neutral, Object-
Oriented, Robust, Secure, Dynamic and Extensible, etc.

5. Which of these cannot be used for a variable name in Java?

a) identifier & keyword b) identifier
c) keyword d) none of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Keywords are specially reserved words that can not be used for naming a user-defined
variable, for example: class, int, for, etc.

6. What is the extension of java code files?

a) .js b) .txt
c) .class d) .java
Answer: d
Explanation: Java files have .java extension.

7. What will be the output of the following Java code?

class increment
{
public static void main(String args[])
{
int g = 3;
System.out.print(++g * 8);
}
}

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 a) 32 b) 33
c) 24 d) 25
Answer: a

Explanation: Operator ++ has more preference than *, thus g becomes 4 and when multiplied by 8 gives 32.
output:
$ javac increment.java
$ java increment
32

8. Which environment variable is used to set the java path?

a) MAVEN_Path b) JavaPATH
c) JAVA d) JAVA_HOME
Answer: d
Explanation: JAVA_HOME is used to store a path to the java installation.

9. Which of the following is not an OOPS concept in Java?

a) Polymorphism b) Inheritance
c) Compilation d) Encapsulation
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 4 OOPS concepts in Java. Inheritance, Encapsulation, Polymorphism and Abstraction.

10. What is not the use of “this” keyword in Java?

a) Referring to the instance variable when a local variable has the same name
b) Passing itself to the method of the same class
c) Passing itself to another method
d) Calling another constructor in constructor chaining
Answer: b
Explanation: “this” is an important keyword in java. It helps to distinguish between local variable and
variables passed in the method as parameters.

11. What will be the output of the following Java program?

class variable_scope
{
public static void main(String args[])
{
int x;
x = 5;
{
int y = 6;
System.out.print(x + " " + y);
}
System.out.println(x + " " + y);
}
}
a) Compilation error b) Runtime error
c) 5 6 5 6 d) 5 6 5
Answer: a
Explanation: Second print statement doesn’t have access to y , scope y was limited to the block defined
after initialization of x.
output:
$ javac variable_scope.java

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 Exception in thread "main" java.lang.Error: Unresolved compilation problem: y cannot be resolved to a
variable

12. What will be the error in the following Java code?

byte b = 50;
b = b * 50;
a) b cannot contain value 50
b) b cannot contain value 100, limited by its range
c) No error in this code
d) * operator has converted b * 50 into int, which can not be converted to byte without casting
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: While evaluating an expression containing int, bytes or shorts, the whole expression is
converted to int then evaluated and the result is also of type int.

13. Which of the following is a type of polymorphism in Java Programming?

a) Multiple polymorphism b) Compile time polymorphism
c) Multilevel polymorphism d) Execution time polymorphism
Answer: b
Explanation: There are two types of polymorphism in Java. Compile time polymorphism (overloading) and
runtime polymorphism (overriding).

14. What is Truncation in Java?

a) Floating-point value assigned to a Floating type
b) Floating-point value assigned to an integer type
c) Integer value assigned to floating type
d) Integer value assigned to floating type
Answer: b

15. What is the extension of compiled java classes?

a) .txt b) .js
c) .class d) .java
Answer: c
Explanation: The compiled java files have .class extension.

16. Which exception is thrown when java is out of memory?

a) MemoryError b) OutOfMemoryError
c) MemoryOutOfBoundsException d) MemoryFullException
Answer: b
Explanation: The Xms flag has no default value, and Xmx typically has a default value of 256MB. A common
use for these flags is when you encounter a java.lang.OutOfMemoryError.

17. Which of these are selection statements in Java?

a) break b) continue
c) for() d) if()
Answer: d
Explanation: Continue and break are jump statements, and for is a looping statement.

18. Which of these keywords is used to define interfaces in Java?

a) intf b) Intf
c) interface d) Interface
Answer: c
Explanation: interface keyword is used to define interfaces in Java.

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19. Which of the following is a superclass of every class in Java?
a) ArrayList b) Abstract class
c) Object class d) String
Answer: c
Explanation: Object class is superclass of every class in Java.

20. What will be the output of the following Java code snippet?
import java.util.*;
class Arraylists
{
public static void main(String args[])
{
ArrayLists obj = new ArrayLists();
obj.add("A");
obj.add("B");
obj.add("C");
obj.add(1, "D");
System.out.println(obj);
}
}
a) [A, D, C] b) [A, B, C]
c) [A, B, C, D] d) [A, D, B, C]

Answer: d
Explanation: obj is an object of class ArrayLists hence it is an dynamic array which can increase and decrease
its size. obj.add(“X”) adds to the array element X and obj.add(1,”X”) adds element x at index position 1 in
the list, Hence obj.add(1,”D”) stores D at index position 1 of obj and shifts the previous value stored at that
position by 1.
Output:
$ javac Arraylist.java
$ java Arraylist
[A, D, B, C].

21. Which of these packages contains the exception Stack Overflow in Java?
a) java.io b) java.system
c) java.lang d) java.util
Answer: c

22. Which one of the following is not an access modifier?

a) Protected b) Void
c) Public d) Private
Answer: b
Explanation: Public, private, protected and default are the access modifiers.

23. What is the numerical range of a char data type in Java?

a) 0 to 256 b) -128 to 127
c) 0 to 65535 d) 0 to 32767
Answer: c
Explanation: Char occupies 16-bit in memory, so it supports 216 i:e from 0 to 65535.

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24. Which class provides system independent server side implementation?
a) Server b) ServerReader
c) Socket d) ServerSocket
Answer: d
Explanation: ServerSocket is a java.net class which provides system independent implementation of server
side socket connection.

25. Which of the following is not a primitive data type in Java?

a) int b) float
c) string d) boolean
Answer: c) string

26. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int x = 5;
System.out.println(++x);
```
a) 5 b) 6
c) 7 d) Compilation error
Answer: b) 6

27. Which keyword is used to create an object in Java?

a) new b) object
c) create d) instance
Answer: a) new

28. What is the correct syntax to declare a variable in Java?

a) int x; b) variable x;
c) x = int; d) int = x;
Answer: a) int x;

29. Which operator is used to compare two values for equality in Java?
a) = b) ==
c) != d) ===
Answer: b) ==

30. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int x = 10;
int y = 5;
System.out.println(x % y);
```
a) 2 b) 0
c) 1 d) 5
Answer: c) 0

31. Which access modifier provides the highest level of accessibility?

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 a) public b) private
c) protected d) default (package-private)
Answer: a) public

32. What is the output of the following code?

```java
System.out.println("Hello" + 5 + 10);
```
a) Hello510 b) Hello15
c) Hello50 d) Compilation error
Answer: a) Hello510

33. What is the purpose of the "break" statement in Java?

a) To terminate a loop or switch statement
b) To skip the current iteration of a loop
c) To continue to the next iteration of a loop
d) To exit the program
Answer: a) To terminate a loop or switch statement

33. Which of the following is an example of a checked exception in Java?

a) NullPointerException b) ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException
c) ArithmeticException d) IOException
Answer: d) IOException

34. What is the default value of a boolean variable in Java?

a) true b) false
c) 0 d) null
Answer: b) false

35. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int x = 5;
int y = 10;
System.out.println(x > y ? "x is greater" : "y is greater");
```
a) x is greater b) y is greater
c) 5 is greater d) Compilation error
Answer: b) y is greater

36. Which keyword is used to define a constant in Java?

a) static b) final
c) constant d) const
Answer: b) final

37. What is the output of the following code?

```java
String str = "Hello World";
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 System.out
.println(str.length());
```
a) 10 b) 11
c) 12 d) Compilation error
Answer: b) 11

38. Which of the following is not a valid modifier in Java?

a) public b) static
c) final d) virtual
Answer: d) virtual

39. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int[] arr = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5};
System.out.println(arr[5]);
```
a) 1 b) 2
c) 5 d) ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException
Answer: d) ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException

40. What is the purpose of the "finally" block in a try-catch-finally statement?

a) To catch exceptions b) To handle exceptions
c) To clean up resources d) To skip code execution
Answer: c) To clean up resources

49. What is the output of the following code?

```java
System.out.println(Math.pow(2, 3));
```
a) 8 b) 6
c) 5 d) Compilation error
Answer: a) 8

50. Which class is the super class of all classes in Java?

a) Object b) Class
c) Super d) Parent
Answer: a) Object

51. What is the output of the following code?

```java
String str = "Hello";
str += " World";
System.out.println(str);
```
a) Hello b) World
c) Hello World d) Compilation error
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 Answer: c) Hello World

52. Which of the following is not a valid loop statement in Java?

a) for b) while
c) do-while d) repeat
Answer: d) repeat

53. What is the purpose of the "try" block in a try-catch statement?

a) To handle exceptions
b) To define a block of code that might throw an exception
c) To skip code execution
d) To clean up resources
Answer: b) To define a block of code that might throw an exception

54. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int x = 5;
x++;
System.out.println(x);
```
a) 4 b) 5
c) 6 d) Compilation error
Answer: c) 6

55. What is the purpose of the "implements" keyword in Java?

a) To extend a class b) To implement an interface
c) To declare a variable d) To define a method
Answer: b) To implement an interface

56. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int x = 5;
int y = 2;
System.out.println(x / y);
```
a) 2.5 b) 2
c) 2.0 d) Compilation error
Answer: b) 2

57. What is the purpose of the "extends" keyword in Java?

a) To implement an interface b) To declare a variable
c) To define a method d) To extend a class
Answer: d) To extend a class

58. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int x = 10;
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 int y = 20;
System.out.println(Math.max(x, y));
```
a) 10 b) 20
c) 30 d) Compilation error
Answer: b) 20

59. What is the purpose of the "this" keyword in Java?

a) To refer to the current class instance b) To refer to the superclass
c) To create an object d) To invoke a method
Answer: a) To refer to the current class instance

60. What is the output of the following code?

```java
String str = "Hello";
System.out.println(str.charAt(0));
```
a) H b) e
c) l d) o
Answer: a) H

61. Which of the following is a valid identifier in Java?

a) 123abc b) _abc
c) #abc d) *abc
Answer: b) _abc
62. What is the output of the following code?
```java
System.out.println(10 > 5 && 5 < 3);
```
a) true b) false
c) Compilation error d) Runtime error
Answer: b) false

63. Which method is called automatically when an object is created in Java?

a) start() b) init()
c) main() d) constructor
Answer: d) constructor

64. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int x = 5;
int y = 10;
System.out.println(x <= y);
```
a) true b) false
c) Compilation error d) Runtime error
Answer: a) true
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65. What is the purpose of the "synchronized" keyword in Java?
a) To define a synchronized method b) To declare a variable
c) To extend a class d) To implement an interface
Answer: a) To define a synchronized method

66. Which of the following is not a valid comment in Java?

a) /* comment */ b) // comment
c) <!-- comment --> d) /** comment */
Answer: c) <!-- comment -->

67. What is the purpose of the "package" keyword in Java?

a) To define a package b) To import a package
c) To declare a variable d) To implement an interface
Answer: a) To define a package

68. Which of the following is a valid method declaration in Java?

a) int method() { } b) method int() { }
c) void method() { } d) method { }
Answer: c) void method() { }

69. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int x = 5;
int y = 3;
System.out.println(x > y ? "x is greater" : "y is greater");
a) x is greater b) y is greater
c) 5 is greater d) Compilation error
Answer: a) x is greater

70. What is the purpose of the "public" keyword in Java?

a) To define a public method or variable b) To define a private method or variable
c) To define a protected method or variable d) To define a default method or variable
Answer: a) To define a public method or variable

71. What is the purpose of the "default" keyword in Java?

a) To define a default method or variable b) To define a public method or variable
c) To define a private method or variable d) To define a protected method or variable
Answer: a) To define a default method or variable

72. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int x = 10;
int y = 5;
System.out.println(x != y);
a) true b) false
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 c) Compilation error d) Runtime error
Answer: a) true

73. What is the purpose of the "abstract" keyword in Java?

a) To define an abstract class or method b) To define a final class or method
c) To define a static class or method d) To define a synchronized class or method
Answer: a) To define an abstract class or method
74. What is the purpose of the "native" keyword in Java?
a) To define a native class or method b) To define a final class or method
c) To define a static class or method d) To define a synchronized class or method
Answer: a) To define a native class or method

75. Which of the following is a valid way to create a multi-line comment in Java?
a) /* comment */ b) // comment
c) <!-- comment --> d) /** comment */
Answer: a) /* comment */

76. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int x = 10;
int y = 5;
System.out.println(x < y ? "x is less" : "y is less");
```
a) x is less b) y is less
c) 5 is less d) Compilation error
Answer: b) y is less

77. What is the purpose of the "volatile" keyword in Java?

a) To define a volatile variable b) To define a static variable
c) To define a synchronized variable d) To define a final variable
Answer: a) To define a volatile variable

78. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int x = 5;
int y = 3;
System.out.println(x & y);
```
a) 2 b) 3
c) 5 d) Compilation error
Answer: a) 1

79. What is the purpose of the "static" keyword in Java?

a) To define a static method or variable b) To define a final method or variable
c) To define an abstract method or variable d) To define a synchronized method or variable
Answer: a) To define a static method or variable

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80. What is the purpose of the "transient" keyword in Java?
a) To define a transient variable b) To define a static variable
c) To define a synchronized variable d) To define a final variable
Answer: a) To define a transient variable

81. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int x = 10;
int y = 5;
System.out.println(x << y);
```
a) 20 b) 40
c) 80 d) Compilation error
Answer: c) 320

82. What is the purpose of the "final" keyword in Java?

a) To define a final class or method
b) To define a static class or method
c) To define a synchronized class or method
d) To define a final variable or prevent method overriding
Answer: d) To define a final variable or prevent method overriding

83. Which of the following is not a valid type of loop in Java?

a) for b) while
c) do-while d) until
Answer: d) until

84. What is the purpose of the "interface" keyword in Java?

a) To define an interface b) To define a class
c) To define a package d) To define a method
Answer: a) To define an interface

85. Number of primitive data types in Java are?

a) 6 b) 7
c) 8 d) 9
Answer: d) There are 8 types of primitive data types- int, char, boolean, byte, long, float, short, double.

86. What is the purpose of the "enum" keyword in Java?

a) To define an enumeration b) To define a class
c) To define a package d) To define a method
Answer: a) To define an enumeration

87. What is the purpose of the "this" keyword in Java?

a) It refers to the current object b) It refers to the superclass object
c) It refers to the subclass object d) It refers to the parent object
Answer: a) It refers to the current object

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88. Which of the following is not a valid access modifier in Java?
a) public b) private
c) protected d) global
Answer: d) global

89. What is the output of the following code?

