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PAPER 1

Covering every aspect of nursing care . Time 3hrs

Select the most appropriate option from a-d

1. Which of these comments from a patient with leukaemia indicates poor knowledge of the
disease management
a. “Thank you nurse I will reduce intake of beans from my diet”
b. “I so much appreciate you nurse, I will keep my drug regimen”
c. “ I feel good nurse, I will always come for my cytotoxic injections when they are due”
d. “God bless you nurse, I must make sure that my environment is clean always”

2. One of these is very true about Vit. B12

a. It is very vital in the RNA synthesis of the red blood cells
b. Vit. B12 deficiency may not result from gastrectomy
c. Vit. B12 is essential in the DNA synthesis of the red blood cells
d. Vit. B12 deficiency may not result from parasitic infection

3. The most essential evidence for the nurse when ineffective tissue perfusion is identified as
problem in sickle cell crisis should be
a. Pain at the joints
b. Cyanosis
c. Client’s verbalization
d. Priapism

4. A patient with ineffective cardiac tissue perfusion related to reduced blood supply to
myocardium may lean the nurse with one of these as best evidence
a. Chest pain
b. Facial expression
c. Patient’s verbalization
d. Patient’s numerous questions

5. Distended jugular veins, cyanosis, dyspnoea, and oedema of the legs are all signs of
a. Left vein thrombosis
b. Severe hypertension
c. Congestive cardiac failure
d. Cerebrovascular accident
6. Which statement, if made by a client with Congestive Cardiac Failure regarding appropriate
dietary measure, indicates poor understanding of the information provided by the nurse.
a. “I should increase my sodium intake”
b. “I should maintain a low-calorie diet to prevent any weight gain
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c. “I should lower my blood volume by limiting my fluids”

d. “I should drink adequate fluid and increase my intake of high fibre foods”.

7. Cardiovascular diseases have the tendency to raise patient’s anxiety. The nurse is therefore
expected to implement these measures except
a. Create nurse-patient therapeutic relationship
b. Involve patient in his care
c. Admit patient closer to another patient with the same or related problem
d. Encourage patient to abide by nurses’ instruction

8. On discharge, a patient managed of Congestive Cardiac Failure made the following

statements. Which of the statements shows that the patient requires more teachings on his
conditions?
a. “Thank you nurse, I will always avoid strenuous activities”
b. “You have been so nice nurse, I will always take my drugs as prescribed by the doctor”
c. “Thank you nurse, I must come for review on appointment dates”
d. “It is good to know that haemorrhage may occur following the anti-coagulants the doctor
prescribed for me”

9. It is essential to note that…………….

a. Once the left side the heart fails, it will not be long before the right side fails
b. The left side of the heart can fail simultaneously with the right side
c. The right side of the heart fails more often
d. The right side of the heart fails more often

10. The heart usually In brain attack, if the anaestomotic channels are able to restore blood
supply to the parts of the brain denied of blood supply within 24 hours, a diagnosis of
…………………. will likely be made
a. Thrombotic stroke
b. Haemorrhagic stroke
c. Transient Ischaemic attack
d. Partial stroke

11. One of these is a foremost nursing problem in patients with polycythaemia vera
a. Ineffective tissue perfusion
b. Acute pain
c. Imbalanced nutrition: less than body requirement
d. Activity intolerance

12. Ballooning of the cheeks on exhalation in a patient with stroke is an indication that ………..
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a. Patient’s condition is worsening

b. Patient requires assistive devices
c. Patient is gasping for air
d. Patient needs urgent attention

13. The ABO antigen is fully developed …………………….. and remain throughout life time
a. after puberty
b. at birth
c. in adulthood life
d. before puberty

14. The possibility of instituting cardio pulmonary resuscitation (CPR) as management measure is
more in
a. CVA and Rheumatic fever
b. Brain attack and cardiac arrest
c. Myocardial infarction and CVA
d. Myocardial infarction and Cardiac arrest

15. The conducting apparatus of the heart include the following except
a. Sinu arterial node
b. Bundle of His
c. Node of Tawan (AV node)
d. Ventricular node

16. One of the key things that assist a discipline in its quest for professionalism is
a. Rules guiding practice
b. Research activities
c. Good control of members
d. Standard curriculum

17. These are chemical mediators in inflammation except

a. Serotonin
b. Bradykinin
c. Histamine
d. Acetylcholine

18. One of these is not among the rules guiding the use of sterilizing machine on the ward
a. Timing starts from the time water begins to boil
b. All the instruments in the sterilizer must be covered by water
c. When more water or instrument is added, the timing is refreshed
d. The sterilizer should be disconnected from power source once the materials boil
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19. A nurse with accidental contaminated needle stick injury is primarily expected to…….. before
any other action
a. Notify the infection control nurse
b. Cleanse the area with soap under running water
c. Request for post-exposure prophylaxis
d. Check the hepatitis status of the client

20. One of these types of hepatitis is transmitted by the fecal-oral route

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

21. The amount of air passing in and out of the lungs during each circle is called
a. Tidal volume
b. Residual volume
c. Vital capacity
d. Insipiratory reseve volume

22. Which of these are primary tuberculostatic drugs?

a. INH (isoniazide), ethambutol, rifampicin
b. Para amino salicylic acid, tetracycline, penicilin
c. Streptomycin, gentamicin, chloramphenicol
d. Rifampicin, penicillin, sulfadiazide

23. Myopia is corrected using

a. Convex lens
b. Biconcave lens
c. Concave lens
d. Refractive lens

24. A patient that is suffering from haemorrhoids is best taken for Digital Rectal Examination
while in
a. Trendrenburg position
b. Semiprone position
c. Genupectoral position
d. Cardiac position

25. The posterior part of the pituitary gland is connected to the hypothalamus
a. Plexus of blood vessels
b. Infundibulum/stalk
c. Nerve plexus
d. Autonomic nervous system
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26. While using the a digital Blood Pressure apparatus to monitor patient’s blood pressure, the
patient is expected to do one of the following
a. Close his/her eyes until the digital reading is completed
b. Stop talking until the digital reading is completed
c. Breath-in and hold the breath until the digital reading is completed
d. Close the mouth tightly until the digital reading is completed

27. The best position a nurse will place a patient for enema washout is
a. Lateral position
b. Semi-recumbent position
c. Lithotomy position
d. Cardiac position

28. High concentration of inhaled oxygen in the newborn preterm may result into a condition
known as
a. Borborigmus
b. Polycythemia vera
c. Retrolental fibroplesia
d. Astigmatism

29. The administration of Cardiac digitalis such as Digoxin requires that a nurse does one of the
following
a. Observes the patient’s pulse
b. Observes the patient’s blood pressure
c. Observes the patient’s respiratory rate
d. Observes the patient’s apex beat

