NEET 2025

STUDY MATERIAL

PHYSICS

Brilliant
STUDY CENTRE, PALA
Mutholy Campus, Ph: 04822 - 206100, 206800
www.brilliantpala.org., email: [email protected].
Page 2 blank
 CONTENTS

1. Physical World, Units and Measurements----------------------------------------------------------------- 05

2. Motion in a Straight Line-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------10
3. Motion in a Plane----------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 15
4. Laws of Motion-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 20
5. Work Energy & Power---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 26
6. System of Particles and Rigid Body Rotation-------------------------------------------------------------31
7. Gravitation--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 37
8. Mechanical Properties of Solids & Fluids------------------------------------------------------------------ 42
9. Thermal Properties of Matter, Thermodynamics and Kinetic Theory------------------------- 49
10. Oscillations-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 55
11. Waves---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 60
12. Electrostatics---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 65
13. Current Electricity---------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 75
14. Moving Charges and Magnetism------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 82
15. Magnetism and Matter--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 89
16. Electromagnetic Induction and Alternating Current--------------------------------------------------- 94
17. Electromagnetic Waves-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------102
18. Ray Optics & Optical Instruments---------------------------------------------------------------------------105
19. Wave Optics------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------ 112
20. Dual Nature of Matter and Radiation----------------------------------------------------------------------- 116
21. Atoms and Nuclei--------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 120
22. Semiconductor Electronics------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 125
23. Experimental Skills------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------- 131
Page 2 blank
 Chapter
UNITS AND
01 MEASUREMENTS

QUESTIONS 4. The order of magnitude of 0.00701 is

LEVEL - I 1) –2 2) –1

1. Which of the following sets cannot enter into

3) 2 4) 1
the list of fundamental quantities in any system
of unit?
5. Which two of the following five physical
1) length, mass and velocity parameters have the same dimensions?

2) length, time and velocity

A) Energy density
3) mass, time and velocity
B) Refractive index
4) length time and mass

2. Parsec is the unit of C) Dielectric constant

1) Distance D) Young's modulus

2) Time
E) Magnetic field
3) Frequency
1) B and D 2) C and E
4) Angular acceleration

3. In a system of units, unit of mass is α kg, the 3) A and D 4) A and E

unit of length is β m and unit of time is γ 6. Planck's constant (h), speed of light in vacuum
(c) and Newton's gravitational constant (G)
second. Then 1N in new system is are three fundamental constants. Which of
the following combinations of these has the
−1 −1 2
1) [α β γ ] dimension of length?

2) α β γ 
−1 −2 −2
hc Gc
1) 2)
G h 3/2
3) α β γ 
1 2 −2

hG hG
3) 4)
4) α βγ 
−1 −2
c3 c5/2

Study Material 5
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
7. Given that T stands for time period and l stands 11. In an experiment, the percentage of error
for the length of simple pendulum. If g is the occured in the measurement of physical
acceleration due to gravity, then which of the quantities A, B, C and D are 1%, 2%, 3% and
following statements about the relation T2=(l/g) 4% respectively. Then the maximum
is correct? percentage of error in the measurement X,
A 2 B1/2
1) It is correct both dimensionally as well as where X = will be
C1/3D3
numerically
3
2) It is neither dimensionally correct nor 1)  % 2) 16%
numerically  13 
3) –10% 4) 10%
3) It is dimensionally correct but not numerically
12. The period of oscillation of a simple pendulum
4) It is numerically correct but not dimensionally
L
is T = 2π . Measured value of L is 20.0cm
8. The time dependence of a physical quantity P g
2
−α t
is given by P = P0 e , where α is a constant
known to 1mm accuracy and time for 100
and t is time. Then constant α is oscillations of the pendulum is found to be 90s
using wrist watch of 1s resolution. The
1) Dimensionless accuracy in the determination of g is:

2) Has dimensions of T–2 1) 3% 2) 1%

3) Has dimensions of P 3) 5% 4) 2%
4) Has dimensions of T2
13. If the error in the measurement of radius of a
9. The volume of a sphere is 1.76 cm3. The sphere is 2%, then the error in the determination
volume of 25 such spheres taking into account of volume of the sphere will be
the significant figures is
1) 4% 2) 6%
1) 0.44×102cm3 2) 44.0 cm3
3) 8% 4) 2%
3) 44cm3 4) 44.00 cm3
14. Choose the incorrect statement out of the
10. The mass of a box measured by a grocer's following
balance is 2.3 kg. Two gold pieces of masses
20.15g and 20.17g are added to the box. What
1) Every measurement by any measuring
is the total mass of the box and the difference in
instrument has some error
the masses of the pieces to correct significant
figures?
2) Every calculated physical quantity that is
1) 2.34 kg, 0g based on measured values has some error

2) 2.3 kg, 0.02 g 3) A measurement can have more accuracy

but less precision and vice versa
3) 2.34 kg, 0.02 g
4) The percentage error is different from
4) 2.3 kg, 0g relative error

6 Physics
 NEET 2025
LEVEL - II 19. If E and G respectively denote energy and
E
15. The density of material in CGS system of units gravitational constant, then has the
G
is 4g/cm3. In a system of units in which unit of
length is 10cm and unit of mass is 100g, the dimensions of
value of density of material will be
1) [M2][L–2][T–1]
1) 0.4 2) 40
2) [M2][L–1][T0]
3) 400 4) 0.04
2 3) [M][L–1][T–1]
y a sin ωt + bt + ct cos ωt . The
16. Given that =
4) [M][L0][T0]
unit of abc is same as that of:
20. The velocity v of a particle at time t is given by
1) y 2) yt
b
V= at + , where a, b and c are constants
3) (y/t) 2
4) (y/t)3
t+c
. The dimensions of a, b and c are respectively
17. If force [F], acceleration [A] and time [T] are
chosen as the fundamental physical quantities.
Find the dimensions of energy 1) [L2,T and LT–2]

1) [F][A–1][T] 2) [F][A][T] 2) [LT2, LT and L]

3) [F][A][T2] 4) [F][A][T–1] 3) [L, LT and T2]

18. A physical quantity of the dimensions of length 4) [LT–2, L and T]

2
e
that can be formed out of c, G and is [c
4πε0 21. The area of rectangular field (in m2) of length
55.3m and breadth 25m after rounding off the
value for correct significant digits is:
is velocity of light, G is universal constant of
gravitation and e is charge]
1) 1382
1/2
2  e2  2) 1382.5
1) c G 
 4πε 0 
3) 14×102

1/2 4) 138×101
1  e2 
2) 2  
c  G4πε 0  22. Taking into account of the significant figures,
what is the value of 9.99m – 0.0099m?

1 e2 1) 9.98 m
3) G
c 4πε0
2) 9.980 m

1/2 3) 9.9 m
1  e2 
4) 2  G 
c  4πε 0  4) 9.9801 m

Study Material 7
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

23. Two resistors R1 =( 4 ± 0.8 ) Ω and 26. A wire has a mass ( 0.3 ± 0.003) g , radius

R 2 =( 4 ± 0.4 ) Ω are connected in parallel. The ( 0.5 ± 0.005) mm and length ( 6 ± 0.06 ) cm .
equivalent resistance of their parallel The maximum percentage error in the
combination will be measurement of its density is

1) ( 4 ± 0.4 ) Ω 1) 1 2) 2

2) ( 2 ± 0.4 ) Ω 3) 3 4) 4

3) ( 2 ± 0.4 ) Ω 27. If there is a positive error of 50% in the

measurement of velocity of a body, then the
4) ( 2 ± 0.3) Ω error in the measurement of kinetic energy is

24. The specific gravity of a material of a body is 1) 25%

determined by weighing the body first in air
and then in water. The weight of the body in air 2) 50%
is ( 20.0 ± 0.2 ) N and in water is (10.0 ± 0.2 ) N 3) 100%
. The maximum percentage error in the specific 4) 125%
gravity will be
28. Assertion : When we change the unit of
1) 1% 2) 5% measurement of a quantity, its
numerical value changes
3) 4% 4) 6%
Reason : Smaller the unit of
25. Statement I : Order of magnitude depends measurement smaller is its
on system of units numerical value
Statement II : Number of significant figures 1) If both assertion and reason are true and
in a measurement depends reason is the correct explanation of assertion
on system of units
2) If both assertion and reason are true
1) Statement I and II are false but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion
2) Statement I is true, statement II is true.
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
3) Statement I is true, statement II is false
4) If both assertion and reason are false
4) Statement I is false, statement II is true

8 Physics
 NEET 2025

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I LEVEL - II

1. 2 8. 2 15. 2 22. 1
2. 1 9. 2 16. 4 23. 4
3. 1 10. 2 17. 3 24. 2
4. 1 11. 2 18. 4 25. 3
5. 3 12. 1 19. 2 26. 4
6. 3 13. 2 20. 4 27. 4
7. 3 14. 4 21. 3 28. 3

Study Material 9
 Chapter
MOTION IN A
02 STRAIGHT LINE

QUESTIONS 5. The two ends of a train moving with constant

acceleration pass a certain point with
LEVEL - I velocities u and 3u. The velocity with which
1. A particle is moving along a circle such that it the middle point of the train passes the same
completes one revolution in 40 seconds. In 2 point is
minutes 20 seconds, the ratio |displacement| 3
distance 1) 2u 2) u
is 2
1
1) 0 2)
7 3) 5u 4) 10u
6. A particle start moving from rest state along
2 1
3) 4) a straight line under the action of a constant
7 11 force and travel distance x in first 5 seconds.
2. A particle moves along x-axis with speed The distance travelled by it in next five
6m/s for the first half distance of a journey seconds will be
and the second half distance with a speed 3 1) x 2) 2 x
m/s. The average speed in the total journey is
3) 3 x 4) 4 x
1) 5 m/s 2) 4.5 m/s
7. A body is projected vertically upward from
3) 4 m/s 4) 2 m/s
ground. If we neglect the effect of air, then
3. The position of a body moving along x-axis which one of the following is the best
at time t is given by x = (t2 - 4t + 6)m. The representation of variation of speed (v) with
distance travelled by body in time interval t=0 time (t) ?
to t =3 s is
1) 5 m 2) 7 m
3) 4 m 4) 3 m 1) 2)
4. A boat covers certain distance between two
spots in a river taking t1 hrs going downstream
and t2 hrs going upstream. What time will be
taken by boat to cover same distance in still
water ?
t1 + t 2
1) 2) 2(t2-t1)
2 3) 4)

2t1t 2
3) 4) t1 t 2
t1 + t 2

10 Physics
 NEET 2025
8. The displacement-time graph for two particles 12. Assertion : The position-time graph of
VA a uniform motion in one
A and B is as follows. The ratio is dimension of a body can have
VB
negative slope.
Reason : When the speed of body
decreases with time, the
position-time graph of the
moving body has negative
slope.
1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
1) 1 :2 2) 1: 3
2) If both Assertion and Reason are true
3) 3 :1 4) 1:3 but Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion
9. The bus moving with speed of 42 km/hr is
brought to a stop by brakes after 6m. If the 3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false
same bus is moving at a speed of 90 km/hr, 4) If both Assertion and Reason are false
then the minimum stopping distance is
13. A ball is dropped from a bridge 122.5 m above
1) 15.48 m
a river. After the ball has been falling for two
2) 18.64 m second, a second ball is thrown straight down
3) 22.13 m after it. What must its initial velocity be so that
both hit the water at the same time ?
4) 27.55 m
1) 49 m/s
10. A person sitting in the ground floor of a
building notices through the window of height 2) 55.5 m/s
1.5 m, a ball dropped from the roof of the 3) 26.1 m/s
building crosses the window in 0.1 s. What
is the velocity of the ball when it is at the 4) 9.8 m/s
topmost point of the window ? 14. Two trains, each 50 m long are travelling in
( g=10m/s ) 2 opposite direction with velocity 10 m/s and 15
m/s. The time of crossing is
1) 15.5 m/s
2) 14.5 m/s 1) 2s

3) 4.5 m/s 2) 4s
4) 20 m/s 3) 2 3 s
11. A police van moving on a highway with a
4) 4 3s
speed of 30 km/h fires a bullet at a thief’s car
speeding away in the same direction with a 15. A ball is dropped from the top of a building of
speed of 192 km/h. If the muzzle speed of the height 80 m. At same instant another ball is
bullet is 150 m/s, with what speed does the thrown upwards with speed 50 m/s from the
bullet hit the thief’s car ? bottom of the building. The time at which balls
will meet is
475
1) 105 m/s 2) m/s 1) 1.6 s
3
2) 5 s
160 3) 8 s
3) m/s 4) 212 m/s
3 4) 10 s

Study Material 11
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
LEVEL II 19. A particle starts from rest at t =0 and moves
in a straight line with an accelertion as shown
16. The initial velocity of a particle is u (at t=0) below. The velocity of the particle at t=3s is
and the acceleration a is given by αt3/2. Which
of the following relations is valid ?
1) v = u + αt3/2

3αt 3
2) v= u +
2

2 5/2
3) v = u + αt 1) 2 m/s 2) 4 m/s
5
3) 3 m/s 4) 6 m/s
4) v = u + αt 5/2
20. The position of a particle as a function of time
17. A train starts from rest from a station with t, is given by x(t) = at + bt2 –ct3 where a, b and
acceleration 0.2 m/s2 on a straight track and c are constants. When the particle attains
then comes to rest after attaining maximum zero acceleration, then its velocity will be
speed on another station due to retardation
b2 b2
0.4 m/s2. If total time spent is half an hour, 1) a + 2) a +
then distance between two stations is [Neglect 2c 4c
length of train]
1) 216 km b2 b2
3) a + 4) a +
2) 512 km 3c c

3) 728 km 21. A particle starts from origin O from rest and

moves with a uniform acceleration along
4) 1296 km the positive X-axis. Identify all figures that
18. The velocity versus time graph of a body correctly represent the motion qualitatively.
moving in a straight line is as shown in the (a=acceleration, v =velocity, x= displacement,
figure below t = time)

A) B)

C) D)
1) The distance covered by the body in 0 to
2s is 8m
2) The acceleration of the body in 0 to 2s is 4
ms–2
1) (A)
3) The acceleration of the body in 2 to 3s is
4ms–2 2) (B), (C)

4) The distance moved by the body during 0 3) (A), (B), (C)

to 3 s is 6 m 4) (A), (B), (D)

12 Physics
 NEET 2025
22. An object thrown vertically up from the ground 26. The water drops fall at regular intervals from
passes the height 5 m twice in an interval of a tap 5 m above the ground. The third drop is
10 s. What is its time of flight ? leaving the tap at instant the first drop touches
the ground. How far above the ground is the
1) 28s 2) 86s second drop at that instant ?

3) 104s 4) 72s [Take g =10 ms–2]

23. A ball is projected vertically upwards. Its 1) 3.75 m

speed at half of maximum height is 20 m/s.
2) 4.00 m
The maximum height attained by it is [Take
g=10 ms2] 3) 1.25 m
1) 35 m 2) 15 m 4) 2.50 m
3) 25 m 4) 40 m 27. The graph showns the variation of velocity of
a rocket with time. Then the maximum height
24. A stone thrown upward with a speed u from
attained by the rocket is
the top of a tower reaches the ground with a
velocity 4u. The height of the tower is

15u 2 7u 2
1) 2)
2g 2g

16u 2
3) 4) zero
g 1) 1.1 km 2) 5 km

25. A bus is moving with a speed of 10 ms-1 on a 3) 55 km 4) 76 km

straight road. A scooterist wishes to overtake 28. One a two lane road, car A is travelling with
the bus in 100 s. If the bus is at a distance a speed of 36 kmh–1. Two cars B and C
of 1 km from the scooterist, with what speed approach car A in opposite directions with a
should the scooterist chase the bus ? speed of 54 Kmh–1 each. At a certain instant,
when the distance AB is equal to AC, both
1) 10 ms–1 being 1km, B decides to cross A before C
does. The minimum acceleration of car B to
2) 20 ms–1
avoid an accident is
3) 40 ms–1 1) 0.5 ms–2 2) 1 ms–2

4) 25 ms–1 3) 2 ms–2 4) 2.5 ms–2

Study Material 13
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I

1. 4 6. 3 11. 1
2. 3 7. 2 12. 3
3. 1 8. 4 13. 3
4. 3 9. 4 14. 2
5. 3 10. 2 15. 1

LEVEL II

16. 3 21. 4 26. 1

17. 1 22. 3 27. 3
18. 4 23. 4 28. 2
19. 3 24. 1
20. 3 25. 2

14 Physics
 Chapter

03 MOTION IN A PLANE

     
QUESTIONS 4. A × B = A ⋅ B , then the angle between A × B

LEVEL - I is

1. A physical quantity which has a direction: 1) 30° 2) 45°

1) must be a vector 3) 60° 4) 90°

2) may be a vector 5. Rain is falling vertically with a speed of

35 ms–1. A woman rides a bicycle with a
3) may be both scalar & vector speed of 12 ms–1 in east to west direction.
The direction in which she should hold her
4) none of the above umbrella is

2. A vector is inclined at an angle 60° to the 1) at cos–1(0.343) with vertical towards east
horizontal . If its rectangular component in the
horizontal direction is 50 N, then its magnitude
2) at tan–1(0.343) with vertical towards west
in the vertical direction is

1) 25 N 2) 75 N 3) at cos–1(0.343) with vertical towards west

3) 87 N 4) 100 N 4) at tan–1(0.343) with vertical towards east

3. The position of a particle is given by 6. At which point of a ground to ground projectile

r =3tiˆ + 2t 2ˆj + 5kˆ , then the direction of v(t) at motion, acceleration and velocity are
perpendicular to each other?
t=1s in
1) At the point of projection
1) 45° with X-axis
2) At the point of drop
2) 63° with Y-axis

3) At the top most point

3) 30° with Y-axis

4) 53° with X-axis 4) Anywhere in between the point of projection

and top most points

Study Material 15
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
7. A body is projected with velocity u, from point 11. The speed of a projectile at the maximum
A as shown in figure. At the same time another height is (1/2) of its initial speed. Find the ratio
body is projected vertically upwards with the of range of projectile to the maximum height
velocity u2 from the point B. What should be attained
u1
the value of for both the bodies to collide
u2 4
1) 4 3 2)
3

3
3) 4) 6
4

12. If a car is executing a uniform circular motion,

then its centripetal acceleration represents

1) a scalar quantity
2 1
1) 2)
3 3 2) constant vector

3) 3 4) 2 3) not a constant vector

8. Two projectiles having different masses m1

and m2 are projected at an angle α and (90°– 4) constant direction and changing magnitude

α ) with the same speed from some point. The 13. Two particles A and B are moving in uniform
circular motion in concentric circles of radii rA
ratio of their maximum heights is and rB with speed vA and vB respectively. Their
time period of rotation is the same. The ratio of
1) cot α : sin α 2) 1:1
angular speed of A to that of B
2
3) tan α :1 4) 1: tan α
1) vA: vB 2) rB: rA
9. Find angle of projection with the horizontal
in terms of maximum height attained and
3) 1:1 4) rA: rB
horizontal range.

-1 2H -1 4R 14. What is the centripetal acceleration of a point

1) tan 2) tan
R H mass which is moving on a circular path of
radius 5m with speed 23 ms–1?
-1 4H -1 H
3) tan 4) tan
R R
10. An aircraft flying horizontally with the speed 1) 106 ms–2
180 kmh–1 releases a packet at a height of
980m from the ground. It will strike the ground 2) 90 ms–2
at (use, g=10 ms–2) a horizontal distance

1) 1 km 2) 2 km 3) 60 ms–2

3) 2.8 km 4) 0.7 km 4) None of these

16 Physics
 NEET 2025
LEVEL - II 19. The stream of a river is flowing with a speed
of 2km/h. A swimmer can swim at a speed of
15. Unit vector in the direction of the resultant of 4km/h. What should be the direction of the
vectors A =−3iˆ − 2ˆj − 3kˆ and B = 2iˆ + 4ˆj + 6kˆ swimmer with respect to the flow of the river to
cross the river straight?
is
1) 60° 2) 120°
−3iˆ + 2ˆj − 3kˆ
1) 2) −ˆi + 2ˆj + 3kˆ 3) 90° 4) 150°
14
20. A bird is flying towards east with velocity 50
km/h and a train is moving with a velocity 50
−ˆi + 2ˆj + 3kˆ
3) 4) −2iˆ − 4ˆj + 8kˆ km/h towards south. What is the velocity of the
14 bird with respect an observer in train

16. The resultant of two forces has a magnitude of

1) 50 20 km/h north-east
20N. One of them has a magnitude 20 3N . It

makes an angle 30° with the resultant. Then 2) 50 20 km/h south-east

the other force must be of magnitude
3) 50 2 km/h south-west
1) 20 N 2) 20 3N
4) 50 2 km/h north-east
3) Zero 4) 10 3N
21. A stunt man plans to jump horizontally between
17. The x and y -coordinates of the particle at
two roof tops. The second roof is 4.9m below
any time are x=5t–2t2 and y=10t respectively,
the first one and 6.2m away from it. What
where x and y are in metres and t in seconds.
should be his minimum speed so that he can
The acceleration of the particle at t=2s is
make the jump successfully (in m/s)
1) 0
1) 3.1 2) 4
2) 5 ms–2
3) 4.9 4) 6.2
3) –4 ms–2
22. A projectile is given an initial velocity of
4) –8 ms–2
( ˆi+2jˆ ) ms -1
, where î is along the ground and ĵ
18. Rain is falling vertically with a speed of 35
ms–1. Winds starts blowing after sometime with is along vertical. If g=10 ms–2, the equation of
a speed of 12 ms–1 in east to west direction. its trajectory is
In which direction from vertical should boy
waiting at a bus stop hold his umbrella? 1) y = x–5x2

1) tan–1 (0.45), west 2) y = 2x–5x2

2) tan–1 (0.343), west
3) 4y=2x–5x2
3) tan–1(0.343), east
4) 4y=2x–25x2
4) tan–1(0.24), east
Study Material 17
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
23. The ceiling of a hall is 30m high. A ball is 26. From a point on the ground at a distance of
thrown with 60 ms–1 at an angle θ , so that it 2m from the foot of a vertical wall, a ball is
thrown at an angle of 45° which just clears the
could just reach the ceiling of the hall and top of the wall and then strikes the ground at a
come back to the ground. The angle of distance of 4m from the foot of the wall on the
projection θ that the ball was projected is other side. The height of the wall is

given by 1) 3/2

1 2) 2/3
1) sin θ =
8 3) 3/4

4) 4/3
1
2) sin θ =
6 27. An object launched from a cliff 20m above the
ground at an angle of 30° above the horizontal
with an initial speed of 30 m/s. How far does
1 the object travel horizontally before landing on
3) sin θ = the ground? (in metre)
3
1) 20
4) None of these

24. A boy stands onthe edge of a cliff 490 m above 2) 20 3 2

the ground and throws a stone horizontally
3) 60
with an initial speed of 15 ms–1. Which one of
the following statement is correct?
4) 60 3
1) The time taken by the stone to reach the
ground is 30 s 28. A small ball rolls of the top of a stairway
horizontally with a velocity of 4.5 ms–1. Each
2) The time taken by the stone to reach the step is 0.2 m high and 0.3 m wide. If g is 10
ground is 20 s ms–2, then the ball will strike the nth step where
n is equal to (assume ball strike at the edge of
3) The speed with which it hits the ground is 99 the step)
ms–1
1) 9 2) 10
4) None of the above
3) 11 4) 12
25. A bullet fired at an angle of 30° with the
horizontal hits the ground 3km away. By 29. A particle moves in a circle of radius 25cm with
adjusting its angle of projections, it can 2 revolutions per second. The acceleration of
(assume, the muzzle speed to be fixed and the particle in m/s2 is
neglect air resistance) 2
1) π
1) hit a target at 5km
2
2) 2π
2) hit a target at 6km
2
3) 4π
3) cannot hit a target at 5km
2
4) 2π
4) None of the above
18 Physics
 NEET 2025
30. Assertion : In uniform circular motion 31. I. When an object follows a circular path at
although the speed of particle a constant speed, the motion of the object is
remains constant yet the called uniform circular motion
particle is accelerated due
II. The acceleration of an object in uniform
to the change in direction of
circular motion is always directed away the
motion.
centre of the circle
Reason : The force acting on the body in Which of the following statement(s) is/are
uniform circular motion is only correct?
radial.
1) only I 2) only II
1) If both assertion and reason are true and
reason is the correct explanation of the 3) Both I and II 4) Neither I nor II
assertion.
32. A stone tied to the end of a string 80cm long
is whirled in a horizontal circle with a constant
2) If both assertion and reason are true and
speed. If the stone makes 14 revolutions in
reason is not the correct explanation of the
25s, what is the magnitude of its centripetal
assertion.
acceleration?
3) If assertion is true, but reason is false. 1) 8.2 m/s2 2) 2 m/s2
4) If assertion is false, but reason is true. 3) 8.8 m/s2 4) 9.91 m/s2

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I LEVEL - II

1. 2 8. 3 15. 3 24. 3
2. 1 9. 3 16. 1 25. 3
3. 4 10. 4 17. 3 26. 4
4. 3 11. 2 18. 3 27. 4
5. 4 12. 3 19. 2 28. 1
6. 4 13. 3 20. 4 29. 3
7. 1 14. 1 21. 4 30. 1
22. 2 31. 1
23. 2 32. 4

Study Material 19
 Chapter

04 LAWS OF MOTION

QUESTIONS 3. A 0.5kg ball moving with a speed 12 ms–1

strikes a hard wall at an angle 30° with the
wall. It is reflected with the same speed at the
LEVEL - I same angle. If the ball is in contact with the
wall for 0.25s, the average force acting on the
1. When we catch a cricket ball then after wall is
catching it, we keep moving the hands in the
same direction for a while. Why is it done?