```java
String str = "Java Programming";
System.out.println(str.substring(5, 9));
```
a) Java b) Programming
c) Prog d) Runtime error
Answer: c) Prog

90. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int x = 5;
System.out.println(x++ + ++x);
a) 10 b) 11
c) 12 d) Compilation error
Answer: c) 12

91. Which of the following statements is true about method overloading in Java?
a) Two methods with the same name and different return types can be overloaded
b) Two methods with the same name and same return type but different parameter types can be
overloaded
c) Two methods with the same name and same parameter types but different return types can be
overloaded
d) Method overloading is not supported in Java
Answer: b) Two methods with the same name and same return type but different parameter types can be
overloaded

92. What is the output of the following code?

```java
String str = "Hello";
str = str.concat(" World");
System.out.println(str);
```
a) Hello b) World
c) Hello World d) Compilation error
Answer: c) Hello World

93. What is the purpose of the "try-catch

" block in Java?
a) It is used to handle exceptions b) It is used to define a loop
c) It is used to define a conditional statement d) It is used to define a method
Answer: a) It is used to handle exceptions
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94. What is the output of the following code?
```java
int x = 10;
int y = 5;
System.out.println(x >> y);
```
a) 2 b) 5
c) 10 d) Compilation error
Answer: a) 0

95. What is the purpose of the "super" keyword in Java?

a) It refers to the current object b) It refers to the superclass object
c) It refers to the subclass object d) It refers to the parent object
Answer: b) It refers to the superclass object

96. What is the output of the following code?

```java
int x = 5;
int y = 3;
System.out.println(x ^ y);
```
a) 2 b) 3
c) 5 d) Compilation error
Answer: b) 6

97. Find the output of the following program.

public class Solution
{
public static void main(String[] args)
{
byte x = 127;
x++;
x++;
System.out.print(x);
}
}
a) -127 b) 127
c) 121 d) 2
Answer: (a) -127
Explain : Range of byte data in java is -128 to 127. But the byte data type in java is cyclic in nature.

98. What is the output of the following code?

```java
String str = "Hello";
System.out.println(str.lastIndexOf('l'));
a) 1 b) 2
c) 3 d) 4
Answer: d) 4

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100. What is the output of the following code?
```java
int x = 5;
int y = 3;
System.out.println(x ^ y);
```
a) 2 b) 3
c) 5 d) Compilation error
Answer: b) 6

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 Linux / Unix

Linux Operating System

Linux is an open-source operating system kernel originally developed by Linus Torvalds in 1991. It is based on the
Unix operating system and is widely used in various computing devices, from personal computers to servers, mobile
devices, embedded systems, and even supercomputers.

The Linux kernel provides the core functionality of the operating system, including managing hardware devices,
memory, and processes. However, Linux itself is often referred to as a complete operating system, even though it is
technically just the kernel.

One of the defining characteristics of Linux is its open-source nature. This means that its source code is freely
available, allowing individuals and organizations to modify, distribute, and contribute to its development. The open-
source model fosters collaboration and innovation, as a vast community of developers worldwide can contribute
their expertise and improve the operating system.

Linux offers a wide range of features that contribute to its popularity and usefulness as an operating system. Here
are some key features of Linux:

 Open-source: Linux is built on the open-source model, which means its source code is freely available to the
public. This allows developers to view, modify, and distribute the code, fostering collaboration and
innovation.

 Stability and Reliability: Linux is known for its stability and reliability. It is designed to handle high workloads
and can run for extended periods without the need for a reboot. This makes it well-suited for servers and
critical systems where uptime is crucial.

 Security: Linux has a strong focus on security. The open-source nature allows for thorough code review and
prompt fixing of vulnerabilities. Additionally, Linux provides robust security features, including user
permissions, file encryption, secure remote access protocols, and built-in firewall capabilities.

 Multiuser and Multitasking: Linux supports multiple users simultaneously, allowing multiple individuals to
use the system at the same time. It also provides excellent multitasking capabilities, enabling efficient
execution of multiple processes simultaneously.

 Hardware Support: Linux supports a wide range of hardware architectures, making it adaptable to different
computing devices. It has extensive driver support, enabling it to work with a variety of devices, from old
hardware to the latest components.

 Scalability: Linux is highly scalable, meaning it can efficiently handle varying workloads and adapt to
changing demands. It can be deployed on both small-scale devices and large-scale systems, including
clusters and supercomputers.

 Compatibility: Linux provides compatibility with various file systems, including popular ones like Ext4, Btrfs,
and XFS. It can also read and write files from other operating systems, such as Windows and macOS,
allowing for easy data exchange.

 Package Management: Most Linux distributions come with package management systems that simplify
software installation, updates, and removal. These tools allow users to easily manage software packages and
resolve dependencies.

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  Command-line Interface (CLI) and GUI: Linux offers a flexible choice between command-line and graphical
user interfaces. The command-line interface provides powerful control and automation options, while the
graphical user interface (GUI) offers a familiar and user-friendly environment for those who prefer a visual
interface.

 Extensive Software Ecosystem: Linux has a vast library of open-source software applications and utilities
available. Users have access to a wide range of productivity tools, development environments, multimedia
applications, and server software, many of which are free to use.

These features, along with the community-driven development model, have contributed to Linux's widespread
adoption and its use in various domains, including desktop computing, servers, embedded systems, and specialized
devices.

Here is a list of commonly used Linux commands with a brief explanation of each:

 ls: Lists files and directories in the current directory.

 cd: Changes the current directory.
 pwd: Prints the current working directory.
 mkdir: Creates a new directory.
 rm: Removes files and directories.
 cp: Copies files and directories.
 mv: Moves or renames files and directories.
 cat: Displays the contents of a file.
 grep: Searches for a pattern in a file.
 find: Searches for files and directories based on various criteria.
 chmod: Changes the permissions of a file or directory.
 chown: Changes the owner of a file or directory.
 chgrp: Changes the group of a file or directory.
 tar: Archives files into a tarball or extracts files from a tarball.
 gzip: Compresses files using gzip compression.
 gunzip: Decompresses files compressed with gzip.
 ssh: Connects to a remote server using the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol.
 scp: Copies files between a local and a remote system over SSH.
 wget: Downloads files from the web.
 ping: Sends network ICMP echo requests to a specific host to check connectivity.
 ifconfig: Displays or configures network interfaces.
 netstat: Displays network connections and routing tables.
 ps: Lists running processes.
 top: Provides a real-time view of system resource usage.
 kill: Sends a signal to terminate a process.
 df: Displays disk space usage.
 du: Shows disk usage of files and directories.
 history: Displays a list of previously executed commands.
 man: Displays the manual pages for a command.
 sudo: Executes a command with superuser (root) privileges.

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Unix Operating System

UNIX is a powerful, multi-user, multitasking operating system that was developed in the 1970s. It was designed to
provide a stable and reliable platform for running software applications on a wide range of hardware architectures.
UNIX is the foundation for many modern operating systems, including Linux and macOS.

Here are some key features and characteristics of UNIX:

 Multiuser: UNIX supports multiple users simultaneously. Each user has their own account with a unique
username and password. Users can log in and work independently, with their own files, processes, and
permissions.

 Multitasking: UNIX is capable of running multiple tasks or processes concurrently. It efficiently allocates
system resources, such as CPU time and memory, to different processes, allowing them to execute
simultaneously.

 Hierarchical File System: UNIX organizes files and directories in a hierarchical structure, forming a tree-like
directory structure. This allows for easy organization and navigation of files and directories.

 Command-Line Interface (CLI): UNIX primarily uses a command-line interface, where users interact with the
system by entering commands. The command-line interface provides powerful control and automation
capabilities, allowing users to perform complex tasks efficiently.

 Shell: The UNIX shell is a command-line interpreter that allows users to interact with the operating system.
It interprets user commands and executes them by invoking the appropriate system programs. Popular UNIX
shells include Bourne shell (sh), C shell (csh), and Bourne Again shell (bash).

 Portability: UNIX was designed to be highly portable, meaning it can run on different hardware
architectures with minimal modifications. This portability has contributed to the widespread adoption and
longevity of UNIX.

 Networking Capabilities: UNIX has robust networking capabilities, allowing it to function as a server in a
networked environment. It supports various network protocols, such as TCP/IP, and provides tools for
networking tasks, including file sharing, remote login, and network administration.

 Modularity and Extensibility: UNIX follows a modular design, where functionality is separated into small,
independent utilities that perform specific tasks. These utilities can be combined and piped together to
create complex workflows, providing flexibility and extensibility.

 Security: UNIX has a strong focus on security. It provides various security mechanisms, such as user
permissions, file access controls, and authentication protocols, to protect system resources and user data.

 Large Software Ecosystem: UNIX has a vast collection of software applications and tools available, both
proprietary and open source. This rich software ecosystem allows users to choose from a wide range of
software solutions for various purposes.

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Here is a list of commonly used UNIX commands along with a brief explanation of each:

 ls: Lists files and directories in the current directory.

 cd: Changes the current directory.
 pwd: Prints the current working directory.
 mkdir: Creates a new directory.
 rm: Removes files and directories.
 cp: Copies files and directories.
 mv: Moves or renames files and directories.
 cat: Displays the contents of a file.
 grep: Searches for a pattern in a file.
 find: Searches for files and directories based on various criteria.
 chmod: Changes the permissions of a file or directory.
 chown: Changes the owner of a file or directory.
 chgrp: Changes the group of a file or directory.
 tar: Archives files into a tarball or extracts files from a tarball.
 gzip: Compresses files using gzip compression.
 gunzip: Decompresses files compressed with gzip.
 ssh: Connects to a remote server using the Secure Shell (SSH) protocol.
 scp: Copies files between a local and a remote system over SSH.
 wget: Downloads files from the web.
 ping: Sends network ICMP echo requests to a specific host to check connectivity.
 ifconfig: Displays or configures network interfaces.
 netstat: Displays network connections and routing tables.
 ps: Lists running processes.
 top: Provides a real-time view of system resource usage.
 kill: Sends a signal to terminate a process.
 df: Displays disk space usage.
 du: Shows disk usage of files and directories.
 history: Displays a list of previously executed commands.
 man: Displays the manual pages for a command.
 sudo: Executes a command with superuser (root) privileges.

These commands are commonly used in UNIX-based operating systems, such as Linux and macOS. It's important
to note that there are variations and additional options for each command depending on the specific UNIX
variant or distribution. It's recommended to refer to the manual pages (man) for a more comprehensive
understanding of each command and its available options.

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 Design and Analysis of Algorithms

Design and Analysis of Algorithms is a field of study in computer science that focuses on the design, analysis, and
optimization of algorithms. It involves developing efficient algorithms to solve various computational problems and
analyzing their performance in terms of time complexity, space complexity, and other factors.

Here are some key concepts and components related to the Design and Analysis of Algorithms:

 Algorithm Design: This involves the process of formulating a step-by-step approach to solving a problem. It
requires understanding the problem requirements, identifying possible solutions, and designing an
algorithm that can produce the desired output.

 Algorithm Analysis: This refers to the evaluation of an algorithm's efficiency and performance
characteristics. It involves analyzing the algorithm's time complexity (how the running time grows with the
input size) and space complexity (how much memory is required).

 Time Complexity: It measures the amount of time an algorithm takes to run as a function of the input size. It
helps in understanding how the algorithm's performance scales with larger inputs. Common time complexity
notations include O(1), O(n), O(log n), O(n^2), etc.

 Space Complexity: It measures the amount of memory an algorithm requires as a function of the input size.
It helps in analyzing the algorithm's memory usage. Similar to time complexity, space complexity is also
expressed using big O notation.

 Algorithm Paradigms: There are various algorithm design paradigms, such as Divide and Conquer, Greedy
Algorithms, Dynamic Programming, Backtracking, and more. Each paradigm provides a systematic approach
to problem-solving and offers different trade-offs in terms of efficiency and correctness.