30. A woman suffering from post-partum haemorrhage will have one of these as the primary
nursing diagnosis
a. Deficient self care
b. Ineffective tissue perfussion
c. Risk for haemorrage
d. Ineffective airway clearance

31. During the administration of oxygen to a patient, the nurse does the following as
precautionary measures except
a. Ensures that there is no naked light
b. Ensures that patient is not given dry oxygen
c. Ensures that the humidifier has very little water
d. Tests the oxygen with water in a bow for bubbling

32. Doctors transfusion note reads “In case of transfusion reaction do the following: one of these
was written in error by the doctor; identify the one that was written in error
a. Stop transfusion
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b. Re-start the transfusion after 10 minutes

c. Give injection hydrocortisone 200mg stat
d. Give injection adrenalin 0.5ml stat

33. Instrument for data generation in research process include the following except
a. Focus group discussion
b. Questionnaire
c. Interview matrix
d. Case study

34. Deafness can be classified into

a. Acute and chronic deafness
b. Partial and total deafness
c. Conductive and sensorineural
d. Intermittent and continous

35. The white sticky substance present on the baby’s skin at birth is called
a. Lanugo
b. Vernix caseosa
c. Liquor
d. Olive oil

36. A student nurse on duty is expected to be under the supervision of ………

a. The most senior nurse on duty
b. The ward head irrespective of his/her duty schedulle
c. The head of the training institution
d. None of the above

37. When a scientist determines something is true when it is actually false is referred to as
a. False alarm
b. False positive
c. Type II error
d. Undefined error

38. Primary health care is aimed at:

a. Providing enough social amenities to people at grass root level.
b. Creating political and health awareness among rural dwellers
c. Eradicating illness at the grass root level
d. Bringing basic health services to the grass root level

39. A congenital or degenerative opacity of the lens that leads to gradual loss of vision is called
a. Glaucoma
b. Conjunctivitis
c. Retinopathy
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d. Cataract

40. In the assessment of an unconscious patient using Glasgow coma scale (GCS), best motor
response, a score of 4 refers to
a. Abnormal flexion to pain
b. Withdraws to pain stimuli
c. Confused
d. Eye opening

41. Naturally active and passive immunity can be gotten through the following means except
a. From mother to child in utero
b. Infection of tetanus toxoid
c. Subclinical infection
d. Clinical disease

42. Which of these causes burnout among the nurse

a. Poor working condition
b. Workplace bullying
c. Poor remuneration
d. All of the above

43. Exercise is essential in the management of diabetic mellitus because of the following reasons
except
a. It helps to metabolize carbohydrate and skeletal muscle receptors allow the muscles to take
in glucose from the blood independent of insulin
b. It lower cholesterol and triglyceride levels and improves muscles tone
c. It improves circulation and prevent macro and micro vascular complication
d. It reduces motor-neuropathy

44. The metabolism of the three major classes of food will definitely produce the following at
the end except
a. Energy in form of ATP
b. Glucose (CHO)
c. Carbon IV oxide (CO2)
d. Water (H2O)

45. A nurse would assess a patient who experiences prolonged vomiting for signs of
a. Hypovolamic shock
b. Water intoxication
c. Metabolic acidosis
d. Potassium excess
46. What is the equivalent centigrade temperature of 102oF?
a. 39oc
b. 47oc
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c. 38.9oc
d. 40.1oc

47. The most mandatory immunization for cross-border travelers is

a. Oral polio vaccine
b. Yellow fever vaccine
c. Hepartitis vaccine
d. Influenza vaccine

48. One of these is a leading manifestation to guide the doctor in reaching at the diagnosis of
Meningitis
a. Brudinzinski’s sign
b. Barbinski’s sign
c. Kerning’s sign
d. Sardonic grin

49. In the new immunization schedulle, ________________is given at 10 weeks

a. OPV 1, Pentavalent 1
b. OPV 2, Pentavalent 2
c. OPV 3, Pentavalent 3
d. Measles, Yellow fever

50. Nursing audit can simply be explained to mean

a. An avenue whereby expected plan of nursing expenditure is measured against what was
spent.
b. Review of nurses’ actions which measures the care rendered by nurses and compares with
the standard practice.
c. Evaluation of quality of care rendered to patients by the nurses.
d. It is quality control measure that evaluates nursing care through clients’ records.

51. If a patient with Renal calculi was treated with Allopurinol for 10 days, which of the following
laboratory findings would indicate that the Allopurinol has had a therapeutic effect?
a. Decreased urinary alkaline phosphatase level
b. Increased urinary calcium excretion
c. Increase serum calcium level
d. Decreased serum uric acid level

52. One of these drugs has adverse effect on the eight (VIII) cranial never
a. Isoniazide
b. Streptomycin
c. Ethambutol hydrochloride
d. Rifampicin
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53. The effectiveness of nurse-client communication is best validated by

a. Medical assessment
b. Client’s feedback
c. Client’s physiologic adaptations
d. Health team conferences

54. Taking the health history of patients with rheumatic fever and glomerulonephritis requires
that that the patient should be asked questions concerning previously suffered from
a. Mumps
b. Plasmodiasis
c. Sore throat
d. Pyelonephritis

55. A patient who had a colostomy should follow a diet that is :

a. Rich in protein
b. Low in fiber content
c. As close to normal as possible
d. High in carbohydrate

56. In real life the hypophyseal fossa of the sphenoid bone accommodates
a. Thyroid gland
b. Pituitary gland
c. Pineal gland
d. Thymus gland

57. Blood group A can possibly have the following as truth except
a. Receives blood from A and O group
b. Donates to A, and AB group
c. Has antigen A
d. Has antibody A

58. The metaparadigm of interest in nursing profession does not include

a. Human being
b. Health
c. Patient
d. Nursing

59. Blood for transfusion is best stored at temperature of

a. 4-60C
b. 3-40C
c. 5-8oC
d. 2-20C

60. Cushing’s syndrome may occur due to

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a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Prolonged insulinism
c. Hyperthyroidism
d. Corticoisteroid therapy

61. A Paranoid client states: “I refuse to shower in this room. I must be very cautious. The
FBI has placed a camera in here to monitor my every move.” Which of the following will be the
therapeutic response?
a. “That’s not true.”
b. “I have a hard time believing that is true.”
c. “Surely you don’t really believe that.”
d. “I will help you search this room so that you can see there is no camera.”

62. Sexual gratification achieved through being beaten by the partner

a. fetishism

b. voyeurism

c. mesochism

d.. Sadism.