1) To increase the impulse on ball

2) To decrease the impulse on the ball

3) To increase the time of contact so that force

magnitude may increase

4) To increase the time of contact so that force

1) 96 N 2) 48 N
magnitude may decrease
3) 24 N 4) 12 N
2. A given force can produce an acceleration of
4. The force F acting on a particle of mass 'm' is
a1 in a body and the same force can produce
indicated by the force-time graph shown below.
an acceleration a2 in another body. When two The change in momentum of the particle over
bodies are combined and the same force is the time interval from zero to 8s is:
applied then acceleration produced is

a1a 2
1)
a1 + a 2
2) a1 + a2

3) a1–a2

1) 24 Ns 2) 20 Ns
4) a1a2
3) 12 Ns 4) 6 Ns
20 Physics
 NEET 2025
5. Three blocks A, B and C of masses 4kg, 2kg 7. Two masses M and M/2 are joined together by
and 1kg respectively, are in contact on a means of light inextensible string passed over
frictionless surface, as shown. If a force of 14N a frictionless pulley as shown in figure. When
is applied on the 4kg block, then the contact the bigger mass is released, the smaller one
force between A and B is: will ascend with an acceleration of

1) 2N
2) 6N
3) 8N 1) g/3
4) 18N 3g
2)
6. A weight W is attached to two weightless strings 2
AB and AC each of length 'l' and suspended as
3) g
shown. The tension in each part of the string
will be g
4)
2

8. Two bodies of mass 4kg and 6kg are attached

to the ends of a string passing over a smooth
pulley. A 4kg mass is attached to the table top
by another string. The tension in this string T1
is equal to

1) 2W

W
2)
2
1) 19.6 N
W
3) 2) 25 N
2
3) 10.6 N
4) 2W 4) 10 N

Study Material 21
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
9. A rope of mass M and length L is lying straight 11. The mass of a lift is 2000 kg. When the tension
on a frictionless horizontal floor. A force F is in the supporting cable is 28000 N, then its
applied at one end along its length. Calculate acceleration is
tension developed in the rope at a distance x
from the end where force is applied 1) 4 ms–2 upwards

F 2) 4 ms–2 downwards
1) ( L − x)
L
3) 14 ms–2 upwards
Fx
2)
L 4) 30 ms­–2 downwards
F
3) 2 ( L − x )
2
12. If a force of 250N acts on a body, the
L
momentum required is 125 m/s, what is the
Fx 2 period for which force acts on the body ?
4)
L2
10. See the figure block of mass M is kept at rest 1) 0.2 sec 2) 0.5 sec
on the floor. Mass of monkey is m (m<M). What
3) 0.25 sec 4) 1 sec
should be the minimum upward acceleration of
monkey so that block may be lifted from the
13. A bomb of mass 5.0 kg explodes in an into
floor?
two pieces of masses 2.0 kg and 3.0kg. The
smaller mass goes at a speed of 60 m/s. The
total energy imparted to the two fragments is

1) 2.4 kJ 2) 6 kJ

3) 3.6 kJ 4) 4.8 kJ

14. A rocket of mass 800 kg is to be projected

vertically upwards. The gases are exhausted
vertical downwards with velocity 40 m/s with
respect to the rocket. What is the minimum
rate of burning fuel so as to just lift the rocket
upwards against the gravitational attraction?
(Take g=10 m/s2)
M 
1)  + 1 g
m  1) 80 kg/s 2) 400 kg/s

3) 200 kg/s 4) 800 kg/s

M 
2)  − 1 g
m  15. A block of mass 2kg is on table. µ s is 0.3 and

µk is 0.2. A horizontal force 8 Newton is applied

m 
3)  − 1 g
M  on the block. In this case the acceleration is
(g=10 m/s2)

m  1) 2 m/s2 2) 1 m/s2
4)  + 1 g
M  3) zero 4) None
22 Physics
 NEET 2025
16. A block of mass m is in contact with the cart C LEVEL - II
as shown in the figure. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and the cart is µ . 20. Two blocks of mass m each are moving
vertically downward under the influence of an
The acceleration a of the cart that will prevent external force f and gravity as shown in figure

the block from falling satisfies

1) α ≥ g / µ 2) α < g / µ

3) α > mg / µ 4) α > g / µm
1) contact force between blocks will break and
17. A gun fires bullets of mass m with speed v at a normal reaction between the blocks will be
rate 120 per minute. Then the force by the gun zero
is:
2) Both block move in combination with
1) 2mv 2) 120 mv common acceleration a=2g
3) 100mv 4) None 3) contact force between blocks is mg
18. A block of mass 2kg is on a table. A horizontal 4) both 2 and 3 are correct
force of 6N is applied on the block. In this case
the friction is ( µs =0.4 ) 21. A block is released on smooth inclined plane
of inclination. The time at which it will reach
1) 8N 2) 0N bottom is:
3) 6N 4) None

19. A motor cyclist moving with a velocity of 72 km/

hour on flat road takes a turn on the road at a
point where the radius of curvature of the road
is 20 meters. The acceleration due to gravity is
10 m/sec2. In order to avoid skidding,he must
not bend with respect to the vertical plane by
an angle greater than

1) θ = tan ( 6 ) 1 2h 2 2h
−1
1) 2)
sin θ g sin θ g
2) θ = tan ( 2 )
−1

3) θ = tan ( 25.92 )
−1
3 2h 4 2h
3) 4)
sin θ g sin θ g
4) θ = tan ( 4 )
−1

Study Material 23
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
22. Find the tension in the string which connected 25. Calculate the acceleration of the block.
the blocks as shown in the following figure Assume that initially the block is at rest.

1) 4 3N 2) 4 N

3) 3 N 4) 5 N 1) 0 m/s2
23. Two blocks A and B of masses 3 m and m
2) 1 m/s2
respectively are connected by a massless
and inextensible string. The whole system is
suspended by a massless spring as shown 3) 2 m/s2
in figure. The magnitudes of acceleration of A
and B immediately after the string is cut, are 4) 3 m/s2
respectively:-
26. Determine the maximum acceleration of the
train in which a box lying on the floor will
remain stationary. Given that the co-efficient of
static friction between the box and the train’s
floor is 0.15

1) 1.5 m/s2 2) 2.5 m/s2

3) 2 m/s2 4) 1 m/s2

27. A block of mass 4 kg is placed on a rough

horizontal plane. The time dependent force
F=Kt2 acts on the block where K=2N/s2. Co-
g efficient of friction µ =0.8 . Force of friction
1) ,g 2) g, g
3
between the block and the plane at t =2s is
g g g
3) , 4) g,
3 3 3 1) 32 N 2) 4 N
24. In a gravity free room, a man of mass m1 is
standing at a height h above the floor. He 3) 2 N 4) 8 N
throws a ball of mass m2 vertically downward
with a speed u. Find the distance of the man 28. A chain of length L remains in limiting
from the floor when the ball reaches the ground equilibrium with a length x hanging down from
a rough horizontal table. The coefficient of
 m1   m2  friction between table and surface is:
1) 1 + h 2) 1 + h
 m2   m1 
x L−x
1) 2)
L L
 m2   m1  L+x x
3) 1 + 2 h 4) 1 + 2 h 3) 4)
 m1   m2  L L−x
24 Physics
 NEET 2025
29. A given object takes n times more time to slide 30. The minimum force required to start pushing a
down a 45° rough inclined plane as it takes to body of a rough inclined plane is F1 while the
slide down a perfectly smooth 45° incline. The minimum force needed to prevent it from
coefficient of kinetic friction between the object sliding down is F2. If the inclined plane makes
and the incline is an angle θ from horizontal such that tan θ =
2µ(µ − coefficient of friction) then the ratio
1 1
1) 1− 2 2) 1− 2 F1
n n is?
F2

1 1 1) 4 2) 1
3) 4)
2 − n2 1− n 2 3) 2 4) 3

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I LEVEL - II

1. 4 11. 1 20. 4 26. 1

2. 1 12. 2 21. 1 27. 4
3. 3 13. 2 22. 4 28. 4
4. 3 14. 3 23. 1 29. 2
5. 2 15. 1 24. 2 30. 4
6. 3 16. 1 25. 1
7. 1 17. 1
8. 1 18. 3
9. 1 19. 2
10. 2

Study Material 25
 Chapter

05 WORK ENERGY POWER

QUESTIONS 4. When momentum of a body increases by

200% it's kinetic energy increases by
LEVEL - I
1) 200% 2) 300%
1. Assume that a body displaced from
 3) 400% 4) 800%

rA = ( )
2iˆ + 4ˆj − 6kˆ m to rB = ( 6iˆ − 4ˆj + 2kˆ m)
5. A body of mass 3kg is under a force which

under a constant force F = ( )
2iˆ − 3jˆ − kˆ N . causes a displacement in it, given S =
t2
3
(in

Total workdone by the force is m). The work done by the force in 2 seconds

1) 24 J 1) 2J 2) 3.8J

2) -24 J 3) 5.2 J 4) 2.6 J

3) 13 J 6. Consider the following two statements

4) -13 J I) Linear momentum of system of particle is

zero
2.
2
( )
A force F = Cx N acts on a particle at an
II) Kinetic energy of system of particle is zero
angle of 60 . The workdone in displacing the
o

particle from 2m to 4m will be [in J] Then:

16 26 1) I implies II and II implies I

1) C 2) C
3 3 2) I does not imply II and II does not imply I
28 25
3) C 4) C 3) I implies II but II does not imply I
3 3
3. A particle of mass 2 kg travells along a 4) I does not imply II but II implies I
straightline with velocity V = a x where 'a' is
7. A particle moving in a potential region given by
a constant. Workdone by net force during the U = ( 8x 2 -4x+400 ) J . It's state of equilibrium
dispacement of particle from x = 0 to x = 4m is
will be
1) a2 2) 2a2
1) x = 25m 2) x = 0.25m
3) 4a2 4) 2 a2
3) x = 0.025 m 4) x = 2.5 m

26 Physics
 NEET 2025
8. The water is falling on blades of a turbine from 11. A toy car of mass 5kg starts from rest and
height of 50m. 100 kg of water pours on the moves up a ramp under the influence of force
blade in one second. Assuming that whole
of energy transferred to the turbine, power F(F is applied in the direction of velocity)
delivered to the turbine is
plotted against displacement x. The maximum
1) 100 kW height(attained) is given by
2) 50 kW

3) 25 kW

4) 10 kW

9. A vertical spring with force constant K is fixed on

a table. A ball of mass 'm' at a height 'h' above 1) Ymax = 20m
the free upper end of the spring falls vertically
on the spring so that the spring is compressed 2) Ymax = 15m
by a distance 'd'. The net workdone in this
process is: 3) Ymax = 11m
1) mg(h + d)-½ kd2
4) Ymax = 5m
2) mg(h - d)-½ kd2
12. A ball moving with velocity 9m/s collides
3) mg(h - d)+½ kd2 with another similar stationary ball. After the
collision both the balls move in directions
4) mg(h + d)+½ kd2 making and angle of 30o with initial direction.
After the collision their speed will be
10. Two identical ball bearings in contact with
each other and resting on a frictionless table 1) 2.6 m/s
are hit head on by another ball bearing of
same mass moving initially with a speed V. If 2) 5.2 m/s
the collision is elastic. Which of the following
figure is possible result after collision 3) 0.52 m/s
1 2 3 4) 52 m/s

13. A bucket full of water tied with the help of a 2m

V
long string performs a vertical circular motion.
The minimum angular velocity of the bucket at
1 2 3 the lower most point so that water will not fall
1) 2 3 2) 1
will be

V=0 V/2 V=0 V 1) 2 5 rad/s

2 3 2) 5 rad/s
3) 1 2 3 4) 1
3) 5 rad/s
V/3
V/4 V/2 V/2 4) 10 rad/s

Study Material 27
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
14. A point mass 'm' is moves in a vertical circle of 18. What is the workdone in displacing the body
radius r with the help of a string. The velocity of from x = 1m to x = 7m
mass is 7gr at the lowest point. Tension in

the string at the lowest point will be

7

1) 8 mg 2) 7 mg
4
3) 6 mg 4) 5 mg F(N)

15. Assertion : Total mechanical energy of

system is conserved in the 1 3 7 x

vertical circular motion (m)

Reason : Only gravitational force in

doing work on the system even 1) 7J
though tension is present.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and 2) 14J
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
2) Both Assertion and Reason true but Reason 3) 49J
is not a correct explanation of Assertion
4) None of these
3) Assertion is true but Reason is false
4) Both Assertion and Reason are false 19. If W1 and W2 and W3 represents the workdone
in moving a particle from A to B along three
LEVE-II different paths 1,2,3 respectively. In the
gravitational field of point mass m find the
16. A uniform chain of length 100cm and mass 2kg correct relation
is lying on a smooth table and 20cm is hanging
vertically down over the edge of the table. If g =
10m/s2 then work required to pull the hanging
part onto the table (in J)

1) 0.4 2) 0.2

3) 0.1 4) 0.5

17. Which of the following statement is correct

1) If there were no friction, work need to be

done to move the body up an inclined plane
will be zero
1) W1 > W2 > W3
2) If there were no friction moving vehicles
could not be stopped even by locking the 2) W1 = W2 = W3
brakes

3) Workdone by friction is always negative 3) W1 < W2 < W3

4) Workdone by friction is always positive 4) W2 > W1 > W3

28 Physics
 NEET 2025
20. Two springs of spring constants 1500 N/m and 24. Assertion : A compressed spring has
3000 N/m respectively are stretched with the potential energy
same force. They will have potential energy in
the ratio Reason : No work done against
the restoring force during
1) 4:1 2) 1:4 compression
3) 2:1 4) 1:2
1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and
21. An engine of 102 kg is moving up an inclined Reason is correct explanation of Assertion
plane of inclination 45o with a speed of 40m/s.
The co-efficient of friction between rail and 2) Both Assertion and Reason true but Reason
engine is 0.6. If the efficiency of engine is 75%, is not a correct explanation of Assertion
then what is the amount of energy spent by
engine in 20s. 3) Assertion is true but Reason is false

1) 1.35×106 J 4) Both Assertion and Reason are false

2) 1.45×106 J
25. Figure shows a smooth curved track
3) 1.29×10 J6 terminating in a smooth horizontal path. A
spring of spring constant 400 N/m is attached
4) 1.21×106 J at one end to the wedge fixed rigidly with the
horizontal part. A 40 g mass is released from
22. A toy gun has a spring force constant K. After rest at a height of 5m on the curved track.
charging the spring by compressing. It through The maximum compression of the spring is
a distance of x, the toy releases a shot of mass
'm' vertically upwards. Then the shot will travel
a vertical height is equal to

2mg kx 2
1) 2)
kx 2 mg
kx 2 mv 1) 10 cm 2) 5 cm
3) 4)
2mg kx
3) 12 cm 4) 8 cm
23. A pump on the ground floor of a building can
pump up water to fill a tank of volume 120m3 in
26. A ball of mass 5 kg moving with velocity 3m/s
20 minute. If the tank is 30m above the ground
impinges on another ball of mass 2 kg moving
and efficiency of pump is 50%, how much
with velocity 0.5m/s towards the first ball.
electric power is consumed by the pump
Find the magnitude of relative velocity after
4
1) 20 kW impact if e =
7
2) 40 kW 10 20
1) m/s 2) m/s
7 7
3) 60 kW
3) 4 m/s 4) 2 m/s
4) 80 kW

Study Material 29
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
27. A moving body with mass 'm1' strikes a 29. A string of a pendulum of length is displaced
stationary body of mass m2. The masses m1 through 900 from the vertical and released.
and m2 should be in the ratio, so that the Then the minimum strength of the string in
velocity of first body decreases by 2/3 times order to withstand the tension as the pendulum
assuming a perfectly elastic impact. Then the passes through mean position.
m1
ratio is 1) mg 2) 2mg
m2
1) 1/25 2) 1/5 3) 3mg 4) 4mg

30. Stone tied to a string of length L is whirled in a

3) 6 4) 25 vertical circle with other end of the string of the
centre. At a certain instant of time, the stone is
28. A body of mass m moving horizontally with a at its lowest position and has a speed u. The
velocity v0 strikes a pendulum of equal mass magnitude of its change in its velocity as it
m. The two bodies stick together after collision. reaches a position where string is horizontal.
Then the height up to which the pendulum
rises is u 2 − gL
1)
v0 v0 2
1) 2) 2) 2gL
8g 4g
3) u 2 − gL
v0 2 v0 2
3) 4) 4) 2 ( u 2 − gL )
8g 2g

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I

1. 1 6. 4 11. 3
2. 3 7. 2 12. 2
3. 3 8. 2 13. 3
4. 4 9. 1 14. 1
5. 4 10. 2 15. 1

LEVEL - II

16. 1 21. 4 26. 4

17. 2 22. 3 27. 3
18. 4 23. 3 28. 3
19. 2 24. 3 29. 3
20. 3 25. 1 30. 4

30 Physics
 Chapter
SYSTEM OF PARTICLES
06 & RIGID BODY ROTATION

QUESTIONS 3. A uniform wire of length I is bent into the shape

of V as shown in the figure below. The distance
LEVEL - I of its centre of mass from the vertex A is
1. The centre of mass of a body B
1) lies always at the geometrical centre
2) lies always inside the body
3) lies always outside the body
A 60o
4) lies within or outside the body
2. The co-ordinates of the centre of mass of a
system as shown in the figure is
C
y m
a a 3 l
 ,  1)
2
2 2 

COM l 3
2)
4
60o m
m
(0,0) x
(a,0) l 3
3)
8
a 3 a
1) , 4) None of these
2 2
4. Internal forces can change
a a 1) the linear momentum but not the kinetic
2) , 3
2 6 energy of the system
2) the kinetic energy but not the linear
a a momentum of the system
3) , 3
4 4 3) linear momentum as well as kinetic energy
of the system
a a 4) neither the linear momentum nor the kinetic
4) ,
2 3 energy of the system

Study Material 31
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
5. Two bodies of different masses 2kg and 4 kg 8. Two rings of same radius and mass are placed
are moving with velocities 20 m/s and 10 m/s such that their centres are at a common point
respectively, towards each other due to mutual and their planes are perpendicular to each
gravitational attraction. What is the velocity of other. The moment of inertia of the system
about an axis passing through the centre and
their centre of mass ?
perpendicular to the plane of one of the rings
is (Mass of the ring = m, Radius =r)
1) 5 m/s 2) 6 m/s
1 2
1) mr 2) mr2
3) 8 m/s 4) zero 2

6. Two blocks A and B are connected by a

3 2
massless string as shown in the figure. A force 3) mr 4) 2mr2
of 30 N is applied on block B. The distance
2
travelled by the centre of mass in 2s starting 9. Three thin uniform rods, each of mass M and
from rest is length L, are placed along the three axis of a
cartesian coordinate system with one end of
each rod at the origin. The moment of inertia
of the system about z-axis is

ML2 2 ML2
1) 2)
3 3

ML2
3) 4) ML2­
1) 1m 6

2) 2m 10. Four similar point masses (each of mass m)

are placed on the circumference of a disk of
3) 3 m mass M and radius R. The moment of inertia of
the system about the normal axis through the
4) none of these centre O will be

7. Four particles, each of mass m, are placed

at the corners of a square of side length l.
The radius of gyration of the system about an
axis perpendicular to the square and passing
through its centre is

l
1)
2 1) MR2 + 4mR2
1
2) MR 2 +4mR 2
l 2
2)
2
3) l 2 28
3) MR + mR
5
4) l 2
4) none of these
32 Physics
 NEET 2025
11. Three solid spheres of mass M and radius R 15. The angular velocity of a body changes from
are shown in the figure. The moment of the ω1 to ω2 without applying torque. The ratio
system about xx' axis will be
of initial radius of gyration to the final radius
of gyration is

1) ω2 : ω1

2) ω1 : ω2

3) ω2 : ω1

4) ω1 : ω2
7 2 14
1) MR 2) MR 2 16. A particle performs uniform circular motion
2 5
with an angular momentum L. If the frequency
16 21 of particle's motion is doubled and its kinetic
3) MR 2 4) MR 2
5 5 energy is halved, the angular momentum
12. The moment of inertia of a solid cylinder about becomes
its own axis is same as its moment of inertia
about an axis passing through its centre of 1) 2 L 2) 4 L
gravity and perpendicular to its length. The
relation between its length L and radius R is L L
3) 3)
2 4
1) L = 2 R 2) L = 3R 17. An ant is sitting at the edge of a rotating disk.
3) L=3R 4) L = R If the ant reaches the other end, after moving
along the diameter, the angular velocity of
13. A constant torque of 1000 N m turns a wheel the disk will
of moment of inertia 200 kg m2 about an axis
through its centre. Its angular velocity after 3 1) remain constant
s is (in rad/s)

1) 1 2) 5 2) first decreases and then increase

3) 15 4) 10 3) first increase, then decrease

14. A thin rod of mass m and length L is suspended 4) increase continuously

from one end and rotated with n rotations per
second. The rotational kinetic energy of the LEVEL - II
rod will be
18. Mass 8 kg,2kg, 4 kg and 2 kg are placed at the
1 2 2 2 corners A,B,C and D respectively, of a square
1) 2mL π n 2) mL π n
2 2 2

2 ABCD of diagonal 80 cm. The distance of

centre of mass from A will be

1) 20 cm 2) 30 cm
2 2 2 2 1 2 2 2
3) mL π n 4) mL π n
3 6 3) 40 cm 4) 60 cm

Study Material 33
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
19. The centre of mass of the shaded portion of 21. If two disks, one of density 7.2 g/cm3 and
the disc is (The mass is uniformly distributed the other of density 8.9 g/cm3, are of same
in the shaded portion) mass and thickness, then what is the ratio of
moments of inertia of the two disks?
8.9
1)
7.2

7.2
2)
8.9

3) ( 8.9 × 7.2 ) :1

4) 1: ( 8.9 × 7.2 )
R
1) to the left of A
20 22. The moment of inertia of a rod about an axis
through its centre and perpendicular to it is
R 1
2) to the left of A ML2 (where M is the mass and L, the
12 12
length of the rod). The rod is bent in the
R middle so that the two halves make an angle
3) to the right of A of 60o. The moment of inertia of the bent rod
20
about the same axis would be
R 1
4) to the right of A 1) ML2
12 48

20. A man of mass M stands at one end of a plank

1
of length L which lies at rest on a frictionless 2) ML2
horizontal surface. The man walks to the other 12
M
end of the plank. If the mass of the plank is ,
3 1
3) ML2
the distance that the man moves relative to the 24
ground is
ML2
4)
L 8 3
1) 3
4
23. The moment of inertia of a square lamina
about the perpendicular axis through its
L
2) 4 centre of mass is 20 kg m2. Then its moment
5 of inertia about an axis touching its side and
in the plane of the lamina will be
L
3)
4 1) 10 kg m2 2) 30 kg m2

4) none of these 3) 40 kg m2 4) 25 kg m2

34 Physics
 NEET 2025
24. A thin wire of length L and uniform linear 26. A weightless rod is acted on by upward
mass density ρ is bent into a circular loop parallel forces of 2N and 4N at ends A and B,
respectively. The total length of the rod is AB=
with centre O as shown. The moment of
inertia of the loop about the axis XX' is 3m. To keep the rod in equilibrium, a force of
6 N should act in the following manner:
X X'
90o 1) Downwards at any point between A and B

O 2) Downwards at mid point of AB

3) Downwards at point C such that AC = 1m

ρL3 ρL3
1) 2) 4) Downwards at a point D such that BD=1m
8π 2 16π 2
27. In an experiment with a beam balance,
unknown mass m is balanced by two known
5ρL3 3ρL3
3) 4) masses of 16 kg and 4 kg as shown in figure.
16π 2 8π 2 The value of the unknown mass m is

25. Assuming frictionless contacts, the magnitude

of external horizontal force P applied at the
lower end for equilibrium of the rod (The rod is
uniform and its mass is m) is equal to
Wall

P 1) 10 kg 2) 6 kg

3) 8 kg 4) 12 kg
mg
1) 28. A rod standing vertically is allowed to fall, so
2
that the end on contact with the floor doesn't
slip. Find the velocity of the other end when it
mg
cos θ touches the floor [  = 1m ]
2)
2
1) 19.6 ms −1
mg
3) tan θ 2) 29.4 ms −1
2

3) 4.9 ms–1
mg
4) cos θ
2 4) 9.8 ms–1

Study Material 35
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
29. A rotating table completes one rotation in 31. Different bodies are rolling without slipping
10s and its moment of inertia is 100 kg m2.
A person of 50 kg mass stands at the centre Translation KE
Body
of the rotating table. If the person moves 2m Total KE
from the centre, the angular velocity of the
rotating table (in rad/s), will be
5
2π 1 1) Ring p)
1) 2) 7
30 2
2
2π 2) Disc q)
3) 4) 2π 3
3
30. A small object of uniform density rolls up a
1
rough curved surface with an initial velocity 3) Solid sphere r)
V. It reaches upto a maximum height of with 2
respect to the initial position. The object is:
3
4) Hollow sphere s)
5

1) A-r; B-q; C-p; D-s

2) A-r; B-q; C-s; D-p

3) A-s; B-p; C-r; D-q

1) Ring 2) Solid sphere
4) A-r; B-q; C-s; D-p
3) hollow sphere 4) Disc

ANSWER KEY
LEVEL - I
1. 4 6. 2 11. 3 16. 4
2. 2 7. 1 12. 2 17. 3
3. 3 8. 3 13. 3
4. 2 9. 2 14. 3
5. 4 10. 2 15. 1
LEVEL - II

18. 2 23. 3 28. 2

19. 1 24. 4 29. 1
20. 3 25. 3 30. 4
21. 1 26. 4 31. 1
22. 2 27. 3

36 Physics
 Chapter

07 GRAVITATION

QUESTIONS 5. A particle of mass M is situated at the centre of

a spherical shell of same mass and radius a.
LEVEL - I The gravitational potential at a point situated at
1. A mass M is divided into two parts m and (M–
a
distance from the centre will be
m) and placed at a distance. Force of attraction 2
M
between them is maximum if is
m 4Gm GM
1) − 2) −
1) 1 2) 2 a a

1
3) 4) Any value 2GM 3GM
2 3) − 4) −
a a
2. The diameter of two planets are in the ratio 4:1
and their mean densities are in the ratio 1:2. 6. When a body is taken from the surface earth to
The acceleration due to gravity on the planets an infinite distance from it, the potential energy
will be in the ratio due to gravity with respect to infinity
1) 1:2 2) 2:3 becomes:
3) 2:1 4) 4:1 1) zero
3. Weight of a body of mass m decreases by 1%
2) minimum
when it is raised to height h above the earth's
surface. If the body is taken to a depth h in a 3) the same as that on the surface of earth
mine, change in its weight is
4) infinity
1) 2% decrease 2) 0.5% decrease
3) 1% increase 4) 0.5% increase 7. The change in potential energy when a body of
mass m is raised from the surface of the earth
4. Two equal masses of 2kg each are placed at to a point distant nR from the centre of earth is
the vertices of an equilateral triangle of side (R=Radius of earth)
3 3m . The field at the centroid is (in NKg–1)
( n − 1)
G 1) mgR 2) nmgR
1) 0 2) n
3 3

2G G  n2   n 
3) 4) 3) mgR  2  4) mgR 
9 9  n + 1  n + 1 

Study Material 37
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
8. The escape velocity from the surface of earth 12. A research satellite of mass 200 kg revolves
is Ve. The escape velocity from the surface of a around the earth in an orbit of average radius
planet of radius four times and density 9 times 3R/2 where R is the radius of earth. Assuming
that of the earth is the gravitational pull on a mass of 1kg on
the earth's surface to be 10N, the pull on the
1) 36 Ve 2) 12 Ve satellite will be
1) 720 N 2) 889 N
3) 6 Ve 4) 20 Ve
3) 640 N 4) 980 N
9. A body is projected vertically upwards from the
13. Imagine a light planet revolving around a very
surface of a planet of radius R with a velocity
massive star in a circular orbit of radius R with
1 a period of revolution T. If the gravitational force
equal to rd of the escape velocity from the
3 of attraction between the planet and the star in
surface of that planet. The maximum height proportional to R–3/2. Then T2 is proportional to
attained by the body is 1) R2 2) R5/2

R 3) R3/2 4) R7/2
1)
2 14. What is the minimum energy required to
R launch a satellite of mass m from the surface
2) of a planet of mass M and radius R to a circular
3 orbit at an altitude 2R ?
R
3) 5GMm
8 1)
6R
R
4)
5 2GMm
2)
10. If the escape velocity from a planet is 3 times 3R
that of the earth and its radius in 4 times that
of the earth, then the mass of planet is (mass
of the earth = 6×1024 kg) GMm
3)
2R
1) 1.62×1022 kg

2) 3.6×1022 kg GMm
4)
3R
3) 1.22×1022 kg
15. If two satellites of different masses are
4) 2.16×1026 kg
revolving around a massive planet in the same
orbit, they have the same
11. Energy required to move a body of mass m
from an orbit of radius 2R to 3R is (M=mass of i) Angular momentum
earth, R=Radius of earth)
ii) Energy
GMm GMm iii) Time period
1) 2)
12R 3R iv) Speed

GMm GMm 1) i, ii 2) iii, iv

3) 4)
8R 6R 3) i, iv 4) i, ii, iii

38 Physics
 NEET 2025
16. The distance of two planets from the sun are 20. Assertion : Four point masses each of
1013m and 1012m. The ratio of their time periods mass m are placed at points 1,
of revolution is 2, 3 and 6 of a regular hexagon
of a side a. Then, the
1) 10:1 2) 1:10
gravitational field at the centre
3) 10 10 :1 4) 1:10 10 GM
of the hexagon is
17. A planet moves round the sun in a circular a2
orbit of radius R with an angular velocity ω.
If another planet moves round the sun in a
circular orbit of radius 4R, the angular velocity
of that planet will be
ω
1) 2ω 2)
8

ω ω
3) 4)
4 2 Reason : The fields due to masses at 1
and 2 cancelles out
18. A geostationary satellite is orbiting the earth at
a height of 6R above, the surface of earth, R 1) If both assertion and reason are true, and
being the radius of earth. The time period of reason is the correct explanation of assertion
another satellite at a height of 2.5R from the
surface of earth is 2) If both assertion and reason are true,
and reason is not the correct explanation of
1) 6 2hrs 2) 6 hrs assertion

6 3) If assertion is true but reason is false

3) hrs 4) 10 hrs
2 4) If both assertion and reason are false
LEVEL - II 21. Infinite number of masses, each of m are
placed along a straight line at distances of
19. Two particles each of mass 1kg are placed at P
and Q such that PO=OQ=L. The gravitational r,2r,4r,8r......... from a reference point O. The
force experienced by another 1kg mass of magnitudes of gravitational field intensity and
placed at R, where OR=L is potential at point O are respectively.