 Data Structures: Algorithms often operate on data structures like arrays, linked lists, stacks, queues, trees,
graphs, and hash tables. Choosing appropriate data structures is crucial in algorithm design to optimize
performance and enable efficient operations.

 Algorithm Optimization: Once an algorithm is designed, there may be opportunities to optimize its
performance. Techniques like memoization, pruning, early termination, and heuristics can be applied to
improve efficiency and reduce unnecessary computations.

 Complexity Analysis: This involves analyzing the worst-case, best-case, and average-case time and space
complexities of an algorithm. It helps in understanding the algorithm's behavior under different scenarios
and input distributions.

 Algorithm Correctness: Ensuring that an algorithm produces the correct output for all valid inputs is
essential. Techniques like formal proofs, loop invariants, and mathematical induction are used to establish
algorithm correctness.

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  NP-Completeness: Certain problems are classified as NP-complete, meaning that finding their exact
solutions efficiently is considered unlikely. NP-completeness theory helps identify problems that are
inherently difficult and often requires approximation algorithms or heuristics for solving them.

The study of Design and Analysis of Algorithms is crucial for understanding algorithmic efficiency and making
informed choices in algorithm design. It provides the foundation for developing efficient algorithms that can handle
large-scale computational problems effectively.

Here are some objective questions and answers about Design and Analysis of Algorithms for a competitive exam:

Question: What is the purpose of analyzing the time complexity of an algorithm?

Answer: The purpose of analyzing the time complexity of an algorithm is to understand how its performance
scales with the input size. It helps in evaluating and comparing different algorithms based on their
efficiency.

Question: What is the Big O notation used for in algorithm analysis?

Answer: The Big O notation is used to express the upper bound or worst-case time complexity of an
algorithm. It provides a way to describe the growth rate of an algorithm's running time as the input
size increases.

Question: What does the term "space complexity" refer to in algorithm analysis?
Answer: Space complexity refers to the amount of memory or space required by an algorithm as a function
of the input size. It helps in understanding the algorithm's memory usage and efficiency.

Question: What is the significance of algorithm paradigms in designing algorithms?

Answer: Algorithm paradigms provide systematic approaches or strategies for designing algorithms. They
offer different trade-offs in terms of efficiency, correctness, and problem-solving techniques.
Examples include Divide and Conquer, Greedy Algorithms, and Dynamic Programming.

Question: What are the common data structures used in algorithm design?
Answer: Common data structures used in algorithm design include arrays, linked lists, stacks, queues, trees,
graphs, and hash tables. Choosing appropriate data structures is crucial for efficient algorithm
implementation.

Question: What is the difference between best-case, worst-case, and average-case time complexity?
Answer: Best-case time complexity refers to the minimum amount of time an algorithm takes for any input.
Worst-case time complexity refers to the maximum amount of time an algorithm takes for any
input. Average-case time complexity considers the expected time taken for a random distribution of
inputs.

Question: What is the purpose of memoization in algorithm optimization?

Answer: Memoization is a technique used to optimize algorithms by storing previously computed results to
avoid redundant computations. It improves efficiency by reducing the number of repetitive
calculations.

Question: What does NP-completeness imply in the context of algorithmic problem-solving?

Answer: NP-completeness refers to a class of computational problems that are believed to be inherently
difficult and lack efficient algorithms for finding exact solutions. It often requires approximation
algorithms or heuristics for solving them.

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Question: How is the correctness of an algorithm established in algorithm analysis?
Answer: The correctness of an algorithm is established through techniques like formal proofs, loop
invariants, and mathematical induction. These methods ensure that the algorithm produces the
correct output for all valid inputs.

Question: What is the role of complexity analysis in algorithm design?

Answer: Complexity analysis helps in understanding the behavior and performance characteristics of an
algorithm. It provides insights into the worst-case, best-case, and average-case time and space
complexities, aiding in informed decision-making during algorithm design.

These objective questions cover various aspects of Design and Analysis of Algorithms. Understanding these concepts
will provide a solid foundation for algorithmic problem-solving and preparation for a competitive exam.

1. Which of the following data structures is best suited for implementing a recursive algorithm?
a) Array b) Linked list
c) Stack d) Queue
Answer: c) Stack
Explanation: Recursion works on the principle of Last in First Out (LIFO), which is the same principle
followed by the Stack data structure.

2. Which of the following algorithms is an example of a greedy algorithm?

a) Quick Sort b) Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm
c) Bellman-Ford algorithm d) Kruskal’s algorithm for minimum spanning tree
Answer: d) Kruskal’s algorithm for minimum spanning tree
Explanation: Greedy algorithms are those algorithms that make the locally optimal choice at each step in
the hope of finding a global optimum. Kruskal’s algorithm is a greedy algorithm as it chooses the edge with
the lowest weight and adds it to the minimum spanning tree.

3. Which of the following is a dynamic programming problem?

a) Longest Common Subsequence b) Binary Search
c) Depth First Search d) Breadth First Search
Answer: a) Longest Common Subsequence
Explanation: Dynamic programming is a technique where we break a problem down into smaller
subproblems and solve each subproblem only once. Longest Common Subsequence is a problem where we
break down the problem into smaller subproblems and solve them using dynamic programming.

4. Which of the following sorting algorithms has a worst-case time complexity of O(n^2)?
a) Merge Sort b) Heap Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Bubble Sort
Answer: d) Bubble Sort
Explanation: Bubble Sort is an inefficient sorting algorithm with a worst-case time complexity of O(n^2).

5. Which of the following algorithms is used to find the strongly connected components in a directed graph?
a) Kruskal’s algorithm b) Prim’s algorithm
c) Floyd-Warshall algorithm d) Kosaraju’s algorithm
Answer: d) Kosaraju’s algorithm
Explanation: Kosaraju’s algorithm is used to find the strongly connected components in a directed graph.

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6. Which of the following data structures is best suited for implementing a priority queue?
a) Array b) Linked list
c) Stack d) Heap
Answer: d) Heap
Explanation: Priority queues are used to maintain a set of elements with keys. A heap is the best data
structure to implement a priority queue because it provides efficient insertion, deletion, and retrieval of the
minimum (or maximum) element.

7. Which of the following algorithms is used to find the shortest path between two vertices in a graph?
a) Breadth First Search b) Depth First Search
c) Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm d) Bellman-Ford algorithm
Answer: c) Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm
Explanation: Dijkstra’s algorithm is used to find the shortest path between two vertices in a graph.

8. Which of the following data structures is best suited for implementing a hash table?
a) Array b) Linked list
c) Stack d) Queue
Answer: a) Array
Explanation: Hash tables are implemented using arrays.

9. Which of the following algorithms is used to find the minimum spanning tree of a weighted graph?
a) Kruskal’s algorithm b) Prim’s algorithm
c) Floyd-Warshall algorithm d) Bellman-Ford algorithm
Answer: a) Kruskal’s algorithm or b) Prim’s algorithm
Explanation: Kruskal’s algorithm and Prim’s algorithm are both used to find the minimum spanning tree of a
weighted graph. Kruskal’s algorithm works by selecting the edges with the lowest weight until all vertices
are connected, while Prim’s algorithm starts with a single vertex and adds the minimum weight edges that
connect it to other vertices until all vertices are connected.

10. Which of the following algorithms is used to find the articulation points in a graph?
a) Bellman-Ford algorithm b) Floyd-Warshall algorithm
c) Depth First Search d) Kruskal’s algorithm
Answer: c) Depth First Search
Explanation: Depth First Search is used to find the articulation points in a graph.

11. Which of the following algorithms is used to find the shortest path between all pairs of vertices in a
graph?
a) Breadth First Search b) Depth First Search
c) Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm d) Floyd-Warshall algorithm
Answer: d) Floyd-Warshall algorithm
Explanation: Floyd-Warshall algorithm is used to find the shortest path between all pairs of vertices in a
graph.

12. Which of the following algorithms is used to find the longest increasing subsequence in a sequence?
a) Merge Sort b) Heap Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Dynamic Programming
Answer: d) Dynamic Programming
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 Explanation: The longest increasing subsequence problem can be solved using dynamic programming.

13. Which of the following data structures is best suited for implementing a breadth-first search algorithm?
a) Array b) Linked list
c) Stack d) Queue
Answer: d) Queue
Explanation: Breadth-first search uses a queue data structure to traverse a graph.

14. Which of the following algorithms is used to find the diameter of a tree?
a) Breadth First Search b) Depth First Search
c) Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm d) Kruskal’s algorithm
Answer: b) Depth First Search
Explanation: Depth First Search is used to find the diameter of a tree.
15. Which of the following algorithms is used to find the longest path in a directed acyclic graph?
a) Breadth First Search b) Depth First Search
c) Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm d) Bellman-Ford algorithm
Answer: b) Depth First Search
Explanation: Depth First Search is used to find the longest path in a directed acyclic graph.

16. Which of the following algorithms is used to find the minimum number of coins needed to make change
for a given amount?
a) Greedy algorithm b) Depth First Search
c) Breadth First Search d) Dijkstra’s shortest path algorithm
Answer: a) Greedy algorithm
Explanation: The minimum coin change problem can be solved using a greedy algorithm.

17. Which of the following algorithms is used to find the kth largest element in an unsorted array?
a) Quick Sort b) Merge Sort
c) Heap Sort d) Selection algorithm
Answer: d) Selection algorithm
Explanation: The selection algorithm can be used to find the kth largest element in an unsorted array.

18. Which of the following algorithms is used to find the longest common subsequence between two
sequences?
a) Merge Sort b) Heap Sort
c) Quick Sort d) Dynamic Programming

Answer: d) Dynamic Programming

Explanation: The longest common subsequence problem can be solved using dynamic programming.

19. Which of the following algorithms is used to find the minimum vertex cover in a graph?
a) Dijkstra’s algorithm b) Bellman-Ford algorithm
c) Depth First Search d) Hungarian algorithm
Answer: d) Hungarian algorithm
Explanation: Hungarian algorithm is used to find the minimum vertex cover in a graph.

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20. Which of the following algorithms is used to find the minimum spanning tree in a weighted graph?
a) Dijkstra’s algorithm b) Prim’s algorithm
c) Bellman-Ford algorithm d) Kruskal’s algorithm
Answer: b) Prim’s algorithm
Explanation: Prim’s algorithm is used to find the minimum spanning tree in a weighted graph.

21. The two primitive operations of the function Fact(x) are ___ and ___.
a. Indexing an array, comparing two numbers
b. To check if the value of x is 1, To multiply x and Fact(x-1)
c. To check if the value of x is 1, To multiply x
d. To multiply x and Fact(x-1), Compare two numbers
Answer : b) To check if the value of x is 1, To multiply x and Fact(x-1)

22. The two main conditions for theta notation are ___ and___.
a. f(n)=O(g(n)), f(n)≠Θ(g(n)) b. f(n)>O(g(n)), f(n)=Θ(g(n))
c. f(n)≠O(g(n)), f(n)≥Θ(g(n)) d. f(n)>O(g(n)), f(n)>Θ(g(n))
Answer: a) f(n)=O(g(n)), f(n)≠Θ(g(n))
23. Which of the following is used to analyze the efficiency of an algorithm?
a) Time complexity b) Space complexity
c) Both a) and b) d) None of the above
Answer: c) Both a) and b)

24. What does the Big O notation represent in algorithm analysis?

a) Best-case time complexity b) Average-case time complexity
c) Worst-case time complexity d) All of the above
Answer: c) Worst-case time complexity

25. Which algorithm design paradigm focuses on dividing a problem into smaller subproblems and solving
them independently?
a) Divide and Conquer b) Greedy Algorithms
c) Dynamic Programming d) Backtracking
Answer: a) Divide and Conquer

26. Which data structure is best suited for implementing a Last-In-First-Out (LIFO) mechanism?
a) Queue b) Stack
c) Linked List d) Tree
Answer: b) Stack

27. What does space complexity measure?

a) Amount of time an algorithm takes to run b) Amount of memory an algorithm requires
c) Amount of input data an algorithm can handle d) None of the above
Answer: b) Amount of memory an algorithm requires

28. Which complexity class includes problems that are believed to be inherently difficult to solve efficiently?
a) P b) NP
c) NP-complete d) Both b) and c)
Answer: d) Both b) and c) (NP and NP-complete)
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29. Which technique is used to prove the correctness of an algorithm?
a) Loop invariants b) Mathematical induction
c) Formal proofs d) All of the above
Answer: d) All of the above

30. Which algorithmic paradigm makes locally optimal choices at each step to find a global optimum?
a) Divide and Conquer b) Greedy Algorithms
c) Dynamic Programming d) Backtracking
Answer: b) Greedy Algorithms

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 Advance Internet Technology

 The Internet is a global system of interconnected computer networks that use the standard Internet
protocol suite (TCP/IP) to link several billion devices worldwide.

 It is a network of networks that consists of millions of private, public, academic, business, and
government networks, of local to global scope, that are linked by a broad array of electronic, wireless,
and optical networking technologies

 ARPANET adopted TCP / IP in 1983, and from there researchers began to assemble the “network of
network” that become the modern Internet.
 The World Wide Web (WWW or W3) is a system of interlinked hypertext documents that are accessed
via the Internet
 A Website is a set of related web pages served from a single web domain.
 A Home Page, Index Page, or Main Page is a page on a website. A home page usually refers to:

• The initial or main web page of a website, sometimes called the "front page" (by analogy with
newspapers).
• The first page that appears upon opening a web browser program, which is also sometimes called the
Start page.