63. To prevent the patient from biting his/her tongue and lips during ECT treatment, . . . is put in
between the upper and lower jaw.
a. Mouth gag
b. Airway
c. Mouth block
d. Mouth guard

64. Somatotherapy, is used to manage patient with

a. Jaundice
b. Schizophrenia
c. depression
d. Seizure

65. Nancy, a depressed client who has been unkept and untidy for weeks, today comes to group
therapy wearing makeup and a clean dress and having washed and combed her hair. Which of
the following responses by the nurse is most appropriate?
a. “Nancy, I see you have put on a clean dress and combed your hair.”
b. “Nancy, you look wonderful today!”
c. “Nancy, I’m sure everyone will appreciate that you have cleaned up for the group today.”
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d. “Now that you see how important it is, I hope you will do this every day.”

66. A decrease in which of the following neurotransmitters has been implicated in depression?
a. GABA, acetylcholine, and aspartate
b. Norepinephrine, serotonin, and dopamine
c. Somatostatin, substance P, and glycine
d. Glutamate, histamine, and opioid peptides

67. Mrs. Joan (a 78-year-old depressed widow) says to her home health nurse, “What’s the use? I
don’t have anything to live for anymore.” Which is the best response on the part of the nurse?
a. “Of course you do, Mrs. Joan. Why would you say such a thing?”
b. “You seem so sad. I’m going to do my best to cheer you up.”
c. “Let’s talk about why you are feeling this way.”
d. “Have you been thinking about harming yourself in any way?”

68. A nurse is prioritizing nursing diagnoses in the plan of care for a patient experiencing a manic
episode. Which of the following would you consider as a priority?
a. Disturbed sleep pattern evidenced by sleeping only 4-5 hours per night
b. Risk for injury related to manic hyperactivity
c. Impaired social interaction evidenced by manipulation of others
d. Imbalanced nutrition: Less than body requirements evidenced by loss of weight and poor skin
turgor

69. Which of the following is best used in the treatment of bipolar disorder?
a. Olanzepine (Zyprexa)
b. Paroxetine (Paxil)
c. Carbamazepine (Tegretol)
d. Lamotrigine (Lamictal)

70. Which of the following parts of the brain is concerned with hearing, short-term memory, and
sense of smell?
a. Temporal lobe
b. Parietal lobe
c. Cerebellum
d. Hypothalamus

71. Measles is caused by a virus, and very contagious and common among school children. All are
correct about measles except ……………………
a. There is a cure for established measles
b. Contaminated droplets that are spread through the air when an infected individual cough,
sneeze or talk.
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c. It can be gotten from kissing someone who has measles.

d. It can spread by sharing drinks or food with someone with measles

72. Communicable diseases can be prevented by all except ……………………………..

a. Wash hands with soap and warm water frequently, especially after using the restroom
b. Children and staff should at stay home when ill
c. Clean and disinfect surfaces or objects
d. None of the above

73. The 5 in 1 infant vaccine protects against ……………………………

a. Meningococcus, diphtheria, pertussis,polio,Hib
b. Diphtheria, tetanus, whooping cough, polio, Hib
c. Pneumococcus, pertussis, polio,diphtheria, Hib
d. Meningococcus, pneumococcus,diphtheria, pertussis, tetanus

74. Medical examination is carried out in the schools. The first and most essential examination
takes place ….
a. During admission
b. When the child is sick
c. During delivery
d. In infant welfare clinic

75. ……………………… is most appropriate services rendered in physical abuse, emotional abuse and
sexual abuse among school children.
a. Health educational services
b. Parental educational services
c. Counseling services
d. Preventive services

76. One of these is not contraindication for vaccination in children

a. Moderate to severe acute illnesses
b. Anaphylactic reactions due to vaccine
c. Gullain-Barre Syndrome with 6 weeks of immunization
d. Nome of the above

77. Breast feeding is important to an infant’s health because …………….

a. It is not affected by the mother’s nutritional status
b. It transfers immunity against certain infectious diseases
c. It decreases the mother’s chances of getting pregnant
d. All of the above
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77. The most important requirement of a vaccine is ………………

a. Safety
b. Ability to stimulate antibody production
c. Ability to stimulate an immune response
d. The proportion of infections prevented

78. Vaccine effectiveness is measured by

a. How well vaccine work in real world
b. How many people who got vaccinated developed disease
c. People protected by the vaccine
d. All of the above

79. Vaccine efficiency is measured by

a. How well vaccine work in real world
b. How many people who got vaccinated developed disease
c. People protected by the vaccine
d. All of the above

80. A nurse can determine presence of dehydration in a child by the under-listed, except
a. Feeling of thirsty
b. Feeling tired
c. Feeling dizzy or lightheaded
d. None of the above

81. Sugar in Oral Rehydration Therapy (ORT) helps to

a. Improve absorption of electrolytes and water
b. Increase the sugar content of the blood
c. Reduce weakness
d. Increase energy

82. A nurse obtains information about the presence of birth defects, mental retardation, familial
traits, or similarly affected family members during :
a. Family assessment
b. Psychosocial assessment
c. Physical assessment
d. Emotional assessment
83. Genetic services provide does not provide
a. Genetic information,
b. Education and counselling
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c. Support to patients and families with genetics-related health concerns

d. Financial support to families in need of counselling

84. Infection with Treponema pallidum can be acquired by humans through which of the
following:
a. Trans placental transfer
b. Sexual contact
c. Direct contact
d. All of the above.

85. Disease surveillance is defined as

a. the systematic collection, analysis and interpretation of data from variety of sources
b. the review of healthcare associated infections in laboratory personnel.
c. the recognition of emerging disease
d. the development of an infection control mechanism

86. An increase, often sudden, in the number of cases of a disease above what is normally
expected in that population in that area:
a. Epidemic
b. Outbreak.
c. plague
d. Endemic.

87. The residence in the body of a specific infectious agent without any manifest symptom is
known as …………
a. Opportunistic infection
b. Latent infection
c. Virulent infection
d. None of the above

88. Which of the following is necessary for the transmission of an infectious disease to occur?
a. A susceptible host
b. A mode of transmission
c. A source of infection
d. All of the above

89. The process of collecting, storing, retrieving, transferring, and protecting data is associated
with ----------------
a. Microsoft Access
b. Health data management
c. Informatics Nursing
d. Data storage
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90. The three (3) main types of psychological disorders associated with the pueperium are:
a. Baby blues, postnatal depression and puerperal psychosis:
b. Baby blues, puerperal psychosis and puerperal schizophrenia
c. Puerperal psychosis, puerperal depression and puerperal schizophrania
d. Schizophrenia, psychosis and postpartum anxiety

91. One of these bleeding conditions may occur as a complication of pregnancy induced
hypertension.
a. Placenta previa
b. Post partum haemorrhage
c. Abrupito placentae
d. Sub-conjuctival haemorrhage