4Gm 2Gm
1) ,
3r 2 r

5Gm Gm
2) ,
4r 2 r

G G 4Gm Gm
1) 2) 3) ,
2L2 2L2 3r 2 r

G 5Gm 2Gm
3) 4) Zero 4) ,
L2 4r 2 r

Study Material 39
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
22. Escape velocity of earth is 11.2 km/s. What 25. Assertion : Angular momentum of a
would be the escape velocity on a planet planet with respect to the sun
whose mass is 1000 times and radius is 10 is constant.
times that of earth ?
1) 112 km/s Reason : The gravitational force acting
2) 11.2 km/s on the planet due to sun is a
3) 1.12 km/s central force.
4) 3.7 km/s
23. Two point masses M each are separated by a 1) If both assertion and reason are true, and
distance  . The escape velocity of a particle of reason is the correct explanation of assertion

mass 'm' placed at the centre of the line joining

2) If both assertion and reason are true,
the two masses is
and reason is not the correct explanation of
2GM assertion
1) 2

3) If assertion is true but reason is false

GM
2) 4) If both assertion and reason are false


26. A satellite is revolving around a planet in

2GM an elliptical orbit. Its closest distance to the
3)
 planet is Rmin and the farthest distance is Rmax.
If angular velocity of the satellite when it is
nearest to the planet is ω, the angular velocity
GM when it is farthest from the planet is
4)

1
2
24. If ve is the escape velocity for earth when a  R 2 R 
projectile is fired from the surface of earth, then 1)  min  ω 2)  min  ω
the escape velocity of the same projectile when  R max   R max 
fired from its centre is
1
 R 2  R max 
3 3)  max  ω 4)  ω
1) ve  R min   R min 
2
27. If T1 and T2 are the time-periods of oscillation
of a simple pendulum on the surface of earth
3 of radius R and at a depth d, then d is equal to
2) ve
2
2
3) ve  T12   T22 
3 1) 1 − R 2) 1 − R
 T22   T12 

2  T2   T1 
4) ve 3) 1 − R 4) 1 − R
3  T1   T2 

40 Physics
 NEET 2025
28. If T0 is the time period of the surface satellite of 30. In this section, each question has two state-
earth, height of parking orbit above the surface ments, Statement I and statement 2. Out of the
of earth is about 6 times radius of the earth, four options given below, choose the one that
the time period of parking satellite in terms of best describes the two statements
T0 is
Statement I: The angular speed of the
1) 7T0 2) 7T0 planet is smallest in its elliptical
path when it is farthest from
T0 the sun
3) 7 7T0 4)
7
Statement II: I n t h e m o t i o n o f t h e
29. A satellite is moving with a constant speed v in planets around the sun, the
a circular orbit around earth. An object of mass law of conservation of angular
m is ejected from the satellite such that it just momentum is obeyed
escapes from the gravitational pull of the earth. 1) Statement I is true, statement II is true and
At the time of ejection, the KE of the object is: it is correct explanation of statement I
3 2
1) mv 2) mv2 2) Statement I is true, statement II is true and
2 it is not correct explanation of statement I

1 3) Statement I is true, statement II is false

3) 2mv2 4) mv 2
2 4) Statement I is false, statement II is true

ANSWER KEY
LEVEL - I LEVEL - II

1. 2 7. 1 13. 2 19. 1 25. 1

2. 3 8. 2 14. 1 20. 4 26. 2
3. 2 9. 3 15. 2 21. 1 27. 1
4. 3 10. 4 16. 3 22. 1 28. 3
5. 4 11. 1 17. 2 23. 1 29. 2
6. 1 12. 2 18. 1 24. 1 30. 1

Study Material 41
 Chapter
MECHANICAL PROPERTIES
08 OF SOLIDS AND FLUIDS

QUESTIONS 4. A cube of side 40 mm has its upper face

displaced by 0.1 mm by a tangential force of
LEVEL I 8 kN. The shearing modulus of cube is

SOLIDS 1) 2 ×109 Nm-2 2) 4 ×109 Nm-2

1. A steel wire having a radius of 2.0 mm, carrying 3) 8 ×109 Nm-2 4) 16 ×109 Nm-2
a load of 4 kg, is hanging from a ceiling. Given
that g = 3.1π m/s2, what will be the tensile DENSITY AND PRESSURE OF LIQUIDS
stress that would be developed in the wire ?
5. Two stretched membranes of areas 2 and 3 m2
1) 6.2 ×10 N/m
6 2 are placed in a liquid at the same depth. The
ratio of the pressure on them is
2) 5.2 ×106 N/m2
1) 1 : 1 2) 2 : 3
3) 3.1 ×106 N/m2
3) 2: 3 4) 22 : 32
4) 4.8 ×106 N/m2
6. The pressure at the bottom of a water tank is
2. A uniform cubical block is subjected to 4 P, where P is atmospheric pressure. If water
volumetric compression, which decreases its is drawn out so that water level decreases by
each side by 2%. The Bulk strain produced in th
it is 3
  , then pressure at the bottom of the tank
5
1) 0.03
is
2) 0.02 3P 7P
1) 2)
3) 0.06 8 6

4) 0.12 11P 9P
3) 4)
3. A rope 1 cm in diameter breaks, if the tension 5 4
in it exceeds 500 N. The maximum tension
that may be given to similar rope of diameter 7. A vertical U-tube of uniform cross-section
3 cm is contains water in both the arms. A 10 cm
glycerine column (R.D. = 1.2) is added to one
1) 500 N of the limbs. The level difference between the
two free surfaces in the two limbs will be
2) 3000 N
1) 4 cm 2) 2 cm
3) 4500 N
3) 6 cm 4) 8 cm
4) 2000 N
42 Physics
 NEET 2025
8. A barometer tube reads 75 cm of Hg. If tube 12. A metal plate of area 10 cm rests on a layer
3 2

is gradually inclined at an angle of 30° with of oil 6 mm thick. A tangential force 10–2N is
horizontal, keeping the open end in the applied on it to move it with a constant velocity
mercury container, then find the length of of 6 cms–1. The coefficient of viscosity of the
mercury column in the barometer tube liquid is

1) 86.7 cm 1) 0.1 poise

2) 0.5 poise
2) 150 cm
3) 0.7 poise
3) 75 cm
4) 0.9 poise
4) 92.5 cm
13. Assertion : Aeroplanes are made to run
9. A body of uniform cross-sectional area floats in on the runway before take
a liquid of density thrice its value. The fraction off, so that they acquire the
of exposed height is : necessary lift.

Reason : According to Bernoulli’s theorem,

1) 2 3
as velocity increases pressure
also increases
2) 5 6
Read the assertion and reason carefully to
3) 1 6 mark the correct option out of the options
given below:
4) 1 3 1) If both assertion and reason are true and
the reason is the correct explanation of the
FLUIDS IN MOTION assertion.

10. Two water pipes of diameters 2 cm and 4 cm 2) If both assertion and reason are true but
are connected with the main supply line. The reason is not the correct explanation of the
velocity of flow of water in the pipe of 2 cm assertion
diameter is
3) If assertion is true but reason is false
1) 4 times that in the other pipe
4) If the assertion and reason both are false
1 14. A wind with speed 40 m/s blows parallel to the
2) times that in the other pipe
4 roof of a house. The area of the roof is 250 m2.
3) 2 times that in the other pipe Assuming that the pressure inside the house
is atmospheric pressure, the force exerted by
1 the wind on the roof and the direction of the
4) times that in the other pipe force will be (ρair = 1.2 kg /m3)
2
11. The velocity of kerosene oil in a horizontal pipe 1) 2.4 ×105 N, downwards
is 5 m/s. If g=10 m/s2 then the velocity head of
oil will be 2) 4.8 ×105 N, downwards

1) 1.25 m 2) 12.5 m 3) 4.8 ×105 N, upwards

4) 2.4 ×105 N, upwards

3) 0.125 m 4) 125 m

Study Material 43
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
SURFACE TENSION 18. A spherical drop of water has radius 1 mm.
If surface tension of water is 70×10–3 N/m
15. A soap film of surface Tension 3 × 10–2 N/m difference of pressures between inside and
formed in rectangular frame can support a outside of the spherical drop is
straw as shown in figure. If g = 10 m/s2, the
mass of straw is 1) 35 N/m–2

2) 70 N/m2

3) 140 N/m2

4) Zero

19. On putting a capillary tube in a pot filled with

water, the level of water rises upto a height of
4 cm in the tube. If a tube of half the diameter
is used instead, the water will rise to a height
of nearly.

1) 2 cm
1) 0.006 g
2) 4 cm
2) 0.06 g
3) 8 cm
3) 0.6 g
4) 11 cm
4) 6 g
LEVEL II
16. The work done in blowing a soap bubble of 10
SOLIDS
cm radius is (surface tension of soap solution
is 0.03 N/m). 20. The stress versus strain graph for wires of two
materials A and B are as shown in the figure.
1) 37.68×10–4­­J If YA and YB are the Young’s moduli of the
materials, then
2) 75.36×10–4J
y
3) 126.82×10 J –4
A
Stress

4) 75.36×10–3­J
B
17. The surface tension of a liquid is 5 N/m. If
a film is held on a ring of area 0.02 m2, its
surface energy is about
60o 30
o

x
1) 5×10–2J Strain
1) YB = 2YA
2) 2.5×10­–2J
2) YA = 3YB
3) 2×10­ J –1
3) YB = 3YA
4) 3×10–1J 4) YA = YB

44 Physics
 NEET 2025
21. The length of wire, when M1 is hung from it, is 24. A steel plate of face area 1 cm and thickness
2

1 and is  2 with both M1 and M2 hanging. The 4 cm is fixed rigidly at the lower surface.
A tangential force F = 10 kN is applied on
natural length of wire is the upper surface as shown in the figure.
The lateral displacement x of upper surface
w.r.t the lower surface is (Modulus of rigidity
for steel is 8 ×1011 N/m2 )

F x x

4 cm

1) 5 × 10–5 m 2) 5 × 10–6 m

3) 2.5 × 10–3 m 4) 2.5 × 10–4 m

DENISTY AND PRESSURE OF LIQUIDS

25. A ball is made of a material of density ρ where

M1 M 2 1 + M1 2
1) ( 1 −  2 ) + 1 2) ρoil < ρ < ρwater with ρoil and ρwater representing
M2 M1 + M 2 the densities of oil and water, respectively. The
1 +  2 oil and water are immiscible. If the above ball is
3) 4) 1 2 in equilibrium in a mixture of this oil and water,
2
which of the following pictures represents its
22. A wire suspended vertically from one end is
equilibrium position?
stretched by attaching a weight 200 N to the
lower end. The weight stretches the wire by
1 mm. The elastic potential energy gained by 1) 2)
the wire is

1) 0.1 J 2) 0.2 J

3) 0.4 J 4) 10 J

23. When a rubber ball is taken to the bottom of a

sea of depth 1400 m, its volume decreases by
2%. The Bulk modulus of rubber ball is [density
of water is 1 g /cc and g = 10 m/s2]
3) 4)
1) 7 ×108 N/m2

2) 6 ×108 N/m2

3) 14 ×108 N/m2

4) 9 ×108 N/m2

Study Material 45
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
26. Figure shows a container filled with a liquid 29. A wooden cube floats in water partially
of density ρ. Four points A, B, C and D lie on immersed. When a 200g weight is put on
the diametrically opposite points of a circle the cube, it is further immersed by 2 cm. The
as shown. Points A and C lie on vertical line length of the side of cube is :
and points B and D lie on horizontal line.
The incorrect statement is (PA,PB, PD, PC are 1) 10 cm
absolute pressure at the respective points) 2) 20 cm
3) 15 cm
A 4) 25 cm

B D 30. A piece of solid weighs 120 gram wt in air,

80 gram wt in water and 60 gram wt in a liquid.
The relative density of the solid and that of the
C liquid are respectively:

3
1) PD = PB 2) PC < PB = PD < PA 1) 3,2 2) 2,
4

PC -PA PC +PA
3) PD =PB = 4) PD =PB = 3
2 2 3) ,2 4) 3, 3 2
2
27. In a hydraulic jack as shown, mass of the car
W = 800 kg, A1 = 10 cm2, A2 = 10 m2. The FLUIDS IN MOTION
minimum force F required to lift the car is 31. In the following fig. is shown the flow of liquid
through a horizontal pipe. Three tubes A, B
and C are connected to the pipe. The radii
of the tubes A, B and C at the junction are
respectively 2 cm, 1 cm and 2 cm. It can be
said that the

1) 1 N 2) 0.8 N
3) 8 N 4) 16 N
28. A metallic sphere weighing 3 kg in air is held
by a string so as to be completely immersed
in a liquid of relative density 0.8. The relative 1) Height of the liquid in the tube A is maximum
density of metallic sphere is 10. The tension
in the string is 2) Height of the liquid in the tubes A and B is
the same
1) 18.7 N
3) Height of the liquid in all the three tubes is
2) 42.5 N
the same
3) 32.7 N
4) Height of the liquid in the tubes A and C is
4) 27.6 N the same
46 Physics
 NEET 2025
32. A cylinder containing water, stands on a table 36. The excess pressure inside a spherical drop
of height H. A small hole is punched in the side of water is four times that of another drop.
of cylinder at its base. The stream of water Then their respective mass ratio is
strikes the ground at a horizontal distance R
from the table. Then the depth of water in the 1) 1:16
cylinder is 2) 8:1
1) H 2) R 3) 1:4
2
R 4) 1:64
3) RH 4)
4H
37. Two soap bubbles having radii 3 cm and 4
33. Eight equal drops of water are falling through cm in vacuum, coalesce under isothermal
air with a steady velocity of 10 cm–1. If the drops conditions. The radius of the new bubble is
combine to form a single from big in size, then 1) 1 cm
the terminal velocity of this big drop is
2) 5 cm
1) 80 cms–1 2) 30 cms–1
3) 7 cm
3) 10 cms–1 4) 40 cms–1
4) 3.5 cm
34. If the terminal speed of a sphere of gold
38. Water rises to a height of 10 cm in a capillary
(density 19.5 kg/m3) is 0.2 m/s in a viscous
tube and mercury falls to a depth of 3.42
liquid (density = 1.5 kg/m3), find the terminal
cm in the same capillary tube. If the density
speed of a sphere of silver (density=10.5 kg/m3)
of mercury is 13.6×103 kg/m3 and angle of
of the same size in the same liquid
contact is 135 °, the ratio of surface tension
1) 0.2 m/s 2) 0.4 m/s for water and mercury is (angle of contact for
water and glass is 0°).
3) 0.1 m/s 4) 0.133 m/s
Surface Tension 1) 1:0.5

35. A certain number of spherical drops of a liquid 2) 1:3

of radius r coalesce to form a single drop of
radius R and volume V. If T is the surface 3) 1:6.5
tension of the liquid, then 4) 1.5:1
1 1  39. A capillary tube of radius r is immersed in a
= 4VT  −
1) Energy  is released
r R liquid and mass of liquid, which rises up in it
is M. If the radius of tube is doubled, then the
mass of liquid which will rise in capillary tube
1 1 will be
2) Energy
= 3VT  −  is released
r R 
1) 2 M

2) M
1 1
3) Energy
= 3VT  +  is released
r R 3) M/2

4) Energy is neither released nor absorbed 4) M/4

Study Material 47
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I

FLUIDS IN MOTION
SOLIDS
10. 1
1. 3
11. 1
2. 3
12. 1
3. 3
13. 3
4. 1 14. 4
DENSITY AND PRESSURE SURFACE TENSION
5. 1 15. 3
6. 3 16. 2
7. 2 17. 3
8. 2 18. 3
9. 1 19. 3

LEVEL - II

SOLIDS FLUIDS IN MOTION

20. 2 31. 4
21. 1 32. 4
22. 1 33. 4
23. 1
34. 3
24. 2
SURFACE TENSION
DENSITY AND PRESSURE
25. 2 35. 2

26. 3 36. 4
27. 2 37. 2
28. 4 38. 3
29. 1
39. 1
30. 4

48 Physics
 Chapter THERMAL PROPERTIES OF
09 MATTER, THERMODYNAMICS
AND KINETIC THEORY

QUESTIONS 4. A truck driver takes 10000 litres of petrol in a

tanker in full from a place where temperature
LEVEL - I is 5°C. It is taken to a place where temperature
1. On a new scale of temperature (which is is 45°C. The amount of petrol overflown if
linear) and called the W scale, the freezing and tanker is not thermally insulated is[ γ of petrol
boiling points of water are 39° W and 239° W
respectively. What will be the temperature of =1.8×10–5/°C and γ of tanker=1.1×10–5/°C]
39° C on the Celcius scale?
1) 1.2 L 2) 1.5 L
1) 78° W 3) 2.1 L 4) 2.8 L
2) 117° W 5. The apparent coefficient of expansion of a
liquid when heated in a copper vessel is C and
3) 200° W when heated in a silver vessel is S. If A is the
linear coefficient of expansion of copper, then
4) 139° W the linear coefficient of expansion of silver is:
2. A pendulum clock is 5 sec fast each day at C + S − 3A
temperature of 15°C and 10 sec slow at a 1)
3
temperature of 30°C. The temperature at
which it is designed to give correct time is:
C + 3A − S
1) 18°C 2)
3
2) 20°C
S + 3A − C
3) 24°C 3)
3
4) 25°C
C + S + 3A
3. If two rods of lengths L and 2L having 4)
coefficients of linear expansion α and 2α 3
respectively are connected so that total
6. The temperature of equal masses of three
length is 3L. The average coefficient of linear
different liquids A, B and C are 12°C, 19°C
expansion of composite rod will be?
and 28°C respectively. The temperature when
3 A and B are mixed is 16°C and when B and C
1) 3 α 2) α are mixed is 23°C. The temperature when A
2 and C are mixed is:
5 1) 18.2°C 2) 22°C
3) α 4) α
3 3) 20.2°C 4) 24.2°C
Study Material 49
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
7. 100g of ice at 0°C is added to 100g of water at 10. The emissive power of a black body at T=300K
30°C. When the system reaches equilibrium, is 100W /m 2. Consider a body B of area
what is the final temperature of the system and A=10m2, coefficient of reflectivity r=0.3 and co-
mass of ice remaining? efficient of transmission t=0.5. Its temperature
is 300K. Chose the incorrect statement
1)30°C, 37.5gm 2) 0°C, 37.5 gm
1) absorptive power is 0.2
3) 30°C, 62.5 gm 4) 0°C, 62.5 gm
2) the emissive power of B is 200 W/m2
8. Six identical conducting rods are joined
as shown in figure. Points A and D are 3) the power emitted by B is 200 W
maintained at 200°C and 20°C respectively.
The temperature of junction B will be 4) the emissivity of B is 0.2

11. A liquid cools from 50°C to 45°C in 5 min and

T from 45°C to 41.5°C in the next 5 min. The
200 20 temperature of the surrounding is
A B C D
1) 27°C 2) 40.3°C

3) 23.3°C 4) 33.3°C
1) 120°C
12. The density of a gas is 6×10–2 kg/m3 and the
2) 100°C root mean square velocity of the gas molecules
is 500 m/s. The pressure exerted by the gas
3) 140°C on the walls of the vessel is
4) 80°C 1) 5×103 N/m2
9. The spectrum of black body at two temperature 2) 1.2×10–4 N/m2
27°C and 327°C is shown. If A1 and A2 are the
areas under the two curves respectively and 3) 0.83×10–4 N/m2
λ1 and λ 2 are wavelengths corresponding to 4) 30 N/m2
maximum emission then 13. A vessel contains 28gm of N2 and 32 gm of O2
at temperature T=1800K and pressure 2 atm.
Intensity

Find the pressure if N2 dissociates 30% and

T2=327oC O2 dissociates 50% and temperature remains
constant
T1=27oC
1) 2 atm 2) 1 atm
3) 2.8 atm 4) 1.4 atm
Wave length
14. If the molecules in a tank of hydrogen have the
A λ A λ same RMS speed as the molecules in another
1)=2
4,=2
4 2)=2
16,
= 2
2 tank of oxygen, we may be sure that
A1 λ1 A1 λ1
1) the pressure are the same
2) the hydrogen is at the higher temperature
A λ 1 A λ 1 3) the temperatures are the same
3) =2
2,=2
=
4) 2
16,
= 2

A1 λ1 2 A1 λ1 2
4) the oxygen is at the higher temperature

50 Physics
 NEET 2025
15. The number of correct statements among 18. Pressure versus temperature graph of an ideal
below given is gas is shown. Density of gas at point A is ρ0.
Find the density of gas at B
i) The slope of a isochoric curve is zero on a
P-V diagram P
3P0 B
ii) Slope of adiabatic curve is more in magnitude
in comparison to slope of isothermal curve
P0
iii) Internal energy is constant for an isothermal A
process
T0
T
2T0
vi) A gas can have infinite number of specific
heats
1) 3ρ0
1) 1
3
2) ρ0
2) 4 2

3) 3 3) 2 ρ0

4) 2 4) ρ0

16. Two moles of an ideal monoatomic gas at 19. Given below are two statements
127°C occupies a volume V. If the gas is
expanded adiabatically to the volume 8V. Then In the light of the statements, choose the most
the work done by the gas will be appropriate answer from the options given
 25  below
 R = J / mol k 
 3 
1) Both statement I and statement II are
1) 7500 J incorrect

2) 6000 J 2) Both statement I and statement II are correct

3) 4500 J 3) Statement I is correct but statement II is

incorrect
4) 3000 J

17. An ideal monoatomic gas undergoes a process 4) Statement I incorrect but statement II is
in which the gas volume relates to temperature correct
as VT=a constant. The molar specific heat of
gas in this process is Statement I: The pressure exerted by an
enclosed ideal gas does not
R depend on the shape of the
1)
2 container
2) R
Statement II: The pressure of an ideal
3R gas depends on the number
3)
2 of moles, temperature and
4) None of these volume of the enclosure

Study Material 51
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
LEVEL- II 24. A wall has two layers A and B, each made
of different material. Both layers have same
20. A glass-tube of length 133cm and of uniform thickness. The thermal conductivity of the
cross-section must be filled with mercury so material of A is twice that of B. Under thermal
that the volume of the tube unoccupied by equilibrium, the temperature difference across
mercury remains same at all temperatures. the wall is 36°C. Then temperature difference
If the cubical coefficients for glass and across the layer A is
mercury are respectively 0.000026/°C and 1) 6°C 2) 12°C
0.000182/°C, the length of mercury column is
3) 18°C 4) 24°C
1) 19cm 2) 133 cm
25. Two identical conducting rods AB and CD are
3) 7 cm 4) 144 cm connected to a circular conducting ring at two
21. Two rods of length l1, l2 having coefficient of diametrically opposite points. The radius of the
linear expansion α1, α2 and Young’s modulus ring is equal to length of the rods. The area of
Y 1 , Y 2 are joined at one end and fixed cross-section and thermal conductivity of the
rod and ring are equal. The two free-ends of
between two rigid supports. If with change in
the rod are maintained at 100°C and 0°C. The
temperature, the change in length of each rod
temperature of point C will be
is zero, then the ratio of their cross-sectional
area is B C
A D
Yα Yα (0 C)
o
1) 1 1 2) 2 2 (100oC)
Y2 α 2 Y1α1
1) 62°C 2) 37°C
l1Y1α1 l2 Y1α1 3) 28°C 4) 45°C
3) 4)
l2 Y2 α 2 l1Y1α 2 26. A solid receives heat by radiation over
its surface at the rate of 4kw. The heat
22. Assuming no heat losses, the heat released convection rate from the surface of solid to the
by the condensation of x g of steam at 100°C surrounding is 5.2 kw, and heat is generated
can be used to convert y g of ice at 0°C into at a rate of 1.7 kw over the volume of the
water at 100°C, the ratio x:y is: solid. The rate of change of the temperature
of solid is 0.5°C/sec. The heat capacity of the
1) 1:1 2) 1:2 solid is
3) 1:3 4) 3:1 1) 1000 J/k 2) 750 J/k

