Haramaya University

College of Veterinary Medicine

Identified Competency Focus Questions for

the Core Courses for
National Exit Examination

Program: - The Degree of “Doctor of Veterinary Medicine

(DVM)”

Contributors: All CVM Staff

Compiled by: Shimelis Mengistu (DVM, MSc, Assoc. Prof)
Dereje Regassa (BSc.VLT, MSc, Lecturer)

February 2023
Haramaya University

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1. In which of the following sentences that the scenario of rational anti-microbial
combinationis correctly mentioned and described?
A. Providing synergetic effects. C. Bringing a broader spectrum of coverage.
B. Preventing the emergence of resistance. D. All of the above.

2. Fraction of an uncharged drug reaching the systemic circulation following any route
administration is referred to as:
A. Half-life of a drug. C. Plasma protein binding.
B. Bioavailability of a drug. D. Potency of a drug.

3. Most drugs currently used in veterinary practice are originated from various sources
(few Synthesized) then marketed by pharmaceutical companies after being screened, tested
and evaluated by the pharmacologists. Select mismatched statement regarding the sources of
drug.
A. Purgative (Magnesium sulphate) Antacid (Magnesium oxide) Mineral sources.
B. Hormones; Oxytocin, Insulin, Thyroxine, Gonadotrophins Animal sources.
C. Antibiotics; Penicillin, Streptomycin Fungi/Actinomycetes sources.
D. Antibiotics; Gentamicin, Neomycin Bacterial sources.
E. None of the above.

4. Which one of the following statement is unconventional regarding Conjugation?

A. It is the process of drug reduction or oxidation by special enzymes.
B. It is the process of coupling a drug with an endogenous substrate.
C. It is a drug-body interaction modification reaction involving glucoronidation,
sulfation, acetylation and methylation of a drug or metabolite of phase Ⅰ.
D. Metabolic transformation and conjugation usually result in a decrease in a substance’s
biological activity.

5. Select and identify the mismatched statement from the following alternative.
A. Ampicillin in combination with Sulbactam Unasyn.
B. Ticarcillin in combination with Clavulanate Timentin.
C. Thienamycin in combination with Cilastatin Primaxin.
D. None of the above.

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6. Suppose you are in the mandate of clinic where the owner brought a cow that was
really intoxicated with the typical clinical findings of ingested toxemia besides the
abnormality detected in the mood and behavior, gate and clinical parameters. The owner of a
cow told you that the cow was grazing in the area where there is a bundle of poisonous
plants. Being a 6th year Veterinary student who has been taking pharmacology and offered
the course as occupational skills how do you manage the case and in which of the following
tasks that you must act quickly to counteract any further problems?
A. Removal of the offending toxin surgery/purgation or enhancing the removal way of
animal.
B. Counteracting with an antidote.
C. Providing symptomatic or nursing care until the toxicity signs have diminished.
D. All of the above.

7. The drugs that are inactive but metabolized into the active form in the body are
termed as?
A. Nutraceuticals. B. Pro-drugs. C. Essential drugs. D. Placebo.
8. Advanced branches of pharmacological study and innovation concerned with a
phenomenon of understanding and fine-tuning of materials at atomic, molecular and
macromolecular scales, that produces a structure, devices and systems with at least one novel
property that significantly differ from those at a larger scale is known as.
A. Pharmacovigilance. C. Pharmacogenetics.
B. Neuropharmacology. D. Nanotechnology.

9. Select the correct statement about the characteristics of a particular drug

administration route.
A. Intravenous administration is suitable for oleaginous solutions providing a rapid
response.
B. Inhalation is used for volatile drugs providing slow access to the general circulation.
C. Oral administration leads to first-pass metabolism nevertheless the independence of
drug absorption on GI tract secretion and motor function.
D. Intramuscular administration allows the utilization of the drug in aqueous and
oleaginous solutions or suspensions dosage forms in which the solvent may be absorbed
faster than the drug causing precipitation of the drug at the site of injection.

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10. Series of relatively small doses that follow the loading dose in order to maintain an
effective concentration in the bio phase is termed as:
A. Toxic dose. C. Maintenance dose.
B. Therapeutic dose. D. Effective dose.

11. During the diagnosis of certain cases, you realised that there is an accumulation of
drugs in the animal body which may be due to slower illumination or its persistence rate. The
phenomena lead to the requirement of an unusually large dose of a drug to elicit an effect
ordinarily produced by the normal therapeutic dose of the drug. Consequently, the drug loses
its effectiveness or inhibitory action against micro-organisms owing that they are exposed to
the prolonged treatment of antimicrobials. In which of the following groups of terms are the
phenomena observed in the animal described respectively?
A. Drug tolerance; Drug cumulative effect; Drug resistance.
B. Drug cumulative effect; Drug resistance; Drug tolerance.
C. Drug resistance; Drug tolerance; Drug cumulative effect.
D. Drug cumulative effect; Drug tolerance; Drug resistance.

12. Select the correct statements about Characteristics of the ideal Antimicrobial Drugs:
A. Selectively toxicity that complements or assists the activities of the host’s defenses
B. Relatively soluble; actively functions even when highly diluted in tissues and body
fluids
C. Reasonably priced and Doesn’t lead to the development of antimicrobial resistance
D. Remains potent long enough without being broken-down or excreted prematurely
E. All of the above

13. Which one of the following statement is odd regarding the possible phenomena that
will observed while going down to the generation of cephalosporin drug (from 1rst to 4th).
A. Potency of a drug against gram negative bacteria will be increased.
B. Potency of a drug against gram positive bacteria will be increased.
C. Potency of a drug against gram positive bacteria will be decreased
D. Stability of a drug against ß-lactamase enzymes will be increased
E. None of the above.