92. Bleeding occurring after 24 hours of delivery is termed

a. Primary post-partum hemorrhage
b. Secondary post-partum hemorrhage
c. Late post post-partum hemorrhage
d. Delayed post-partum hemorrhage

93. The best description of the blood pressure changes in pregnancy induced hypertension is
a. A systolic blood pressure value of at least 140mm Hg.
b. A diastolic blood pressure value in excess of 90mm Hg.
c. An increase in systolic or diastolic blood pressure of at least 20mmltg
d. An increase above base line of at least 30mm Hg in systolic pressure and 15mmHg in diastolic
pressure

94. The following are obstetric emergencies except

a. Cord prolapsed
b. Uterine rupture
c. Cephalhaematoma
d. Amniotic fluid embolism

95. The management of placental praevia depends on the following except

a. The amount of bleeding
b. The condition of the mother and the fetus
c. The location of the placenta
d. The type of facility available

96. In the treatment of primary post partum hemorrhage, these principles apply in this order.
a. Resuscitate mother, stop bleeding, call a doctor
b. Stop bleeding, call a doctor, resuscitate mother
c. Call a doctor, stop bleeding, resuscitate mother
d. Call a doctor, resuscitate mother, stop bleeding
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97. The following are out-put computer devices EXCEPT

a. Printer
b. Plotters
c. Central processing unit
d. Visual display unit

98. The act of putting off the computer system is called

a. Shutting down
b. Offing
c. Booting
d. Switching

99. The part of the computer that cannot be seen and touched is called
a. Control unit
b. Hardware
c. ALU (Arithmetic and logical unit)
d. Software

100. The following are component of reproductive health except

a. Safe motherhood
b. Gender violence
c. Cancer screening
d. Male education

101. The following are examples of harmful practices except

a. Male preference
b. Nutritional taboos
c. Polygamy
d. Widowhood rites and inheritance

102. During adolescence the major concern is that of:-

a. Secured relationship
b. Role identity
c. Sexual intimacy
d. Excellence

103. The following are purposes of sex education for adolescents except
a. Learning about menstruation
b. Practice good hygiene
c. Carrying out sexual activities
d. Preventing teenage pregnancy

104. To teach a group of mothers on artificial feeding, the best method to use is:-
a. Lecture method
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b. Socratic method
c. Demonstration method
d. Role play method

105. The IMCI clinical guidelines describes how to manage a child

a. With chronic problem
b. With acute illness
c. With injuries
d. During a follow-up visit only

106. A good Samaritan found a baby dumped at a refuse site the baby girl has four (4) milk teeth,
the likely age of this baby is
a. 4 months
b. 6 months
c. 8 months
d. 10 months

107. Grow spurt is a essential development picture seen in

a. Infancy
b. Adolescence
c. Adulthood
d. Old age

108. Which of the following are signs of psychosis?

a. Restless agitation, resistive behaviour obsessive compulsive disorder
b. Nausea, restless agitation, irritation and dull behaviour
c. Disinhibition, purposeless activity fleeting anger, fear
d. Insomnia, obsessive compulsive behavior, fear

109. The commonest cause of maternal mortality in the developing world is

a. Obstructed labour
b. Post abortion complications
c. Postpartum haemorrhage
d. Sepsis

110. The Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria is by is established Act vested with the power
to:
a. Conduct final qualifying examination for nurses all over the world
b. Regulate nursing education and practice in Nigeria
c. Index all student nurses in Schools of Nursing only
d. Carry out inspection of Schools of Nursing every month

111. The under-listed are skills for effective management except:

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a. Power sharing
b. Planning
c. Problem solving
d. Delegation

112. Self-performance appraisal provides:

a. Top-down performance evaluation of an employee by a direct manager
b. The appraisee an opportunity to conduct a self-evaluation on how they see themselves
c. The employees have opportunity to assess each other using a predetermined standard
d. Competency profiles and overall job suitability

113. The following are true about an independent variable except

a. It precedes the dependent variable
b. It is presumed to be the cause
c. It is the antecedent in the variable off interest in the topic
d. It is the phenomenon of primary interest

114. Secondary sources of information for literature review should not be considered as
substitute for primary sources because:. This is because secondary sources:
a. secondary sources have a list of references that contains references that are old
b. secondary sources are not based on facts
c. secondary sources rarely provide extensive detail about research studies.
d. secondary sources are studies prepared by someone other than the original researcher

115. The commonly used software for data analysis is SPSS. This acronym simply stands for:
a. Statistical Package for Social Sciences
b. Software Package for Scientific Studies
c. Software Package for Social Sciences
d. Statistical Package for Scientific Studies

116. One of these is not source of folic acid

a. Green leafy vegetable
b. Avocado
c. Mushroom
d. Lemons
117. Descriptive statistics are used for the purpose of
a. Estimating population parameters and making deductions
b. Predicting the population characteristics and making inferences about them
c. Describing the data in relation to sample of study
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d. Explaining relationships established in hypothesis

118. In the course of managing a patient with CCF one of these should be avoided
a. Beans
b. Yam
c. Meat
d. Salt

119. The most reliable test to differentiate between conductive and sensorineural deafness is:
a. Watch tick test
b. Fallacies
c. Tuning fork test
d. Conversational voice test

120. Deficiency of Vitamin A can cause all the following except:

a. Night blindness
b. Keratomalacia
c. Retinoblastoma
d. Xerosis

121. The term used in describing a hallucination of the sense of equilibrium and movement where
the person feels that either his surroundings are going round him, or he himself is rotating is:
a. Tinnitus
b. Otitis
c. Myringitis
d. Vertigo

122. During blood transfusion, the nurse should monitor the patient for transfusion reaction:
a. 15 minutes after the infusion
b. Every 15 minutes
c. After the blood is all infused
d. Every hour

123. Which of the following are objectives of focused ante-natal care?

a. To maintain good health during delivery
b. Early detection and treatment of complications and problems
c. Treatment of malaria and typhoid fever
d. Proper psychological care
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124. Major ways to prevent anaemia in pregnancy is through:

a. Blood transfusion during pregnancy
b. The use of iron supplement, education on nutrition and preventive malaria treatment
c. Periodic review and use of antimalarial drugs
d. Blood transfusion during labour

125. When a couple complains of infertility, the primary step to take is:
a. Careful detailed history interviewing of the man and woman separately
b. Ccareful history interviewing of the man and woman together
c. Request for sperm specimen for sperm analysis
d. Order for hysteron-salpingography

126. When a patient that is placed on Nitroglycerine complains of throbbing headache, the nurse
should:
a. Stop Nitroglycerine treatment
b. Give Nitroglycerine with few glasses of water
c. Position patient in supine position to alleviate the headache
d. Administer prescribed analgesics