23. A block of mass 20kg is pulled on a rough 3) 500 J/k 4) 1250 J/k
horizontal floor with constant speed of 20m/s.
27. The average energy of a molecule in a diatomic
Specific heat of the block is 400 J/kg°C and gas is 0.1 eV. Take the gas as ideal and
coefficient of friction is 0.25. If 50% of the vibrational excitation are absent, the average
heat is absorbed by the body then rise in translational energy and rotational energy per
temperature of the body after 10 minutes is molecule are
1) 21.5°C 1) 0.08 eV and 0.02eV

2) 37.5°C 2) 0.09eV and 0.01eV

3) 53.5° 3) 0.06eV and 0.04eV

4) 73°C 4) 0.07eV and 0.03eV

52 Physics
 NEET 2025
28. Consider the lung capacity to be 500cm and 3
33. A diatomic ideal gas is heated at constant
the pressure therein to be equivalent of 761 volume until pressure is doubled and again
mmHg. The number of molecules per breath heated at constant pressure until the volume
will be [Normal body temperature is 98.6°F] is doubled. The average molar heat capacity
for the whole process is
1) 2.19×1018 2) 1.19×1022

3) 3×1018 4) 3.2×1019 13R 19R

1) 2)
6 6
29. The density of upper atmosphere is very low
of the order of 1014 m–3. Assuming the average
35 23R
diameter of air molecules as A , the 3) 4)
π 6
approximate mean free path of air molecules
34. Six moles of an ideal gas performs a cycle
is;
as shown. If the temperature are TA=600K,
1) 20 km 2) 25 km TB=800K, TC=2200K and TD= 1200 K, the work
done per cycle is
3) 35 km 4) 40 km

30. A metal container of volume 8 liter. carries ideal

gas under pressure 184 kPa at 27°C. Due to a
leakage, the pressure drops down to 100 kPa.
If temperature is constant then the number of
molecules leaked out is

1) 0.8×1023 2) 1.6×1023

3) 3.2×1023 4) 6×1023
1) 20 KJ 2) 30 KJ
31. A closed gas cylinder is divided into two
parts by a piston held tight. The pressure and 3) 40 KJ 4) 60 KJ
volume of gas in two parts respectively are
35. A gas is taken through the cycle
(P, 5V) and (10P, V). If now the piston is left
free and the system undergoes isothermal as shown. What is the net
process. Then the volume of the gas in two work done by the gas?
parts respectively are

1) 2V, 4V 2) 3V, 3V

3) 5V, V 4) 2.5V, 3.5V

32. 4 kg of oxygen gas is heated so as to raise its

temperature from 20oC to 120oC. If the heating
is done at constant pressure, the work done
by the gas is

1) 628 kJ 2) 104 kJ 1) 2000 J 2) 1000 J

3) 366 kJ 4) 206 kJ 3) Zero 4) –2000 J

Study Material 53
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I

1. 2 6. 3 11. 4 16. 1
2. 2 7. 4 12. 1 17. 1
3. 3 8. 3 13. 3 18. 2
4. 4 9. 4 14. 4 19. 2
5. 2 10. 2 15. 3
LEVEL II

20. 1 24. 2 28. 2 32. 2

21. 2 25. 3 29. 1 33. 2
22. 3 26. 1 30. 2 34. 3
23. 2 27. 3 31. 1 35. 2

54 Physics
 Chapter

10 OSCILLATIONS

QUESTIONS 4. Displacement of a S.H.M is given by

LEVEL - I {
y 5 sin ωt + 2sin ωt + π 
=
 3 } m e t r e .
1. A simple harmonic oscillator has an amplitude
Resultant amplitude of oscillation will be:
A and time period 6π second. Assuming the
oscillation starts from its mean position, the
time required by it to travel from x = A to 1) 5 7 2) 7 5
3 π
x= A will be s , where x = _______: 3) 7 4) 5 2
2 x
1) 2 2) 3 5. Displacement-acceleration graph of a S.H.M
3) 3 4) 1 is given ; Time period of oscillation will be:

2. =y 2sin  πt + π  represents a S.H.M. phase (m/s2)

 3 
of the particle at t = 2 second will be: a

11 22
1) 2)
2 3
45
x
π π (m)
3) 4)
6 3
3. Time taken by a particle executing S.H.M, to
travel from − A 2 to + A 2 is 4 second. Angular

frequency of oscillation will be:

π 1) 3.14 second 2) 1.57 second
1) rad / s
3
3) 6.28 second 4) 12.56 second

2) π 6 rad / s 6. If maximum speed of a particle in SHM is given

by Vm, what is its average speed ?

π
3) rad / s π 2
2 1) Vm 2) Vm
2 π

π π Vm
4) rad / s 3) Vm 4)
12 4 2

Study Material 55
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
7. Which of the following statement is true ? 11. In the given diagram, S1 and S2 are identical
springs. The frequency of oscillation of the
1) Kinetic energy of the oscillating particle is mass m is f. If one of the springs is removed,
maximum at extreme position. the frequency will be

2) Acceleration of the oscillating particle is

maximum at mean position.

3) Displacement-velocity graph of an oscillating

particle will be parabola.
1) f 2) 2f
4) Kinetic energy and potential energy of the
A 3) 2f 4) f / 2
oscillating particle is equal at .
2
12. What will be the force constant of the spring
8. A particle performs simple harmonic motion
system shown in the figure
with amplitude A. Its speed is increased to
three times at an instant when its displacement
2A
is . The new amplitude of motion is
3
7A
1)
3
5A
2)
3
4A
3)
3
3A
4)
7
9. A spring of spring constant 200 N/m is cut into −1
two equal parts. Then spring constant of each K  1 1 
1) 1 + K 2 2)  + 
part becomes: 2  2K1 K 2 

1) 50 N/m 2) 400 N/m

1 1  2 1 
3) 25 N/m 4) No change 3) + 4)  + 
2K1 K 2  K1 K1 
10. An object on a spring vibrates in simple
harmonic motion at a frequency of 4.0 Hz 13. A particle executes S.H.M in a straight line of
and an amplitude of 8.0 cm. If the mass of the length 20cm. The radius of reference circle will
object is 0.20 kg, the spring constant is be:

1) 20 cm 2) 10 cm
1) 40 N/m 2) 87 N/m

3) 5 cm 4) Data insufficient
3) 128 N/m 4) 160 N/m

56 Physics
 NEET 2025
14. A simple pendulum is made of a body which is a 17. Two particles are in SHM with same amplitude
hollow sphere containing mercury suspended A and same angular frequency ω . At time t=0,
by means of a wire. If a little mercury is drained A A
off, the period of pendulum will one is at x = + and the other is at x = − .
2 2
Both are moving in the same direction. They
are colliding after a time :

π π
1) 2)
2ω ω

2π 5π
3) 4)
ω 3
1) Remains unchanged 18. The displacement function of an oscillating
 π
2) Increase =
body is given by x 0.3sin 10πt +  where
 6
3) Decrease x and t are measured in meter and second
respectively. Then
4) Become erratic 1) the period of oscillation is 5 s
2) the body starts its motion from the
15. A pendulum of length '  ' is suspended from
equilibrium
the roof of a lift. When the lift is stationary, T is
the time period. When the lift moves with an 3) the minimum time the body takes to reach
 4T  1
acceleration 'a' time period becomes  the equilibrium is s
. 12
 5 
What will be the value of 'a' ?
4) the frequency of oscillation is 10 Hz
9g 9g 19. For a simple harmonic motion, match the
1) upwards 2) downwards column I and column II
16 16
3g 3g Column I Column II
3) upwards 4) downwards
5 5 Straight
a) Velocity-time graph p)
line
LEVEL - II
Acceleration-velocity
16. The differential equation of SHM for a particle b) q) Circle
2
graph
d x
is given by a + bx =
0 . The ratio of the Acceleration-
dt 2 c) r) Ellipse
displacement graph
maximum acceleration to the maximum Acceleration- time Sinusoidal
velocity of the particle is d) s)
graph curve
b a
1) 2) 1) a→s; b→r; c→p; d→s
a b
2) a→r; b→s; c→p; d→q
3) a→s; b→p; c→r; d→q
a b
3) 4)
b a 4) a→s; b→r; c→q; d→s

Study Material 57
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
20. A simple pendulum is set up in a trolley which 23. A uniform vertical field E is established
moves to the right with an acceleration a on between two parallel plates. In this field, a
the horizontal plane. Then, the thread of the small conducting sphere of mass M is
pendulum in the mean position makes and suspended from a string of length l . If the
angle θ with the vertical given by sphere is given a charge +q and if lower plate
is charged positively, the period of the simple
pendulum is
1) tan–1(a/g) in the forward direction

2) tan–1 (a/g) in the backward direction

3) tan-1 (g/a) in the backward direction

4) tan–1 (g/a) in the forward direction

21. If a simple pendulum of length l has maximum

angular displacement θ , then the maximum

l
1) 2π l / g 2) 2π
kinetic energy of the bob of mass m is  qE 
g + 
 m
1) (1/ 2 ) m l / g

l l
2) (1/ 2 )( mg / l ) 3) 2π 4) 2π
 qE   qE 
g −   −g
 m m 
3) mgl (1 − cos θ )

24. Ratio of time period of a simple pendulum in a

4) (1/ 2 ) mgl sin θ car when it is stationary and when it is moving
in a circle of radius R with velocity v is
22. Two pendulums of lengths 121 cm and 100
cm start vibrating. At some instant the two are
in the mean position in the same phase. After 1) 1 : 1
how many vibrations of the shorter pendulum
the two will be in the phase in the mean
1
position ?  v4  4
2) 1 + 2 2 
1) 10  gR 

2) 11 v2
3) 1 +
gR
3) 20
v4
4) 21 4) 1+
g2R 2

58 Physics
 NEET 2025
25. A block of mass 200 g attached to a spring Assertion and Reason Type Questions
constant 200N/m is lying on a frictionless floor
as shown. The block is moved to compress 1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and
the spring by 10 cm and released. If the the Reason is the correct explanation of the
collision with the wall is elastic the time period
of motion is Assertion

2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but

Reason is not the correct explanation of the
Assertion

3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false

1) 0.133 sec 2) 2.12 sec
3) 0.2 sec 4) 1.8 sec 4) If the Assertion and Reason both are false
26. A uniform disc of radius 5 cm and mass 100g is
27. Assertion : When a simple pendulum is
fixed at its centre to a metal wire, the other end
of which is fixed with a clamp. The hanging made to oscillate on the
disc is rotated about the wire through an angle surface of moon, its time
and is released. If the disc makes torsional period increases
oscillations with time period 2 seconds find
torsional constant of wire. Reason : Moon is much smaller as
1) 1.25 ×10–3 kgm2/s2 2) 2.5 ×10–3 kgm2/s2 compared to earth

3) 1.25 ×10–5 kgm2/s2 4) 1×10–2 kgm2/s2

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I

1. 1 6. 2 11. 4
2. 2 7. 4 12. 2
3. 4 8. 1 13. 2
4. 1 9. 2 14. 2
5. 3 10. 3 15. 1

LEVEL - II
16. 4 20. 2 24. 2
17. 1 21. 3 25. 1
18. 3 22. 2 26. 1
19. 1 23. 3 27. 2

Study Material 59
 Chapter

11 WAVES

QUESTIONS 4. Select the incorrect option about the speed of

sound in air
LEVEL - I
1. Two waves are represented by the equations 1) Increases on increasing the temperature of
air
y1 a sin ( ωt + kx + 0.57 ) m and
=
2) Is independent of pressure if temperature is
y 2 a cos ( ωt + kx ) m. , where x is in meter
= constant

and t in sec. The phase difference between 3) Increases on increasing the humidity
them is
1) 1.0 radian 4) Increases on increasing the density of the
2) 1.25 radian medium if pressure is kept constant

3) 1.57 radian
5. Sound waves travel at 350 ms–1 through
4) 0.57 radian warm air and 3500 ms–1 through brass. The
2. A plane progressive wave is represented by wavelength of a 700 Hz acoustic wave as it
=
the equation y 5sin ( 8πt − 0.2x ) meter. The enters brass from air

velocity of the wave is 1) decrease by a factor 10

−1 −1
1) 80 πms 2) 40 π ms
2) Becomes 10 times

3) 20 π ms
−1
4) 60 π ms
−1
3) decrease by a factor 20

3. Equal volumes of helium and Argon are 4) Increase by a factor 20

mixed. The ratio of speed of sound through
Helium and through the mixture under same
6. If the length of a stretched string is shortened
conditions is : (molecular weight of Argon is
by 20% and the tension is increased by 21%
40g)
then the frequency
2
1) 2) 11 2 1) Increase by 20.50 %
11
2) Increase by 37.50 %
11 11
3) 4) 3) Increase by 30.5 %
2 2
4) Decrease by 37.5 %
60 Physics
 NEET 2025
7. A uniform rope of length L and mass m1 hangs 11. A pipe of length 85 cm is closed from one end.
vertically from a rigid support. A block of mass Find the number of possible modes of natural
m2 is attached to the free end of the rope. A oscillations of air column in the pipe whose
transverse pulse of wavelength λ1 is produced frequencies lie below 1250 Hz. The velocity of
sound in air at 0oC = 328 ms–1 and temperature
at the lower end of the rope. The wavelength
of air inside the pipe is 20oC
of the pulse when it reaches the top of the
rope is λ 2 . The ratio λ 2 / λ1 is 1) 12 2) 8
3) 6 4) 4
m1 + m 2 m1
1) 2) 12. A String is clamped at both the ends is vibrating
m1 m2
in its 4th harmonic. The equation of the stationary
= wave is y 0.3sin ( 0.157x ) cos ( 200 πt ) . The
m1 + m 2 m2 length of the string is (all questions are in SI
3) 4) units)
m2 m1
1) 20 m
8. A 1.50 m long rope is stretched between two
2) 40 m
supports with a tension that makes the speed
of transverse wave 48 m/s. The wavelength of 3) 60 m
second overtone is
4) 80 m
1) 1 m 2) 2 m 13. Two sound
waves represented by
=y1 4sin 200 πt and
= y 2 3sin 208 πt super
3) 3 m 4) 4 m
impose each other. The beat frequency and
9. A string 2 m long and fixed at its ends is driven ratio of maximum to minimum intensity are
by a 240 Hz vibrator. The string vibrates in its
7
third harmonic mode. The speed of the wave 1) 8and
and its fundamental frequency is : 1

1) 180 ms–1 and 80 Hz 49

2) 4 and
2) 320 ms–1 and 80 Hz 1

3) 320 ms–1 and 120 Hz 4

3) 4 and
4) 180 ms­­–1 and 120 Hz 3

10. A wire of length  and mass per unit length

16
−3 −1 4) 8and
6 ×10 Kg m is put under tension of 540 N. 9
Two consecutive frequencies that it resonates
at are 420 Hz and 490 Hz. Then  is 14. In a closed organ pipe of length 105 cm,
standing waves are set up corresponding to
1) 8.1 m third overtone. What distance from the closed
2) 2.1 m end, a pressure node is formed ?

3) 5.1 m 1) 5 cm 2) 15 cm

4) 1.1 m 3) 25 cm 4) 30 cm

Study Material 61
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
15. 56 tuning forks are so arranged that the 18. Which of the given statements are correct
frequency of last fork in 3 times the frequency regarding standing wave?
of the first fork and when two consecutive forks I. All the particles are oscillating with same
are vibrated together 4 beats/sec are heard. amplitude
Then the frequency of the 25th fork is:
II. The disturbance produced is confined to the
region where it is produced
1) 110 Hz 2) 220 Hz
III. All the particles cross their mean position
3) 206 Hz 4) 330 Hz together
IV. Energy is transmitted from one region of
LEVEL - II space to another
1) Both II and III 2) Only II
16. When a wave travels in a medium, the particle
3) I, II and III 4) Both I and IV
displacement is given by the equation
y= a sin 2π ( bt − cx ) where, b and c are 19. An open pipe A is filled with monoatomic gas
and a closed pipe B of same length is filled with
constants. The maximum particle velocity will a diatomic gas at same temperature. Second
be twice the wave velocity if harmonic of A is same as 3rd harmonic of B.
Then the ratio of molar mass of gases in A and B
1 200 100
1) c = 2) c = πa 1) 2)
πa 189 189
1
3) b = ac 4) b = 400 300
ac 3) 4)
189 189
17. A transverse wave is passing through a string
as shown in the figure. Mass density of the 20. A massless rod is suspended by two strings
string is 1 Kg/m3, and cross sectional area AB and CD of equal length. A block of mass
of the string is 0.01m2. Equation of wave in m is suspended from point O such that BO is
the string is y = 2 sin (20 t - 10x) metre. The equal to x.
hanging mass is Further, it is observed that the frequency of
1st harmonic (fundamental frequency) in AB is
equal to 2nd harmonic frequency in CD. Then
length of BO is

1) 4 Kg

2) 40 Kg L 4L
1) 2)
5 5
3) 0.2 Kg
3L L
4) 4 g 3) 4)
4 4
62 Physics
 NEET 2025
21. A point source emits sound isotropically. The 25. A tube open at both ends have a length 48 cm
difference in intensity levels at two points and fundamental frequency 320 Hz. If velocity
from the source is 3 decibel (dB). The ratio of of sound in air is 320 ms–1. Diameter of the
distance of first and second point is: tube is :

( given log10 2 = 0.3) 5

1) cm
1 1 3
1) 2 2) 2 10
2) cm
3
20
1 2 3) cm
3) 4) 3
4 3
25
4) cm
22. If the tension and diameter of a sonometer 3
wire of fundamental frequency n is doubled
26. A standing wave is formed on a string fixed at
and density is halved then its fundamental
frequency will become both ends. The wavelength of it is λ .

n Statement I : The position of nodes are only at

1) 2) 2n
4 x = 0, λ, 2λ,3λ.....nλ from one end (n=integer)

n Statement II: The position of antinodes are

3) n 4) λ 3λ 5λ λ
2 only at x
= , , ...... ( 2n + 1) from one
4 4 4 4
23. The length of a sonometer wire AB is 110 end (n = integer)
cm. Where should the two bridges be placed
from A to divide the wire in 3 segments whose 1) Statement I is correct but statement II is
fundamental frequencies are in the ratio of incorrect
1:2:3?
1) 60 cm and 90 cm 2) 30 cm and 60 cm 2) Statement II is correct but statement I is
incorrect
3) 30 cm and 90 cm 4) 40 cm and 80 cm
24. A sound wave starting from source S follows 3) Both statement I and II are correct
two paths AOB & ACB, through a thin tube to
reach the detector D as shown in the figure 4) Both statement I and II are correct

27. A turning fork A produces 4 beats/sec with

another fork B of frequency 256 Hz. When A
is slightly filed, the beat frequency increases.
Then the original frequency of A is

A) 258 Hz
If detector detects a minima, then maximum
2) 260 Hz
posible wavelength ( λ ) of sound wave must be
3) 252 Hz
1) 4 l 2) 3 l
3) 2 l 4) l 4) 264 Hz

Study Material 63
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
28. The fundamental frequency of a sonometer 29. Statement I: In wave motion, both particle
wire of length l is f 0 . A bridge is now velocity and wave velocity, are
independent of time
introduced at a distance of ∆l from the centre
Statement II: For the propagation of wave
motion, the medium must have
of the wire ( ∆l  l ) . The number of beats the properties of elasticity and
inertia
heard if both sides of the bridges are set into
vibration in their fundamental modes are 1) Both statement I and statement II are
correct
8 f 0 ∆l f 0 ∆l
1) 2) 2) Both statement I and statement II are false
l l
3) If statement I is true and statement II is false
2 f 0 ∆l 4 f 0 ∆l
3) 4)
l l 4) If statement I is false but statement II is true

ANSWER KEY
LEVEL - I

1. 1 6. 2 11. 3
2. 2 7. 3 12. 4
3. 4 8. 1 13. 2
4. 4 9. 2 14. 2
5. 2 10. 2 15. 3
LEVEL - II

16. 1 21. 2 26. 2

17. 4 22. 3 27. 2
18. 1 23. 1 28. 1
19. 3 24. 3 29. 4
20. 1 25. 2

64 Physics
 Chapter

12 ELECTROSTATICS

QUESTIONS 3. –1×10–6 C charge is on a drop of water having

mass 10–6kg. What electric field should be
LEVEL - I applied on the drop so that it is in the balanced
1. A particle of mass m carrying a charge q1 is condition with its weight?
revolving around a fixed charge –q2 in a circular
path of radius r with a constant speed. The 1) 10 V/m upward
speed of the particle is

q1q 2 q1q 2 2) 10 V/m downward

1) 2)
4πε0 mr π ∈0 mr
3) 0.1 V/m downward

q1q 2 q1q 2
3) 4) 4) 0/1 V/m upward
2π ∈0 mr 8π ∈0 mr

2. Two small spheres each having the charge +Q 4. A mass m = 20gm has a charge q=3mC. It
are suspended by insulating threads of length moves with velocity 20m/s and enters a region
L from a hook. This arrangement is taken to of electric field 80 N/C in the same direction
space where there is no gravitational effect, as the velocity. The velocity of mass after 3s
then the angle between the two suspensions in this region is
and the tension in each will be:
1) 80 m/s

1 Q2 2) 56 m/s
1) 180°,
4πε 0 ( 2L )2
3) 44 m/s

4) 40 m/s
1 Q2
2) 90 °,
4πε 0 L2 5. The force experienced by an alpha particle
placed on the axial line at a distance of 10cm
from the centre of a short dipole of moment
0.2×10-20 Cm is
1 Q2
3) 180°,
4πε0 2L2 1) 5.75×10–27 N

2) 11.5×10–27 N
1 Q2 3) 23×10–27 N
4) 180°,
4πε 0 L2
4) 34.5×10–27N
Study Material 65
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
6. A dipole of moment P is placed in a uniform L
electric field E at a stable equilibrium position. 9. A charge +q is at a distance above the
2
The work done to rotate it slowly to the position
of unstable equilibrium is centre of a square of side L. Then the flux
linked with the surface is
1) Zero
q
1)
2) PE 4 ∈0
3) 2PE
q
2)
4) –2PE 6 ∈0

7. A uniform electric field E = 3iˆ − 4ˆj + 5kˆ exist in
q
3)
a region where a cube of side 2m is considered 8∈0
as shown. Electric flux through right face, front
face and top face are respectively in Vm is
q
4)
2 ∈0
10. A small nonconducting ball of mass m and
charge q hangs from an insulating thread
that makes an angle θ with a vertical, non
conducting sheet. The surface charge density
of the sheet is

1) 12, 16, 20 2) 12, –16, –20

3) 12, 20, –16 4) 16, –20, 12
8. A hollow cylinder has a charge qC within it at
centre. If ϕ is the electric flux in units of V-m
associated with the curved surface B, the flux
linked with the plane surface A in unit of V-m
will be:

2 ∈0 mg tan θ
1)
q

∈0 mg tan θ
2)
q
q φ
1) 2)
2ε0 3 ∈0 mg sin θ
3)
q
q 1 q 
3) −φ 4)  − φ 2 ∈0 mg sin θ
ε0 2  ε0  4)
q
66 Physics
 NEET 2025
11. Two parallel infinite lines of charges with linear 14. A charged particle 5C is moved from point A to
C C B and the work done for the process is 10J. If
densities +λ and − λ are placed at a the kinetic energy of the particle reduces by 20
m m
J during the process, the potential difference
distance of 2R in free space. What is the VA-VB is
electric field mid-way between the two line
charges 1) 6 V 2) –6V
λ
1) N/C 3) 2V 4) –2V
2πε0 R
15. A point charge Q is placed at the origin of co-
2) Zero ordinates. Find the potential difference

3)
2λ
N/C
between points ( ) (
3, 3,0 and 0,0, 6 m . )
πε0 R
 1 
λ K = 
4) N/C  4πε 0 
πε0 R

12. Figure shows a closed surface which intersects KQ KQ

1) 2)
a conducting sphere. If a positive charge is
placed at the point P, the electric flux through
6 ( 3− 6 )
the closed surface is
KQ
3) 4) Zero
3

16. The sides of a rectangle ABCD are 15cm and

5cm as shown. Point charges –5μC and +2μC
are placed at the corners D and B respectively.
The work done in carrying a charge of 3μC from
1) will become positive A to C is nearly
2) will become zero

3) will become negative

4) will become undefined

13. Electric field at the surface of a charged

1) 2.5 J 2) 2J
conducting sphere due to its charge is E. Now
the radius of the sphere is doubled without 3) 3.5 J 4) 1.5 J
changing its surface charge density. Then the 
electric field at the surface at the new sphere E 2xiˆ + 3jˆ exist in a region.
17. An electric field=
will be
Then potential difference between points
E (1,2,0) and (–2,1,3) is
1) E 2)
2
1) 3V 2) –3V
E E
3) 4) 3) 6V 4) Zero
4 16
Study Material 67
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
18. In the following graph, electric field at points 21. Two identical charges are placed at the two
A, B and C are respectively in N/C vertices of an equilateral triangle. The potential
energy of the system is U. The work done in
bringing an identical charge from infinite to third
vertex is
1) U 2) 2U
3) 3U 4) 4U
22. The figure shows some of the equipotential
1) –2.5, 0, 2.5 surfaces. Magnitude and direction off the
electric field is given by
2) 2.5, 0, –2.5