 A Hyperlink is a reference to data that the reader can directly follow either by clicking or by hovering or
that is followed automatically.

 A Web Browser (commonly referred to as a browser) is a Application Software for retrieving, presenting
and traversing information resources on the World Wide Web Some of the famous browsers are (Safari
(Apple), Google Chrome, Firefox, Internet Explorer, UC Browser (China), Opera, Microsoft Edge, Baidu
(China)

 A Search Engine is a web-based tool that enables users to locate information on the World Wide Web.
Popular examples of search engines are Google, Yahoo, Bing (Made by Microsoft), AOI, Ask.com, Baidu,
Duck Duck GO.
Domain names are used to identify one or more IP Address

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  Data Communication deals with the transmission of digital data from one device to another. Data is
transferred through a pathway called as communication channel which can be physical wire connecting
the devices or may be unguided media like laser, microwave etc. The source of data origination is single
but there may be multiple receivers. A communication channel is of 3 types:

Simplex :- This, communication is Unidirectional i.e. one of the two devices can transmit the data and
the other can only receive the data. For e.g. Radio broadcasting, television broadcasting etc.

Half Duplex: - This communication is Bidirectional. Either of the devices can act as transmitter or receiver
but only one device can transmit the data at one time. For e.g. Walkie- Talkie.

Full Duplex: - Here the communication is in both direction and both the devices can simultaneously
transmit the data. For e.g. Telephone conversation.

The Open Systems Interconnection model (OSI) is a conceptual model that characterizes and
standardizes the internal functions of a communication system by partitioning it into abstraction layers.
The model is a product of the Open Systems Interconnection project at the Data Communication
Simplex: Half duplex: Full Duplex: Open Systems Interconnection model (OSI) International Organization
for Standardization (ISO).

Computer Network Topology

Network Topology is the arrangement of the elements (links, nodes etc.) of a communication network. Network
topology can be used to define or describe the arrangement of various types of telecommunication networks,
including command and control radio networks, industrial field busses and computer networks.

Network Topology is the topological structure of a network and may be depicted physically or logically. It is an
application of graph theory wherein communicating devices are modeled as nodes and the connections
between the devices are modeled as links or lines between the nodes

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 Bus Topology - Every computer and network device is connected to single cable.

Star Topology - All the computers are connected to a single hub through a cable. This hub is the central node
and all others nodes are connected to the central node.

Ring Topology - Each computer is connected to another computer, with the last one connected to the first.

Mesh Topology - It is a point-to-point connection to other nodes or devices. All the network nodes are
connected to each other

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 Tree Topology - It has a root node and all other nodes are connected to it forming a hierarchy. It is also called
Hierarchical topology.

Hybrid Topology - A network structure whose design contains more than one topology is said to be hybrid
topology. Hybrid topology inherits merits and demerits of all the incorporating topologies.

Here is a list of common abbreviations related to "Internet Technology":

 WWW - World Wide Web

 HTTP - Hypertext Transfer Protocol
 HTTPS - Hypertext Transfer Protocol Secure
 URL - Uniform Resource Locator
 IP - Internet Protocol
 TCP - Transmission Control Protocol
 UDP - User Datagram Protocol
 DNS - Domain Name System
 ISP - Internet Service Provider
 LAN - Local Area Network
 WAN - Wide Area Network
 VPN - Virtual Private Network
 FTP - File Transfer Protocol
 SMTP - Simple Mail Transfer Protocol
 POP - Post Office Protocol
 IMAP - Internet Message Access Protocol
 CSS - Cascading Style Sheets
 PHP - Hypertext Preprocessor
 API - Application Programming Interface

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 Computer Graphics & Multimedia

Computer Graphics and Multimedia are two closely related fields that involve the creation, manipulation, and
presentation of visual and audio content using computer technology. While Computer Graphics focuses on the
generation and rendering of visual elements, Multimedia encompasses the integration of various media types,
including graphics, audio, video, and interactive elements.

Computer Graphics:

Computer Graphics deals with the creation, manipulation, and rendering of visual content using computer
algorithms and hardware. It involves techniques for generating and representing images, animations, and 3D
models. Computer Graphics is widely used in various domains, including entertainment, gaming, virtual reality,
computer-aided design (CAD), scientific visualization, and user interfaces.

Key aspects of Computer Graphics include:

 Rendering: Rendering refers to the process of generating 2D or 3D images from a scene description. It
involves techniques such as rasterization, ray tracing, and shading to simulate lighting, materials, and other
visual effects.

 Modeling: Modeling is the process of creating 3D objects or scenes using mathematical representations.
Techniques like polygonal modeling, spline-based modeling, and procedural modeling are used to create
realistic or stylized objects.

 Animation: Animation involves creating a sequence of images or frames that give the illusion of motion. It
includes techniques like keyframing, interpolation, skeletal animation, and particle systems.

 Rendering Techniques: Computer Graphics employs various rendering techniques, including raster graphics,
vector graphics, and ray tracing. These techniques determine how graphics primitives such as points, lines,
and polygons are rendered on the screen.

 Graphics Programming: Computer Graphics programming involves writing code to create and manipulate
visual content. Popular graphics APIs (Application Programming Interfaces) such as OpenGL and DirectX
provide a set of functions and tools to interact with graphics hardware and generate graphics output.

Multimedia:

Multimedia combines different forms of media, including text, images, audio, video, and interactive elements, to
create interactive and immersive experiences. It focuses on integrating these media types to convey information,
entertain, educate, or communicate ideas effectively.

Key aspects of Multimedia include:

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  Integration of Media: Multimedia involves the integration and synchronization of various media elements,
such as images, audio, video, and text, into a cohesive presentation. This integration often requires media
authoring tools and multimedia authoring languages.

 Interactive Multimedia: Interactive multimedia allows users to interact with the content, providing a
dynamic and engaging experience. It includes user interfaces, interactive games, virtual reality, and
augmented reality applications.

 Multimedia Formats and Standards: Multimedia content is typically stored and encoded in various formats,
such as JPEG for images, MP3 for audio, MPEG for video, and HTML5 for web-based multimedia. Standards
like SVG (Scalable Vector Graphics) and HTML5 provide specifications for multimedia content on the web.

 Multimedia Applications: Multimedia is used in various applications, including entertainment (games,

movies, animations), education (e-learning, interactive tutorials), communication (video conferencing,
multimedia messaging), and marketing (advertising, product presentations).

 Multimedia Authoring Tools: Multimedia authoring tools facilitate the creation and editing of multimedia
content. These tools provide features for media integration, synchronization, and interactivity, allowing non-
programmers to create multimedia presentations.

Here is a list of common abbreviations related to "Computer Graphics and Multimedia":

 CG - Computer Graphics
 3D - Three-Dimensional
 2D - Two-Dimensional
 CAD - Computer-Aided Design
 GPU - Graphics Processing Unit
 API - Application Programming Interface
 GUI - Graphical User Interface
 SVG - Scalable Vector Graphics
 VR - Virtual Reality
 AR - Augmented Reality
 MPEG - Moving Picture Experts Group
 JPEG - Joint Photographic Experts Group
 GIF - Graphics Interchange Format
 HTML5 - Hypertext Markup Language version 5
 CSS - Cascading Style Sheets
 UI - User Interface
 UX - User Experience
 HCI - Human-Computer Interaction
 DRM - Digital Rights Management
 FPS - Frames Per Second

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 Computer Graphics and Multimedia MCQs.

1. Which of the following statements define Computer Graphics?

a) It refers to designing plans b) It means designing computers
c) It refers to designing images d) None of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: Computer Graphics refers to designing or generating images using computers.

2. Among the given scientists/inventor who is known as the father of Computer Graphics?
a) Nikola Tesla b) Ivan Sutherland
c) Ada Lovelace d) Marie Curie
Answer: b
Explanation: Ivan Sutherland is considered the father of Computer Graphics. He is the inventor of an
interactive graphics system called sketchpad in 1963.

3. Which of the following are the features of Computer Graphics?

a) Creation and deletion of images by computer only
b) Deletion and manipulation of graphical images by computer
c) Creation and manipulation of graphics by computer
d) Creation of artificial images by computer only
Answer: c
Explanation: Creation and manipulation of graphics (artificial images) by computer are the features of
Computer Graphics.

4. Which of the following is a Computer Graphics type?

a) Raster and Vector b) Raster and Scalar
c) Scalar only d) All of the above
Answer: a
Explanation: Vector graphics are computer-rendered visual art that follows a mathematical formula. Raster
images are made up of thousands of tiny pixels, making them resolution-dependent and ideally suited for
photo editing.

5. Which of the following plane is used for 2D transformations?

a) Three-dimensional plane b) Two-dimensional plane
c) One-dimensional plane d) Four-dimensional Plane
Answer: b
Explanation: A two-dimensional plane is used for 2D transformations. Transformations are useful for
modifying an object’s position, size, orientation, and shape, among other things.
advertisement

6. Which of the following is a Computer Graphics Curve?

a) Bezier Curves b) Implicit Curves
c) Explicit Curves d) All of the above
Answer: d
Explanation: A curve is made up of an unlimited number of points. Except for endpoints, each point has two
neighbors. Explicit, implicit, Bezier and parametric curves are the three types of curves.

7. Who is the first user of computer graphics?

a) William Fetter b) Ivan Edward Sutherland
c) Ada Lovelace d) Nicholas Williams
Answer: a
Explanation: In 1960s William Fetter used computer graphics to create cockpit drawing. He along with Verne
Hudson did research on computer graphics.

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8. Which of the following is the purpose for using clipping in computer graphics?
a) copying b) zooming
c) adding graphics d) removing objects and lines
Answer: d
Explanation: Clipping is a technique for removing objects, lines, and line segments that are outside of the
viewing pane. Several types of clippings are used in computer graphics like:
Point Clipping
Line Clipping
Area Clipping (Polygon)
Curve Clipping
Text Clipping

9. In a graphical system, an array of pixels in the picture are stored in which of the following locations?
a) Frame buffer b) Processor
c) Memory d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: The main purpose of using a framer buffer is to store pixels.

10. Curves in computer graphics is primarily used for which of the following function?
a) To draw different types of objects onto the screen
b) Zooming out a picture
c) Copying a picture
d) Zooming in a picture
Answer: a
Explanation: We frequently need to draw several types of things onto the screen in computer graphics.
Objects are not always flat, and we must draw curves many times in order to draw an object.

11. ________ types of translation are present in computer graphics.

a) 5 b) 3
c) 4 d) 6
Answer: b
Explanation: There are three types of translation techniques in computer graphics: point translation (which
deals with a single point), line translation (which deals with a line), and polygon translation (which deals with
a polygon) (deals with a shape).

12. Bitmap is a collection of ____________ that describes an image.

a) pixels b) algorithms
c) bits d) colors
Answer: a
Explanation: A bitmap is a set of pixels that make up an image. It’s a sort of computer graphics that lets you
store and show photographs on your computer.

13. Which of the following devices provides positional information to the graphics system?
a) Pointing devices b) Both Input devices and Pointing devices
c) Output devices d) Input devices
Answer: b
Explanation: Input devices provide positional information to the system they are often called pointing
devices.

14. Which of the following is defined as the number of pixels stored in the frame buffer of a graphics system?
a) Resolution b) Resolution
c) Depth d) None of the mentioned
Answer: d

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 Explanation: The Resolution is defined as the number of pixels.

15. Which of the following is a primary output device of a graphics system?

a) Printer b) Scanner
c) Video monitor d) Neither Scanner nor Video monitor
Answer: c
Explanation: The video monitor is the commonly used output device since it displays the images on the
screen.

16. Which of the following is used in graphics workstations as input devices to accept voice commands?
a) Speech recognizers b) Touch panels
c) None of the mentioned d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: Speech recognizers allow users to issue voice commands.

17. What is the use of voice system input?

a) To enter data b) To initiate graphics operation and also to enter data
c) To initiate graphics operation d) None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: The voice system input is utilized to start graphics operations or to enter data.

18. Which of the following is defined as the process of elimination of parts of a scene outside a window or a
viewport?
a) editing b) cutting
c) plucking d) clipping
Answer: d
Explanation: Clipping is the process of removing excess content from a project. Clipping is a way of
selectively enabling or disabling rendering activities within a defined region of interest in computer graphics.

19. Which of the following is known as the window opened on the raster graphics screen in which the image
will be displayed?
a) Interface window b) World window
c) World co-ordinate system d) Screen co-ordinate system
Answer: a
Explanation: In layman’s terms, it’s referred to as a graphical user interface (GUI). Users can interact with
electronic equipment by using graphical icons and visual indicators like secondary notation.

20. Which of the following operations can be used to zoom in or out around any axis on a three-dimensional
object from its original position?
a) Rotation b) Shearing
c) Scaling d) Translation
Answer: c
Explanation: Scaling is the process of changing or modifying the size of objects in computer graphics. The
object’s size can be increased or decreased via scaling.

21. Among the following process, which process is known as the elimination of parts of a scene outside a
window or a viewport?
a) editing b) plucking
c) cutting d) clipping
Answer: d
Explanation: Clipping is the process of removing excess content from a project. Clipping is a way of
selectively enabling or disabling rendering activities within a defined region of interest in computer graphics.