127. The most appropriate nursing intervention for determining fluid balance in a client with end
stage renal failure is:
a. Weigh patient daily
b. Monitor urine specific gravity
c. Monitor intake and output daily
d. Record vital signs daily

128. One of these is not a management modality for Diabetes Mellitus

a. Nutrition
b. Exercise
c. Monitoring
d. psychotherapy

129. Burden of Diabetes mellitus may be obvious in the under-listed except

a. the care giver
b. the individual
c. the Family
d. the Nation
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130. Mr. Dokun, a known diabetes mellitus patient was admitted in your hospital for close
observation of mild wound in his left toe. What may likely lead to such wound in a diabetic?
a. Poor management of the disease
b. Improper intake of hypoglycaemic agents
c. Poor blood circulation to the extremities
d. Poor nutritional management

131. Which of the following statement by a diabetic will became a source of concern to the nurse
a. “I will no longer take much of carbohydrate food in my life.”
b. “I thank God that I will stop taking drugs for DM as soon as my blood glucose level returns
to normal range”
c. “It is good to know that I may not present myself for blood glucose monitoring everyday.”
d. All of the above

132. Which statement, if made, by a client with cardiac disease regarding appropriate dietary
measure, indicates an understanding of the information provided by the nurse.
a. “I should maintain adequate nutrition with reduced sodium intake”
b. “I should maintain a low-calorie diet to prevent any weight gain
c. “I should lower my blood volume by limiting my fluids”
d. “I should drink adequate fluid and increase my intake of high fibre foods”.

133. Cardiovascular diseases have the tendency to raise patient’s anxiety. The nurse is therefore
expected to implement these measures except
a. Create nurse-patient therapeutic relationship
b. Involve patient in his care
c. Admit patient closer to another patient with the same or related problem
d. Encourage patient to abide by drug regimen

134. Complications of cerebrovascular accident is limited to

a. Decubitous ulcer
b. Incontinent of urine
c. Paraplegia
d. Apraxia

135. The atria and ventricles relax for

a. 0.1 second
b. 0.2 seconds
c. 0.3 seconds
d. 0.4 seconds
136. The drug Propranolol used in the management of hypertension acts by
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a. Blocks the Beta sympathetic stimulation of the heart

b. Dilating vascular smooth vessels and coronary arteries
c. decreasing sinu-arterial node conduction
d. prevents platelets aggregation

137. Apraxia witnessed in Cerebrovascular Accident patients is simply

a. inability to express self in writing
b. loss of ability to perform purposeful movement
c. balooning of cheeks during exhalation
d. Slurring of speech

138. The most essential thing to note in cancers is that

a.The cells grow in unco-ordinated manner
b. Development of metastatic foci is inevitable
c.There is loss of “cell brake”
d. The cellular growth must conform to the parent tissue

139. One these does not assist in protecting the body from threatening conditions within the
internal and external environment
a.Leucocytes
b. Reticuloendothelial system
c.Plasma
d. Amino acid

140. The major problem with leukemia cells that make them ineffective to sustain immune
system is
a.Their proliferative nature
b. The primary nature of being in blast form
c.Their immature form
d. Their cancerous nature

141. In the assessment of a patient with hypertension, the nurse is expected to be mindful
of the following except:
a. Occipital headache
b. Pain in the ear
c. Dizziness
d. Visual disturbances
142. While examining a patient with hypertension, the nurse noticed that the patient has
pedal oedema, this will likely call for
a. Further medical attention
b. Further investigations
c. Further attention
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d. Further interpretation of laboratory results

143. Instrumentation in surgery is determined based on

a. The choice of surgeon
b. The knowledge of the scrub nurse
c. The type of surgery
d. All of the above

144. The application of doctrine of Res Ipsa loquitor may be potentiated when
a. Poor concern in the signing of consent form before surgery
b. Mismanagement of patient
c. Error in surgical court
d. None of the above

145. To fasten co-orperation and relaxation of patient before surgery, it is essential that
the nurse
a. Invites the surgeon to discuss the surgery with the patient
b. Engages the patient on the possible complications of the surgery
c. Discusses the post-operative management with the family member of the patient
d. Discusses the likely date of discharge before the surgery

146. Hypoxia can occur in the course of surgery and it could be associated with
a. Nature of the surgery
b. Infusion of cold blood
c. Inhalation of cold gases
d. General anaesthesia

147. Nausea and vomiting during surgical procedure may be associated with
a. Untoward reaction to anaesthetic agents
b. Mal-handling of the Git in the course of the surgery
c. Side effect of the drug
d. Unknown reason(s)

148. Admitting a patient a day or more before the surgery may be helpful for
a. Pre-anaesthetic check-up
b. For shaving of the patient
c. For the purpose of signing the consent form
d. To familiarize with the patient

149. Investigations in the operating room protocol are divided into

a. Routine and optimal
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b. Emergency and planned

c. Specific and optimal
d. Emergency and optimal

150. Principles of operating room demands that

a. Every theatre staff must be conversant with the protocol
b. The highly skilled staff are mandated to be conversant with the protocol
c. Enforcement happens on penalty
d. It can be down played on low status staff
151. While thinking about the implication of a study, the nurse practitioner considers
whether
a. The findings may have general acceptance by other researchers
b. There will be practical application that may result from the research
c. The study will be useful for further studies in the future
d. The study design will be compatible with other designs

152. A researcher administered 207 copies of questionnaire but was able to retrieve 201,
this number gives an approximate return rate of
a. 102.98%
b. 98.12%
c. 97.10%
d. 97.12%

153. Nutritional managing of a patient with Liver cirrhosis will warrant the nurse advises
that the patient reduces the intake of …….. from the diet
a. Oil
b. Beans
c. Yam
d. All of the above

154. A standard research table must possess all the listed except
a. Should have no grid within the table
b. Numbered serially irrespective of the chapter
c. Having three horizontal lines of two (2) above and one (1) below
d. Not cross to the next page

155. One of these is not part of a research appendix

a. Calculations such as Samples size. Reliability index
b. Approval from Research and Ethics Committee
c. Some tables not accommodated in the body of the work
d. None of the above
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156. According to the NMCN guideline, formatting of project excludes

a. Times New Roman
b. Font size 12
c. Abstract is restricted to 250 words only
d. Double line spacing

157. In event where it is difficult to reach a group/set of population for the study in terms
of locating them (eg Albinos), the researcher may apply……… sampling technique
a. Convenient
b. Multi stage
c. Purposeful
d. Snow ball

158. Three major characteristics in Max-Webers, Bureaucratic model include all except
a. Specification
b. Specialization
c. Hierarchy of authority
d. System of rules and regulations

159. The steps to decision making include the following except

a. Identification and clarification of problem
b. Determining proper means of approach
c. Collecting relevant data to the problem
d. Analyzing and comparing alternatives