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14. Which of the following antienzymes is a beta-lactamase inhibitor that is used for co-
administration with penicillins?
A. Clavulanic acid. B. Tazobactam. C. Sulbactam. D. All.

15. Select and identify the statement which briefly define the word Selective toxicity from
the following alternative:
A. What the drug does to the patient C. What the pathogen does to the patient
B. What the drug does to the pathogen D. What the pathogen does to the drug.

16. Which one of the following agent is odd regarding the first-line anti-mycobacterial
drugs?
A. Rifampin. B. Pyrazinamide. C. Isoniazid. D. Streptomycin

17. Which of the following topical agent is used to treat furunculosis, frostbit, eczema and
abscess?
A. Tincture iodine. B. Wound sprayer. C. Ichtamol ointment. D. None of all.

18. Select the correct statements concerning the reasons for the failure of antibacterial
therapy.
A. A combination of incompatible antibiotics was administered by inappropriate route
B. The prescribed dosage regimen was not reliably followed or an incorrect DR was
followed
C. Defense mechanisms (specific and nonspecific) of the animal were compromised
D. All of the above

19. The typical characteristics that made fourth-generation cephalosporin drugs to resists
more ꞵ- lactamase enzymes than the rests of cephalosporin group is:
A. Enhanced ability to cross the outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria.
B. Good affinity for the trans-peptidase enzyme.
C. Low affinity for some beta lactamases enzyme.
D. All of the above.

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20. Almost all antimicrobial drugs currently used in veterinary practice are originated
from various sources (few Synthesized) then marketed by pharmaceutical company after
being screened, tested and evaluated by the pharmacologists. Generally talking all these
antimicrobial agents are classified based on: Spectrum of activity, Mechanism of action, Type
of organism involved, Type of action, Source of the drugs and Chemical nature of the drugs.
Pick out the mismatched statement regarding the classification of drugs based on mode of
action.
A. Quinolones, Metronidazole, And Rifampin Nucleic acid synthesis Inhibition.
B. Beta-lactams, Vancomycin, Bacitracin, & cycloserine Cell wall synthesis Inhibition.
C. Lincosamides, Chloramphenicols, Tetracyclines Protein synthesis Inhibition.
D. None of the above.

21. Determine and pick out the correct statement from the following alternative:
A. Drug’s generic name given by a particular manufacturer and used for prescription
writing.
B. Drug resistance is the loss of effectiveness of antimicrobial or antitumor drugs.
C. Metabolic transformation and conjugation increases biological activity of the drug.
D. Small amount of the volume of distribution is common in lipophilic substances for the
easy penetration through barriers and wide distribution in the plasma, cell and interstitial
fluids

22. President Obama on his thought at January 30, 2015, stated that “Doctors have always
recognized that every patient is unique, and they have always tried to tailor their treatments as
best they can to individuals. You can match a blood transfusion to blood types and that was
an important discovery. What if matching a cancer cure to our genetic code was just as easy,
just as standard? What if figuring out the right dose of medicine was as simple as taking our
temperature?” In which of the following pharmacology branches that the significant issue of
the president’s inquiry appropriately answered?
A. Pharmacovigilance.
B. Nanotechnology.
C. Pharmacogenetics.
D. Neuropharmacology.

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23. Suppose you are in charge of a clinic where the owner brought a dog that was really
infected with the pneumococcal infection. According to your diagnosis the patient is being
treated with the beta lactamase resistant drug imipenem compound and is responding well.
After several days of treatment, the patient begins vomiting and has diarrhea. You observe a
slight seizure at the same time. The infection is very severe, and you do not wish to terminate
the imipenem but you fear that the adverse effects will make this a necessity. Being a 4th year
DVM student who has been taking pharmacology and offered the course as occupational
skills how do you manage the case and in which of the following tasks that you must act
quickly to counteract any further problems?
A. You will removal the offending toxic metabolite through purgation /enhanced
mechanisms.
B. You will counteracts with an antidote while providing nursing care.
C. You will add a second drug, cilastatin, to the patient’s regimen as Co-administration
D. All of the above.

24. A patient requires a high dose of a new antimicrobial medication because the new
medication has a significant first-pass effect. What does this mean?
A. The medication passes through the renal tubules and is excreted in large amounts.
B. The medication is extensively metabolized in the patient's liver.
C. The medication is ineffective following the first dose and increasingly effective with
each subsequent dose
D. The medication must pass through the patient's bloodstream several times to generate
a therapeutic effect.

25. In which of the following alternatives that the phenomena observed in a serious
adverse effects of oral contraceptive and biguanide diabetic drug metformin therapy is
detected respectively?
A. Headache, GIT.
B. Thromboembolism, Lactic acidosis.
C. Bleeding, Somnolence.
D. All.

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26. Select the correct statements about the emergence of microbial antibiotic drug
resistance.
A. Production of enzymes that inactivate the drug
B. Alteration of the drug-binding site with subsequent reduction of drug uptake of
bacteria
C. Is due in large part to the indiscriminate use of antibiotics in humans
D. All of the above.

27. Which of the following Benzodiazepine is used only as sedative and hypnotic?
A. Chlordiazepoxide. B. Clorazepam. C. Diazepam. D. Flurazepm.

28. Dr. Chala, the principal surgeon of veterinary hospital, was dealing with the cases of
C-section, which one of the following local anaesthetic should be used as a drug of choice
during labor?
A. Procaine. B. Bupivacaine. C. Lignocaine.D. Cocaine.
29. Which of the following laxative lower blood ammonia level in hepatic
encephalopathy?
A. Liquid paraffin. B. Lactulose. C. Magnesium sulfate. D. Bisacodyl.