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22. Viewing transformation is the process of mapping a world window in World Coordinates to the Viewport.
a) False b) True
Answer: b
Explanation: The viewing transformation is a computer graphics procedure in which the maps represent the
perspective view of an object in world coordinates into the display space of a physical device.

23. Which of the following is defined as the drawing of number of copies of the same image in rows and
columns across the interface window so that they cover the entire window?
a) Zooming b) Panning
c) Tiling d) Roaming
Answer: c
Explanation: ‘Tilling’ is the process of drawing several copies of the same image in rows and columns across
the interface window until the entire window is covered. In computer graphics, the window remains static
while the viewpoint is modified multiple times to accomplish tiling.

24. How many axes do 3D graphics consist of?

a) Two axes b) Three axes
c) Five axes d) One axis
Answer: b
Explanation: The x-axis, y-axis, and z-axis are the three axes that make up a three-dimensional graphic. The
length, breadth, and height of a three-dimensional object are represented by these axes.

25. Which of the following is the most commonly used boundary representation for a 3-dimensional graphics
object?
a) Volume polygon b) System polygon
c) Data polygon d) Surface polygon
Answer: d
Explanation: The most common border representation for a 3-D graphics item is a surface polygon. This
surface polygon encloses the object’s inside. A set of polygons is maintained for a description of the object
in this way of representation.

26. Which of the following is the process of digitizing a given picture definition into a set of pixel-intensity for
storage in the frame buffer?
a) Scan conversion b) True color system
c) Encoding d) Rasterization
Answer: a
Explanation: The digitization of a picture definition into a collection of pixel-intensity for storage in the
frame buffer process is called scan conversion.

27. Which of the following is commonly known as frame buffer on a black and white system with one bit per
pixel?
a) Bitmap b) Pix map
c) Multi map d) All of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: The bit map frame buffer is always 1 bit per pixel.

28. Which of the following algorithm is a faster method for calculating pixel positions?
a) Parallel line algorithm b) Mid-point algorithm
c) DDA line algorithm d) Bresenham’s line algorithm
Answer: c
Explanation: The fastest method DDA for calculating pixel positions is a faster method.

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29. If the boundary is specified in a single color, and if the algorithm proceeds pixel by pixel until the
boundary color is encountered is known as ____
a) Parallel curve algorithm b) Flood-fill algorithm
c) Scan-line fill algorithm d) Boundary-fill algorithm
Answer: d
Explanation: This algorithm proceeds outward pixel by pixel until the boundary color is encountered.

30. Which of the following defines a pixel mask?

a) A string containing 1 and 0 b) A string containing 0 and 0
c) A string containing only 0’s d) A string containing only 1;s
Answer: a
Explanation: Inter-span spacing can be specified in a pixel mask that contains digits 1 and 0.

31. What does an aspect ratio mean?

a) Ratio of vertical points to horizontal points
b) Ratio of vertical points to horizontal points and horizontal points to vertical points
c) Number of pixels
d) Ratio of horizontal points to vertical points
Answer: b
Explanation: The ratio of vertical points to horizontal points and horizontal points to vertical points is known
as an aspect ratio.

32. Which of the following is a correct abbreviation of DDA algorithm?

a) Data differential analyzer b) Direct differential analyzer
c) Digital difference analyzer d) Digital differential analyzer
Answer: d
Explanation: DDA stands for the digital differential analyzer.

33. The Cohen-Sutherland algorithm divides the region into how many spaces?
a) 9 b) 8
c) 7 d) 6
Answer: a
Explanation: The Cohen-Sutherland algorithm divides a two-dimensional space into 9 areas before
determining the visible lines and sections of lines. The sections of interest are seen in the central region.

34. The Cohen Sutherland algorithm is more efficient than the Liang-Barsky algorithm.
a) False b) True
Answer: a
Explanation: Because the Liang–Barsky clipping technique performs as much testing as feasible before
computing line crossings, it is significantly more efficient than other algorithms.

35. Which of the following is used for 3D positioning and modeling, animation, and other application?
a) Spac ball b) Trackball
c) Space ball d) All of the mentioned
Answer: c
Explanation: A space ball is a 3D positioning device.

36. Which of the following can be used to determine the position on the data tablet?
a) Either Signal strength or coded pulse b) Coded pulse
c) Signal strength d) Strip microphones
Answer: a
Explanation: Either Signal strength or coded pulse determines the position on the data tablet.

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37. Which of the following type of perspective projection is also called “Angular Perspective”?
a) Four-Point b) Three-point
c) One-point d) Two-point
Answer: d
Explanation: “Angular Perspective” is another name for Two-Point. The two vanishing points on the line in a
two-point perspective form an angle between them, which is why it is also known as angular perspective.

38. Which of the following type of perspective projection is used in drawings of railway lines?
a) Three-point b) Two-point
c) One-point d) Perspective projection is not used to draw railway lines
Answer: c
Explanation: The One Point projection is commonly used to depict highways, railroad tracks, and buildings.
Only one vanishing point on the horizon line is present in a One-Point perspective, which aids in the creation
of railway tracks.

39. Which of the following representation represents a three-dimensional object?

a) Function b) Point
c) Polygon d) Equation
Answer: d

40. Which part of a picture is considered and saved in exterior clipping?

a) We don’t consider the picture in exterior clipping
b) Picture which is outside the view window
c) Picture which is inside the view window
d) Picture which is on the edges of the view window
Answer: b

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BELTRON PROGRAMMER

Join Telegram
Beltron Vacancy
REGISTRATION NUMBER : CANDIDATE NAME
EXAM DATE : 28-October-2018 EXAM START TIME : 10:00:00
EXAM NAME : BELTRON PROGRAMMER EXAM DURATION : 02:00 Hrs
TOTAL MARKS : 100 TOTAL NO OF QUESTIONS : 100

QID : 1 - Which of the following logic expression is incorrect?

Options:
1) 1 ⊕ 0 = 1
2) 1 ⊕ 1 ⊕ 1 = 1
3) 1 ⊕ 1 ⊕ 0 = 1
4) 1 ⊕ 1= 0
Correct Answer: 1 ⊕ 1 ⊕ 0 =
1

Candidate Answer: 1 ⊕ 1 ⊕ 1 = 1

QID : 2 - Which of the following gates are known as universal gates in Boolean algebra?
Options:
1) NOR, AND
2) NAND, NOR
3) OR, AND
4) NAND, OR
Correct Answer: NAND, NOR

Candidate Answer: OR, AND

QID : 3 - Which one of the following is a complete graph?

Options:
1) Graph contains edges with directions
2) In the graph, all its vertices have the same degree
3) In the graph, a vertex should have edges with all other vertices
4) All options are correct
Correct Answer: In the graph, a vertex should have edges with all other vertices

Candidate Answer: In the graph, all its vertices have the same degree

QID : 4 - The 2’s complement of this string 01010100 is ______.

Options:
1) 10101100
2) 10101010
3) 110100
4) 10101011
Correct Answer: 10101100

Candidate Answer: 10101100

QID : 5 - Which one of the following is the function of a modem?

Options:
1) Encryption and Decryption
2) Converts data to voice
3) Serve as a hardware anti-virus
4) Convert analog signals to digitals and vice-versa
Correct Answer: Convert analog signals to digitals and vice-versa

Candidate Answer: Convert analog signals to digitals and vice-versa

QID : 6 - How many layers are in the TCP/IP model?

Options:
1) 4 layers
2) 5 layers
3) 6 layers
4) 7 layers
Correct Answer: 4 layers

Candidate Answer: 4 layers

QID : 7 - In Computer Network, the term ‘RARP’ stands for ______.

Options:
1) Reverse Address Resolution Protocol
2) Resource Address Resolution Protocol
3) Reverse Address Reflexive Protocol
4) Reverse Address Routing Protocol
Correct Answer: Reverse Address Resolution Protocol

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BELTRON PROGRAMMER

Candidate Answer: Reverse Address Routing Protocol

QID : 8 - Which of the following is not a guided transmission line?

Options:
1) Twisted pair
2) Laser beam
3) Coaxial cable
4) Optical fibre
Correct Answer: Laser beam

Candidate Answer: Twisted pair

QID : 9 - Which of the following are the three phases of communication via circuit switching?
Options:
1) Circuit establishment, Data compression, Circuit disconnect
2) Circuit establishment, Data transfer, Circuit disconnect
3) Data transfer, Data compression, Circuit disconnect
4) Circuit establishment, Switching, Data transfer
Correct Answer: Circuit establishment, Data transfer, Circuit disconnect

Candidate Answer: Circuit establishment, Switching, Data transfer

QID : 10 - In TCP/IP architecture, the port address is of:

Options:
1) 32 bits
2) 64 bits
3) 16 bits
4) 128 bits
Correct Answer: 16 bits

Candidate Answer: 32 bits

QID : 11 -

Options:
1) 1000
2) 7
3) 6
4) 5
Correct Answer: 6

Candidate Answer: 7

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BELTRON PROGRAMMER

QID : 12 -

Options:
1) 526
2) 625
3) 52.6
4) 0
Correct Answer: 625

Candidate Answer: 625

QID : 13 - According to the Standard C specification, what are the respective minimum sizes (in bytes) of the following three data types: short, int and long?
Options:
1) 1, 2, 2
2) 1, 2, 4
3) 1, 2, 8
4) 2, 2, 4
Correct Answer: 2, 2, 4

Candidate Answer: 1, 2, 4

QID : 14 - char txt [20] = “Hello world!\0”;

How many bytes are allocated by the definition above?

Options:
1) 11
2) 12
3) 20
4) 13
Correct Answer: 20

Candidate Answer: 11

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BELTRON PROGRAMMER

QID : 15 -

Options:
1) 512
2) 215
3) 8
4) 0
Correct Answer: 8

Candidate Answer: 215

QID : 16 -

Options:
1) 14
2) 1100
3) 21
4) 110
Correct Answer: 1100

Candidate Answer: 1100

QID : 17 - Which one of the following variables names is not valid?

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BELTRON PROGRAMMER

Options:
1) go_cart
2) go4it
3) _what
4) 4reason
Correct Answer: 4reason

Candidate Answer: _what

QID : 18 -

Options:
1) 12
2) 14
3) 16
4) 10
Correct Answer: 14

Candidate Answer: 14

QID : 19 - What are two predefined FILE pointers in C?

Options:
1) stdout and console
2) console and error
3) stdout and stdin
4) stdio and stderr
Correct Answer: stdout and stdin

Candidate Answer: stdio and stderr

QID : 20 - Which one of the following statements allocates enough space to hold an array of 10 integers that are initialized to 0?
Options:
1) int *ptr = (int *) malloc(10, sizeof(int));
2) int *ptr = (int *) calloc(10, sizeof(int));
3) int *ptr = (int *) malloc(10*sizeof(int));
4) int *ptr = (int *) alloc(10*sizeof(int));
Correct Answer: int *ptr = (int *) calloc(10, sizeof(int));

Candidate Answer: int *ptr = (int *) malloc(10, sizeof(int));

QID : 21 - ______ is usually used by assembly language programmers to remember the operations of a machine.
Options:
1) Mnemonics
2) Hex code
3) ASCII code
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Mnemonics

Candidate Answer: Mnemonics

QID : 22 - RISC stands for ______.

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Options:
1) Reduced Intergraded Set Computer
2) Resource Instruction Set Computer
3) Reduced Instruction Set Computer
4) Resource Instruction System Computer
Correct Answer: Reduced Instruction Set Computer

Candidate Answer: Reduced Instruction Set Computer

QID : 23 - Which one of the following is not considered in a software life cycle model?
Options:
1) Spiral model
2) Prototyping model
3) Capability maturity model
4) Waterfall model
Correct Answer: Capability maturity model

Candidate Answer: Capability maturity model

QID : 24 - Which one of the following step(s) is/are followed by system design?
Options:
1) Specification of system output
2) Development of system flowchart
3) Development of program specifications
4) All options are correct
Correct Answer: All options are correct

Candidate Answer: Development of system flowchart

QID : 25 - Cost-Benefit Analysis is performed during which phase?

Options:
1) Design phase
2) Analysis phase
3) Maintenance phase
4) Feasibility study phase
Correct Answer: Feasibility study phase

Candidate Answer: Analysis phase

QID : 26 - Where are the cookies stored?

Options:
1) On the server side
2) In web.xml
3) In HTML
4) On the client side
Correct Answer: On the client side

Candidate Answer: On the client side

QID : 27 - Which is used to define the content of web pages?

Options:
1) HTML
2) CSS
3) Java Script
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: HTML

Candidate Answer: Java Script

QID : 28 - What are the main operations of binary sorted tree?

Options:
1) Insertion of elements
2) Deletion of elements
3) Lookup
4) All options are correct
Correct Answer: All options are correct

Candidate Answer: All options are correct

QID : 29 - Which of the following sorting is not suitable for large data sets?
Options:
1) Heap sort
2) Merge sort
3) Quick sort
4) Bubble sort
Correct Answer: Bubble sort

Candidate Answer: Bubble sort

QID : 30 - Which one is a technique to convert a range of key values into a range of indexes of an array?