160. One of the following is not among the cogs in the wheel of bureaucratic organization
detected by critics
a. It does not adapt to rapidly changing circumstances
b. It leads to gentleman malingering
c. It does not give room for emotional dependency
d. It gives room for emotional dependency

161. The meta paradigm isolated in nursing as a profession does not include one of these
a. Health
b. Environment
c. Patient
d. Nursing
162. ……… is the process of influencing others with specific intention of getting them to
perform effectively and contribute to the achievement of the organizational goal
a. Management
b. Administration
c. Leadership
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d. Flexible management
163. A nurse leader’s vision will likely be achieved through
a. Turning self interest into commitment
b. Enforcing his vision among his subordinate
c. Utilizing his educational qualification to win the consent of his follow
d. Ensuring that his rival are subdue by either trick or buying
164 The kidneys receive about ------------------- of cardiac output (ie renal fraction)
a. 2.0%
b. 2.1%
c. 20%
d. 21%

165. The recommended room temperature for neonates is

a. 28-30 degree Celsius
b. 34 - 36 degree Celsius
c. 25-28 degree Celsius
d. 20 - 22 degree Celsius

166. The following are true about records keeping and report writing in the hospital
except
a. Records must be accurate
b. Correcting fluid should be used where necessary
c. Reports should be seen, evaluated and signed by the nurse before being filing
d. Contents of ward report can be used for litigation purposes

167. Environmental health refers to the:

a. Natural environment and its manipulation
b. Natural environment and sanitation
c. Relationships between people and their environment
d. Theory of practice of human environment

168. A substance which destroys or inhibits the growth of microorganisms is known as:
a. Disinfectant
b. Detergent
c. Antibiotics
d. Antiseptic

169. The germ theory of disease was formulated by:

a. Louis Pasteur
b. Robert Koch
c. Edward Jenner
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d. John Hunter

170. You observed that clients attending the antenatal health education classes are
doing very poorly in demonstrating the use of ORS. You have used the reflective process on
your own to try to assess what is going on but are stumped. What might you try?
a. Guide the clients through their own reflective process
b. Avoid using reflective cycle in order not to be frustrated
c. Ask the client to forget about it
d. Assume that clients are not skilled

171. A situation where a nurse appreciates that society is made up of many different
groups with different interests, skills, talents and needs can be referred to as recognizing
a. Cultural Acculturation
b. Cultural diversity
c. Cultural sensitivity
d. Cultural universality

172. The use of appropriate technology in primary health care delivery means all the
following except
a. Scientifically reliable and valid
b. Adapted to local needs
c. Accessible, acceptable and affordable by the local resources
d. Scientifically sophisticated to give accurate result.

173. Which of the following is not a method of water purification at the household?
a. Solar disinfection
b. Boiling
c. Deionization
d. Flocculant-Disinfection

174. Problems of improper disposal of waste will lead to the following, except
a. Air and water pollution
b. Propagation of rodents, pests, vectors of diseases and pathogenic microorganisms
c. Rise in contagious diseases
d. Rise in airborne and waterborne diseases

175. One of these statements made by a patient discharged after prostatectomy shows
that the nurse has to deepen her health education to the patient.
a. “Thank you nurse, I thank God for everything but not happy that I will not perform my
sexual functions”
b. “ I will always do my bladder training”
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c. “I will try as much as possible to keep to my appointment date”

d. “I will ensure that I complete my antibiotics”

176. The nurse sets catheterization try and assists the urologist in catheterizing a patient
with BPH to
a. Ensure that she does all that she suppose to do as a reasonable nurse
b. Ensure that she witnesses when the patient voids and to measure the volume of urine
made by the patient.
c. Prevent delay in the client care
d. To reduce anxiety related to non-emptying of the urinary bladder

177. Pre-operative assessment of a patient with BPH involves the under-listed except
a. The last time patient voided
b. Volume of urine voided since last few hours
c. Desire to void but unable to initiate voiding
d. Presence of colic abdominal pain

178. The first phase of Grand mal epilepsy is

a. Tonic phase
b. Clonic phase
c. Aura phase
d. Unconscious phase

179. Supportive/ psychological care is delivered more during the ……………... phase in epileptic
attack
a. Petit mal
b. Tonic-clonic
c. Epileptic automatism
d. Aura phase

180. Epileptic cry often occurs due to contraction of the thoracic and abdominal muscles which
force air out of the ……………..
a. spastic glottis
b. the pharynx
c. the larynx
d. mouth

181. One of these group of drugs is not good in renal diseases

a. Quinolone
b. Cephalosphorine
c. Aminoglycosides
d. Penicillin
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182. A diabetic with complication known as Hyperosmolar Hyperglycaemic Non-ketotic

Syndrome will experience these symptoms except
a. Blood glucose level of up to 500mg/dl
b. Urine production of up to 3000 - 40000 mls per day
c. Absence or reduced ketosis
d. hypoglycaemia

183. Pruritus vulvae is common in

a. Cushing’s syndrome
b. Simmond’s disease
c. Addison’s disease
d. Diabetes mellitus

184. One of these is mostly true about Sulphonylureas

a. They are rapidly absorbed from the GIT
b. They are poorly metabolized in the liver
c. Rarely excreted in the urine
d. a and b

185. One of these is not true about Biguanides

a. they function by direct stimulation of glycolysis
b. increase insulin binding receptors
c. decrease glucose removal from blood
d. slow glucose reabsorption from the GIT

186. Why is it essential to get patient’s food ready before the administration of insulin?
a. This is age long practice
b. To avoid time wastage in serving patient his/her meal
c. To avoid hypoglycaemia
d. Reduce reaction of insulin on the patient

187. In the administration of insulin using insulin syringe and needle, 1 ml of the calibrated
syringe is equivalent to
a. 20 units
b. 50 units
c. 40 units
d. 100 units
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188. The best action to be taken by nurse if a diabetic is due for insulin shot and is having
diarrhea is to
a. Give small dose of the insulin slowly
b. Ask the patient whether he would want the drug given to him
c. Report to the doctor
d. The prescribed dose with strict monitoring

189. A non insulin dependent diabetes mellitus patient is not likely to receive insulin
except
a. He/she is passing through excessive stress
b. The patient prefers to be given insulin
c. The doctor decides to prescribe insulin for the patient
d. All of the above

190. Human tests are adapted to cooler environment and can only produce sperm at
a) Core body temperature
b) Temperature of 37°C
c) Temperature 36°C
d) Temperature of 35°C

191. Three tiers of government capture

a. Federal government, State government and Local government area
b. Executive. Legislators and Judiciary
c. Tertiary, Secondary and Primary
d. None of the above