3) 2.5, 0, 2.6

4) –2.5, 0, –1.5

19. Figure shows some of the electric field lines

1) 200 V/m, making an angle 120° with x-axis
corresponding to an electric field. If E is the
electric field intensity and V is the electric 2) 100 V/m, pointing towards the negative
potential, then x-axis
3) 200 V/m, making an angle 60° with the x-axis
4) 100 V/m, making an angle 30° with the x-axis
23. 2μF capacitor is charged to a voltage 100 V
and a 4μF to a voltage 50V are then connected
in parallel. The common potential and loss of
1) EA> EB, VA< VB energy are nearly
1) 75V, 1.7×10–2 J 2) 67V, 1.7×10–3 J
2) EA> EB, VA> VB
3) 3V, 1.7×10–1 J 4) 67V, 1.7×10–4 J
3) EA< EB, VA> VB 24. A parallel plate capacitor is charged using a
charging battery. If the plates of the capacitor
4) EA< EB, VA> VB are moved close by means of an insulating
handle with the battery still connected (case
20. If potential in a region is expressed as V= 1) and also after disconnecting battery (case
6xy–y+2yz. The electric field at a point (1, 1, 2). Then
0)
1) Charge increases in the first case and
electric field reduces in the second case
1) −(2iˆ + 3jˆ + k)
ˆ
2) Energy stored in the capacitor reduces in
the first case and increases in the second
2) −(6iˆ + 9ˆj + k)
ˆ
3) Potential remain constant in first case and
3) −(3iˆ + 5jˆ + 3k)
ˆ increases in the second
4) Energy stored and electric field increases
4) −(6iˆ + 5jˆ + 2k)
ˆ in the first case while charge and electric field
remain constant in the second
68 Physics
 NEET 2025
25. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are 29. Four point charges are placed at the four
charged upto 100V. A 2 mm thick insulator corners of a square as shown. Direction of net
sheet is inserted between the plates. Then electric field at the centre of the magnitude if
to maintain the same potential difference, field at centre due to charge q is E
the distance between the capacitor plates is
increased by 1.6 mm. The dielectric constant
of the insulator is
1) 6 2) 8
3) 4 4) 5
26. A capacitor having capacitance 1μF with air
filled between the plates, is now filled with two
dielectric as shown. The new capacitance will
be

1) 2E along OM 2) 2E along OF

7
1) 5μF 2) µF 3) 2 2E along OG 4) 2 2E along ON
2

11 9 30. Three point charges 1 microcoulomb, –1

3) µF 4) µF microcoulomb and 1 microcoulomb are placed
2 2 at the three corners of a square of side 3cm.
LEVEL - II The net electric field at the fourth corner
1μC –1μC
27. Three point charges 4 micro coulomb, –2 micro
coulomb and 4 micro coulomb are placed at A B
the three corners of an equilateral triangle of
side 3cm. A point charge -1 microcoulomb is
placed at its centroid. The net force acting on
the charge at centroid is

1) 180 N towards a corner D C

2) 180 N away from a corner 1μC

3) 90 N towards a corner
 1 7
1)  2 +  ×10 N / C
4) 90 N away from a corner  2

28. Two point charges 4q and q are placed at a 2) ( )

2 + 1 ×107 N / C
separation r. A third point charge Q is placed
on the line joining them at a distance c from q.
 1  7
Then for the entire system to be in equilibrium 3)  2 −  ×10 N / C
 2
1) c=r/3, Q= –2q/9 2) c=2r/3, Q= –q/3
 1 7
4)  2 −  × 10 N / C
3) c=r/3, Q= –4q/9 4) c=r/3, Q= –2q/9  2

Study Material 69
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
31. A charged particle is entering into a uniform 33. Three thin infinite long plane sheets carrying
3 uniform charge densities σ1= –σ,σ2= +2σand
electric field î with a velocity 2iˆ at a point σ3= +3σ are placed parallel to the xy plane at
2
y=-a, y=3a and y=4a as shown. The electric
(0, 2, 0) and leaves the field at a point (2, 2,0) field at the point P is
with a velocity 4iˆ . The charge to mass ratio of

the particle is

2σ 3σ
1) − ĵ 2) − ĵ
ε0 ε0
1
1)
2
3σ σ
2) 2 3) ĵ 4) ĵ
ε0 ε0
2
3) 34. Consider two concentric conducting spherical
3
shells with charges as shown. Net electric field
at point p, if centre is the origin
3
4)
2
32. Electric field at x=10 cm is 100 î V/m and at

x= -10cm is –100 î V/m. The magnitude of

charge enclosed by the cube of side 20 cm 1 Q 1 Q

1) r̂ 2) − r̂
4π ∈0 R 2 4π ∈0 R 2

1 Q 1 Q
3) r̂ 4) − r̂
4π ∈0 4R 2 4π ∈0 4R 2

35. Three concentric conducting spherical shells

carry charges +4Q on the inner shell, –2Q on
the middle shell and +6Q on the outer shell.
1) 8∈0
The charge on the inner surface of the outer
shell is
2) 2 ∈0
1) Zero

3) 4 ∈0 2) 4Q

3) –Q
4) ∈0
4) -–2Q

70 Physics
 NEET 2025
36. Two point charge –2μC and 8μC are separated 39. Consider three concentric thin conducting
by a distance 12cm as shown distance from spherical shells of radius R, 2R and 3R. A
the –2μC charge on the line joining the two charge q and –2q are given to inner and outer
charges where total electric potential is zero shells respectively, with middle shell earthed.
will be The charge on middle shell after earthing will
be
q −q
1) 2)
3 3

1) 4cm to the left 2) 2.4 cm to the right

2q −2q
3) 4)
3) Both 1 and 2 4) Both 1, 2 and at infinity 3 3
37. An equilateral triangle ABC of side 2m is placed 40. Three point charges each of value q are placed
in a uniform electric field 10 N/C as shown. at the three corners of an equilateral triangle
The potential difference VB–VA and VA–VC are of side L. The work done to shift these charges
respectively to the corners of a square of same side will be
 1 
K = 
 4πε 0 

Kq 2  1 1  Kq 2  1 
1)  −  2)  − 1
L 2 2 L  2 

1) 10 V, –20 V 2) 10 V, 20 V Kq 2 Kq 2
3)
L 2
4)
L
1− 2 ( )
3) –10 V, –20 V 4) –10 V, 20 V
38. Three concentric thin conducting spherical 41. 27 similar drops of mercury are maintained at
shells have radii R, 2R and 3R. They are given 10V each. All these spherical drops combine
with respective charges Q, –2Q and 5Q. If the into a single big drop. The potential of the
inner and outer spheres are interconnected bigger drop is x times. Then
without touching the middle sphere, the
amount of charge flown through the wire is 1) x=9 2) x=243
Q
1) from outer to inner 3) x=81 4) x=343
2

42. A point charge 100μC is fixed at a point.

Q Another point charge 1μC and mass 100g is
2) from inner to outer
2 placed at a point 3cm from it. When it is set
free, it moves away from the first charge. Its
speed when the separation becomes 9cm
Q is?
3) from outer to inner
4
1) 5 m/s 2) 10 m/s
Q
4) from inner to outer 3) 20 m/s 4) 12 m/s
4

Study Material 71
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
43. In the following circuit, find the current from 46. A capacitor C is charged using a battery of
the cell at the instant of closing the switch and potential V. Now the battery is disconnected
long time after closing the switch and it is again connected to the same capacitor
with reverse polarity. Then
1) No charge flows through battery
2) A charge CV flows through battery
3) Work done by the battery is 2 CV2
4) Change in energy stored in the capacitor is
1
1) 3A, 1A 2) 1A, 3A CV 2
2
3 3 47. In the above figure area of each plate is A and
3) A,1A 4) 3A, A
2 2 distance between them is d, then equivalent
capacitance between A and B is
44. A capacitor C=2μF is connected as shown.
A
The internal resistance of the cell is 0.5Ω. The
charge on the capacitor plates

2ε0 A
1)
d

3ε 0 A
1) 2μC 2)
d
2) 6μC
5 ε0A
3)
3) 1μC 3 d
4) None of these
4) 4μC
48. Assertion : Work done to move a charge
45. A parallel plate capacitor C is connected to a between two points over a
battery and is charged by a potential difference charged conducting surface is
V. Another capacitance 2C is connected to zero
another battery of potential 2V. The charging Reason : Electric field lines are always
batteries are disconnected and then the perpendicular to the surface of
capacitors are connected in parallel to each a charged conducting body
other in such a way that the positive terminal
of one is connected to the negative terminal of 1) Both statement I and statement II are
other. The loss in energy during redistribution is incorrect
2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
2 2 3 2 incorrect
1) CV 2) CV
3 2 3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
correct
1
3) 3CV2 4) CV 2 4) Both statement I and statement II are correct
3
72 Physics
 NEET 2025
49. Assertion : Charges accumulate more at 50. Assertion : A positive charge is given to
the sharp edges of a charged a conducting plate A. Another
conducting surface neutral conducting plate B is
placed near to it as shown
Reason : When a charge is given to a +
solid conducting body, it will be +
distributed uniformly only over
its surface +
+
1) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect A B
Then potential of A will decrease
Reason : When a conductor is earthed
2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
its final potential become zero
incorrect
1) Both statement I and statement II are
incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is 2) Statement I is correct but statement II is
correct incorrect
3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
4) Both statement I and statement II are correct correct
4) Both statement I and statement II are correct

Study Material 73
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

ANSWER KEY
LEVEL - I LEVEL - II

1. 1 14. 3 27. 2 39. 1

2. 1 15. 4 28. 3 40. 2
3. 2 16. 1 29. 3 41. 2
4. 2 17. 4 30. 4 42. 3
5. 2 18. 1 31. 2 43. 1
6. 3 19. 1 32. 1 44. 4
7. 3 20. 4 33. 2 45. 3
8. 4 21. 2 34. 4 46. 3
9. 2 22. 1 35. 4 47. 3
10. 1 23. 2 36. 4 48. 4
11. 4 24. 4 37. 4 49. 2
12. 1 25. 4 38. 2 50. 4
13. 1 26. 1

74 Physics
 Chapter

13 CURRENT ELECTRICITY

QUESTIONS 5. Two resistors are joined in parallel whose

6
LEVEL - I resultant is Ω One of the resistance wire is
5
1. In an electrolyte 3.2×1018 bivalent positive
broken and the effective resistance becomes
ions drift to the right per second while 3.6×1018
2 ohms. Then the resistance (in ohm) of the
monovalent negative ions drift to the left per
wire that broken is
second. Then the current is
1) 1.6 A to the left 6
1) 2) 2
5
2) 1.6 A to the right
3) 0.35 A to the right
3
4) 0.45 A to the left 3) 4) 3
5
2. 1 ampere current is equivalent to
6. A, B and C are voltmeters of resistance R, 1.5
1) 6.25 ×1018 electron s–1 R and 3R respectively. When some potential
2) 2.25 ×1018 electrons s–1 difference is applied between x and y, the
voltmeter reading are VA, VB and VC. Then
3) 6.25 ×1014 electrons s–1
B
4) 2.25 ×1014 electrons s–1
3. Three copper wires have their lengths in the X A y
ratio 5: 3: 1 and their masses are in the ratio
1:3:5. Their electrical resistance will be in the C

ratio.
1) VB = VC ≠ VA 2) VB ≠ VA ≠ VC
1) 5:3:1 2) 1:3:5
3) 125 :15:1 4) 1:15:125 3) VA = VB ≠ VC 4) VA = VB = VC

4. A conductor with rectangular cross-section 7. In the given circuit the potential at point B is
has dimensions (ax 2a x4a) as shown in zero, the potential at points A and D will be
figure. Resistance across AB is x, across CD
is y and across EF is z. Then

1) VA = 4 V; VD = 9 V

2) VA = 3 V; VD = 4 V
1) x= y =z 2) x > y > z 3) VA = 9 V; VD = 3 V
3) y > z > x 4) x > z > y 4) VA = 4 V; VD = –3 V
Study Material 75
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
8. If the ammeter A shows a zero reading in the 11. In a balanced Wheatstone bridge, current
circuit show below, the value of resistance R in the galvanometer is zero. It remains zero
is when

i) battery emf is increased

ii) all resistances are increased by 10 ohms

iii) all resistance are made five times

iv) the battery and galvanometer are

interchanged

1) i and ii are correct

1) 500Ω 2) 125 Ω
3) 100Ω 4) 41.5 Ω 2) all are correct

9. In the circuit figure if the resistance R2 is 3) ii and iii are correct

decreased:
4) i, iii and iv are correct

12. The reading of ammeter shown in figure is

1) The current through R1 increases

2) The current through R1 is constant
3) The voltage drop across R2 decreases
4) The power dissipation by R2 decreases
10. In the given circuit, the value of currents I1, I2
and I3 are 1) 6.56 A

2) 3.28 A

3) 2.18 A

4) 1.09 A

13. To get a maximum current through a

resistance of 2.5Ω one can use m rows of
−3 9 cells each row having n cells. The internal
1) 3A, A, A resistance of each cell is 0.5Ω. What are the
2 2
values of m and n, if the total number of cells
are 20
9 −3
2) A,3A, A 1) m=2, n=10
2 2
2) m=4, n=5
3) 5A, 4A, 3A
3) m = 5, n= 4
5 9
4) 7A, A, A
4 2 4) n=2, m=10

76 Physics
 NEET 2025
14. An electric kettle takes 4 A current at 220 LEVEL II
V. How much time will it take to heat 1 kg of
water from temperature 20o C to 100oC 16. Count the total number of correct statements

i) A current carrying conductor is negatively

1) 4.2 min
charged

2) 6.3 min ii) Both thermal and drift motions of electrons

constitute electric current.
3) 8.4 min
iii) Directions of electric current is same as the
4) 12.6 min direction of drift of electrons in a conductor

iv) A steady current is flowing in a cylindrical

15. Statement I : A steady current is flowing in a conductor, Electric field exists within the
conductor having non-uniform conductor.
cross-section as shown in
figure. The drift speed of the v) Average value of thermal velocity of
electrons increases as one electrons in a conductor is few mm/s and that
moves from A to B of drift velocity is zero.

vi) A wire of resistance R is stretched till

its radius is half of the original value. Then
resistance of the stretched wire is 16R.

A B
vii) A wire is stretched to increase the length
by 10%. The change in its resistance is 10%.

viii) A piece of Cu and another Ge are

Statement II: Drift velocity is given by cooled from room temperature to 80 K. The
eEτ resistance of Cu decreases and Ge increases
vd = and in above de-
m
1) 3 2) 5

scribed situation E is increas-
3) 6 4) 2
ing as one moves from A to B. 17. Two metal wires of identical dimensions
are connected in series. If σ1 and σ2 are the
1) Statement I is true, statement II is true; conductivities of the metal, respectively, the
statement II is a correct explanation for effective conductivity of the combination is
statement I
1) σ1+ σ2

2) If statement I is true, statement II is true; σ1 + σ2

2)
statement II is not a correct explanation for 2
statement I

3) σ1σ 2
3) If statement I is true statement II is false
2σ1σ 2
4)
4) If statement I is false; statement II is true σ1 + σ2

Study Material 77
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
18. The total momentum of electrons in a straight 21. Column I gives some circuits and column II
wire of copper of length 1 m carrying a current gives their effective resistance between A
of 16 A is and B. Match the entries.

1) 91×10–15 kg m/s Column I Column II

2) 91×10–16 kg m/s
A) 1)
(1 + 3 ) R
3) 91×10–14 kg m/s

4) 91×10–12 kg m/s B) 2) 5Ω

19. Two conductors have the same resistance

at 0oC but their temperature coefficients C) 3) 8R
of resistance are α1 and α2. The respective
15
temperature coefficients of their series and
parallel combinations are nearly

α1 + α 2 D) 4) 5R
1) , α1α 2 6
2
α1 + α 2
2) α1 + α 2 ,
2
α1 α 2 E) 5) 8Ω
3) α1 + α 2 ,
α1 + α 2
α1 + α 2 α1 + α 2
4) ,
2 2
A B C D E
20. An electric cable of copper has just one wire
of radius 9 mm. Its resistance is 5 ohm. This 1) 2 1 3 5 4
single copper wire of cable is replaced by 6 2) 4 1 5 3 2
different well insulated copper wire each of 3) 3 2 1 5 4
radius 3mm and of same length as original 4) 5 4 2 3 1
wire, in parallel. The total resistance of the 22. In the circuit shown determine the voltage
cable will now be equal to drop between A & D

1) 45 Ω

2) 90 Ω

3) 7.5 Ω

1) 8V 2) 10V
4) 270 Ω
3) 20V 4) 6 V
78 Physics
 NEET 2025
23. Figure shows the part of a larger circuit. All 26. Two cells X and Y of same emf but different
ammeters are ideal. If the ammeter A1 reads internal resistance r1 and r2 respectively (r1 >r2).
1A. Find the reading of ammeter A2. These cells are connected in series as shown
in figure and the combination is connected in
series with an external resistance R. If the
potential difference measured across the cell
X is zero, the resistance R has a value:

1) 3A
2) 2A
3) 1.5 A
4) 1 A
1) r1 + r2 2) r1–r2
24. In the circuit figure, the voltmeter reads 30V.
What is the resistance of the voltmeter? r1 + r2
3) r1/r2 4)

27. In the circuit shown in the figure, the current

through

1) 1200 Ω
2) 700 Ω
3) 400 Ω
4) 300 Ω 1) The 3Ω resistor is 0.5 A

25. Eight cells marked 1 to 8 each of emf 5V and 2) The 3Ω resistor is 0.25 A
internal resistance 0.2 Ω are connected as
3) The 4Ω resistor is 0.5 A
shown in the figure. What is the reading of
the ideal voltmeter v ? 4) The 4Ω resistor is 0.25 A

28. Find i1 / i2 ?

1) 40 V
2) 20 V
3) 5 V 1) 2 2) 8
4) Zero 3) 0.5 4) 4

Study Material 79
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
29. For the following diagram potential at point B 32. Five identical bulb rated 100W, 250V are
is equal to potential at the point D. The what connected as shown in the figure, with a
is the value of ‘x’ battery of emf E= 260 v and internal resistance
25Ω. Find thermal power developed in the
bulb A in watts

1) 25 Ω
2) 10Ω
3) 2 Ω
4) Both 2 and 3 are correct 1) 25 W
30. In the circuit shown, a meter bridge is in its
balanced state. The meter bridge wire has a 2) 40 W
resistance 0.1Ω/cm. The value of unknown
resistance X and the current drawn from the 3) 60 W
battery of negligible resistance is
4) 100 W

33. A potential difference V is applied across a

copper wire of diameter d and length l, in
column I the information about the change
in one of the physical quantity is given and
the effect(s) of this change are mentioned in
column II. Match the column I with column II
1) 6Ω,5A 2) 10Ω, 0.1A
Column Column II
3) 4Ω, 1A 4) 12Ω, 0.5A Voltage V is Drift speed will
a) p)
31. A torch balls rated as 4.5 W, 1.5 V is connected doubled decrease
as shown in the figure. The emf of the coil Length l is Drift speed will
needed to make the balls glow at full intensity is b) q)
double be halved
Diameter d is Drift speed will
c) r)
doubled be doubled
Temperature
Drift speed will
d) of the wire is s)
not change
increased
1) a-s; b-q; c-p; d-r
2) a-r; b-p,q; c-s; d-p
1) 4.5 V 2) 1.5 V 3) a-r; b-p; c-q,s; d-p
3) 2.67 V 4) 13.5 V 4) a-p; b-r; c-q,r; d-s
80 Physics
 NEET 2025
34. Statement I : In the given circuit if lamp B or 35. Of the two bulbs in a house hold circuit, one
C fuses then light emitted by glows brighter than the other, which of the
lamp A decreases two bulbs has a large resistance?

1) The bright bulb

2) The dim bulb

3) Both have the same resistance

4) The brightness does not depend upon the

resistance
Statement II : Voltage on A decrease, if B or
C fuses
1) If statement I is true, statement II is
true; statement II is correct explanation for
statement I
2) If statement I is true, statement II is true;
statement II is not a correct explanation for
statement I
3) If statement I is true; statement II is false
4) If statement I is false; statement II is true

ANSWER KEY
LEVEL - I

1. 2 6. 4 11. 4
2. 1 7. 4 12. 3
3. 3 8. 2 13. 1
4. 4 9. 2 14. 2
5. 4 10. 1 15. 1

LEVEL II

16. 1 21. 1 26. 2 31. 4

17. 4 22. 3 27. 4 32. 1
18. 4 23. 2 28. 2 33. 2
19. 4 24. 1 29. 4 34. 1
20. 3 25. 4 30. 3 35. 2

Study Material 81
 MOVING CHARGES AND
Chapter

14 MAGNETISM


QUESTIONS 4. The magnetic field dB due to a small current
LEVEL - I  
element d l āt a distance r ānd carrying
1. A positive charge is moving upward in a
magnetic field which is towards north. The current i is,
particle will be deflected towards 
 µ 0  d l × r 
1) east 1) dB = i 
4π  r 
2) west

 µ 0 2  d l × r 
3) north 2) dB = i  
4π  r 
4) south

2. A charged particle moves in a circular path in a  µ 0 2  d l × r 
uniform magnetic field. If its speed is reduced, 3) dB = i  
4π  r 2 
then its time period will

1) increase  µ 0  d l × r 
4) dB = i 
2) decrease 4π  r 3 

3) remain same
5. An element of 0.05iˆ m is placed at the origin
4) none of these
as shown in figure which carries a large current
3. A proton and an α-particle moving with the of 10A, distance of 1m in perpendicular
same velocity enter into a uniform magnetic direction. The value of magnetic field at point P
field, acting normal to the plane of their motion. is
The ratio of the radii of the circular paths
described by the proton and α-particle is

1) 1 : 2

2) 1 : 4

3) 1 : 16
1) 4.5×10–8 ĵT 2) –5.0×10–8 k̂T
4) 4 : 1
3) 5.0×10–8 k̂T 4) –7.5×10–8 ĵT

82 Physics
 NEET 2025
6. Two long straight wires are set parallel to each 9. A long wire carries a steady current. It is bent
other. Each carries a current i in the same into a coil of one turn such that magnetic
direction and the separation between them is induction at centre is B, then same wire with
2r. The intensity of the magnetic field midway same current is bent to form a coil of smaller
between them is radius of n turns when magnetic induction at
centre is B' then

1) B' = B

2) B' = nB

3) B' = n2B
1) µ 0i / r

2) 4µ 0i / r 4) B = n2B'

3) Zero
10. A long straight wire of radius a carries a steady
4) µ 0i / 4r current I, the current is uniformly distributed
over its cross-section. The ratio of the magnetic
7. A horizontal overhead power line is at a height a
of 4 m from the ground and carries a current of fields B and B', at radial distances and 2a
100 A from east to west. The magnetic field 2
directly below it on the ground is respectively, from the axis of the wire is:
(µ 0
−7
= 4π×10 TmA −1
)
1) 2.5 × 10–7 T northward
1
1)
4
2) 2.5 × 10–7 T southward
1
3) 5 × 10–6 T northward 2)
2
4) 5 × 10–6 T southward
3) 1
8. Current 'I' is flowing in a conductor shaped as
shown in the figure. The radius of the curved
part is r and the length of straight portion is 4) 4
very large. The value of the magnetic field at
the centre O will be 11. A long solenoid has 200 turns per cm and
carries a current of 2.5 A. The magnetic field at
( −7
its centre is µ 0 = 4π× 10 Wb / Am )
1) 3.15×10–2 Wb/m2

µ0I  π  µ0I  π 
1)  + 1 2)  − 1 2) 6.28×10–2 Wb/m2
4πr  2  4πr  2 

3) 9.42×10–2 Wb/m2
µ 0 I  3π  µ 0 I  3π 
3)  + 1 4)  − 1
4πr  2  4πr  2  4) 12.56×10–2 Wb/m2

Study Material 83
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
12. Two wires with currents 2A and 1A are enclosed 15. A galvanometer of resistance 50Ώ gives a full
in a circular loop. Another wire with current 3A scale deflection for a current 5×10–4A. The
is situated outside the loop as shown. The resistance that should be connected in series
 
with the galvanometer to read 3V is
∫ ⋅ d l around the loop is
B
1) 5050Ω

2) 5950Ω

3) 595Ω

4) 5059Ω

LEVEL - II
1) µ 0 2) 3µ 0
16. Select the correct statements about Lorentz
3) 6µ 0 4) 2µ 0 force

13. A rectangular loop carrying a current i is I) In presence of electric field E ( r ) and
situated near a long straight wire carrying a

steady current I. The wire is parallel to one of magnetic field B(r) the force on a moving
the sides of the loop and is in the plane of the
loop as shown in the figure.    
=
electric charge is F q  E ( r ) + ν × B ( r ) 

II) The force, due to magnetic field on a negative

charge is opposite to that on a positive charge

III) The force due to magnetic field is become

zero if velocity and magnetic field are parallel
or anti-parallel

IV) For a static charge the magnetic force is

maximum
Then the current loop will
1) I and II only 2) II and III only
1) rotate about an axis parallel to the
wire 3) I, II and III 4) I, II, III and IV

2) move towards the wire 17. If a proton, deuteron and α -particle after being
accelerated by the same potential difference
3) move away from the wire
enters perpendicular to a magnetic field, then
4) remain stationary the ratio of their radii is

14. A galvanometer coil has a resistance of 10Ω 1) 1:2:2

and the meter shows full scale deflection for a
current of 1 mA. The shunt resistance required 2) 1: 2 :1
to convert the galvanometer into an ammeter
of range 0 - 100 mA is about
3) 2 : 2 :1
1) 10Ω 2) 1Ω
3) 0.1Ω 4) 0.01Ω 4) 1: 2 : 2
84 Physics
 NEET 2025
18. A proton of mass 1.67×10 kg and charge
–27
21. Four long straight wires are located at the
1.6×10–19C is projected with a speed of 2×106 corners of a square ABCD. All the wires carry
m/s at an angle of 60° to the X-axis. If a uniform equal currents. Current in the wires A and B
magnetic field of 0.104 tesla is applied along are inwards and in C and D are outwards. The
Y-axis, the path of proton is magnetic field at the centre O is along
1) A circle of radius = 0.2m and time period
π×10−7 s
2) A circle of radius =0.1m and time period
2π×10−7 s
3) A helix of radius =0.1 m and time period
2π×10−7 s
4) A helix of radius = 0.2m and time period
4π×10−7 s
1) AD
19. An ionized gas contains both positive and
negative ions. If it is subjected simultaneously 2) CB
to an electric field along the +X direction and a
magnetic field along the +Z direction then:
3) AB
1) Positive ions deflect towards +Y direction
and negative ions towards –Y direction 4) CD
2) All ions deflect towards +Y direction
22. A pair of stationary and infinitely long bent
3) All ions deflect towards –Y direction wires are placed on the x-y plane as shown
4) Positive ions deflect towards –Y direction in figure. The wires carry currents of 10 A
and negative ions towards + Y direction each as shown. The segments LR and MS
are along x-axis. The segments PR and QS
20. A potential difference of 600 V is applied
across the plates of a parallel plate capacitor. are parallel to the y-axis such that OS = OR
The separation between the plates is 3 mm. = 0.02 m. Find magnitude and direction of the
An electron is projected vertically, parallel magnetic induction at the origin O.
to the plates, with a velocity of 2 × 106 m/s
moves undeflected between the plates. The
magnitude and direction of magnetic field in
the region between the capacitor plates is:

1) 100 Wb m–2 out of plane of paper

1) 1 T , into the plane of paper

2) 10–4 Wb m–2 into the plane of paper
2) 1 T, out of plane of paper
3) 0.1 T, into the plane of paper 3) 10–4 Wb m–2 out of the plane of paper

4) 0.1 T out of plane of paper 4) 0.01 Wb m–2 into the plane of paper
Study Material 85
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
23. Two long straight wires are connected by a 25. A fixed horizontal wire carries a current of
circular section that has a radius r as shown 200A. Another wire having a mass per unit
in the figure. All segments of the wire lie in length 10–2 kg/m is placed below the first wire at
the same plane and carry steady current I. a distance of 2cm and parallel to it. How much
The magnetic field at centre O of the circular current must be passed through the second
segment is wire if it floats in air without any support?
What should be the direction of current in it?
1) 25 A (direction of current is same to first
wire)
2) 25 A (direction of current is opposite to first
wire)
3) 49 A (direction of current is same to first
µI wire)
1) 0
4πr 4) 49 A (direction of current is opposite to first
βµ 0 I wire)
2)
4πr 26. A 50cm long wire is bent to form a particular
geometrical shape. It carries a current of
βµ 0 I
3) 15A and is kept in a magnetic field of 0.01 T.
r The maximum torque obtainable using this
βµ 0 I arrangement is
4)
2πr 1) 3×10–3 Nm 2) 3×102 Nm
24. The figure shows three long straight wires 3) 2×10–2 Nm 4) 0.2 Nm
P, Q and R carrying currents normal to the
27. The magnetic field at the centre of a circular
plane of the paper. All three currents have the 
same magnitude. Which arrow best shows the loop of area A is B . Then the magnetic moment
direction of the resultant force on the wire P
of the loop will be

BA 2 BA A
1) 2)
µ0π µ0

BA A 2BA A
3) 4)
µ0π µ0 π

28. A helium nucleus makes a full rotation in a

circle of radius 0.8 metre in two seconds. The
value of the magnetic field B at the centre of
the circle will be
1) A
10−19 −19
1) 2) 10 µ 0
2) B µ0

3) C
−10 2 ×10−10
3) 2 × 10 µ0 4)
4) D µ0

86 Physics
 NEET 2025
29. Two circular concentric loops of radii r1=20cm 31. A square loop of side a and carrying current i
and r2=30cm are placed in the XY plane as as shown in the figure is placed in gravity free
shown in the figure. A current I=7 A is flowing space having magnetic field B = B0 kˆ . Now
through them. The magnetic moment of this
loop system is match the following

y
i

1) +4.0kˆ(Am )
2

ˆ
2) −1.5k(Am
2
)
Column I Column II
ˆ
3) +1.1k(Am
2
)
A) Torque on loop 1) Is zero
ˆ
4) +1.3j(Am )2
Is in direction
30. A galvanometer of resistance 100Ω gives full
B) Net force on loop 2)
( −k̂ )
scale deflection for 20 mV. The resistance to
be attached, so that it gives full deflection of Potential energy Has minimum
C) 3)
5V is of loop magnitudes

Magnetic moment Has maximum

1) 24.9×103Ω in series D) 4)
of loop magnitudes

2) 24.9×103Ω in parallel 1) A 2; B 1; C 3; D 4
2) A 1,2; B 1; C 4; D 2
3) 49.3×103Ω in series
3) A 4; B 3; C 2; D 1
4) 49.3×103 Ω in parallel 4) A 2; B 1; C 4; D 3

Study Material 87
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I LEVEL - II

1. 2 9. 3 16. 3 24. 3
2. 3 10. 3 17. 4 25. 3
3. 1 11. 2 18. 3 26. 1
4. 4 12. 1 19. 3 27. 4
5. 3 13. 2 20. 3 28. 2
6. 3 14. 3 21. 4 29. 3
7. 4 15. 2 22. 3 30. 1
8. 3 23. 2 31. 2

88 Physics
 Chapter
MAGNETISM AND
15 MATTER

QUESTIONS 3. The ratio of magnetic fields due to small bar

magnet in the end on position to that in the
LEVEL - I broad-side position for the same distance from
it is

1. Following figures shows the arrangement of 1) 1:4

bar magnets in different configurations. Each

magnet has magnetic dipole moment M . 2) 1:2

Which configuration has highest net dipole 3) 1:1

moment.
4) 2:1

4. A short magnetic dipole is placed at the origin

1)
with its dipole moment directed along the +x
direction. If magnetic field induction at a point
P (r,0) is Biˆ , the magnetic field induction at a
2) point Q (0, 2r) will be

-B -B
1) î 2) ĵ
16 8
3)

B -B
3) ĵ 4) ĵ
16 16
4)
5. A short bar magnet of magnetic moment 0.4J/T
is placed in a uniform magnetic field of 0.16T.
2. A magnetized wire of magnetic moment m The magnet is in stable equilibrium when the
is bent into an arc of a circle that substends potential energy is
an angle of 60o at the centre. The equivalent
magnetic moment is 1) -0.064 J

m 2m 2) Zero
1) 2)
π π
3) -0.082 J
3m 4m
3) 4)
π π 4) 0.064 J

Study Material 89
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
6. A magnetic needle suspended parallel to a LEVEL-II
magnetic field requires 2 5 J of work to turn it
11. Four identical bar magnets, each of magnetic
moment M are placed in the form of a square
to through 60o. The torque needed to maintain
is shown in figure
the needle in the position will be

1) 5 Nm 2) 2 5 Nm

3) 15 Nm 4) 3 Nm

7. The magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic

material at -73o C is 0.0075. It's value at -173o
will be

1) 0.0045 2) 0.0030

3) 0.015 4) 0.00075
The net magentic moment of system
8. Relative permeability of iron is 5500, then its
magnetic susceptility will be 1) Zero 2) 2M

1) 5501 2) 5499 3) M 4) 4M

3) 5500 × 101 4) None of these 12. The intensity of magnetic field at a point X on
the axis of a small magnet is equal to the field
9. Curie temperature is that temperature above intensity at another point Y on its equatorial
which axis. The ratio of distance of X and Y from the
centre of magent will be
1) A paramagnetic material becomes
ferromagnetic
2) ( 2 )
−1/3
1) (2)-2
2) A ferromagentic material becomes
paramagnetic 3) 23 4) 21/3

3) A paramagnetic material becomes 13. Two short magnets of equal dipole moments
diamagnetic M are fastened perpendicularly at their centre
(figure). The magnitude of the magnetic field at
4) A ferromagenetic material becomes a distance d from the centre on the bisector of
diamagnetic the right angle is
10. Needles N1, N2 and N3 are made of a
ferromagentic, a paramagnetic and a
diamagnetic substance respectively. A magnet
when brought close to them will

1) Attract N1 strongly, N2 weakly and repel N3

weakly

2) Attact N1 strongly, but repel N2 and N3 µ0 M µ0 M 2

weakly 1) 2)
4π d 3 4π d 3
3) Attract all three of them
µ 0 2 2M µ 0 2M
3) 4)
4) Attract N1 and N2 strongly but repel N3 4π d 3 4π d 3
90 Physics
 NEET 2025
14. Two magnetic dipoles X and Y are placed at a 17. An iron rod of volume 10 m and relative
-4 3

separation d, with their axes perpendicular to permeability 1000 is placed inside a long
each other. The dipole moment of Y is twice solenoid wound with 5 turns cm-1. If a current
that of X. A particle of charge q is passing, of 0.5A is passed through the solenoid, then
o
through their midpoint P, at angle θ =45 with the magnetic moment of the rod is
the horizontal line, as shown in figure. What 1) 10 Am2
would be the magnitude of force on the particle
at that instant? (d is much larger than the 2) 15 Am2
dimensions of the dipole)
3) 20 Am2
4) 25 Am2
18. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 3.0A-m2 is
placed in a uniform magnetic field of 2×10-5T.
If each pole of the magnet experiences a force
of 6×10-4N, the length of the magnet is

1) 2  µ0  M × qv 2)  µ 0  2M 3 × qv 1) 0.5 m
 
 4π  ( d / 2 )  4π  ( d / 2 )
2) 0.3 m
3)  µ 0  M × qv 4) 0 3) 0.2 m
 
 4π  ( d / 2 )
3

4) 0.1 m
15. Two short magnets placed along the same axis
with their like poles facing each other repel 19. The figure gives experimentally measured B
each other with a force which varies inversely as vs. H variation in a ferromagnetic material.
1) square of the distance
2) cube of the ditstance
3) distance
4) fourth power of the distance
16. Two magnets A and B are identical and these
arranged as shown in the figure. Their length
is negligible in comparison to the separation
between them. A magnetic needle is placed
between the magnets at point P which gets
deflected through an angle θ under the Column A Column B
influence of magnets. The ratio of distance d1 I) Retentivity a) 50
and d2 is
II) Coercivity b) 1.5

III) Saturation c) 1.0

1) I-c, II-a, III-b

1) ( 2 tan θ ) 2) ( 2 tan θ )
1/3 −1/3
2) I-a, II-b, III-c
3) I-c, II-b, III-a
3) ( 2 cot θ ) 4) ( 2 cot θ )
1/3 −1/3

4) I-a, II-c, III-b

Study Material 91
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
20. Assertion : A disc shaped magnet 23. Coersivity of a magnet where the ferromagnet
is deviated above a gets completely demagnetized is 3×103 Am-1.
superconducting material that The minimum current required to be passed
has been cooled by liquid in a solenoid having 1000 turns per metre, so
nitrogen that the magnet gets completely damagnetized
when placed inside the solenoid is:
Reason : Super conductors repel a
magnet 1) 30 mA 2) 60 mA

1) If both Assertion and Reason are correct 3) 3 A 4) 6 A

and the Reason is a correct explanation of the 24. Choose the correct statement
Assertion 1) A paramagnetic material tends to move from
2) If both Assertion and Reason are correct a strong magnetic field to weak magnetic field
but Reason is not a correct explanation of the 2) A magnetic material is in the paramagentic
Assertion phase below its Curie temperature
3) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is 3) The resultant magnetic moment in an atom
incorrect of a diamagnetic substance is zero
4) If the Assertion is incorrect but the Resason 4) Typical domain size of a ferromagnetic
is correct material is 1nm
25. Match the columns
21. A bar magnet of pole strength 2A-m is kept in a
magnetic field of induction 4×10-5 Wb/m2 such
that the axis of the magnet makes an angle Column-X Column-Y
30o with the direction of the field. The couple
Intensity of
acting on the magnet is found to be 80×10-7 µ0
A)  i) χ =C
Nm. Then, the distance between the poles of
the magnet is:
magnetisation I () T

1) 20m Magnetic
B) ii) µ 0 (1 + χ )
2) 2m susceptibility ( χ )

3) 3cm M
C) Permeability iii)
4) 20cm V
22. Identify the incorrect statement from the 
following D) Curie's law iv) I

H
1) The susceptibility of a diamagnetic material
is a positive quantity
2) Paramagnetic materials obey Curie's law A B C D
1) iii iv ii i
3) Ferromagnetic materials have permanent
magnetic domains 2) i ii iii iv
3) ii i iv iii
4) In soft ferromagnetic material, the
magnetisation diasppear on removal of the 4) i iii iv ii
external field

92 Physics
 NEET 2025

ANSWER KEY
LEVEL - I

1. 3 6. 3
2. 3 7. 3
3. 4 8. 2
4. 1 9. 2
5. 1 10. 1
LEVEL - II

11. 1 16. 3 21. 4

12. 4 17. 4 22. 1
13. 3 18. 4 23. 3
14. 4 19. 1 24. 3
15. 4 20. 1 25. 1

Study Material 93
 Chapter
ELECTROMAGNETIC
16 INDUCTION AND AC

QUESTIONS 3. A straight conductor carries a time varying

current given by i=(3t+4)A. The induced
LEVEL - I current in the conducting loop C is (The plane
of the loop is ⊥ r to the plane of figure with the
1. A square conducting loop of side 4cm is folded
at right angles into two halves arranged in conductor at its centre)
space such that one half is in X-Y plane and
other half is in X-Z plane. The loop is in the
region of time varying magnetic field of
induction . The magnetic flux linked with the

loop in Weber at B= ( 2t ˆi + 3tjˆ − 2k ) T t = 2s
2

is
1) zero 2) 3.2×10–3
1) Clockwise 2) Anticlockwise
3) 16×10 –4
4) 4.8×10 –2
3) Zero 4) Alternating
2. As shown in the figure, P and Q are two coaxial 4. A circular coil of area 2.5×10-2 m2, 500 turns
conducting loops separated by some distance. and resistance 2 ohm is placed with its plane
When the switch S is closed, a clockwise perpendicular to the horizontal component of
current IP flows in P (as seen by E) and an earth's magnetic field. It is rotated about its
induced current IQ1 flows in Q. The switch vertical diameter through 180° in 0.25s. The
magnitude of induced current is (BH=3×10–5T)
remains closed for a long time. When S is 1) 1.5 mA 2) 2.5mA
opened, a current IQ2 flows in Q. Then the 3) 3 mA 4) 0
5. The variation of induced current with time due
directions of IQ1 and IQ2 (as seen by eye, E) are
to the change in magnetic flux in a coil of
resistance 10Ω is shown in figure. The

magnitude of change in flux through the coil in

weber is

1) respectively, clockwise and anticlockwise

2) both clockwise
3) both anticlockwise 1) 4 2) 8
4) respectively, anticlockwise and clockwise 3) 2 4) 6

94 Physics
 NEET 2025
6. A metal rod moves at a constant velocity in a 9. A conducting rod AC of length 4l is rotated

direction perpendicular to its length. A constant about a point O in a uniform magnetic field B
uniform magnetic field exists in space in a
direction perpendicular to the rod as well as directed into the paper. If AO=l and OC=3l,
its velocity. Select the correct statements from then
the following
1) The rod is at the same potential
2) There is an electric field in the rod
3) The electric potential is highest at the centre
and decreases towards its ends
4) The electric potential is lowest at the centre Bωl 2
1) ε A − ε O =
and increases towards its ends 2
7. An angle ∠aob made of conducting wire
moves along its bisector through a magnetic 7
2) ε O − ε= Bωl 2
field B as suggested by figure. Find the emf C
2
induced between the two free ends if the
magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane at 2
3) ε A − ε C= 4Bωl
the angle.
9
4) ε C − ε=
O Bωl 2
2

10. Cycle wheel with 64 spokes is rotating with

N rotations per second at right angles to the
horizontal component of earth's magentic
field. The induced e.m.f generated between its
1) 2Blvsin θ axle and rim is E. If the number of spokes is
reduced to 32, then the induced emf will be
2) 0
1) E
3) 2Blvsin(θ / 2)
2) 2E
4) 2Blv cos(θ / 2)
3) E/2
8. As shown in the figure, a metal rod makes
contact and completes the circuit. The circuit is 4) E/4
perpendicular to the magnetic field with
11. A magnet is dropped down an infinitely long
B=0.15T. If the resistance is 3Ω , force needed
vertical copper tube
to move the rod as indicated with a constant 1) The magnet moves with continuously
speed of 2ms–1 is increasing velocity and ultimately acquires a
constant terminal velocity
2) The magnet moves with continuously
decreasing velocity and ultimately comes to
rest
3) The magnet moves with continuously
increasing velocity but constant acceleration
1) 3.75×10–3 N 2) 3.75×10–2N
4) The magnet moves with continuously
3) 3.75×102 N 4) 3.75×10–4 N
increasing velocity and acceleration

Study Material 95
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
12. The variation of current I and induced e.m.f. 16. An alternating voltage V=20sin50t+40cos50t
E in a coil of self inductance L are shown in is applied to a resistor of resistance 10Ω . The
figure. The self inductance L of the coil is
rms value of the current through the resistor is:

10
1) 10 2)
2

1) 1H 2) 2H 7
3) 4) 7 2
2
3) 0.2 H 4) 3H

13. The coefficient of mutual induction between the 17. A current of 4A flows in a coil when connected to
primary and secondary of a transformer is 5H. a 12V dc source. If the same coil is connected
Calculate the induced emf in the secondary to a 12V, 50 rad s–1, ac source, a current of
when 3A current in the primary is cut-off in 2.4A flows in the circuit. The inductance of the
2.5×10–4 s coil is b×10–2 H. Find b
1) 6×104 V 1) 14 2) 8
2) –6×10 V 4
3) 2 4) 26
3) 9×104 V
4) –9×104V 18. In the LCR circuit shown in figure the voltage
drop across resistance is:
14. In an ac generator, the number of turns in the
armature are made four times and the angular
velocity 9 times, then the peak value of induced
emf will become
1) 36 times
2) 12 times
3) 6 times
4) 18 times

15. If a direct current of value a=1A is superimposed

on an alternating current=I bsin ωt when 1) 100 V 2) 100 2V

b=4A flowing through a wire, what is the 100

3) V 4) 200 V
effective value of the resulting current in the 2
circuit?
19. A transformer with efficiency 80% works at 4
kW and 100V. If the secondary voltage is 200V,
then the primary and secondary currents,
respectively, are

1) 40A, 16A 2) 16A, 40A

1) 6A 2) 3A
3) 5A 4) 9A 3) 20A, 40A 4) 40A, 20A

96 Physics
 NEET 2025
LEVEL - II 22. A square wire loop of 10.0cm side lies at right
angles to a uniform magnetic field of 20T. A
20. A flexible wire bent in the form of a circle is 10V light bulb is in series with the loop as
placed in a uniform magnetic field perpendicular shown in the figure. The magnetic field is
to the plane of the coil. The radius of the coil decreasing steadily to zero over a time interval
changes as shown in the figure. The graph of ∆t . The bulb will shine with full brightness if
induced emf in the coil is represented by
∆t is equal to

1)

2)
1) 20 ms 2) 0.02 ms

3) 2 ms 4) 0.2 ms
23. A square frame with side a as shown in figure is
moved with uniform velocity v from an infinitely
3) long straight wire carrying current I. The emf
induced in the frame as a function of distance
x.

4)

21. In the situation described in figure, the polarity

of capacitor
µ 0 Ia 2 v
1)
2πx ( x + a )

µ 0 Iaxv
2)
2πx ( x + a )

1) B positive with respect to A

µ 0 Ia 2 v
2) A positive with respect of B 3)
4πx ( x + a )
3) No charge on A and B
4) A negative with respect to B 4) Zero

Study Material 97
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
24. A square metal loop of side 10cm and 26. A circular conducting loop of radius r moves
resistance 1Ω is moved with a constant through a uniform magnetic field of induction
B with uniform velocity V. The resistance
velocity partly inside a magnetic field of 2
of the loop is R and the magnetic field is
Wbm–2, directed into the paper, as shown in
perpendicular to the plane of the loop. Choose
the figure. This loop is connected to a network
the correct answer
of five resistors each of value 3Ω . If a steady
current of 1mA flows in the loop, then the
speed of the loop is

1) P.d between A and B is zero

2) P.d between C and D is 2VBr
1) 0.5 cms–1
3) P.d. between A and C is VBr
2) 1 cms –1
2Vbr
4) Induced current in the loop is
R
3) 2 cms–1
27. The pointer of a dead-beat galvanometer gives
4) 4cms –1 a steady deflection because
1) Eddy currents are produced in the
25. A vertical ring of radius r and resistance conducting frame over which the coil is wound
R falls vertically. It is in contact with two
2) Its magnet is very strong
vertical rails which are joined at the top.
The rails are without friction and resistance. 3) Its pointer is very light
There is a horizontal uniform magnetic field
4) Its frame is made of ebonite
of magnitude B perpendicular to the plane of
the ring and the rails. When the speed of the 28. In the circuit shown in figure, R= 10Ω , L=5H,
ring is v, the current in the top horizontal of
the rail section is E=20V and I=2A. This current is decreasing at
the rate of 1.0 As–1. Then, choose the correct
option:
1) 0

2Brv
2)
R
4Brv 1) Vab=25V
3)
R 2) Vab=15V
8Brv 3) Vab= 45V
4)
R 4) Vab=35V

98 Physics
 NEET 2025
29. In the figure magnetic energy stored in the coil 33. In an RLC series circuit shown here, the
is readings of voltmeters V1 and V2 are 100 V
and 120 V, respectively. If source voltage is
130V, then

1) Zero
2) Infinite
3) 25 J
1) voltage across resistor is 50V
4) None of the above
30. A bulb is rated at 100V, 100W. Find the 2) voltage across inductor is 86.6V
inductance of the choke coil that should be 3) voltage across capacitor is 206.6V
connected in series with the bulb to operate it
at 200V, 50 Hz a.c. 4) all of these
π 34. In series LR circuit XL=3R. Now a capacitor
1) H 2) 100 H
3 with XC=R is added in series . Ratio of new to
old power factor is

2 3 1) 1
3) H 4) H
π π 2) 2
31. A 100Ω resistance and a capacitor of 100Ω 1
reactance are connected in series across 3)
a 220V source. When the capacitor is 50% 2
charged, the peak value of the displacement
current is 4) 2
1) 11 2A 35. When a resistance R is connected in series
2) 2.2A with an element A, the electric current is found
to be lagging behind the voltage by angle θ1 .
3) 11A
4) 4.4A When the same resistance is connected in
series with element B, the current leads voltage
32. In a series resonant LCR circuit, the voltage by θ2. When R with elements A and B are
across R is 100V and R= 1kΩ with C= 2µF . connected in series the current now leads
voltage by θ. Assuming same ac source is to
The resonant frequency ω is 200 rad s–1. At
be used in all cases, then
resonance the voltage across L is
1) θ = θ2 − θ1
1) 25 V
2) 40 V 2) tan =
θ tan θ2 − tan θ1
3) 250 V 3) θ = ( θ2 − θ1 ) / 2
4) 9 V
4) None of these

Study Material 99
B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
36. Phase difference between I1 and I2 in the above 38. Consider a series LCR circuit excited by a sinu-
ac circuit soidal source of 20V resonates at a frequency
50Hz. If the band width is 4Hz, then find the
Q-factor of the circuit and voltage across the
capacitor
1) 25, 250 V
2) 12.5, 250 V
3) 12.5, 10V
1) 90o 2) 120o 4) 25, 10V
3) 150 o
4) 60 o
39. A source of alternating emf is connected to a
series combination of LCR. If maximum and
37. The rms current in an ac circuit is 2A. If the
minimum value of instantaneous power deliv-
wattless current be 3A , what is the power ered to the LCR circuit are 3P and –P. Then
phase difference between applied emf and
factor? current through circuit is
1 1 π 1
1) 2) 1)
−1
2) cos  
3 2 3 3

1 1 1 2
3) 4) −1
3) tan  
−1
4) cos  
2 3 3 3

100 Physics
 NEET 2025

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I LEVEL - II

1. 2 11. 1 20. 2 30. 4

2. 4 12. 2 21. 2 31. 2
3. 3 13. 2 22. 1 32. 3
4. 1 14. 1 23. 1 33. 4
5. 3 15. 2 24. 3 34. 4
6. 2 16. 1 25. 4 35. 2
7. 3 17. 2 26. 3 36. 3
8. 1 18. 1 27. 1 37. 3
9. 3 19. 1 28. 4 38. 2
10. 1 29. 3 39. 1

Study Material 101

 ELECTROMAGNETIC
Chapter

17 WAVES

QUESTIONS 4. A parallel plate capacitor having plate area A

and separation d between the plate is charged
LEVEL - I by a direct current. Imagine a plane surface
A
1. Maxwell made the Ampere’s circuital law area parallel to the capacitor plates and
4
consistent by introducing the concept of
lying symmetric to them. The displacement
1) Conduction current current through this area, at the instant when
the direct current through the connecting
2) Displacement current leads to the capacitor is I, is
I
3) Current produced due to varying electric 1) I 2)
field
2

4) Both 2 and 3 I I
3) 4)
4 6
2. Electromagnetic waves are
5. The instantaneous electric field and
1) Produced by charge moving with uniform magnetic fields of an electromagnetic wave
velocity passing through vacuum are given by
E=E0 sin (ωt-kx) and B = B0 sin (ωt-kx) then
2) Transverse in nature
1) E0ω = B0k
3) Mechanical waves
2) B0 ω2 = E0k
4) Both 1 and 2 3) E0k = B0ω

3. An electromagnetic wave is propagating in 4) B0k2 = E0ω

free space in the X-direction and its electric 6. An Electromagnetic wave of energy U and
field is along the Y-direction. If the maximum propagating with speed c gets totally reflected
electric field of the wave is 1000 N c–1, the by a material surface when it is incident
maximum magnetic field will be normally on that surface. The momentum
delivered to the surface is
1) 3.33 ×10–6 T
U 2U
1) 2)
2) 1.25 ×10 T
–6
C C

3) 4.45 ×10–6 T
U UC
3) 4)
4) 1.75×10–6 T 2C 2

102 Physics
 NEET 2025
7. For an EM wave, if Uav average energy 12. A point source of electromagnetic radiation
density has an average power output of 800W. The
maximum value of electric field at a distance
E0 Maximum electric field
3.5 m from the source is 62.6 V/m, the
B0 Maximum magnetic field and maximum value of magnetic field will be ;
C Speed of em wave in vacuum
1) 2.09 ×10–5 T
The intensity of em wave is given by
1 2) 2.09 ×10–6 T
2
1) UavC 2) ε o E 0 C
2 3) 2.09 ×10–7 T

4) 2.09 × 10–8 T
1 B02
3) C 4) all the above
2 µ0 13. About 5% of the power of a 100W light bulb
is converted to visible spectrum. The average
8. Evidence for the property of transverse nature intensity of visible radiation at a distance of
of electromagnetic waves is established by 1m from the bulb
phenomenon
1) Reflection 2) Diffraction 1) 0.4 W/m2 2) 0.5 W/m2
3) Interference 4) Polarisation 3) 0.6 W/m2 4) 0.8 W/m2
9. In a plane em wave in the free space, the
electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a 14. A beam of light traveling along x-axis is
frequency of 2.0×1010 Hz and amplitude 48 described by the magnetic field
Vm–1, what is the wavelength of the wave ?
Bz = 5 ×10–9 T sin ω(t-y/c)
1) 1.5 ×10–2 m 2) 3.2 ×10–2
1 What is the maximum electric and magnetic
3) 3 ×103 m 4) ×10−3 forces on a charge. ie, α particle moving along
3
y-axis with a speed of 3 ×108 m/s (charge on
10. All waves coming under the category electron = 1.6 ×10-19 C)
electromagnetic spectrum will have the same
1) 4.80 ×10-17 N, 4.80 ×10–17 N
1) frequency
2) velocity in vacuum 2) 4.85 ×10–16 N, 5.6×10–17 N

3) wavelength 3) 9.2 ×106 N, 9.2 ×103 N

4) wave number
4) 4.8 ×10–19 N, 4.8 ×10–19 N
LEVEL II
15. A parallel plate capacitor of plate separation 2
11. To establish an instantaneous displacement
mm is connected in an electric circuit having
current of 2A in the space between the two
source voltage 400 V. What is the value of the
parallel plates of 1μF capacitor the potential
displacement current for 10–6 second if the
difference across the capacitor plates will
plate area is 60 cm2 ? (Capacitor gets fully
have to be changed with the rate of
charged in 10–6 s)
1) 2×106 Vs–1 2) 3×106 Vs–1 1) 1.062 ×10–2 A 2) 2 ×10–2 A
3) 4 ×106 Vs–1 4) 5 ×10–6 Vs–1 3) 2.1 ×10–4­ A 4) None

Study Material 103

B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
  18. A perfectly reflecting mirror has an area of 1
16. An electric field E and magnetic field B exist
cm2. Light energy is allowed to fall on it for 1h
in a region. The fields are not perpendicular at the rate of 10 W cm–2. The force that acts
to each other on the mirror is ;
1) This is not possible
1) 3.35 ×10–8 N
2) No electromagnetic wave is passing
through the region 2) 6.7 ×10-8 N
3) An electromagnetic wave may be passing 3) 1.34 ×10–7 N
through the region
4) 2.4 ×10–4 N
4) An electromagnetic wave is certainly
passing through the region 19. The magnetic field of a beam emerging
from a filter facing a flood light is given by
17. Match the following:
B=12 ×10-8 sin (1.20 ×107z – 3.60 ×1015t)T.
p) X- ray 1) Gauss’s law in The average intensity of the beam is
magnetism
  1) 1.71 W m–2 2) 2.1 W m–2
Q) 2) Longitudinal
∫
S
B.ds =0 3) 3.2 W m–2 4) 2.9 W m–2

R) Radiowaves 3) Vitamin - D 20. Match the following.