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BELTRON PROGRAMMER

Options:
1) Heap
2) Radix
3) Hashing
4) Bucket sort
Correct Answer: Hashing

Candidate Answer: Radix

QID : 31 - What is the number of trees in the forest for the given nodes {0, 1}, {0, 2}, {3, 4}?
Options:
1) 2
2) 3
3) 4
4) None of these
Correct Answer: 2

Candidate Answer: 2

QID : 32 - What is the time complexity of insertion in queue?

Options:
1) o(n)
2) o(1)
2
3) o(n )
4) o(2n)
Correct Answer: o(1)

Candidate Answer: o(n)

QID : 33 - Which one of the following in relational algebra is a binary operator?

Options:
1) Select
2) Projection
3) Cartesian product
4) Rename
Correct Answer: Cartesian product

Candidate Answer: Select

QID : 34 - Which of the following key(s) is/are used in tables for Database design?
Options:
1) Candidate key
2) Primary key
3) Foreign key
4) All options are correct
Correct Answer: All options are correct

Candidate Answer: All options are correct

QID : 35 - Fifth normal form is concerned with which dependency relation?

Options:
1) Join dependency
2) Functional dependency
3) Multivalued dependency
4) Transitive dependency
Correct Answer: Join dependency

Candidate Answer: Transitive dependency

QID : 36 - In a relational database, a data structure that organizes the information about a single topic into rows and columns, is called ______.
Options:
1) block
2) record
3) tuple
4) table
Correct Answer: table

Candidate Answer: block

QID : 37 - DBMS is comprised of tables that made up of rows called ______ and columns called ______.
Options:
1) fields, records
2) records, fields
3) address, fields
4) records, ranges
Correct Answer: records, fields

Candidate Answer: fields, records

QID : 38 - Which of the following is not modification of the Database?

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BELTRON PROGRAMMER

Options:
1) Deletion
2) Insertion
3) Sorting
4) Updating
Correct Answer: Sorting

Candidate Answer: Sorting

QID : 39 - Who proposed the relational model?

Options:
1) Bill Gates
2) E. F. Codd
3) Herman Hollerith
4) Charles Babbage
Correct Answer: E. F. Codd

Candidate Answer: E. F. Codd

QID : 40 - The primary key must be ______.

Options:
1) not null
2) unique
3) Either not null or unique
4) Both not null and unique
Correct Answer: Both not null and unique

Candidate Answer: Both not null and unique

QID : 41 - Which of the following is another name for weak entity?

Options:
1) Child
2) Owner
3) Dominant
4) Father
Correct Answer: Child

Candidate Answer: Child

QID : 42 - DML in database is provided for ______.

Options:
1) design of logical structure of database
2) addition of new structures in the database system
3) manipulation and processing of database
4) definition of physical structure of database system.
Correct Answer: manipulation and processing of database

Candidate Answer: manipulation and processing of database

QID : 43 - Which of the following is not a database object?

Options:
1) Index
2) Sequence
3) Cursor
4) Trigger
Correct Answer: Cursor

Candidate Answer: Sequence

QID : 44 - The following may be regarded as a metadata?

Options:
1) E-R diagram
2) Table
3) Data dictionary
4) View of a database
Correct Answer: Data dictionary

Candidate Answer: View of a database

QID : 45 - Which type of DBMS distributes data processing tasks between the workstation and network server?
Options:
1) Client server
2) Network
3) Relational
4) Hierarchical
Correct Answer: Client server

Candidate Answer: Client server

QID : 46 - Clause which specifies a search condition for a group or an aggregate?

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Options:
1) WHERE clause
2) GROUP BY clause
3) FROM clause
4) HAVING clause
Correct Answer: HAVING clause

Candidate Answer: WHERE clause

QID : 47 - For using a specific database which command is used?

Options:
1) USE
2) LIKE
3) ORDER BY
4) HAVING
Correct Answer: USE

Candidate Answer: LIKE

QID : 48 -

Options:
1) TRUE
2) FALSE
3) 1
4) Compilation error
Correct Answer: FALSE

Candidate Answer: FALSE

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QID : 49 -

Options:
1) 0
2) 2
3) Runtime error
4) Compilation error
Correct Answer: 2

Candidate Answer: Compilation error

QID : 50 - Which of these keywords is not a part of exception handling?

Options:
1) try
2) throw
3) thrown
4) finally
Correct Answer: thrown

Candidate Answer: thrown

QID : 51 -

Options:
1) abc
2) abcd
3) bcd
4) bd
Correct Answer: bcd

Candidate Answer: bd

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QID : 52 -

Options:
1) 6 4 6 9
2) 5 4 5 9
3) 7 8 8 9
4) 4 3 6 9
Correct Answer: 6 4 6 9

Candidate Answer: 7 8 8 9

QID : 53 - Which part of code gets executed whether exception is caught or not?
Options:
1) finally
2) try
3) catch
4) throw
Correct Answer: finally

Candidate Answer: finally

QID : 54 - What is the use of try & catch?

Options:
1) It allows us to manually handle the exception.
2) It allows to fix errors.
3) It prevents automatic termination of the program when an exception occurs.
4) All options are correct
Correct Answer: All options are correct

Candidate Answer: All options are correct

QID : 55 - Which of these keywords are used for generating an exception manually?
Options:
1) try
2) catch
3) throw
4) check
Correct Answer: throw

Candidate Answer: check

QID : 56 - Which of these method is used to explicitly set the priority of a thread?
Options:
1) set()
2) make()
3) setPriority()
4) makePriority()
Correct Answer: setPriority()

Candidate Answer: setPriority()

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QID : 57 -

Options:
1) True true
2) True false
3) False true
4) False false
Correct Answer: False true

Candidate Answer: True false

QID : 58 - Which of these method is used to begin the execution of a thread?

Options:
1) run()
2) start()
3) runThread()
4) startThread()
Correct Answer: start()

Candidate Answer: startThread()

QID : 59 - Which of these method of Thread class is used to Suspend a thread for a period of time?
Options:
1) sleep()
2) terminate()
3) suspend()
4) stop()
Correct Answer: sleep()

Candidate Answer: sleep()

QID : 60 - What is multithreaded programming?

Options:
1) It’s a process in which two different processes run simultaneously.
2) It’s a process in which two or more parts of same process run simultaneously.
3) It’s a process in which many different process are able to access same information.
4) It’s a process in which a single process can access information from many sources.
Correct Answer: It’s a process in which two or more parts of same process run simultaneously.

Candidate Answer: It’s a process in which many different process are able to access same information.

QID : 61 - Thread priority in java is:

Options:
1) integer
2) float
3) double
4) long
Correct Answer: integer

Candidate Answer: double

QID : 62 - What does AWT stands for?

Options:
1) All Window Tools
2) Abstract Window Tools
3) Abstract Window Toolkit
4) Abstract Writing Toolkit
Correct Answer: Abstract Window Toolkit

Candidate Answer: Abstract Window Toolkit

QID : 63 - UML stands for ______.

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Options:
1) Union Method Language
2) Unified Modeling Language
3) Unified Method Language
4) Union Member Language
Correct Answer: Unified Modeling Language

Candidate Answer: Unified Modeling Language

QID : 64 - An object is a/an ______ of a class.

Options:
1) data
2) variable
3) instance
4) method
Correct Answer: instance

Candidate Answer: instance

QID : 65 - Which one of the following is not the Software development cycle phase?
Options:
1) Analysis
2) Coding
3) Testing
4) Abstraction
Correct Answer: Abstraction

Candidate Answer: Abstraction

QID : 66 - A ‘Context diagram’ of data flow diagram is also known as ______.

Options:
1) Level – 1 DFD
2) Level – 0 DFD
3) Level – 2 DFD
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Level – 0 DFD

Candidate Answer: Level – 0 DFD

QID : 67 - Which coupling is the most worst coupling?

Options:
1) Data Coupling
2) Control Coupling
3) Content Coupling
4) External Coupling
Correct Answer: Content Coupling

Candidate Answer: External Coupling

QID : 68 - Which of the following is/are Black box testing techniques?

Options:
1) Pair-wise testing
2) State based testing
3) Both Pair-wise testing and State based testing
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Both Pair-wise testing and State based testing

Candidate Answer: State based testing

QID : 69 - In SDLC, V-Model is known as ______.

Options:
1) Verification and Validation Model
2) Value added and Verification Model
3) Validation and Value added Model
4) Visible and Validation Model
Correct Answer: Verification and Validation Model

Candidate Answer: Verification and Validation Model

QID : 70 - Which model is developed by Mc Call?

Options:
1) Requirement Model
2) Design Model
3) Quality Model
4) Process Improvement Model
Correct Answer: Quality Model

Candidate Answer: Requirement Model

QID : 71 - ‘Integration & test’ phase of ‘Bath tub curve’ is related to ______.

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Options:
1) Hardware reliability
2) Software reliability
3) Both Hardware reliability and Software reliability
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Software reliability

Candidate Answer: Software reliability

QID : 72 - In estimation techniques, PERT stands for ______.

Options:
1) Program Evaluation and Review Technique
2) Project Estimation and Review Technique
3) Program Evaluation and Revised Technique
4) Project Estimation and Recall Technique
Correct Answer: Program Evaluation and Review Technique

Candidate Answer: Project Estimation and Review Technique

QID : 73 - Which is not the software engineering layer?

Options:
1) Quality focus
2) Tools
3) Manufacturing
4) Methods
Correct Answer: Manufacturing

Candidate Answer: Manufacturing

QID : 74 - The main focus of software engineering at developing ______.

Options:
1) cost effective software
2) reliable software
3) Both cost effective software and reliable software
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Both cost effective software and reliable software

Candidate Answer: Both cost effective software and reliable software

QID : 75 - The term RAD is an acronym for ______.

Options:
1) Rapid Application Development
2) Reverse Application Development
3) Required Application Development
4) Required Authorised Development
Correct Answer: Rapid Application Development

Candidate Answer: Required Authorised Development

QID : 76 - Each level in Capability Maturing Model is defined into KPA which is ______.
Options:
1) Key Product Area
2) Key Process Area
3) Key Parallel Area
4) Key Predefine Area
Correct Answer: Key Process Area

Candidate Answer: Key Process Area

QID : 77 - Which of the following document is/are needed before the testing starts?
Options:
1) SRS document
2) Test case document
3) Test summary document
4) All options are correct
Correct Answer: SRS document

Candidate Answer: All options are correct

QID : 78 - What are the three generic phase of software engineering?

Options:
1) What, How, Where
2) Programming, Debugging, Maintenance
3) Analysis, Design, Testing
4) Definition, Development, Support
Correct Answer: Definition, Development, Support

Candidate Answer: Analysis, Design, Testing

QID : 79 - MTTF stands for ______.

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Options:
1) Maximum Time To Failure
2) Mean Time to Failure
3) Minimum Time to Failure
4) Measured Time To Failure
Correct Answer: Mean Time to Failure

Candidate Answer: Mean Time to Failure

QID : 80 - Which is automatically executed by the processor when turning on the computer?
Options:
1) Relating loader
2) Bootstrap loader
3) Boot loader
4) Compile and Go loader
Correct Answer: Bootstrap loader

Candidate Answer: Bootstrap loader

QID : 81 - Which of the following is/are managed by Operating System?

Options:
1) Disks and I/O devices
2) Memory
3) Processes
4) All options are correct
Correct Answer: All options are correct

Candidate Answer: All options are correct

QID : 82 - A process is heavy weight whereas a thread is ______.

Options:
1) shell
2) program
3) resource intensive
4) light weight
Correct Answer: light weight

Candidate Answer: resource intensive

QID : 83 - In disk scheduling algorithms, SSTF stands for ______.

Options:
1) Shortest Seek Time First
2) Shortest Service Time First
3) Sure Seek Time First
4) Shortest Seek Turn First
Correct Answer: Shortest Seek Time First

Candidate Answer: Shortest Seek Time First

QID : 84 - A memory management scheme ‘Paging’ is implemented in ______.

Options:
1) Hardware
2) Operating System
3) Software
4) All options are correct
Correct Answer: Operating System

Candidate Answer: Operating System

QID : 85 - In Operating System, .BAT extension is used for the ______.

Options:
1) Executable files
2) Batch files
3) Boot files
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Batch files

Candidate Answer: Batch files

QID : 86 - ______ is used by the operating system to manage files on hard drives and other computer system.
Options:
1) File Application Table
2) First Allocation Table
3) File Allocation Table
4) First Application Table
Correct Answer: File Allocation Table

Candidate Answer: File Allocation Table

QID : 87 - A problem where a set of blocked processes each holding a resource and waiting to acquire a resource held by another process in the set?

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Options:
1) Dead lock
2) Semaphore
3) Belady’s anomaly
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Dead lock

Candidate Answer: Dead lock

QID : 88 - Which of the following technique is used to speed up communication with slow devices?
Options:
1) Segmentation
2) Caching
3) Fragmentation
4) All options are correct
Correct Answer: Caching

Candidate Answer: Segmentation

QID : 89 - Which scheduling determines the new processes that are admitted to the system?
Options:
1) Short term scheduling
2) Medium term scheduling
3) Long term scheduling
4) Only Short term scheduling and Long term scheduling
Correct Answer: Long term scheduling

Candidate Answer: Short term scheduling

QID : 90 - Which one of the following is the solution to starvation problem?