192. Arrange kubler Ross’ stages of dying in the sequence they be: (5) Acceptance (4)
bargaining (2) Anger (3) Denial (1) Depression
a. 1,2,3,4 and 5
b. 5,3,4,2 and 1
c. 1,3,4,5 and 3
d. 3,2,1,4 and 5
193. In the process of blood transfusion, Donation and Reception go in the following order
except.
a. Group A can donate to A, and AB
b. Group B can donate to B, and AB
c. Group O can donate to O, A, B, and AB
d. Group AB can donate to O, A, and B
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194. One of these functions by feed-forward mechanism to maintain homeostasis

a. Body temperature regulation
b. Parturition
c. Hormone production
d. Vomiting

195. One of these is not among the pressure points in the body
a. Gluteal point
b. Carotid point
c. Brachial point
d. Radial point

196. Drugs that inhibit the multiplication of bacteria without killing the bacteria are called
a. Disinfectants
b. Sterilizers
c. Bacteriocidals
d. Bacteriostatics

197. A patient with schistosomiasis is expected to complain of

a. Visible blood in urine
b. Painful urination
c. Pus in urine
d. Difficulty in urination

198. Ideal body mass index of a relatively healthy adult is within the range of
a. 33.4 – 35.4
b. 18.5 – 24.9
c. 20.5 – 30.5
d. 30.4 – 33.4

199. The possible signs of breast cancer include

a. fever
b. breast changes during menstruation
c. nipple discharge with breast nodule
d. fever and erythema of the breast

200. When caring for a 2 year old child, the nurse should offer choices when appropriate
about some aspects of care. According to Erikson, doing this helps the child achieve.
a. trust
b. autonomy
c. industry
d. initiative
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201. A business man looses an important contract, and gets a flat tire while driving home.
That evening, he begins to find fault with everyone. What defense mechanism is the he
using?
a. projection
b. displacement
c. regression
d. sublimation
202. A patient that has vomited as much as 500 milliliters of vomitus may likely be
diagnosed by a nurse as experiencing
a. Weakness related to vomiting
b. Fluid volume deficit/Deficient fluid volume
c. Fluid volume excess
d. Self care deficit/Deficient self care

203. There are about ------------- minor calyces per kidney

a. 10-20
b. 5-10
c. 3-10
d. 8-18

204. The incubation period for Neisseria gonorrhoea is

a. 5- 10 days
b. 2- 10 days
c. 10-20 days
d. 2-20 days
205. Nurses are carry out quick test of patients’ urine on admission because
a. It is known as routine investigation
b. Abnormality may be detected which will assist in the patient management
c. To keep to the doctor’s order or hospital policy
d. This has been the practice in nursing profession

206. The wall of the GIT is structurally arranged as follows from the inside.
a. Muscle layer, sub-mucous layer, mucous membrane and adventitia
b. Adventitia, sub-mucosa membrane, mucosa and muscle layer
c. Mucosa, sub-mucus membrane, muscle layer and adventitia
d. Adventitia, muscle layer, sub-mucous membrane and mucous membrane

207. One of these is not included in the myths about suicide

a. People who talk about suicide are likely to commit suicide
b. People who talk about suicide do not commit suicide.
33 | P a g e

c. Asking about suicide puts ideas into the client’s head.

d. Suicide usually happens without warning

208. In the administration of mannitol to a patient with head injury, the nurse should
recognize that the primary purpose for the mannitol is to
a. Reduce intracranial pressure
b. Diminish peripheral fluid retention
c. Nourish the brain cells
d. Prevent confusion

209. Antibiotics are prescribed in gastric ulcer disease to

a. Potentiate the effect of antacids
b. Augment the immune response
c.Treat helicobacter pylori infection
d. Reduce HCL acid secretion

210. Human development is orderly which means it occurs from

a. Simple to complex
b. Complex to simple
c. At the same time
d. All of the above

211. In real life the hyprophyseal fossa of the sphenoid bone accommodates
a. Thyroid gland
b. Pituitary gland
c. Pineal gland
d. Thymus gland

212. The most common side effect of ECT is:

a. Confusion and memory loss.
b. Headache and dizziness.
c. Nausea and vomiting.
d. Diarrhea.

213. Shirodkar stitches is a treatment procedure for

a. Missed abortion
b. Cervical pregnancy
c. Lacerated cervix
d. Habitual abortion.

214. Which of the following is not a key strategy in pain management?

34 | P a g e

a. Acknowledge and accept client’s pain

b. Reduce misconception about pain.
c. Reduce fear and anxiety.
d. Tell client’s about their pain threshold.
215. The most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient is
a. Food
b. The tongue
c. Mucus
d. Dentures
216. A nurse is admitting a child with diagnosis of pyloric stenosis to the hospital. Which
assessment finding if obtained from the mother is indicative of this condition?
a. Watery diarrhea
b. Vomiting large amount of bile.
c. Increased urine output.
d. Projectile vomiting.

217. While caring for a patient with asthma, an important nursing intervention that will
prevent attacks is
a. Encouraging the patient to take his/her drugs regularly
b. Encouraging copious oral fluid intake
c. Avoiding exercise and physical activity
d. Assisting the client with activities of daily living
218. Which of the following should patients with productive cough receive at night?
a. Expectorants.
b. Cough suppressants
c. Expectorants and cough suppressants
d. None of the above

219. One of these is not a pressure group in Nigeria

a. Nursing and Midwifery Council of Nigeria
b. Academic Staff Union of Universities
c. Nigeria Labour Congress
d. Non Academic Staff Union of Universities

220. For an individual to execute a living he/she must possess the following except
a. Be an adult
b. Be an emancipated minor by the country’s law
c. Have evidence of terminal disease
d. Show evidence of seriousness
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221. Presidential election was conducted in Nigeria by INEC on

a. 1st October 2023
b. 29th May, 2023
c. 25th February, 2023
d. None of the above
222. The cerebrospinal fluid is secreted continuously at the rate of
a. 0.1 - 0.3 ml per minute
b. 0.2 - 0.7 ml per minute
c. 0.2 - 0.4 ml per minute
d. 0.2 - 0.5 ml per minute
223. Primarily brain metastasis often spread to other parts of the body through the.
a. Blood stream
b. capillaries
c. lymph nodes
d. none of the above
224. the under-listed are neurotransmitters except
a. acetylcholine
b. dolopamine
c. norepinephrine
d. Serotonin

225. The early clinical indicators of hypoxemia include the following except
a. Cyanosis
b. Anxiety
c. breathlessness
d. tarchycardia

226. End of life care revolves around the under-listed with exception of
a. preventing or managing complications
b. maintaining quality of life as much as possible
c. planning to meet patient's wishes
d. administration of drugs

227. The goals of end of life care may not necessarily involve:
a. Physical comfort
b. Mental and emotional stability
c. Spiritual balance
d. Mastering self care activities