S) Microwaves 4) Oscillating electric
circuit P) X-rays 1. RADAR
5) RADAR
Q) IR rays 2. LASIK
6) Sudden
deceleration
R) Microwaves 3. Coolidge tube
of high energy
electrons S) u-v-rays 4. Green house effect
7) Faradays Law
1) P→1, Q→ 2, R→3, S→4
1) P→7; Q→1;R→4; S→6
2) P→6; Q→1; R→2; S→3 2) P→3, Q→4, R→1, S→2

3) P→6, Q→1; R→4; S→5 3) P→3, Q→1, R→4, S→2

4) P→3; Q→1; R→4; S→7 4) P→2, Q→4, R→1, S→3

ANSWER KEY
LEVEL - I LEVEL - II

1. 4 6. 2 11. 1 16. 3
2. 2 7. 4 12. 3 17. 3
3. 1 8. 4 13. 1 18. 2
4. 3 9. 1 14. 4 19. 1
5. 3 10. 2 15. 1 20. 2

104 Physics
 RAY OPTICS & OPTICAL
Chapter

18 INSTRUMENTS

QUESTIONS 3. A concave mirror of focal length f produces an

image n times the size of object on a screen.
The object distance is
LEVEL - I

1. Two plans mirrors are inclined at 70°. A ray 1) ( n − 1) f

incident on M1 at an angle θ after reflection
falls on mirron M2 and is reflected from there
2) ( n + 1) f
parallel to first mirror. The value of θ is

M1  n −1 
3)  f
 n 

θ  n +1 
4)  f
 n 
4. An object is placed at a distance of 20cm
from a convex mirror of radius of curvature
70O
0.5 m. Which of the following statements are
M2 correct.

1) 60° a) image formed is real and inverted

2) 50° b) the image formed is virtual and errect

3) 40°
c) image formed is at 100cm behind the mirror
4) 30°
d) image formed is at 11.1cm behind the mirror
2. When a plane mirror moves toward a
stationary object with a speed 20m/s, the e) image is 0.55 time the size of the object
image speed will be
1) (a) only
1) 10 m/s
2) both (b) and (c)
2) 20 m/s

3) 30 m/s 3) (a), (d) and (e)

4) 40 m/s 4) (b), (d) and (e)

Study Material 105

B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
5. Two concave mirrors of focal length F1 and F2 9. A microscope is focused on the mark on a
are facing each other at a separation d. If the paper. If a glass slab of thickness 6cm and
image of a point object kept between them refractive index 1.5 is placed over the mark,
coincides the object, the separation d is how should the microscope be moved to get
the mark refocused?
1) 1 cm upward 2) 1 cm downward
3) 2 cm upward 4) 2 cm downward
10. Assertion and reason type question
1) If both assertion and rason are true and
1) (F1+F2) or (F1–F2) reason is the correct explanation of assertion

2) (F1+F2) or 2 (F1+F2) 2) If both assertion and reason are true and

reason is not correct explanation of assertion
3) (F1–F2) or 2(F1–F2)
4) (F1–F2) or 2(F1+F2) 3) If assertion is true but reasonis false

6. A rectangular slab of refractive index is 4) If both assertion and reason are false
placed over another slab of refractive index
Assertion: When a glass slab is placed
3, both slabs being identical in dimensions. If
over coloured letters, the least
a coin is placed below the lower slab, for what
raised colour is red
value of will the coin appear to be placed at
the interface between the slabs when viewed Reason: Refractive index of a medium
from the top is greater for red
1) 1.8 2) 2 11. Statement I: A beam of white light enters
3) 1.5 4) 2.5 the curved surface of a hemispherical glass
along the normal. The incoming beam is
7. Light of wavelength 6000Å and yellow in moved clockwise (so that angle increases)
colour enters a medium of refractive index such that the beam always enters along the
1.5. The wavelength and colour of refracted normal to the curved surface. Just before the
light is refracted beam in air disappears, it becomes
predominantly red
1) 4000Å gree

2) 4000Å yellow

3) 4000Å red

4) 6000Å yellow
8. Light falls on the surface of a transparent
medium of refractive index 2 at an angle Statement II: Critical angle of a medium is
greater for red colour
30°. The angle of deviation is
1) Statement I and II are true
1) 60°
2) 45° 2) Statement I is true II is false

3) 30° 3) Statement I is false II is true

4) 15° 4) Statement I and II are false
106 Physics
 NEET 2025
12. A ray of light from air falls normally on the first 16. An equiconvex lens of focal length f is cut into
face of a prism of angle 60° and refractive two pieces vertically. Focal length of each
index 2 . On reaching the second face piece will be

A f
1) f 2)
2

3) 2f 4) 4f
17. Two plano-convex lenses each of focal length
3
B C 10 cm and refractive index are placed as
2
1 ray will reflect back to the prism shown in the figure. In the space left, water
 4
2) ray will graze the second face  R.I. =  is filled. The whole arrangement is
 3
3) ray will emerge out through the second
face in air. The optical power of the system is (in
dioptre):
4) Nothing can be predicted since given data
is insufficient

13. An equilateral prism of refractive index 1.7 is

immersed in a liquid of refractive index 1.2.
The angle of minimum deviation is

1) 15° 2) 30° 1) 6.67

2) –6.67
3) 45° 4) 60°
3) 33.3
14. Flint glass prism is joined by a crown glass
prism to produce dispersion without deviation. 4) 20
The refractive indices for mean rays are 1.6 18. A point source of light is placed 4m below the
and 1.5 respectively. If the angle of flint prism surface of water of refractive index 5/3. The
is 10°, the angle of crown prism will be minimum diameter of a disc which should be
1) 8° 2) 10° placed over the source on the surface of wter
to cut off all light coming out of water is
3) 12° 4) 15°
1) 2m 2) 6m
15. Light from a point source in air falls on a
3) 4m 4) 3m
spherical glass surface of refractive index 1.5
and radius of curvature 20cm. If the distance 19. The magnification produced by a simple
of the source of light from the glass surface is microscope for near point adjustment and
50cm, the distance of image from the surface far point adjustment are in the ratio 6:5. The
will be focal length of lens is
1) 50 cm 1) 5cm
2) 100 cm 2) 10cm

3) 200 cm 3) 15 cm

4) 300 cm 4) 20 cm

Study Material 107

B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
20. For an astronimical telescope with normal 24. Three parallel sided glass blocks of length
setting the separation between objective 30cm, 10cm and 20 cm and refractive index
lens and eyelens is 36cm. If the angular 1.5, n and 1.6 respectively are placed side by
magnification is 5, the focal length of objective side as in figure. The optical path length of
lens and eye lens are the composite block is 0.91m. The refractive
index n of the middle block is
1) 35 cm and 1 cm 2) 30 cm and 6cm

3) 26 cm and 10 cm 4) 32 cm and 4 cm 30 cm 10 cm 20 cm

LEVEL II n=1.5 n n=1.6

21. When a ray of light falls on a plane mirror at

1) 1.4 2) 1.45
a glancing angle θ, the deviation produced by
the mirror is 80°. The angle θ is
3) 1.5 4) 1.55
θ
25. A bird is flying over a swimming pool at height
of 2m from the water surface. If the bottom of
the pool is perfectly plane reflecting surface
and depth of pool is 1m, then the distance of
1) 60° 2) 50°
final image of bird from the bird itself is,
3) 40° 4) 30°  4
 nw = 
 3
22. A concave mirror of focal length 16cm and
a plane mirror are facing each other at a
11 22
separation 50cm. Where should an object be 1) m 2) m
placed in between them so that first image 3 3
formed by both mirrors coincides each other?
20 11
3) m 4) m
3 2

26. A ray of light in a denser medium strikes a

rarer medium at an angle of incidence i. The
angle of reflection and refraction are r and
1) 15cm from plane mirror r’ respectively. If the reflected and refracted
rays are perpendicular each other, the critical
2) 15 cm from concave mirror
angle for the pair of medium is
3) 30 cm from plane mirror
1) sin ( tan r )
−1
4) 30 cm from concave mirror

23. A rod of length 10cm lies along the principal

2) sin ( tan r′ )
−1
axis of a concave mirror of focal length 10cm
in such a way that its end closer to the pole is
20cm from the mirror. The length of image is
3) sin ( cot r )
−1

1) 5cm 2) 10cm

4) tan ( cot r )
−1
3) 15cm 4) 20cm

108 Physics
 NEET 2025
27. A transparent solid cylindrical rod has 30. A ray of light falls at an angle 60° on the first
refractive index n. It is surrounded by air. A face of a prism of angle 30°. The emergent
ray of light falls at the midpoint of one end ray mkaes an angle 30° with the incident ray
of the rod at an angle 30°. What should be on the prism. The angle made by emergent
the minimum value of n of the rod so that ray ray with the second face is
undergoes total internal reflection at the rod-
air interface as in figure 1) 0° 2) 30°

3) 60° 4) 90°

31. The image for the converging beam after

refraction through the curved surface (in the
given figure) is formed at:

3
1) 2 2)
2

5 4
3) 4)
4 3
28. Match the following
40
Rayleigh 1) x = 40 cm 2) x = cm
30
a) Twinkling of star p) scattering
effect 40 180
Dispersion 3) x = − cm 4) x = cm
b) Mirage q) 3 7
of light
Refraction 32. Two thin lenses of powers 2D and 3D are
c) Blue colour of sky r) placed in contact. An object is placed at a
of light
Splitting of white distance of 30 cm from the combination.
Total internal The distance in cm of the image from the
d) light into its s)
reflection combination is :
constituent colours
1) a-p, b-q, c-r, d-s 2) a-q, b-s, c-r, d-p 1) 30 2) 40
3) a-r, b-s, c-p, d-q 4) a-r, b-s, c-q, d-p
3) 50 4) 60
29. A ray of light falling on the first face of a prism
at an angle 45° emerges out normally through
the second face. If the angle of the prism is 33. Two point light sources are 24 cm apart.
30° what is the refractive index of the material Where should a convex lens of focal length 9
of the prism cm be put in between them from one source
so that the images of both the sources are
1) 2 2) 3 formed at the same place

1) 6 cm 2) 9 cm
3 4
3) 4)
2 3 3) 12 cm 4) 15 cm

Study Material 109

B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
34. A biconvex thin lens is prepared from glass 38. A converging beam of rays incident on a
of refractive index 3/2. The two bounding diverging lens. Having passed through the
surfaces have equal radii of 25 cm each.
lens the rays intersect at a point 15 cm from
One of the surfaces is silvered from outside
to make it reflecting. Where should an object the lens on the opposite side. If the lens is
be placed before this lens so that the image removed, the point where the rays meet
coincides with the object. will moves 5cm closer to the lens. The focal
length of the lens is
1) 25 cm 2) 12.5 cm
1) –10cm
3) 50 cm 4) Infinity

35. The position of the final image formed by the 2) –15 cm

given lens combination from the third lens will
3) –20cm
be at a distance of (f1 = +10 cm, f2 = 10 cm, f3
= 30 cm) 4) –30 cm

39. In a compound microscope, the focal length

of the two lens are 2.5cm and 8.5cm. If the
object is placed 4cm from the objective lens,
final image is formed at 25.5cm from the eye
lens. The separation between the two lens is
nearly
1) 15 cm 2) Infinity

3) 45 cm 4) 30 cm 1) 10.8 cm

36. An object is at a distance 30cm from a 2) 13.1 cm

convex lens of focal length 20cm. A plane
mirror is placed on the other side of the lens 3) 15.6 cm
at a distance 20cm from the lens. Find the
position of find image from the lens. 4) 18.8 cm

1) 10 cm 2) 20 cm 40. A small telescope has an objective lens of

focal length 140 cm and eye piece of focal
3) 40 cm 4) 60 cm
length 5.0 cm. The telescope is used to view
37. The separation between an object and screen a 100 m tall tower 3 km away. The height of
is 100cm. A convex lens placed between them the image of the tower formed by objective
produces real images on the screen for two lens is :
different positions. If the separation between
the two positions of the lens is 20cm, the focal 14 11
1) cm 2) cm
length of the lens is 3 3
1) 12cm 2) 16 cm 17 8
3) cm 4) cm
3) 20 cm 4) 24 cm 3 3

110 Physics
 NEET 2025

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I LEVEL - II

1 2 11 1 21 3 31 1
2 4 12 1 22 3 32 4
3 4 13 2 23 1 33 1
4 4 14 3 24 1 34 2
5 2 15 4 25 4 35 4
6 3 16 3 26 1 36 1
7 2 17 1 27 3 37 4
8 4 18 2 28 3 38 4
9 3 19 1 29 1 39 2
10 3 20 2 30 4 40 1

Study Material 111

 Chapter

19 WAVE OPTICS

QUESTIONS 4. In YDSE, the slits are illuminated by

monochromatic light. The entire set up is
LEVEL - I now immersed in pure water. The percentage
1. Count the number of correct statements: change in fringe width is

i) Corpuscular theory fails in explaining the 1) 50%

velocity of light in air and water
2) 75%
ii) If a plane wavefront hits a convex lens,
the emerging wavefront will be a converging 3) 40%
spherical wavefront
4) 25%
iii) The wavefront is a surface in which adjacent
points are of phase difference 90° 5. In young's experiment, the slits separated by
iv) A light wave going from a rarer medium to a d=0.8mm, are illuminated with light of
denser medium undergoes reflection at the o

interface. It suffers a phase change of π radian wavelength 7200 A . Interference pattern is

1) 4 2) 3 obtained on a screen D=2m from the slits. The

minimum distance from central maximum at
3) 2 4) 1 which the average intensity is 50% of the
2. In YDSE, the two slits acts as coherent sources maximum is
of same intensity l0 and wavelength λ . In 1) 0.45 m
another experiment with the same setup they 2) 4.5 mm
act as incoherent. The ratio of intensity of light
at the midpoint of the screen in the first case to 3) 0.45 mm
second case is
4) 4.5 cm
1) 3:1 2) 4:3
3) 2:1 4) 5:1 6. In YDSE, 70 fringes are visible in the field of
o
3. In YDSE with sodium light, the slits are 0.589m view with yellow light of wavelength 5800 A .
apart. The angular separation of the third
maximum from the central maximum will be The number of fringes visible in the field of
(Given λ =589nm) o
view with violet light of wavelength 4358A will
1) sin–1(0.33×108)
be_____
2) sin–1(0.33×10–6)
3) sin–1(3×10–8) 1) 93 2) 73

4) sin–1(3×10­–6) 3) 53 4) 33
112 Physics
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7. In YDSE, the source is red light of wavelength 11. Statement I : We can hear around corners,
7×10–7m. When a thin glass plate of refractive but we cannot see around
index 1.5 is put in the path of one of the corners.
interfering beams, the central bright fringe shifts
by 10–3m to the position previously occupied Statement II : Wavelength of sound is much
by the 5th bright fringe. The thickness of glass greater than wavelength of
plate is light
1) Both statements are correct
1) 5µm
2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
2) 0.005µm incorrect
3) 7µm 3) Statement II is correct but Statement I is
incorrect
4) 0.007µm
4) Both Statements are incorrect
8. Fraunhoffer diffraction experiment at a single
slit using light of wavelength 400nm, the first LEVEL - II
minimum is formed at an angle of 30°. Then
12. In the Young's double-slit experiment, the
the direction θ of the first secondary maximum
intensity of light at a point on the screen where
the path difference is λ is K( λ being the wave
is given by

1) tan–1 (3/4) length of light used). The intensity at a point

where the path difference is λ / 4 will be
2) sin–1(3/4)
1) K/2 2) K
3) sin–1(4/3)
3) K/4 4) Zero
4) 60°
13. In YDSE, the separation between the slits is
9. A slit of width a is illuminated by white light. the 0.25 cm and the distance of the screen from
the slits is 1.2 m. The intensity of central bright
 o 
first minimum for red light  λ =6500 A  will fringe is I0. The phase difference corresponding
  to a pont P at distance of 4.8×10–5 m from the
o
fall at θ =30 when ‘a’ will be  o 
centre will be _______  λ = 6000 A 
 
o
1) 3250 A
1) π
2) 6.5 × 10-4 mm
2) π / 2
3) 1.3 micron
3) π / 3
4) 2.6 × 10-4cm
4) π / 6
10. A ray of unpolarised light is incident on the 14. In Young's experiment, the ratio of maximum
surface of a glass plate of refractive indes 1.54 to minimum intensities of the fringe system is
at polarising angle. Then the angle of refraction 4:1. The amplitudes of the coherent sources
is (Given tan 57°=1.54) are in the ratio
1) 33° 2) 57° 1) 4:1 2) 3:1
3) 43° 4) 67° 3) 2:1 4) 4:1

Study Material 113

B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
1 o
15. In a YDSE, D = 1m, d = 1mm and λ = mm 19. A monochromatic light of λ =5000 A is
2
incident on two slits separated by a distance
the total number of maxima and minima 5×10­–4m. The interference pattern is seen on
obtained on the screen is a screen placed at a distance of 1m from the
slits. A thin glass plate of thickness 1.5×10–6m
1) 4, 5 2) 5, 4
and refractive index µ = 1.5 is placed between
3) 8, 10 4) 10, 8 one of the slits and the screen. Find the
intensity at the centre of the screen if the
o intensity is I0 in the absence of plate. Also find
16. Light of wavelength 6328A is incident normally
the lateral shift of the central maximum
on a slit having a width of 0.2mm. The width of
the central maximum measured from minimum 1)
to minimum of diffraction pattern on a screen
9 meters away will be about: 2)

1) 0.72 degree
3)
2) 0.36 degree

3) 0.18 degree
4)
4) 0.09 degree 20. Two point sources separated by 2m are
radiating in phase with wavelength λ =0.50m .
17. Consider an YDSE that has different slit widths.
As a result, amplitude of waves from two slits A detector moves in a circular path around the
are A and 2A respectively. If I0 be the maximum two sources in a plane containing them. How
intensity of the interference pattern, then in- many maxima are detected?
tensity of the pattern at a point where phase 1) 16
difference between waves is φ is 2) 20

2 I0 2 φ 3) 24
1) I0 cos φ 2) sin
3 2 4) 32
I0 I 21. A parallel monochromatic beam of light is in-
3) [5 + 4cos φ] 4) 0 [5 + 6cos φ]
cident normally on a narrow slit. A diffraction
9 9
pattern is formed on a screen placed perpen-
18. In a Young’s double-slit experiment, the slits
dicular to the direction of incident beam. At the
are separated by 0.28 mm and the screen is
first minima of the diffraction pattern the phase
placed 1.4 m away. The distance between
difference between the rays coming from the
the central bright fringe and the fourth bright
edges of the slit is
fringe is measured to be 1.2 cm. Determine
the wavelength of light used in the experiment 1) 0
1) 4×10–9 m π
2)
2
2) 5×10-10m

3) 3×10–m 3) π

4) 6×10–7 m 4) 2π

114 Physics
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22. Angular width of central maximum in the 24. Velocity of light in a medium is 3 ×108 m / s
fraunhoffer diffraction pattern of a slit is
measured. The slit is illuminated by light of then angle of polarization for this medium will
o
wavelength 6000 A . When the slit is illuminated be
1) 45°
by light of another wavelength, the angular
width decreases by 30%. Calculate the 2) 30°
wavelength of this light. The same decrease 3) 60°
in the angular width of central maximum is
obtained when the original apparatus is 4) 53°
immersed in a liquid. The refractive index of
25. Statement I : In calculating the disturbance
the liquid is :
produced by a pair of
o o superimposed incoherent
1) 4200 A ,1.43 2) 4000 A,1.3
wave trains, you can add their
intensities
o o
42000 A,1.5 4) 4000 A Statement II : I1 + I2 + cos . The
23. Three nicols prisms are placed such that, average value of cos = 0 for
first and third are mutually perpendicular. incoherent waves
Unpolarised light is incident on first nicol
prism, the intensity of light emerges from third 1) Both statements are correct
nicols prism is 1/16 the intensity of incident 2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
unpolarized light. Find the angle between first incorrect
and second nicols prisms
3) Statement II is correct but Statement I is
1) 67.5° 2) 45° incorrect
3) 30° 4) 22.5° 4) Both Statements are incorrect

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I LEVEL - II

1. 2 7. 3 12. 1 17. 3 22. 1

2. 3 8. 2 13. 3 18. 4 23. 4
3. 4 14. 2 19. 1
9. 3
4. 4 24. 3
10. 1 15. 2 20. 1
5. 3 25. 2
16. 2 21. 4
6. 1 11. 1

Study Material 115

 DUAL NATURE OF
Chapter

20 MATTER & RADIATION

QUESTIONS 2. In a photoelectric effect experiment kinetic

energy of an electron is E when the incident
LEVEL - I wavelength is λ. To increase the kinetic energy
of the electron to 2E, the incident wavelength
1. The figure shows a plot of photocurrent versus must be
anode potential for a photo sensitive surface
for three different radiations. Which one of the λ
1) 2λ 2)
following is a correct statement? 2
hλ hcλ
3) 4)
( Eλ + c ) ( Eλ + hc )
3. When the energy of the incident radiation is
increased by 20%, the kinetic energy of the
photoelectrons emitted from a metal surface
increased from 0.5 eV to 0.8 eV. The work
function of the metal is:

1) 0.65 eV 2) 1.0 eV

3) 1.3 eV 4) 1.5 eV
1) Curves (1) and (2) represent incident
4. The momentum of a photon of energy 1 MeV
radiations of same frequency but of difference
in kg m/s, will be
intensities
1) 7×10-24 2) 10-22
2) Curves (2) and (3) represent incident
3) 5×10-22 4) 0.33×106
radiations of different frequencies and different
intensities 5. A source S1 is producing, 1015 photons per
o
second of wavelength 5000 A . Another source
3) Curves (2) and (3) represent incident
radiations of same frequency having same S2 is producing 1.02×1015 photons per second
intensity
o Power of S2
of wavelength 5100 A . Then, =
Power of S1
4) Curves (2) and (2) represent incident
1) 1.00 2) 1.02
radiations of different frequencies and different
intensities 3) 1.04 4) 0.98

116 Physics
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6. A 2mW lase operates at a wavelength of LEVEL - II
500nm. The number of photons that will be
emitted per second is 10. The light of two different frequencies whose
photons have energies 3.8eV and 1.4eV
[Given Planck's constant h = 6.6×10-34 Js, respectively, illuminate a metallic surface
speed of light c = 3.0×108 m/s] whose work function is 0.6eV successively.
The ratio of maximum speeds of emitted
1) 2×1016 2) 1.5×1016 electrons for the two frequencies respectively
will be
3) 5×1015 4) 1×1016
1) 1:1
7. What should be the order of arrangement of
de-Broglie wavelength of electron ( λ e ) , an α − 2) 2:1

particle ( λ α ) and proton λ p( ) given that all

3) 4:1

have the same kinetic energy? 4) 1:4

11. In a photoelectric effect experiment, the graph

1) λ e =λ p =λ α 2) λ e < λ p < λ α
of stopping potential V versus reciprocal of
wavelength obtained is shown in the figure. As
3) λ e > λ p > λ α 4) λ e = λ p > λ α
the intensity of incident radiation is increased
8. A particle A of mass 'm' and charge 'q' is
accelerated by a potential difference of 50V.
Another particle B of mass '4m' and charge 'q'
is accelerated by a potential difference of
2500V. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelengths
λA
is close to
λB
1) 10.00 2) 14.14
1) Slope of the straight line get more steep
3) 4.47 4) 0.07
2) Straight line shifts to left
9. 50 W/m energy density of sunlight is normally
2

incident on the surface of a solar panel. Some 3) Graph does not change
part of incident energy (25%) is reflected from
the surface and the rest is absorbed. The force 4) Straight line shifts to right
exerted on 1m2 surface area will be close to
(c=3×108 m/s) 12. Radiation of two photons of energies twice and
five times the work function of metal are incident
1) 15×10-8 N successively on the metal surface. The ratio
of the maximum velocity of photoelectrons
2) 35×10-8 N emitted in the two cases will be

3) 10×10-8 N 1) 1:2 2) 2:1

4) 20×10-8 N 3) 1:4 4) 4:1

Study Material 117

B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE

13. Radiation of wavelength λ , is incident on a 16. An electron of mass m and magnitude of

charge e initially at rest gets accelerated by a
photocell. The fastest emitted electron has
3λ constant electric field E. The rate of change of
speed v. If the wavelength is changed to , de-Broglie wavelength of this electron at time t
4
ignoring relativistic effects is
the speed of the fastest emitted electron will
be:
−h
1/2 1)
4 e Et 2
1) > v  
3
1/2 h
4 2) −
2) < v   eE t
3
1/4
4 e Et
3) = v   3)
3 h
1/2
3
4) = v   h
4 4) −
e Et
14. Let na and nb be respectively the number of
photons emitted by a red bulb and a blue bulb 17. An electron (mass m) with an initial velocity

of equal power in a given time =v v 0 ˆi ( v 0 > 0 ) is moving in an electric field