Options:
1) Aging technique
2) Paging
3) Caching
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Aging technique

Candidate Answer: Aging technique

QID : 91 - What is the waiting time for scheduling?

Options:
1) Completion time + Arrival time
2) Turnaround time – Arrival time
3) Turnaround time – Burst time
4) Arrival time + Turnaround time
Correct Answer: Turnaround time – Burst time

Candidate Answer: Turnaround time – Arrival time

QID : 92 - SCAN algorithms in disk scheduling is also known as ______.

Options:
1) Shortest Seek Time Algorithm
2) Elevator Algorithm
3) First Come First Serve Algorithm
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Elevator Algorithm

Candidate Answer: Shortest Seek Time Algorithm

QID : 93 - Which of the following strategies cannot used to remove deadlock after its occurrence?
Options:
1) Kill one or more processes
2) Rollback
3) Preemption
4) Mutual Exclusion
Correct Answer: Mutual Exclusion

Candidate Answer: Rollback

QID : 94 - In deadlock, Mutual exclusion problem is solved by:

Options:
1) Peterson’s algorithm
2) Elevator algorithm
3) Shortest seek time algorithm
4) FCFS algorithm
Correct Answer: Peterson’s algorithm

Candidate Answer: Peterson’s algorithm

QID : 95 - Which of the following are commonly found on web page?

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Options:
1) Intranet
2) Internet
3) Browser
4) Hyperlinks
Correct Answer: Hyperlinks

Candidate Answer: Browser

QID : 96 - Which of the following is not a component of networking?

Options:
1) Hub
2) Motherboard
3) Routers
4) Switches
Correct Answer: Motherboard

Candidate Answer: Motherboard

QID : 97 - The extension .edu, .nic, .net and .gov are called as ______.
Options:
1) browsers
2) IP address
3) domain codes
4) URL
Correct Answer: domain codes

Candidate Answer: domain codes

QID : 98 - GIF stands for ______.

Options:
1) Global Information Format
2) Graphics Information Format
3) Graphics Interchange File
4) Graphics Interchange Format
Correct Answer: Graphics Interchange Format

Candidate Answer: Graphics Information Format

QID : 99 - In Computer Graphics, TIFF stands for ______.

Options:
1) Triggered Inter File Format
2) Tagged Image File Format
3) Tagged Inter File Format
4) Triggered Image File Format
Correct Answer: Tagged Image File Format

Candidate Answer: Triggered Image File Format

QID : 100 - Animation we create by the help of many online animation tools in the form of ______.
Options:
1) GIF image
2) PDF image
3) JPEG image
4) Audio/Video image
Correct Answer: GIF image

Candidate Answer: Audio/Video image

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QID : 101 - How many two-input AND and OR gates are required to realize Y = CD+EF+G?
Options:
1) 4, 2
2) 3, 3
3) 2, 3
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: No option is correct

Candidate Answer: 3, 3

QID : 102 - If X, Y and Z are 3 Boolean variables, then X(Y + Z) equals (X + Y) (X + Z), if X, Y, Z take the values ______.
Options:
1) 0, 1, 0
2) 1, 0, 1
3) 0, 1, 1
4) 1, 0, 0
Correct Answer: 0, 1, 1

Candidate Answer: 1, 0, 1

QID : 103 - A graph G is called a ______ if it is a connected acyclic graph.

Options:
1) Cyclic graph
2) Tree
3) Regular graph
4) Not a graph
Correct Answer: Tree

Candidate Answer: Cyclic graph

QID : 104 - ______is the negation of the bits "010110".

Options:
1) 111001
2) 111111
3) 101001
4) 1001
Correct Answer: 101001

Candidate Answer: 101001

QID : 105 - ______topology requires a central controller or hub.

Options:
1) Mesh
2) Star
3) Ring
4) Bus
Correct Answer: Star

Candidate Answer: Star

QID : 106 - How many carrier frequencies are used in BPSK?

Options:
1) 0
2) 1
3) 2
4) 3
Correct Answer: 1
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Candidate Answer: 2

QID : 107 - Which of the following is a group of programs?

Options:
1) Accessories
2) Word
3) Paint
4) All options are correct
Correct Answer: Accessories

Candidate Answer: Accessories

QID : 108 - Why page fault occurs in Operating System?

Options:
1) When a page gives inconsistent data
2) When a page cannot be accessed due to its absence from memory
3) When a page is invisible
4) All options are correct
Correct Answer: All options are correct

Candidate Answer: When a page cannot be accessed due to its absence from memory

QID : 109 - The child process ______.

Options:
1) can be a duplicate of the parent process
2) can never be a duplicate of the parent process
3) can never have another program loaded into it
4) cannot have another program loaded into it
Correct Answer: can be a duplicate of the parent process

Candidate Answer: cannot have another program loaded into it

QID : 110 - In Unix which system call creates the new process?
Options:
1) alter
2) new
3) create
4) fork
Correct Answer: fork

Candidate Answer: new

QID : 111 -
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Options:
1) Output: "15"
2) Output: "60"
3) Output: "120"
4) Output: "180"
Correct Answer: Output: "120"

Candidate Answer: Output: "60"

QID : 112 - ______ correctly shows the hierarchy of arithmetic operations in C language.
Options:
1)

2)

3)

4)

Correct Answer:

Candidate Answer:

QID : 113 -

Options:
1) Output: "10"
2) Output: "510"
3) Compilation Error
4) Run time Error
Correct Answer: Output: "10"

Candidate Answer: Output: "510"

QID : 114 - ______ is the correct usage of conditional operators in C language.

Options:
1) a>b ? c=30 : c=40;
2) a>b ? c=30;
3) return (a>b)?(a:b)
4) max = a>b ? a>c?a:c:b>c?b:c
Correct Answer: max = a>b ? a>c?a:c:b>c?b:c

Candidate Answer: a>b ? c=30 : c=40;

QID : 115 - Which of the following function is use for reading in a multi-word string?
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Options:
1) printf();
2) scanf();
3) gets();
4) puts();
Correct Answer: gets();

Candidate Answer: gets();

QID : 116 -

Options:
1) Output: "15"
2) Output: "16"
3) Output: "8"
4) Compilation Error
Correct Answer: Output: "8"

Candidate Answer: Output: "16"

QID : 117 - Which of the following operations can be performed on the file "Honey.txt" using the below code?

FILE *fp; fp = fopen("Honey.txt", "r+");

Options:
1) Writing
2) Read and Write
3) Appending
4) Reading
Correct Answer: Read and Write

Candidate Answer: Reading

QID : 118 - The following declaration mean?

int (*ptr)[5];
Options:
1) ptr is array of pointers to 5 integers
2) ptr is a pointer to an array of 5 integers
3) ptr is an array of 5 integers
4) ptr is an pointer to array
Correct Answer: ptr is a pointer to an array of 5 integers

Candidate Answer: ptr is a pointer to an array of 5 integers

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QID : 119 -

Options:
1) Output: "x=20 y=500 z=500"
2) Output: "y=504 z=504 x=20"
3) Output: "x=21 y=504 z=504"
4) Compilation Error
Correct Answer: Output: "x=20 y=500 z=500"

Candidate Answer: Output: "x=20 y=500 z=500"

QID : 120 -

Options:
1) Output: "8 1 7 5 6"
2) Output: "8 1 5 5 6"
3) Output: "8 1 6 5 5"
4) Runtime Error
Correct Answer: Output: "8 1 7 5 6"

Candidate Answer: Output: "8 1 6 5 5"

QID : 121 - What does Assembler refer to in Assembling language?

Options:
1) It places programs into memory and prepares them for execution
2) It accepts a program written in a high level language and produces an object program
3) It translates assembly language into machine language
4) It appears to execute a resource as if it were machine language
Correct Answer: It translates assembly language into machine language

Candidate Answer: It translates assembly language into machine language

QID : 122 - The intel 8086 microprocessor is a _______ processor in Assembling language.
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Options:
1) 8 bit
2) 16 bit
3) 32 bit
4) 4 bit
Correct Answer: 16 bit

Candidate Answer: 8 bit

QID : 123 - In a ______ one module of the new information system is activated at a time.
Options:
1) System Development Life Cycle
2) CASE tool
3) Phased Conversion
4) Success factors
Correct Answer: Phased Conversion

Candidate Answer: System Development Life Cycle

QID : 124 - The step-by-step instructions that solves a problem are called ______.
Options:
1) a sequential structure
2) a list
3) an algorithm
4) a plan
Correct Answer: an algorithm

Candidate Answer: an algorithm

QID : 125 - A feasibility document should contain all of the following except______.
Options:
1) project name
2) data-flow diagrams
3) feasible alternative
4) problem descriptions
Correct Answer: problem descriptions

Candidate Answer: data-flow diagrams

QID : 126 - Which of the following statements is not true?

Options:
1) You can make a website without using HTML
2) You can make a website without using Javascript
3) You can make a website without using CSS
4) You can make a website without using PHP
Correct Answer: You can make a website without using HTML

Candidate Answer: You can make a website without using CSS

QID : 127 - ______ is not a Content Management System.

Options:
1) WordPress
2) Drupal
3) Magneto
4) SAP
Correct Answer: SAP

Candidate Answer: SAP

QID : 128 - Which linked list type that navigates for an item in forward and backward direction is called_______.
Options:
1) Absolute linked List
2) Linear Linked List
3) Circular linked List
4) Doubly Linked List
Correct Answer: Doubly Linked List

Candidate Answer: Doubly Linked List

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QID : 129 - ______ is the worst case time complexity of inserting an element into the sorted array.
Options:
2
1) O(n logn)
2) O(logn)
3) O(n)
2
4) O(n )
Correct Answer: O(n)

2
Candidate Answer: O(n logn)

QID : 130 - Second most used data structure after array is______.
Options:
1) Linked List
2) Queue
3) Hash table
4) Stack
Correct Answer: Linked List

Candidate Answer: Linked List

QID : 131 - Binary search tree whose left subtree and right subtree differ in height by at most 1 level is called______.
Options:
1) Red-black tree
2) AVL tree
3) Lemma tree
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: AVL tree

Candidate Answer: AVL tree

QID : 132 - ______ data structure is linear type.

Options:
1) Stack
2) Graph
3) Trees
4) Binary tree
Correct Answer: Stack

Candidate Answer: Stack

QID : 133 - In the relational models, cardinality is termed as______.

Options:
1) number of tuples.
2) number of attributes.
3) number of tables.
4) number of constraints.
Correct Answer: number of tuples.

Candidate Answer: number of constraints.

QID : 134 - What functionality is provided by the DML?

Options:
1) Description of logical structure of database.
2) Addition of new structures in the database system.
3) Manipulation & processing of database.
4) Definition of physical structure of database system.
Correct Answer: Manipulation & processing of database.

Candidate Answer: Manipulation & processing of database.

QID : 135 - 'AS' clause is used in SQL for _______.

Options:
1) Selection operation.
2) Rename operation.
3) Join operation.
4) Projection operation.
Correct Answer: Rename operation.

Candidate Answer: Rename operation.

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QID : 136 - ODBC stands for ______.

Options:
1) Object Database Connectivity.
2) Oral Database Connectivity.
3) Oracle Database Connectivity.
4) Open Database Connectivity.
Correct Answer: Open Database Connectivity.

Candidate Answer: Open Database Connectivity.

QID : 137 - An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is a _______.
Options:
1) Strong entity set
2) Weak entity set
3) Simple entity set
4) Primary entity set
Correct Answer: Weak entity set

Candidate Answer: Weak entity set

QID : 138 - _____operation is used if we are interested in only certain columns of a table.
Options:
1) Projection
2) Selection
3) Union
4) Join
Correct Answer: Projection

Candidate Answer: Selection

QID : 139 - ______ is a legal expression in SQL.

Options:
1) select null from student;
2) select name from student where fee=null;
3) select name from student;
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: select name from student;

Candidate Answer: select name from student;

QID : 140 - The result of the UNION operation between R1 and R2 is a relation that includes _______.
Options:
1) All the tuples of R1
2) All the tuples of R2
3) All the tuples of R1 and R2
4) All the tuples of R1 and R2 which have common columns
Correct Answer: All the tuples of R1 and R2 which have common columns

Candidate Answer: All the tuples of R1 and R2

QID : 141 - What is natural join in DBMS?

Options:
1) Cartesian Product
2) Combination of Union and Cartesian product
3) Combination of selection and Cartesian product
4) Combination of projection and Cartesian product
Correct Answer: Combination of projection and Cartesian product

Candidate Answer: Combination of selection and Cartesian product

QID : 142 - Hierarchical model is also called ______.

Options:
1) Tree structure
2) Plex Structure
3) Normalize Structure
4) Table Structure
Correct Answer: Tree structure
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Candidate Answer: Tree structure

QID : 143 - ______ is a comparison operator in SQL.

Options:
1) =
2) like
3) between
4) All options are correct
Correct Answer: All options are correct

Candidate Answer: between

QID : 144 - In a relational model, relations are termed as_______.

Options:
1) Tuples
2) Attributes
3) Tables
4) Rows
Correct Answer: Tables

Candidate Answer: Tuples

QID : 145 - ______ is a single valued attribute in DBMS.