30. Mumade shankora is working as a clinical expert at Haramaya Veterinary Clinic. One
day he come across a case of Bovine Respiratory Disease in a patient (weight 280 kg) has
bacteremia suspected to be due to a Mannheimia haemolytica or Pasteurella multocida. It’s
obvious that Enrofloxacine or Florfenicol is to be administered as a drug of choice using a
once-daily dosing regimen for the treatment and the loading dose to achieve a peak plasma
level is calculated. Assume that the cattle have a normal renal function and pharmacokinetic
parameters. In which of the following dose rates that the Enrofloxacine or Florfenicol should
be given respectively?
A. 3.75 or 30mg/kg. B. 2.5 or 20mg/kg. C. 1.25 or 10mg/kg. D. 5 or 40mg/kg

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31. With the increasing incidence of very resistant bacteria (so called “super bugs”), it’s
noticeable that proper disinfection takes on an increasingly important role in the prevention
and treatment of infections in veterinary patients. Which one of the following statement is
correct regarding the most commonly used antiseptics or disinfectants in veterinary practice:
A. Povidone-iodine in combination with a detergent, surgical scrubs, are designed to be
used to clean a dirty surgical site while providing some low level disinfection with the iodine.
B. Glutaraldehyde has become more commonly used as it is not inactivated by organic
debris beside its ability to kill bacteria that normally protect themselves by generation of bio-
film.
C. Chlorhexidine is used for a variety of purposes, including cleaning cages, treating teat
infections in cattle, and maintaining oral hygiene in companion animals.
D. All are correct

32. A patient requires a high dose of a new antihypertensive medication because the new
medication has a significant first-pass effect. What does this mean?
A. The medication passes through the renal tubules and is excreted in large amounts.
B. The medication is extensively metabolized in the patient's liver.
C. The medication is ineffective following the first dose and increasingly effective with
each subsequent dose.
D. The medication must pass through the patient's bloodstream several times to generate
a therapeutic effect.
33. All of the following drugs exhibit a fungicidal effect, except:
A. Terbinafine B. Amphotericin B C. Ketoconazole D. Myconazol

34. Assume that you are public health pharmacologist so you are aware that the patients
who are allergic to IV contrast media are usually also allergic to which of the following
products?
A. Soy. B. Eggs. C. Shellfish. D. Acidic fruits.

35. The cells and coombs classification system categorizes allergic reaction and is useful
in describing and classifying patient’s reaction to drugs. Type Ⅰ reactions are immediate
hypersensitivity reactions and are mediated by:
A. Immunoglobulin G. B. Immunoglobulin E. C. Immunoglobulin M. D. Immunoglobulin A

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36. While you are in charge of clinical practice a man brought a dog that is in a confused
and delirious state to the HU Veterinary Teaching Hospital Emergency Department. The
owner complained that the dog has had an elevated temperature for more than 24 h, during
which time he had complained of a severe depression and had suffered from seizures and
vomiting. Lumbar puncture reveals an elevated opening pressure, and cerebrospinal fluid
findings include elevated protein, decreased glucose, and increased neutrophils. Gram stain of
a smear of cerebrospinal fluid reveals gram-positive diplococci, and a preliminary diagnosis
is made of meningitis. The microbiology report informs you that for approximately 15% of S
pneumoniae isolates in the animal community, the minimal inhibitory concentration for
penicillin G is 20 mcg/mL. Based on the above investigation the treatment of this dog should
be initiated immediately with intravenous administration of:
A. Amoxicillin B. Ceftriaxone plus vancomycin C. Nafcillin D. Piperacillin

37. An adult shoat patient (weight 80 kg) has bacteremia suspected to be due to a gram-
negative rod. Tobramycin is to be administered using a once-daily dosing regimen, and the
loading dose must be calculated to achieve a peak plasma level of 20 mg/L. Assume that the
patient has normal renal function. Pharmacokinetic parameters of tobramycin in this patient
are as follows: Vd = 30 L; t1/2 = 3 h; CL = 80 mL/min. What loading dose should be given?
A. 300 mg. B. 600 mg. C. 800 mg. D. 1000 mg.

38. Suppose that an immunocompromised male patient develops fever, liver abnormalities, a
rash and diarrhea in a month after receiving a blood transfusion. You would suspect the
patient has:
A. Myelosuppression. C. Allergic response to a recent medication
B. Graft-vs-Host disease (GVHD). D. Nothing related to the blood transfusion

39. Jal Abdurqe is working as a clinical expert at Haramaya Veterinary Clinic. One day
he come across a woman who presented her dog weighing 40 kg to the clinic with blood-
stocked mucoid diarrhea. He diagnosed it with strongyloidiasis and he prescribed albendazole
which is available in 100 mg tablets. How many tablets are required for 4 days given that the
recommended daily dose is 10 mg/kg given bid?
A. 20 tablets. B. 16 tablets. C. 8 tablets. D. 10 tablets

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40. Which one of the following statement is best describes the term “antibiotics”:
A. Non-organic substances that selectively kill or inhibit the growth of other
microorganisms
B. Substances produced by some microorganisms and their synthetic analogues that
selectively kill or inhibit the growth of another microorganisms
C. Substances produced by some microorganisms and their synthetic analogues that
inhibit the growth of organism cells
D. Synthetic analogues of natural substances that kill protozoa and helminthes

41. Jal Abdurqe is working as a clinical expert at Haramaya University Veterinary

Teaching Hospital. One day he come across a woman who presented the ox weighing 300kg
to the clinic. He diagnosed it with black leg and he prescribed Procaine Penicillin G which is
available in powder with distilled water. How much ml of penicillin required to reach the
therapeutic dose? The recommended daily dose is 20,000 IU/kg given q5days.
A. 30 ml. B. 20 ml. C. 40 ml. D. 10 ml.