228. In palliative care, management of other distressing issues is an avenue to

a. Making the patient as comfortable as possible
b. Measures to prevent complications
c. To show that the nurses are apt to do their best in patient care
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d. Demonstrate invisible action of the nurses

229. Communication techniques applied in palliative care include all except

a. active listening
b. active reflection
c. Feedback
d. Remaining silent

230. At what stage in dying patient will the patient most likely to promise to change
behaviour if God will let him live?
a. denial
b. bargaining
c. depression
d. acceptance

231 ………. is also referred to as wellness check

a. Clinical assessment
b. Physical examination
c. History taking
d. All of the above

232. Physical examination actions should be used in sequence except in a …………

a. Cardiac
b. Pelvic
c. Abdominal assessment
d. None of the above

233. The effectiveness of teaching should be judged in terms of:

a. coverage of the syllabus
b. students learning outcome
c. students interest
d. use of teaching aids

234. the best way to teach students is to proceed from

a. difficult to simple
b. known to unknown
c. unknown to abstract
d. abstract to concrete

235. Down’s syndrome is also known as

a. Trisomy 18
b. Trisomy 21
c. Trisomy 13
37 | P a g e

d. Trisomy 16

236. The application of spirit of imagination, creativity, and courage to develop new ideas
is commonly seen as common way of defining
a. Entrepreneur
b. Enterprise
c. Entrepreneurship
d. All of the above

237. Pilot study for an enterprise can best be likened to ……………………

a. Test-run project
b. Pet-project
c. Project on-course
d. All of the above

238. ………….. raise(s) capital by selling of shares to the public

a. Public Limited Companies
b. Partnership enterprise
c. Private Limited Companies
d. a and c

239. ……….. is a complex clinical syndrome associated with a decreased in the

concentration of dopamine
a. Paralysis agitans
b. Gout
c. Osteoarthritis
d. None of the above

240. ……………… is a degenerative disease that occurs when the protective cartilage that
cushions the ends of the bones wears down over time
a. Paralysis agitans
b. Gout
c. Osteoarthritis
d. Parkinson’s disease

241. Impaired communication as nursing diagnosis is more pronounced in one of these

diseases
osteoarthritis
a. Gout arthritis
b. Rheumatoid Arthritis
c. Parkinson’s disease
d. Psoriatic Arthritis
38 | P a g e

242. Non Steroidal Anti-inflammatory drugs used in the management of rheumatoid

arthritis act by
a. Inhibiting the T cells and B cells of the immune system
b. Decreasing pain and inflammation
c. Interrupting immune system signals
d. All of the above
243. …………………….. is an inherited disorder resulting from purine
metabolism characterized
a. Gout arthritis
b. Rheumatoid Arthritis
c. Psoriatic Arthritis
d. Osteosarcoma

244. Diuretic Therapy increases the risk of developing gout because

a. diuretics increase urination, which reduces the amount of fluid in the body
b. diuretics are not compatible with diuretica
c. diuretics are nephrotoxic
d. a and c

245. One of these is not a risk factor for osteoporosis

a. Salt
b. High calcium intake
c. Vitamin A-rich foods
d. Thyroid medication

246. Precautions in the care of catheterized patient does not include

a. Ensure that the catheter does not kink
b. Empty the uribag often or when it is 3/4 filled
c. Change uribag every 2-3 weeks
d. Keep strict intake and output record

247. Otitis media resulting from upper respiratory infection is more common in children
because
a. They have short Eustachian tube
b. They are not properly treated of upper respiratory tract infection
c. Otitis media is disease for children
d. a and b

248. Peanuts are one of the worst things a child can aspirate in the ear because peanuts
a. Swell when wet
b. Contain a fixed oil
c. Decompose when wet
d. Contain sodium
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249. One of these is better way of explaining data to show gravity of a disease in a country
a. Percentage of population affected
b. Places or areas affected by the disease
c. Number of influential people affected by the disease
d. Number of children affected by the disease

250. Which of the following clinical manifestations puts a mother of a child who just
recovered from acute asthma attack on alert to her child’s condition
a.Thin copious mucous secretion
b. Tight productive cough
c. Whistling sound on expiration
d. Fever of 380C

Time allowed: 3 hours

MARKING GUIDE FOR OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS 1-250:

1. A 2. A 3. B
40 | P a g e

4. A 48. C 92. B
5. C 49. B 93. C
6. A 50. B 94. C
7. D 51. D 95. D
8. D 52. B 96. C
9. A 53. B 97. C
10. C 54. C 98. A
11. A 55. C 99. D
12. C 56. B 100. D
13. B 57. D 101. C
14. D 58. C 102. B
15. D 59. A 103. C
16. B 60. D 104. D
17. D 61. D 105. B
18. D 62. D 106. D
19. B 63. C 107. B
20. A 64. B 108. A
21. A 65. B 109. C
22. A 66. A 110. B
23. C 67. A 111. A
24. C 68. C 112. B
25. B 69. A 113. C
26. B 70. A 114. D
27. A 71. D 115. A
28. C 72. B 116. B
29. D 73. A 117. A
30. B 74. C 118. D
31. C 75. C 119. C
32. B 76. D 120. C
33. D 77. A 121. D
34. C 78. A 122. D
35. B 79. B 123. B
36. A 80. D 124. B
37. B 81. A 125. A
38. C 82. A 126. D
39. D 83. D 127. D
40. D 84. B 128. D
41. C 85. A 129. A
42. B 86. B 130. C
43. D 87. B 131. B
44. B 88. D 132. A
45. A 89. B 133. D
46. C 90. C 134. D
47. B 91. C 135. D
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136. A 175. A 214. D

137. B 176. C 215. B
138. A 177. D 216. D
139. D 178. C 217. A
140. C 179. C 218. B
141. A 180. A 219. A
142. B 181. C 220. D
143. C 182. C 221. C
144. C 183. D 222. B
145. A 184. A 223. A
146. D 185. C 224. A
147. A 186. D 225. C
148. A 187. D 226. D
149. A 188. C 227. D
150. A 189. A 228. A
151. C 190. D 229. C
152. C 191. A 230. B
153. A 192. D 231. B
154. B 193. D 232. C
155. D 194. B 233. B
156. C 195. A 234. B
157. D 196. D 235. B
158. A 197. A 236. C
159. B 198. B 237. A
160. C 199. C 238. A
161. C 200. B 239. A
162. C 201. B 240. C
163. A 202. B 241. C
164. D 203. D 242. B
165. D 204. B 243. D
166. B 205. B 244. A
167. C 206. D 245. B
168. D 207. A 246. D
169. B 208. A 247. A
170. A 209. C 248. A
171. B 210. A 249. A
172. D 211. B 250. C
173. C 212. B
174. C 213. D