Options:
1) Register_number
2) Address
3) Subject_taken
4) Reference
Correct Answer: Register_number

Candidate Answer: Register_number

QID : 146 - ______is a set of one or more attributes taken collectively to uniquely identify a record.
Options:
1) Sub key
2) Candidate key
3) Super key
4) Foreign key
Correct Answer: Super key

Candidate Answer: Foreign key

QID : 147 - An attribute in a relation is a foreign key if the __________ key from one relation is used as an attribute in that relation in DBMS.
Options:
1) Candidate
2) Primary
3) Super
4) Sub
Correct Answer: Primary

Candidate Answer: Candidate

QID : 148 - Which of the following define Multiple inheritance?

Options:
1) one class inheriting from more then one super classes
2) more classes inheriting from more then one super classes
3) more then one classes inheriting from one super class
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: one class inheriting from more then one super classes

Candidate Answer: one class inheriting from more then one super classes

QID : 149 - Which of the following type of inheritance is not directly applicable in java?
Options:
1) Multilevel Inheritance
2) Hierarchial Inheritance
3) Single Inheritance
4) Multiple Inheritance
Correct Answer: Multiple Inheritance
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Candidate Answer: Multiple Inheritance

QID : 150 - A class can ______ an interface in java.

Options:
1) implement
2) extend
3) remove
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: implement

Candidate Answer: extend

QID : 151 - A constructor’s name is ______ in java.

Options:
1) same as the name of the class
2) same as the name of the super class
3) same as the name of the child class
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: same as the name of the class

Candidate Answer: same as the name of the class

QID : 152 - Throw keyword is a part of ______.

Options:
1) Method Overloading
2) Exception Handling
3) Multithreading
4) Composition
Correct Answer: Exception Handling

Candidate Answer: Multithreading

QID : 153 - Which of the following is not a type of constructor?

Options:
1) Default Constructor
2) Parameterized Constructor
3) Super Constructor
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Super Constructor

Candidate Answer: Super Constructor

QID : 154 - Which of the following is the default value of a static integer variable in Java?
Options:
1) 1
2) 0
3) Null
4) -1
Correct Answer: 0

Candidate Answer: 0
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QID : 155 -

Options:
1) Output: "Ram"
2) Output: "Radha"
3) Compilation Error
4) Runtime Error
Correct Answer: Output: "Ram"

Candidate Answer: Compilation Error

QID : 156 -

Options:
1) Output: "10 200 400 "
2) Output: "10 20 400"
3) Runtime Error
4) Compilation Error
Correct Answer: Output: "10 200 400 "

Candidate Answer: Output: "10 200 400 "

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QID : 157 - Can we compare a boolean variable with an int variable?

Options:
1) Yes
2) No
3) Depends on compiler
4) Depends on the int variable value
Correct Answer: No

Candidate Answer: Depends on compiler

QID : 158 -

Options:
1) Output: "112360"
2) Output: "070811234"
3) Compilation Error
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Compilation Error

Candidate Answer: Output: "070811234"

QID : 159 - Composition represents ______.

Options:
1) HAS-A relationship
2) IS-A relationship
3) Both HAS-A & IS-A relationship
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: HAS-A relationship

Candidate Answer: No option is correct

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QID : 160 -

Options:
1) Output: "abcd abcd true abcd abc false"
2) Output: "abcd abc false abcd abcd true"
3) Output: "abcd abc true abcd abcd false"
4) Output: "abcd abc true abcd abcd true"
Correct Answer: Output: "abcd abc false abcd abcd true"

Candidate Answer: Output: "abcd abc true abcd abcd false"

QID : 161 - Classes that allow primitive types to be accessed as objects are known as ______.
Options:
1) Concrete Classes
2) Wrapper Classes
3) Converter Classes
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Wrapper Classes

Candidate Answer: Concrete Classes

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QID : 162 -

Options:
1) Output: "Static Block 2 Static Block 1 Value of num = 100"
2) Output: "Static Block 1 Static Block 2 Value of num = 100 Value of mystr = Constructor"
3) Output: "Static Block 2 Static Block 1 Value of num = 100 Value of mystr = Constructor"
4) Compilation Error
Correct Answer: Output: "Static Block 1 Static Block 2 Value of num = 100 Value of mystr = Constructor"

Candidate Answer: Output: "Static Block 1 Static Block 2 Value of num = 100 Value of mystr = Constructor"

QID : 163 - The concept of converting real world objects in terms of class is known as ______.
Options:
1) Encapsulation
2) Abstraction
3) Polymorphism
4) Inheritance
Correct Answer: Abstraction

Candidate Answer: Encapsulation

QID : 164 - Method overriding is combination of ______.

Options:
1) Encapsulation and Inheritance
2) Abstraction and Polymorphism
3) Polymorphism and Inheritance
4) Inheritance and Abstraction
Correct Answer: Polymorphism and Inheritance

Candidate Answer: Polymorphism and Inheritance

QID : 165 - SRS stands for ______.

Options:
1) Software Requirement Specification
2) Software Refilling Specification
3) Software Renewing Settlement
4) Software Reach Specification
Correct Answer: Software Requirement Specification

Candidate Answer: Software Requirement Specification

QID : 166 - SRS document is created by ______.

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Options:
1) System developer
2) System tester
3) System Analyst
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: System Analyst

Candidate Answer: System Analyst

QID : 167 - Which of the following does not account for software failure?
Options:
1) Increasing Demand
2) Increasing Supply
3) Low expectation
4) Less reliable and expensive
Correct Answer: Increasing Supply

Candidate Answer: Increasing Supply

QID : 168 - SDLC stands for ______

Options:
1) Software Development Life Cycle
2) Software Design Life Cycle
3) Software Development List cycle
4) System Design Life Cycle
Correct Answer: Software Development Life Cycle

Candidate Answer: Software Development Life Cycle

QID : 169 - RAD stands for ______.

Options:
1) Racing Application Development
2) Rapid Application Document
3) Rapid Application Development
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Rapid Application Development

Candidate Answer: Rapid Application Development

QID : 170 - Which of the following is not a prototype of Prototyping Model?

Options:
1) Horizontal Prototype
2) Vertical Prototype
3) Domain Prototype
4) Diagonal Prototype
Correct Answer: Diagonal Prototype

Candidate Answer: Domain Prototype

QID : 171 - ______ is not a phase of Prototyping Model.

Options:
1) Coding
2) Quick Design
3) Engineer Product
4) Prototype Refinement
Correct Answer: Coding

Candidate Answer: Coding

QID : 172 - How many phases does RAD Model have?

Options:
1) 2 stages
2) 4 stages
3) 5 stages
4) 7 stages
Correct Answer: 5 stages

Candidate Answer: 7 stages

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QID : 173 - Which of the following software development activities are not a part of software processes?
Options:
1) Software dependence
2) Software development
3) Software specification
4) Software validation
Correct Answer: Software dependence

Candidate Answer: Software dependence

QID : 174 - POFOD stands for______.

Options:
1) Possibility of failure of data
2) Probability of failure of data
3) Possibility of failure on demand
4) Probability of failure on demand
Correct Answer: Probability of failure on demand

Candidate Answer: Probability of failure on demand

QID : 175 - _______is not a functional reliability requirement for a system.

Options:
1) Checking requirements
2) Redundancy requirements
3) Recovery requirements
4) Ambiguous requirements
Correct Answer: Ambiguous requirements

Candidate Answer: Ambiguous requirements

QID : 176 - ______is not a diagram studied in Requirement Analysis.

Options:
1) State Transition Diagram
2) Entity Relationship Diagram
3) Activity Diagram
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Activity Diagram

Candidate Answer: State Transition Diagram

QID : 177 - _______is not a Requirement Management workbench tool.

Options:
1) Rational Suite
2) RDD 100
3) DOORS
4) RTM
Correct Answer: Rational Suite

Candidate Answer: Rational Suite

QID : 178 - _______ are types of requirement in Quality Function Deployment.

Options:
1) Functional, Non-Functional
2) Known, Unknown, Undreamed
3) Normal, Expected, Exciting
4) User, Developer
Correct Answer: Normal, Expected, Exciting

Candidate Answer: Functional, Non-Functional

QID : 179 - What requirement gathering method developed at IBM in 1970s is used for managing requirement elicitation?
Options:
1) JAD
2) FAST
3) Traceablity
4) Both JAD and Traceablity
Correct Answer: Both JAD and Traceablity

Candidate Answer: Traceablity

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QID : 180 - Multi-processor system gives as______.

Options:
1) small system
2) tightly coupled system
3) loosely coupled system
4) both small system and tightly coupled system
Correct Answer: tightly coupled system

Candidate Answer: tightly coupled system

QID : 181 - When a thread needs to wait for an event it will__________.

Options:
1) Block
2) Execute
3) Terminate
4) Update
Correct Answer: Block

Candidate Answer: Execute

QID : 182 - Cascading termination refers to termination of all child processes before the parent terminates
Options:
1) normally
2) abnormally
3) normally or abnormally
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: normally

Candidate Answer: normally

QID : 183 - With ______ only one process can execute at a time.
Options:
1) Multiprocessing
2) Multiprogramming
3) Multiprogramming and Multiprocessing
4) Uniprogramming
Correct Answer: Uniprogramming

Candidate Answer: Uniprogramming

QID : 184 - The child process completes execution, but the parent keeps executing, then the child process is known as______.
Options:
1) Orphan
2) Zombie
3) Body
4) Dead
Correct Answer: Zombie

Candidate Answer: Orphan

QID : 185 - Memory tables are used to keep track of______.

Options:
1) Real and Virtual Memory
2) I/O Modules
3) Resources
4) I/O Devices
Correct Answer: Real and Virtual Memory

Candidate Answer: I/O Devices

QID : 186 - What is a logical extension of multiprogramming operating system?

Options:
1) Time sharing
2) Single programming
3) Multi-tasking
4) Both Time sharing and Multi-tasking
Correct Answer: Both Time sharing and Multi-tasking
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Candidate Answer: Both Time sharing and Multi-tasking

QID : 187 - Aqua user interface was appeared with______.

Options:
1) windows
2) shells
3) MAC OS
4) Bourne shell
Correct Answer: MAC OS

Candidate Answer: MAC OS

QID : 188 - Multiple-CPU system is a type of ______.

Options:
1) Mini Computer
2) Super Computer
3) Clustered System
4) both Mini Computer and Super Computer
Correct Answer: Clustered System

Candidate Answer: Clustered System

QID : 189 - The Interfaces of operating system provides ______.

Options:
1) creation
2) designing
3) deletion
4) portability
Correct Answer: portability

Candidate Answer: designing

QID : 190 - Interrupt table of pointers having addresses for each interrupt is located at______memory.
Options:
1) high
2) low
3) mid
4) both high and low
Correct Answer: low

Candidate Answer: high

QID : 191 - Ways of aborting processes and eliminating deadlocks are______.

Options:
1) aborting all deadlocked processes
2) aborting all processes
3) aborting one process at a time until the deadlock cycle is eliminated
4) All options are correct
Correct Answer: aborting one process at a time until the deadlock cycle is eliminated

Candidate Answer: aborting all processes

QID : 192 - Which of the following statement defines remote method invocation?
Options:
1) It allows a process to invoke memory on a remote object
2) It allows a thread to invoke a method on a remote object
3) It allows a thread to invoke memory on a remote object
4) It allows a process to invoke a subprocess on a remote object
Correct Answer: It allows a thread to invoke a method on a remote object

Candidate Answer: It allows a process to invoke memory on a remote object

QID : 193 - The process that is based on IPC mechanism which executes on different systems and can communicate with other processes using message
based communication is known as ______.
Options:
1) Local Procedure Call
2) Inter Process Communication
3) Remote Procedure Call
4) Remote Machine Invocation
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Correct Answer: Remote Procedure Call

Candidate Answer: Inter Process Communication

QID : 194 - The link between two processes M and N to send and receive messages is called______.
Options:
1) message-passing link
2) synchronization link
3) message- message link
4) communication link
Correct Answer: communication link

Candidate Answer: synchronization link

QID : 195 - ______protocol is not used in the internet.

Options:
1) Telnet
2) WIRL
3) HTTP
4) Gopher
Correct Answer: WIRL

Candidate Answer: WIRL

QID : 196 - Document Object Model is a______.

Options:
1) parser
2) Specification
3) Coding style
4) None of these
Correct Answer: parser

Candidate Answer: Specification

QID : 197 - Ipv4 or Ipv6 does not include which of the following field in the base header?
Options:
1) Next Header field
2) Field for Fragmentation information
3) Flow Label
4) Kind field
Correct Answer: Field for Fragmentation information

Candidate Answer: Field for Fragmentation information

QID : 198 - Primary author of HTML (hyper text markup language) is______.
Options:
1) Brendan Eich
2) Tim Berners-Lee
3) google inc.
4) Peter Norton
Correct Answer: Tim Berners-Lee

Candidate Answer: Brendan Eich

QID : 199 - Types of computer graphics are______.

Options:
1) Vector and Raster
2) Scalar and Raster
3) Vector and Scalar
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Vector and Raster

Candidate Answer: Vector and Raster

QID : 200 - Once a file is saved in JPEG format ,some data is lost______.
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Options:
1) Permanently
2) Temporarily
3) Both Permanently & Temporarily
4) No option is correct
Correct Answer: Permanently

Candidate Answer: No option is correct