42. In which of the following alternatives that the parameters signifying the effective
removal of the drugs from the body and the undesirable but unavoidable pharmacodynamics
effects of the drug is terminologically represented respectively?
A. Autism, Intolerance. C. Clearance, Side effects.
B. Bioavailability, Idiosyncrasy. D. Distribution volume, Toxic effects

43. Which of the following contraindication is common for the topical corticosteroid
therapy in animal with dermatitis (eczema)?
A. Parasitic infection. B. Spirochete infection. C. Viral infection. D. Bacterial infection.

44. Mumade shankora is working as a clinical expert at Haramaya Veterinary Clinic. One day
he come across a man who presented his pets weighing 30 kg to the clinic with debility,
weakness, incoordination, cough, tremor and/or diarrhea. The owner complained that the cat
were a pregnant and aborted. The cat also exhibits the clinical sign as it was infected with
feline immunodeficiency virus. He diagnoses it with an acute generalized toxoplasmosis.
Based on the above investigation in which of the following drugs that the treatment of this cat
should be initiated as a first line of choice?
A. Spiramycin B. Diaminodiphenylsulfone C. Clindamycin D. Piperacillin

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45. A man in question number (44) comes to the emergency department with the chief
complaint, “I know everyone is going to try to hurt me”. He presents with 4 weeks of
significant depression following the sudden, unforeseen death of his wife of 35 years. He
reports difficulty sleeping, a 10-lb weight loss, frequent crying spells, and profound guilt over
surviving her. For the last several days, he has been convinced that his body is literally
decaying. He admits to seeing his wife’s face during the day, as well as hearing her voice
telling him to kill himself and join her. Further history reveals that he had been living with a
pig that was diagnosed in the previous toxoplasmosis cases. He have fever, fatigue, body
aches, headache within the swollen lymph nodes. The doctor diagnosed him as he has
schizoaffective disorder with toxoplasmosis. He prescribed for her to be treated with 10%
Paliperidone 100 mg prolonged- release suspension for IM injection. For the toxoplasmosis
he prescribed SMZ/TMP (fansidar). The man asks what the name means and the doctor
replies sulfamethoxazole is combined with trimethoprim in SMZ/TMP to help the drug
effectiveness. How does this work?
A. Sulfamethoxazole acts along with trimethoprim as an anesthetic.
B. Sulfamethoxazole is highly protein bound and displaces the trimethoprim.
C. SMZ increases the excretion of trimethoprim, thereby increasing the response in a bladder.
D. Sulfamethoxazole has a synergistic effect with trimethoprim against microorganisms.

46. Having the most serious adverse effects of cardiac arrythmiasis resulted in life-
threatening wider QRS complex should be removed by dialysis
A. Digoxin. B. Organophosphate. C. Salicylate. D. Benzodiazepines

47. In which of the following alternatives that the drugs having the least oral
bioavailability and the one having maximum chance of absorption from gastric mucosa is
existed respectively
A. Quinone, Quinine dihydrochloride. C. D-tubocurarine, Diclofenac sodium.
B. Morphine, Morphine sulfate. D. All

48. Which one of the following pairs are best matched with the statement “when the drug
bind to the receptors and causes the action opposite to that of the agonist and when it possess
low intrinsic activity and high affinity” respectively?
A. Partial agonist and Invers agonist. C. Partial agonist and Complete agonist.
B. Invers agonist and Partial agonist. D. Neutral agonist and Partial agonist

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49. In which of the following alternatives that the correct respective statements are
significantly detected the requirement for plasma drug monitoring and good clinical practice
respectively
A. For the drug with higher safety margin in preclinical phase.
B. For the drug with lower safety margin in phase Ⅱ study.
C. For the drug with higher therapeutic index in phase Ⅲ study
D. All of the above

50. Hawinet, a 6th year DVM (externship) student, has visited the hospital and
complained that she were not ok for a weak having headache which was present when he
woke up that morning. Further history reveals that she had been studying hard and was
anxious about her thesis, intern and national exit exams. Physical examination was normal at
a time and she was sent home with paracetamol and vitamins. She presented to casualty a 6-
days later with a fever, chills and worsening cough productive of green sputum. She
complains of pain in the right mid-back with deep breathing or coughing. On examinations,
her T0 is 38.1°C (100.5°F); her respiratory rate is 24 breaths per minute; pulse, 98 beats per
minute; blood pressure, 120/75 mm Hg; and saturation of O2, 96% on room air by pulse
oximetry. Auscultation of her lungs reveals rales in the right lower-posterior lung field. A
posterior-to-anterior (PA) and lateral chest x-ray show a right lower-lobe infiltrate. A sputum
Gram-stain reveals gram +ve cocci, and subsequent sputum and blood culture results confirm
the diagnosis of pneumonia caused by Streptococcus pneumoniae (pneumococcus). The
physician treated her with Augmentin. In which of the following groups of terms that the
combination of drugs forming Augmentin is mentioned?
A. Ampicillin combined with Sulbactam C. Ceftriaxone combined with vancomycin
B. Thienamycin combined with Cilastatin D. Amoxicillin combined with Clavulanate.
51. Bicarbonate ion concentrations in the blood are controlled through the ________.
A. Respiratory system
B. Renal system
C. Digestive system
D. Metabolic rate of cells
E. None of the above
52. Which of the following hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by lymphocyte?
A. Type I B. Type II C. Type III D. Type IV E. None of the above

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53. A cough is a likely clinical sign in all the following disorders except:
A. Tracheal collapse
B. Right-sided congestive heart failure
C. Bordetellabronchiseptica infection
D. Blastomycosis
E. Acute bacterial bronchitis

54. Which of the following is a possible electrolyte imbalance associated with abomasal
impaction?
A. Hypochloremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. A and B
E. None of the above

55. Which one of the following disease is commonly associated with stomatitis?
A. Salmonellosis
B. Colibacillosis
C. Actinobacillosis
D. Paratubercullosis
E. None of the above