1) na = nb 
E=−E 0 ˆi ( E 0 > 0 ) where E0 constant. If at t=0

2) na < nb h
de-Broglie wavelengths is λ 0 = , then its
mv 0
3) na > nb
de-Broglie wavelength after time t is given by
4) data insufficient

15. A moving proton and electron have the same 1) λ 0

de-Broglie wavelength. If K and P denote
the K.E. and momentum respectively. Then
choose the correct option.  eE 0 t 
2) λ 0 1 + 
 mv 0 
1) Kp > Ke and Pp = Pe
3) λ 0 t
2) Kp < Ke and Pp > Pe

3) Kp < Ke and Pp < Pe λ0

4)
 eE 0 t 
4) Kp < Ke and Pp = Pe 1 + 
 mv 0 
118 Physics
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18. Two particles of same mass move at right 20. The log graph between the energy E of an
angle to each other. Their de-Broglie electron and its de-Broglie wavelength λ will
wavelengths are λ1 and λ 2 respectively. The be

particles suffer perfectly inelastic collision. The

de-Broglie wavelength λ, of the final particle, is
given by
1) 2)
λ + λ2 2 1 1
1) λ = 1 2) = +
2 λ λ1 λ 2

1 1 1
3) λ = λ1λ 2 4) =
2 2
+ 2
λ λ1 λ 2
3) 4)
19. An elecromagnetic wave of wavelength ' λ ' is
incident on a photosensitive surface of
negligible work function. If 'm' mass is of
21. A particle is dropped from a height H. The de-
photoelectron emitted from the surface has
Broglie wavelength of the particle as a function
de-Broglie wavelength λd, then
of height is proportional to

1) H
 2h  2  2m  2
=
1) λ   λd =
2) λ   λd
 mc   hc  2) H1/2

 2mc  2  2mc  2 3) H0
3)=
λd  λ =4) λ   λd
 h   h 
4) H-1/2

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I LEVEL - II

1. 1 6. 3 10. 2 16. 1
2. 4 7. 3 11. 3 17. 4
3. 2 8. 2 12. 1 18. 4
4. 3 9. 4 13. 1 19. 4
5. 1 14. 2 20. 4
15. 4 21. 4

Study Material 119

 Chapter

21 ATOMS AND NUCLEI

QUESTIONS 4. The acceleration of an electron in the first orbit

of the hydrogen atom (z=1) is:
LEVEL - I
h2 h2
1. Which of the following statements about the 1) 2 2 3 2)
πmr 8π2 m 2 r 3
Bohr model of the hydrogen atom is false ?
1) Acceleration of electron in n = 2 orbit is less h2 h2
than in n = 1 orbit 3) 4)
4π 2 m 2 r 3 4πm 2 r 3
2) Angular momentum of electron in n = 2 orbit
is more than that in n = 1 orbit 5. The recoil speed of hydrogen atom after it
emits a photon in going from n=2 state to n=1
3) Kinetic energy of electron in n = 2 orbit is state is nearly [Take R ∞ =1.1×10–1 and
less than that in n = 1 orbit
h=6.63×10–34 Js]
4) Potential energy of electron in n = 2 orbit is
less than that in n = 1 orbit 1) 1.5 ms–1
2. An α -particle of energy 5MeV is scattered 2) 3.3 ms–1
through 180° by a fixed uranium nucleus. The 3) 4.5 ms–1
distance of closest approach is of the order of
1) 10–12 cm 4) 6.6 ms–1

2) 10–8 cm 6. The ionization energy of a hydrogen like Bohr

atom is 4 Rydbergs. Find the wavelength of
3) 10–14 cm the radiation emitted when the electron jumps
4) 10–15 cm from the first excited state to the ground state

3. He+ in an excited state makes transition from 1) 300 A° 2) 2.5×10–11 m

excited state of principal quantum number n =
5 to ground state. The most energetic photons 3) 100 A° 4) 1.5×10–11 m
have energy 52.224 eV. Find the energy of
least energetic photons 7. In a hydrogen atom following the Bohr's
postulates the product of linear momentum
1) 1.224 eV and angular momentum is proportional to
(n)x where 'n' is the orbit number. Then 'x' is -
2) 2.42 eV
3) 3.22 eV 1) 0 2) 2

4) 3.82 eV 3) –2 4) 1

120 Physics
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8. Which of the following statements are true 10. The radius of germanium (Ge) nuclide is
regarding Bohr's model of hydrogen atom? 9
measured to be twice the radius of 4 Be . The
I) Orbiting speed of electron decreases as it number of nucleons in Ge are
shifts to discrete orbits away from the nucleus
1) 74 2) 75
II) Radii of allowed orbits of electron are
proportional to the principal quantum number 3) 72 4) 73

III) Frequency with which electrons orbit around 11. The binding energy per nucleon of 10X is 9 MeV
the nucleus in discrete orbits is inversely and that of 11X is 7.5 MeV where X represents
proportional to the cube of principal quantum an element. The minimum energy required to
number remove a neutron from 11 X is

IV) Binding force with which the electron is 1) 7.5 MeV 2) 2.5 MeV
bound to the nucleus increases as it shifts to
outer orbits 3) 8 MeV 4) 0.5 MeV
Select correct answer using the codes given
12. A gamma ray creates an electron-positron
below.
pair. If the rest mass energy of an electron
Codes is 0.5 MeV and the total kinetic energy of the
electron positron pair is 0.78 MeV, then the
1) I and III energy of the gamma ray must be

2) II and IV 1) 0.78 MeV

3) I, II and III 2) 1.78 MeV

4) II, III and IV 3) 1.28 MeV

9. The figure shows wave function of electron for
a hydrogen atom: 4) 0.28 MeV

13. Electrons in a hydrogen like atom (Z=3) make

transitions from the fourth excited state to the
third excited state and from the third excited
state to the second excited state. The resulting
radiations are incident on a metal plate and
eject photoelectrons. The stopping potential for
photoelectrons ejected by shorter wavelength
is 3.95 eV. Calculate the stopping potential
for the photoelectrons ejected by the longer
1) The quantum number of this state is 6 wavelength
2) The wavelength of this electron is πr0 (r0 is
1) 0.85 V
radius of ground state)
2) 0.75 V
3) It can go to ground state by emitting 3
different photons 3) 0.65 V
4) On de-excitation it emits at least one line in
infrared region of spectrum 4) None of these

Study Material 121

B
Brilliant STUDY CENTRE
14. In a mixture of H – He+ gas (He+ is singly LEVEL - II
ionised He atom), H atoms and He+ ions are
excited to their respective first excited states. 17. In the hydrogen atom, an electron makes a
Subsequently, H atoms transfer their total transition from n=2 to n=1. The magnetic field
excitation energy to He+ ions (by collisions). produced by the circulating electron at the
Assume that the Bohr model of atoms is nucleus
exactly valid.
1) decreases 16 times
The quantum number n of the state finally
populated in He+ ions 2) increases 4 times

1) 2 2) 3 3) decreaes 4 times

3) 4 4) 5 4) increases 32 times

2 18. A hydrogen atom in state n=6 makes two

15. The binding energies per nucleon for 1 H and
successive transitions and reaches the ground
state. In the first transition a photon of 1.13
4
2 He respectively are 1.1 MeV and 7.1 MeV. eV is emitted. Find the energy of the photon
emitted in the second transition and the value
The energy released (in MeV) when two nuclei of n in the intermediate state
fuse to form is
1) 12.1 eV, n=3 2) 6.1 eV, n=4
1) 4.4 2) 8.2
3) 2.1 eV, n=3 4) 1.1 eV, n=5
3) 24 4) 28.4
19. If in hydrogen atom, radius of nth Bohr orbit
is rn, frequency of revolution of electron in nth
16. The given below is a plot of binding energy
orbit is fn, choose the correct option
per nucleon Eb, against the nuclear mass M;
A, B, C, D, E, F correspond to different nuclei.
Consider four reactions: 1)

2)

i) A + B → C + ε ii) C → A + B + ε

iii) D + E → F + ε iv) F → D + E + ε

Where E is the energy released? In which 3)

reactions is E positive?

1) i and iv 2) i and iii

3) ii and iv 4) ii and iii 4) Both 1 and 2

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20. In the Bohr's model of hydrogen like atom the 24. After absorbing a slowly moving neutron of
force between the nucleus and the electron is mass mN (momentum ≈ 0) a nucleus ofmass
e2  1 β 
=
modified as F  +  , where β is a M breaks into two nuclei of masses m1 and
4πε 0  r 2 r 3 
5m1 (6m1=M+mN respectively. If the de Broglie
wavelength of the nucleus with mass m1 is λ
constant. For this atom, the radius of the nth
 ε0h 2  the de Broglie wavelength of the nucleus of
α
orbit in terms of the Bohr radius  0 =  mass 5m1 will be
 mπe 2 
is: 1) 5λ
rn a 0 n − β
1) = 2) λ / 5
2
rn a 0 n + β
2)= 3) λ
rn a 0 n 2 − β
3)= 4) 25λ

rn a 0 n + β
4) = 25. A neutron moving with speed v makes a head-
on collision with a hydrogen atom in ground
21. When a gas of hydrogen like ions is prepared state kept at rest. Find the minimum kinetic
in a particular excited state X. It emits photons energy of the neutron for which inelastic
having wavelength equal to the wavelength of (completely or partially) collision may take
the first line of the Lyman series together with place. The mass of neutron=mass of hydrogen
photons of five other wavelengths. Identify the = 1.67×10–27 kg
gas and find the principal quantum number of
the state X respectively 1) 20.4

1) He+, 4 2) Li++, 3 2) 10.2

3) H+, 2 4) None of these 3) 40.8
22. If a star can convert all the He nuclei completely 4) 54.
into oxygen nuclei, the energy released per
oxygen nuclei is [Mass of He nucleus is 4.0026 26. A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of
amu and mass of oxygen nucleus is 15.9994 decays according to the scheme
amu]
A 
α
→ A1 
β
→ A 2 
α
→ A 3 
γ
→ A4
1) 7.6 MeV 2) 56.12 MeV
If the mass number and atomic number of A
3) 10.24 MeV 4) 23.9 MeV
are 180 and 72 respectively, then what are
23. Determine the power output of a 92U235 reactor these number for A4 ?
if it takes 30 days to use 2kg of fuel. Energy
1) 172 and 69
released per fission is 200 MeV and 1026 per
kilo mole 2) 174 and 70
1) 63.28 MW 2) 3.28 MW
3) 176 and 69
3) 0.6 MW 4) 50.12 MW
4) 176 and 70

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ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I LEVEL - II

1. 4 8. 1 14. 3 21. 1
2. 1 9. 3 15. 3 22. 3
3. 1 10. 3 16. 4 23. 1
4. 3 11. 1 17. 4 24. 3
5. 2 12. 2 18. 1 25. 3
6. 1 13. 2 19. 4 26. 1
7. 1 20. 3

124 Physics
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SEMICONDUCTOR
22 ELECTRONICS

QUESTIONS 4. Which of the following gives a reversible

operation?
LEVEL - I
A Y
1)
1. The resistivity of a pure semiconductor is 0.5Ω B
If the electron and hole mobility be 0.39 m2/N-s
and 0.19 m2/V-s respectively, then calculate 2) A Y
the intrinsic carrier concentration.
A
1) 2.16×1019/m3 2) 4.32×1019/m3 3) Y
B

3) 1020/m3 4) None of these A

4) Y
B
5. The electrical conductivity of a semiconductor
2. Carbon, Silicon and Germanium atoms have
increases when electromagnetic radiation of
four valence electrons each. Their valence and wavelength shorter than 2480nm is incident
conduction bands are separated by energy on it. The band gap of the semiconductor is
band gaps represented by (Eg)C, (Eg)Si and 1) 0.5 eV 2) 0.7 eV
(Eg)Ge respectively. Which one of the following 3) 1.1 eV 4) 0.3 eV
relationships is true in their case:
6. Match List I with List II

( ) < (E )
1) E g C g Ge ( ) > (E )
2) E g C g si
List I List II
Used either for
a) Rectifier i) stepping up or stepping
( ) = (E )
3) E g C g Si ( ) < (E )
4) E g C g Si down the a.c.voltage
Used to convert a.c.
b) Stabilizer ii)
3. Which one of the following represents forward voltage into d.c voltage
bias diode? Used to remove any
c) Transformer iii) ripple in the rectified
output voltage
1) Used for constant
output voltage even
d) Filter iv)
when the input voltage
2) or load current change
Choose the correct answer from the options
3) given below
1) a-ii; b-iv; c-i; d-iii 2) a-iii; b-iv; c-i; d-ii
4) 3) a-ii; b-i; c-iv; d-iii 4) a-ii; b-i; c-iii; d-iv

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7. If in a p-n junction, a square signal of 10V is 9. Choose the only false statement from the
applied as shown, then the output across RL following
will be:
1) The resistivity of a semiconductor increases
with increase in temperature
2) Substance with energy gap of the order of
10eV are insulators
3) In conductors the valence and conduction
bands may over lap
4) The conductivity of a semiconductor
increases with increases in temperature
1)
10. Figure shows a DC voltage regulator circuit,
with a Zener diode of breakdown voltage =
6V. If the unregulated input voltage varies
between 10V to 16V, then what is maximum
Zener current?

2)

3)

1) 3.5 mA 2) 1.5 mA

3) 2.5 mA 4) 7.5 mA

4) 11. The V-I characteristic of a diode is shown in

the figure. The ratio of forward to reverse bias
resistance is:

8. If a pn junction diode of depletion layer width

W and barrier height V0 is forward biased, then

1) W increases and V0 decreases

2) W decreases and V0 increases

3) both W and V0 increases

1) 10 2) 10-6
4) both W and V0 decreases
3) 106 4) 100
126 Physics
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12. The current i in the network is: LEVEL - II

14. In the energy band diagram of a material

shown below, the open circles and filled circles
denote holes and electrons respectively. The
material is:

1) 0.6 A

2) 0.3A

3) 0 A
1) an n-type semiconductor
4) 0.2 A
2) a p-type semiconductor
13. V-I characteristics of some PN junction devices
are given:
3) an insulator

4) a metal

15. The given circuit has two ideal diodes

connected as shown in the figure below. The
current flowing through the resistance R1 will
be:
i) Fig. 1 represent V-I characteristics of solar
cell with A and B represent open circuit voltage
and open circuit current

ii) Fig. 2 represent V-I characteristics of LED

with A, B, C are corresponding to Green, Red
and Infrared colour respectively

iii) Fig. 3 represent the V-I characteristics of

photo diode with I3 > I2 > I1
1) 1.43 A
1) iii only correct
2) 3.13 A
2) ii only correct
3) 2.5 A
3) i only correct
4) 10.0 A
4) i and iii are correct
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16. Pure Si at 500K has equal number of electron 19. In a unbias p-n junction:
(ne) and hole (nh) concentrations to 1.5×1016
1) high potential is at n side and low potential
m-3. Doping by indium increases nh to 4.5×1022
is at p side
m-3. The doped semiconductor is of:
2) high potential is at p side and low potential
1) p-type having electron concentration is at n side
ne = 5×109 m-3
3) p and n both are at same potential
2) n-type with electron concentration 4) undetermined
ne = 5×1022 m-3
20. Statement I: To get a steady dc output from
3) P-type with electron concentration the pulsating voltage received
ne = 2.5×1010 m-3 from a full wave rectifier we can
connect a capacitor across the
4) n-type with electron concentration output parallel to the load RL
ne = 2.5×1023 m-3
Statement II: To get a steady dc output from
17. A zener diode provides 6V voltage to load the pulsating voltage received
resistance (RL). If current by battery may vary from a full wave rectifier we
from 0 to 100mA, what should be the value of can connect an inductor in
R? series with RL
In the light of the above
statements, choose the most appropriate answer
from the options given below:
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
1) 90 Ω 2) 20 Ω
4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
3) 30 Ω 4) 40 Ω 21. Which of the following statement is not correct
in the case of light emitting diodes?
A) It is a heavily doped p-n junction
B) It emits light only when it is forward biased
18.
C) It emits light only when it is reverse biased
D) The energy of the light emitted is equal
to or slightly less than the energy gap of the
semiconductor used
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
The correct Boolean operation represented by 1) C and D
the circuit diagram drawn is:
2) A
1) AND 2) OR 3) C
3) NAND 4) NOR 4) B
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22. Statement I: When a Si sample is doped 24. In the following circuit the equivalent resistance
with Boron, it becomes P type between A and B is
and when doped by Arsenic
it becomes N-type semi
conductor such that P-type
has excess holes and N-type
has excess electrons
Statement II: When such P-type and N-type
semi-conductors, are fused to
make a junction, a current will
automatically flow which can
be detected with an externally
connected ameter
1) 2)
In the light of above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options
given below 3) 4)

1) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is 25. The circuit represents a full wave bridge
correct rectifier when switch S is open. The output
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are voltage (V0) pattern across RL when S is closed
correct is:
3) Statement I is correct but Statement II is
incorrect
4) Both Statement I and Statement II are
incorrect
23. Match List I with List II:

List-I List-II
Intrinsic Femi-level near the 1)
A) i)
semiconductor valence bond
Fermi-level in the
n-type middle of valence
B) ii)
semiconductor and conduction
band
p-type Fermi-level near the 2)
C) iii)
semiconductor conduction band
Fermi-level inside
D) Metals iv) the conduction
band
3)
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1) A-iii; B-i; C-ii; D-iv
2) A-ii; B-i; C-iii; D-iv
4)
3) A-i; B-ii; C-iii; D-iv
4) A-ii; B-iii; C-i; D-iv
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26. For equal resistors, each of resistance , 27. In the combination of the following gates the
are connected as shown in the circuit diagram. output Y can be written in terms of inputs A
The equivalent resistance between A and B is and B as:

1)

2)

1) 2) 3)

3) 4) 4)

ANSWER KEY

LEVEL - I LEVEL - II

1. 1 8. 4 14. 2 21. 3
2. 2 9. 1 15. 3 22. 2
3. 4 16. 1 23. 4
10. 1
4. 2 17. 3 24. 3
11. 2
5. 1 18. 3 25. 3
12. 2
6. 1 19. 1 26. 1
7. 4 13. 1
20. 2 27. 2

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23 EXPERIMENTAL SKILLS

QUESTIONS 4. The least count of vernier callipers is 0.1 mm.

The main scale reading before the zero of the
1. In a vernier callipers, N division of vernier scale vernier scale is 10 and the zeroth division of
coincide with (N – 1) divisions of the main scale the vernier scale coincides with the main scale
(in which 1 division represents 1 mm). The division. Given that each main scale division
least count of the instrument in cm should be is 1 mm. What is the measured value?
1) N 1) 1.00 cm 2) 1.01 cm
2) N – 1
3) 0.90 cm 4) 1.10 cm
1
3)
10N 5. The circular divisions of the shown screw
gauge are 50. It moves 0.5 mm on main scale
1 in one rotation. The main scale reading is 2.
4) The diameter of the ball is
N

2. In a vernier callipers, N divisions of the main

scale coincide with N + m divisions of the
vernier scale. What is the value of m for which
the instrument has minimum least count?
1) 1 1) 2.25 mm
2) N 2) 1.20 mm
3) Infinity
3) 2.20 mm
N
4)
2 4) 1.25 mm

3. The nth division of main scale coincides with 6. In four complete rotations, the distance moved
(n + 1)th divisions of vernier scale. Given one by the screw on the linear scale is 2 mm. Its
main scale division is equal to a units. The circular scale contains 50 divisions. Find the
least count of the vernier is least count of the screw gauge.
a a 1) 0.05 mm
1) 2)
n −1 n +1
2) 0.01 mm

a na 3) 0.1 mm
3) 4)
n n +1 4) 0.02 mm
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7. The pitch of a screw gauge having 50 divisions 12. The device which measures the extension of
on its circular scale is 1 mm. When the two wire in Searle’s apparatus for Young’s modulus
jaws of the screw gauge are in contact with of elasticity is
each other, the zero of the circular scale lies
6 division below the line of graduation. When 1) vernier callipers 2) screw gauge
a wire is placed between the jaws, 3 linear
scale divisions are clearly visible while 31th 3) spherometer 4) metre scale
division on the circular scale coincide with the
reference line. The diameter of the wire is: 13. The mass, specific heat capacity and initial
temperature of a sphere was 1000 gm,
1) 3.62 mm 2) 3.50 mm 1/2 cal/gm oC and 80oC respectively. The mass
of the liquid and the calorimeter are 900 gm
3) 3.55 mm 4) 3.74 mm and 200 gm, and initially both were at room
temperature 20oC. Both calorimeter and the
8. The distance advanced by the screw of a sphere are made of same material. If the
screw gauge is 2 mm in four rotations. Its cap steady-state temperature after mixing is found
is divided into 50 divisions. There is no zero to be 40oC, then the specific heat capacity of
error. Find the diameter of a wire, if the screw unknown liquid, is
reads 3 divisions on the main scale and 32
divisions on the cap. 1) 0.25 cal/g oC 2) 0.5 cal/g oC
1) 3.32 mm 2) 2.32 mm 3) 1 cal/g oC 4) 1.5 cal / goC
3) 1.82 mm 4) 3.52 mm
14. 200 g of solid ball at 20° C is added to 200 g
of water in calorimeter having water equivalent
9. While determining the value of g using simple
of 50 g at 80° C. The final temperature is
pendulum we plot a graph between l and T2
60° C. The specific heat of solid is
which is

1) a straight line 2) a parabola 1) 0.625 cal g–1 oC–1

3) an ellipse 4) a circle 2) 6.25 cal g–1 oC–1

10. A student measures the time period of 100 3) 1.6 cal g–1 oC–1
oscillations of a simple pendulum four times.
The data set is 90 s, 91 s, 95 s and 92 s. If the 4) 0.4 cal g–1 oC–1
minimum division in the measuring clock is 1 s,
then the reported mean time should be 15. In a resonance column experiment to measure
the velocity of sound, the first resonance is
1) 92 ± 2s 2) 92 ± 5.0s obtained at a length 1 and the second

resonance at a length  2 . Then,

3) 92 ± 1.8s 4) 92 ± 3s

11. A mass 60 gram is suspended at 30 cm mark 1)  2 > 31

of a metre scale pivoted at midpoint. Then at
what location, a weight of 40 gram can keep 2)  2 = 31
the metre scale horizontal?
3)  2 < 31
1) 30 cm 2) 70 cm
4) may be any of the above, depending on the
3) 80 cm 4) 95 cm frequency of the tuning fork used
132 Physics
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16. Using a given tuning fork, a student obtains 20. In an experiment to determine the figure of
20.4 cm and 61.8 cm as the first and second merit of a galvanometer the circuit shown is
resonance lengths. If velocity of sound in air used. If E be the emf of the battery, R is the
at room temperature is 331.2 m s-1, frequency series resistance, G is the resistance of the
of fork used is galvanometer and θ is the deflection, then the
figure of merit of galvanometer is
1) 480 Hz 2) 512 Hz

3) 400 Hz 4) 256 Hz

17. In a meter bridge, null point is at  = 33.7 cm.

When the resistance S is shunted by 12Ω

resistance the null point is found to be shifted
by a distance of 18.2 cm. The value of E
unknown resistance R should be 1)
(R − G)θ
1) 13.5Ω 2) 6.84Ω
E
3) 3.42Ω 4) 68.8Ω 2)
(R + G)θ
18. Two resistances are connected in two gaps of
a slide wire bridge. The balance point is at 40
EG
cm from left end. A resistance X is connected 3)
in series with smaller resistance R and balance Rθ
point shifts to 40 cm from right end. What is
the value of X if R is 4Ω?
Eθ
4)
R +G
1) 4Ω 2) 5Ω 21. In an experiment to determine the resistance of
a galvanometer by half deflection method, the
3) 6Ω 4) 7Ω circuit shown is used. In one set of readings,
if and , then the resistance
19. In measuring the value of resistance, different of the galvanometer is
students connect ammeter and voltmeter as
shown in following figures. Which of these will
be correct?

1) Both figures are correct.

2) Both are wrong. 1) 2)

3) Only figure (i) is correct.

3) 4)
4) Only figure (ii) is correct.

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22. The |u|, |v| graph for a concave mirror is as 24. In an optics experiment, with the position of
shown in figure. Here |u| > |f |. A line passing the object fixed, a student varies the position
through origin of slope 1 cuts the graph at of the convex lens and for each position, the
point P. Then co-ordinates of point P are screen is adjusted to get a clear image of the
object. A graph between the object distance
u and the image distance v, from the lens, is
plotted using the same scale for the two axes.
A straight line passing through the origin and
making an angle of 45o with the x-axis meets
the experimental curve at P. The coordinates
of P will be:

f f 
1)  ,  2) (f, f)
1) (|2f|, |2f|) 2 2
2) (|2f|, |f|) 3) (4f, 4f) 4) (2f, 2f)
3) (|f|, |2f|) 25. Figure shows zener diode with a breakdown
voltage of 40 V connected to a 100 Volt D.C.
4) (|f|, |f|)
source with a series resistance R and a load
23. A student performed the experiment of resistance (RL). The output voltage across RL
determination of focal length of a concave is
mirror by u-v method using an optical bench
of length 1.5 meter. The focal length of the
mirror used is 24 cm. The maximum error in
the location of the image can be 0.2 cm. The 5
sets of (u, v) values recorded by the student (in
cm) are: (42, 56), (48, 48), (60, 40), (66, 33),
(78, 39). The data set(s) that cannot come from 1) 40 V 2) 20 V
experiment and is (are) incorrectly recorded is 3) 50 V 4) 60 V
(are)
26. In an experiment to identify an electronic
A) (42, 56) B) (48, 48) component, unidirectional current flow for
which of the following components ?
C) (66, 33) D) (78, 39)
1) Diode, LED, resistor
1) A and C
2) Diode, LED, capacitor
2) B and C
3) Diode, LED, IC
3) C and D
4) Diode, LED
4) B and D

134 Physics
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ANSWER KEY

1. 3 6. 2 11. 3 16. 3 21. 1

2. 1 7. 2 12. 3 17. 2 22. 1
23. 3
3. 2 8. 3 13. 3 18. 2
24. 4
4. 1 9. 1 14. 1 19. 1 25. 1
5. 2 10. 1 15. 1 20. 2 26. 4

Study Material 135