56. Which of the following is not characteristic of grain overload in cattle?

A. Decreased packed cell volume
B. Rumen pH below 5.0
C. Systemic acidosis
D. Pooling of water in the rumen as a result of osmotic forces
E. Chemical damage to the rumen epithelium

57. Which one of the following sign is very important to differentiate pharyngitis and
pharyngeal obstruction?
A. Difficulty in swallowing B. Regurgitation through the nostrils
C. Respiration distress D. Fever
E. None of the above

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58. Which one of the following condition is not common in toxemia?
A. Abnormality in vascular permeability
B. Decreased gastrointestinal motility
C. Hypovolemia
D. Edema
E. None of the above

59. A cow presented to you with a sign of diarrhea and the body temperature is 38.5 0C.
What is the possible etiology of this condition?
A. Bacteria B. Virus
C. Dietary problem D. A and B
E. All of the above

60. Which of the following is not the characteristic feature of septic shock?
A. The mucosa become pale
B. Low blood pressure
C. Cool skin and extremities
D. Hyperthermia
E. None of the above

61. Diarrhea is a likely clinical sign in all the following conditions except:
A. Coccidiosis
B. Colibacillosis
C. Rinderpest
D. Stomatitis
E. None of the above

62. Which of the following statement is true regarding concentric hypertrophy?

A. Develops in response to volume overload
B. The sarcomeres replicate in series
C. Results in wall thickness and decrease in internal diameter
D. An overall increase in external diameter of the chamber
E. None of the above

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63. Which of the following conditions is not common in anaphylaxis?
A. Thromboembolism
B. Purpura hemorrhagic
C. Hemoconcentration
D. Bronchospasm
E. None of the above

64. Which one of the following is a cause of pulmonary edema?

A. Bacterial infection
B. Anaphylactic reactions
C. Congestive heart failure
D. B and C
E. All

65. Which of the following is not sign of intestinal obstruction?

A. Colic
B. Electrolyte imbalance
C. Absence of feces
D. Diarrhea
E. None of the above

66.Which of the following disease is a cause of edema?

A. Hepatitis
B. Heart failure
C. Kidney disease
D. A and B
E. All

67.Which one of the following organism is not a cause of pneumonia in cattle?

A. Pasteurellaspp
B. adenovirus
C. Mycoplasma spp
D. Dictyocaulus viviparous
E. None

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68.One of the following organism is most commonly associated with pleurisy in ruminant?
A. Pasteurellaspp
B. Mycobactrium bovis
C. Mycoplasma spp
D. Dictyocaulus viviparous
E. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis

69. Which one of following manifestation is not associated with hepatic disease?
A. Jaundice
B. Abdominal pain
C. Muscle tremor and weakness
D. Tissue wasting
E. None of the above

70. Which of the following agent is the cause of diarrhea?

A. Bacteria
B. Viruses
C. Protozoa
D. Helminthes
E. All of the above

71. Which of the following is not a factor that causes edema?

A. An increase in the plasma protein concentration
B. Obstruction of lymphatic vessels
C. Increased venous pressure
D. Increased capillary permeability
E. None of the above

72.Which of the following disease/condition is a cause of hemolytic anemia in cattle?

A. Babesiosis
B. Poisoning
C. Bacillary hemoglobinuria
D. Anaplasmosis
E. All of the above

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73.The following disease is not associated with stomatitis?
A. Foot-and-mouth disease
B. Actinobacillosis
C. Actinomycosis
D. Rinderpest
E. All of the above

74. Which of the following condition/ disease is a cause of toxic shock?

A. Coliform mastitis
B. Paratuberculosis
C. Leptospirosis
D. Brucellosis
E. None of the Above

75. Which of the following is associated with metabolic alkalosis?

A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypocalcemia
D. Hypochloremia
E. All of the above

76. Which of the following conditions are the characteristic feature of pharyngitis?
A. Drooling of saliva
B. Coughing
C. Mucopurulent nasal discharge,
D. Regurgitation through the nostrils
E. All of the above

77.Which one of the following agents is not responsible for diarrhea?

A. E. coli
B. Salmonella app
C. Clostridium perfringen type B & C
D. Clostridium hemolyticum
E. Mycobacterium paratuberculosis

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78.The following conditions are true about congestive heart failure except?
A. Dilatation of vessels is common
B. There is accumulation of fluid in lungs.
C. It is caused by endocarditis
D. There is an enlargement of heart.
E. All of the above

79. Which of the following is caused by elevated sympathetic nervous system activity
except?
A. Tachycardia
B. Increased contractility,
C. Peripheral vasodilation
D. Activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).
E. None of the above

80.Which of the following condition is not occurring in Anaphylaxis?

A. Skin disease
B. Purpura hemorrhagic
C. Pulmonary edema
D. Anoxia
E. None of the above

81. Which of the following statement is correct?

A. Transudate is a type of effusion that has a high cell count and protein content
B. Transudate is associated with inflammation in the body cavities
C. Exudate is a type of effusion that has a low cellular and low protein content.
D. Transudate occur due to imbalances in the starling forces
E. None of the above

82. Which of the following condition leads to water loss?

A. Hyponatremia
B. Hypocalcemia
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypophosphatemia E. None of the above

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83. A Newborn calf that has clinical signs of weakness and depression came to you and
information from the owner of the animal indicated that the animal had severe diarrhea and
reluctant to suck. According to the information which of the following complication
commonly encountered?
A. Respiratory alkalosis B. Respiratory acidosis
C. Metabolic alkalosis D. Metabolic acidosis
E. All of the above

84. Which of the following is different from the other?

A. Septic shock
B. Anaphylactic shock
C. Obstructive shock
D. Neurogenic shock
E. None of the above

85. Which of the following is a cause of respiratory acidosis?

A. Nephritis
B. Congestive heart failure
C. Diarrhea
D. Grain overload
E. None of the above

86. Which of the following is not causative agent for enteritis?

A. Mycobacterium avium subsp. Paratuberculosis
B. Rinderpest virus
C. Cryptosporidium spp
D. Actinobacillus lignerese
E. None of the above

88. Which one of the following is not manifestation of respiratory insufficiency?

A. Snoring B. Coughing
C. Cyanosis D. Dyspnea
E. None of the above

19
89. Which of the following is the characteristic feature of acute heart failure?
A. Sudden death
B. Absence of a palpable pulse
C. Pallor of the mucosal membrane
D. Absence of heart sounds
E. All of the above

90. Which one of the following is very important to control acidosis due to an increase
carbonic acid levels in the blood?
A. Renal system
B. Respiratory system
C. Digestive system
D. Nervous system
E. None of the above

91. Which of the following bacteria is responsible for the development of endotoxemia in
cattle?
A. E coli
B. Clostridium botulism
C. Clostridium tetany
D. Clostridium chovea
E. None
92.Which of the following is the complication of dehydration?
A. Metabolic acidosis
B. Hemoconcentration
C. Muscular weakness
D. Oligouria
E. All

93. Which of the following conditions is not the possible cause of dehydration?
A. Diarrhea
B. Vomiting
C. Acute carbohydrate engorgement
D. Extensive skin wounds E. None of the above

20
94. Which one of the following is a reportable chronic wasting neurological disease of sheep?
A. Paratuberculosis
B. Scrapie
C. Babesiosis
D. Cryptosporidiosis
E. Coccidiosis

95. Which one of the following specific disease characterized by septicemia?

A. Colibacillosis
B. Anthrax
C. Pasteurellosis
D. Salmonellosis
E. All of the above

96. A jaundiced animal's gums will be which color?

A. Pink
B. Purple
C. Blue
D. Yellow
E. None of the above

97.Which of the following function is affected when there is renal failure?

A. Regulates blood pressure.
B. Filters waste from the blood.
C. Regulates the pH of the body.
D. Regulates the body's electrolyte concentration.
E. All of the above

98. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature of infectious canine hepatitis?
A. Hemorrhage
B. Respiratory problem
C. Abdominal pain
D. Fever
E. None of the Above

21
99. One of the following is important for confirmatory diagnosis of canine babesiosis.
A. Identification of protozoal organisms in stained blood films
B. Level of anemia
C. Differential leukocyte counts
D. Bilirubin in the blood
E. None of the above

100. The causative agent for canine distemper is _________

A. Lyssavirus
B. Adenovirus (CAV-1)
C. Morbillivirus
D. Canine parvovirus-2
E. None of the above

101. In which animal is rabies more likely to be found?

A. Wolves
B. Dogs
C. Cats
D. Humans
E. Bats

102. Which one of the following is the infective state of Toxoplasma gondii for Intermediate
host.
A. Non sporulated oocyst
B. Sporulated oocyst
C. Bradyzoite
D. Tachyzoite
E. None of the above

103. Which of the following is true regarding canine distemper?

A. Pups are more susceptible to infection than older
B. It is a highly contagious disease
C. Characterized by biphasic fever
D. Haemorrhagic enteritis is commonly encountered
E. All of the above

22
104. In which of the following situations dystocia should be suspected in dog?
A. Parturition that does not occur within 24 hours after a drop in rectal temperature to
37.7°C.
B. When there is strong abdominal contractions lasting for 1–2 hours without passage of
kitten.
C. Active labor lasting for 1–2 hours without delivery of subsequent puppies or kittens.
D. When there is abnormal vulvar discharge.
E. All of the above.

105. Which one of the following is not a clinical sign of prostatic disease?
A. Haematuria
B. Oliguria
C. Tenesmus during defecation
D. Caudal abdominal pain
E. None of the above

106. Which one of the following is complication of the paraphimosis?

A. Venous drainage becomes compromised.
B. It restricts the proper flow of urine through the urethra.
C. Drying of the tissue
D. Tissue contamination
E. Necrosis
F. All of the above

107. Which of the following is a characteristic feature of rabies?

A. Difficulty in swallowing
B. Salivation
C. Behavioural change
D. Sound change
E. All of the Above

108. Which of the following is true about parvo-viral infection?

A. There is viremia at the initial stage
B. Death of affected animal is due to dehydration
C. It is characterized by sudden onset vomiting and/or diarrhea
D. B and C
E. All of the above

23
109. Which one of the following is not clinical sign of canine babesiosis?
F. Fever
G. Hematuria
H. pale mucous membranes
I. tachycardia
J. tachypnea

110. Which of the following disease is characterized by Jaundice?

A. Parvoviral infection
B. Leptospirosis
C. Babesiosis
D. B and C
E. None of the above

111. Which cycle of estrus is associated with pseudopregnancy?

A. Proestrus
B. Estrus
C. Diestrus
D. Anestrus
E. All of the Above

112. Which of the following is not an important specimen for laboratory examination of
leptospirosis?
A. Nasal swab
B. Blood
C. Uterine discharge
D. Urine
E. None of the above

113.Which of the following is not the cause of acute orchitis?

A. Trauma
B. Testicular torsion
C. Brucella cannis
D. Neoplesia
E. None of the above

24
114. Which of the following function is affected when there is renal failure?
A. Regulates blood pressure.
B. Filters waste from the blood.
C. Regulates the pH of the body.
D. Regulates the body's electrolyte concentration.
E. All of the above

115. In which animal is rabies more likely to be found?

A. Wolves
B. Dogs
C. Cats
D. Humans
E. Bats

116. Which of the following disease is not related to the age of the animals?
A. Canine Distemper
B. Rabies
C. Parvo-viral infection
D. Leptospirosis
E. Toxoplasmosis

117. Which of the following disease commonly characterized by vomiting?

A. Parvo-viral infection
B. Canine distemper
C. Leptospirosis
D. Infectious canine hepatitis
E. All of the above

118. One of the following is uncommon to cause acute rhinitis in small animals
A. Canine distemper
A. Canine adenovirus types 1
B. Bordetella bronchiseptica
C. Canine adenovirus types 2
D. Canine parainfluenza

25
119. The rabies virus is passed on by contact with what part of an infected animal?
A. Skin
B. Saliva
C. Blood
D. feces
E. None of the Above

120. Concerning PPR, the least accurate statement is:

A. Goats are more severely affected than sheep
B. Sheep remain carrier after recovery from infection
C. Respiratory involvement is a sign of poor prognosis
D. Abortion may result in pregnant animals

121. Among the following the one which is not clinical sign of PPR is:
A. Dyspnea B. Emaciation C. Hemorrhagic diarrhoea D. Oral erosion

122. One of the following is not arboviral disease

A. Rift Valley Fever B. Blue Tongue C. African Swine Fever D. Lumpy Skin Disease

123. One of the following conditions is not associated with copper deficiency in Ruminants
A. Unthriftness B. Neonatal ataxia C. Epizootic ataxia D. Enzootic ataxia

124. Among the following groups of animals, the ones which most severely affected by RVF
are:
A. Adult sheep, cattle & goats B. Lambs, calves & kids
C. Horses, cats & dogs D. Camels, pigs & rabbits

125. The Incorrect statement about Malignant catarrhal fever is

A. Cattle are dead-end hosts for Alcelaphine herpesvirus type 1(AHV-1)
B. It is a sporadic, usually fatal, pansystemic disease of cattle and deer
C. The clinical feature in “sheep-associated” and “wildebeest-derived” MCF is very
different.
D. Under natural conditions only cattle and deer develop clinical signs

26
126. The Incorrect statement about FMD is:
A. Mouth lesions are severe in pigs while hoof lesions are severe in cattle.
B. Transmission of FMD can occur through artificial insemination.
C. FMD is characterized by low mortality rates in adult ruminants
D. Vaccination against one serotype cannot provide immunity to other serotypes

127. The Incorrect statement about PPR is:

A. Conjunctivitis with ocular discharge is a feature of the disease
B. Signs of tracheitis and pneumonia are common in PPR
C. PPR is more severe in sheep than in goats
D. Animals recovered from PPR infection can be carriers of the virus for long period of time.

128. The correct statement about LSD is:

A. Biting insects play a minor role in the transmission of LSDV
B. Epidemics of LSD are usually associated with dry seasons
C. It is usually characterized by high morbidity and high mortality rates
D. Vaccination with sheep/goat pox can protect cattle against LSD

129. One of the following condition is not associated with copper deficiency in Ruminants
A. Falling disease B. Neonatal ataxia C. Pregnancy toxemia D. Enzootic ataxia

130. The Correct statement among the following is :

A/ Ethiopia is currently free from both Rinderpest and PPR
B/ The FMD Vaccin which is currently being used is live attenuated
C/ Both sheep/goat poxes & are zoonotic infections
D/ In some cases rabies can be transmitted by inhalation of aerosolized viruses.

131. The incorrect statement about PPR is:

A/ Exotic breeds are more susceptible to PPR than local breeds
B/Sheep are usually less severely affected than goats
C/Small ruminants previously infected with rinderpest virus will be severely affected by PPR
D/The morbidity and mortality rates can be up to 100% in severe outbreaks

27
132. The Wrong statement about Rift valley Fever is:
A. The causative agent is a Phlebo virus in the family Bunyaviridae
B. Mortality is very high in young animals less than one week old
C. Pregnant animals can abort at any stage of gestation period
D. Both cattle and sheep are equally susceptible to Rift Valley Fever

133. The Incorrect statement about MCF is:

A. MCF viruses are carried asymptomatically by their reservoir hosts, but can cause disease
in other species
B. Wildebeest are the carriers for AlHV-1.
C. Disease caused by OvHV-2 can be seen throughout the world
D. Ruminants that develop malignant catarrhal fever are usually dead end hosts E. None

134. Which one of the following is a reportable chronic wasting neurological disease of
sheep?
A. Paratuberculosis
B. Scrapie
C. Babesiosis
D. Cryptosporidiosis
E. Coccidiosis

135. Bacillary hemoglobinuria is caused by:

A. Clostridium chauvoei
B. Clostridium hemolyticum
C. Clostridium perfringens
D. Clostridium septicum
E. None

136. The correct statement about rabies is:

A. Aerosol transmission is impossible for getting Rabies
B. Infection with rabies virus cannot be confirmed at antermortem
C. Rabies virus cannot be transmitted via intact skin
D. Post exposure vaccination is effective even after clinical signs are seen
E. None

28
137. The Incorrect statement about Malignant Catarrhal Fever (MCF) is:
A. Wildebeest are reservoir hosts for MCF and they are asymptomatic carriers
B. Wildebeest are the carriers for AlHV-1.
C. Disease caused by OvHV-2 can be seen throughout the world
D. Ruminants that develop malignant catarrhal fever are usually dead end hosts
E. None

138. Trismus with restricted jaw movement saw horse posture is characteristic symptoms
A. Actinobacillosis
B. Listeriosis
C. Enteriotoxaemia
D. Tetanus
E. None

139. Ovine ketosis is more common during:

A. Late gestation
B. One week post lambing
C. Four weeks post-lambing
D. Immediately after lambing

140. Which of the following is least likely to cause abortion late in gestation?
A. brucellosis
B. leptospirosis
C. trichomoniasis
D. infectious bovine rhinotracheitis

141. Infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis is usually caused by:

A. Moraxella bovis
B. Mycoplasma
C. Listeria
D. adenovirus
E. infectious bovine rhinotracheitis virus

29
142. One of the following species is resistant to FMD:
A. Horses
B. Cattle
C. Sheep
D. Goats
E. Pigs

143. The California mastitis test is based on the presence of what constituent in the tested
milk?
A. nucleated cells
B. fibrin
C. fibrinogen
D. globulin
E. bacteria

144. A complete necropsy of the animal is contraindicated if which of the following diseases
is strongly suspected?
A.brucellosis
B. anthrax
C. rabies
D. listeriosis
E. blackleg

145. Shipping fever in cattle and young sheep is caused by:

A. Mannheimia haemolytica
B. Pasteurella multocida
C. Mycoplasma mycoides
D. Chlymydia psittaci
E. None

146. Which form of Anthrax is more common in animals?

A. intestinal
B. inhalation
C. cutaneous
D. nervous

30
147. The pathognomonic lesion noticed in animals affected with Bacillary hemoglobinuria is:
A. An anemic infarct in the liver B. Haemorrhages in the kidney
C. Abomasal ulcers Enlargement of lymph nodes E. None

148. The drug of choice in the treatment of wooden tongue is:

A. Alincomycin
B. Gentamicin
C. Sodium iodide
D. Tetracycline
E. None

149. Which of the following diseases can cause sudden death in cow?
A. John’s disease
B. Blackleg
C. Leptospirosis
D. B and C
E. All of the above

150. One of the following conditions is not associated with copper deficiency in Ruminants
A. Falling disease
B. Neonatal ataxia
C. Pregnancy toxemia
D. Enzootic ataxia

151. Among the following groups of animals, the ones which most severely affected by RVF
are:
A. Adult sheep, cattle & goats
B. Lambs, calves & kids
C. Horses, cats & dogs
D. Camels, pigs & rabbits

152. Hemoglobinuria is a feature in:

A. Aplastic anemia B.Trypanosomosis C.Babesiosis D. lead poisoning

31
153. Among the following the one which is not clinical sign of Rinderpest is:
A. Coughing
B. Emaciation
C. Diarrhoea
D. Oral erosion

154.Which of the following diseases in sheep is caused by Corynebacterium

pseudotuberculosis?
(A) Bluetongue
(B) Caseous lymphadenitis
(C) Contagious ecthyma
(D) Tuberculosis
(E) Ulcerative dermatosis

155.Variant Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease in humans has been associated with which of the
following diseases in animals?
(A) Bovine spongiform encephalopathy
(B) Eastern equine encephalomyelitis
(C) Rabies encephalitis
(D) Transmissible mink encephalopathy
(E) West Nile viral encephalitis

156.Pulpy Kidney Disease is caused by-

(A) Clostridium perfringens
(B) Clostridium septicum
(C) Clostridium novyi
(D) Clostridium tetani

157. A protozoan disease which is transmitted through milk is:

A. Cysticercosis
B. Toxoplasmosis
C. Giardiasis
D. Salmonellosis

32
158. Beef cattle that have been exposed to frequent rain without shelter have developed skin
lesions over their back. The lesions are characterized by areas of matted hair that coalesce to
form easily removable scabs. Remova l of the scabs exposes moist areas of red granulation
tissue. The most likely cause of this skin problem is:
a. Hypoderma infection
b. Trichophyton verrucosum infection (ringworm)
c. cutaneous papillomatosis (warts)
d. dermatophilosis
e. squamous-cell carcinoma

159. A calf in excellent body condition shows fever, acute lameness, swelling with gas
crepitus over the left semimembranosus-semitendinosus muscle group, cool skin over the
swollen area, extreme depression, and complete anorexia. The most likely cause of these
findings is:
a. exertional myositis
b. blackleg
c. fractured femur
d. white muscle disease
e. ergot toxicity

160. Blue Tongue in sheep is caused by-

(A) Herpes virus
(B) Birna virus
(C) Picorna virus
(D) Orbi virus.

161. The Serotype of FMD virus which has not been reported in Ethiopia is:
(A) A (B) C (C) SAT -1 & 2 (D) O E. None

162. Bluetongue virus has:

A. 20 serotypes B. 24 serotypes C. 7 serotypes D. 9 serotypes

163. Another name for Anthrax is called:

A. Splenic fever B. Desert fever C.Undulant fever D. All of the above

33
164. A Scrapie is a…..
A. Progressive fatal disease of CNS in sheep
B. Disease of young sheep
C. The causative agent is DNA virus
D. None

165. Mad itch is mostly a disease of-

(A) Caprine (B) Bovine
(C) Swine (D) Ovine

166. A synonym for Wooden Tongue in cattle is :

(A) Actinomycosis
(B) Botriomycosis
(C) Haemorrhagic Septicemia
(D) Actinobacillosis.

167. Maedi is primarily a disease of

(A) Sheep affecting respiratory system
(B) Cattle affecting reproductive system
(C) Sheep affecting nervous system
(D) Cattle affecting nervous system.

168. Calf hood vaccination in cattle is recommended for

A. Brucellosis B. Salmonellosis
C. Pasteurellosis D. Neonatal calf diarrhoea

169. The antimicrobial agent effective against anaerobic bacteria as well as protozoa is:
a) Mebendazole
b) Metronidazole
c) Methicillin
d) Marbofloxacin

34
170. Select true statement among the following alternatives
A. Drying blood smear by heat treatment is only recommended emergency diagnosis
B. Sample quantity and experience of practitioner matters diagnostic value over quality
of laboratory sample
C. Unlike thin smear, thick smear is used to evaluate morphology of hemoparasites
D. Basic clinical laboratory is an adjunct to any laboratory for routine screening of
specimens collected by clinician
E. None of the above

171. One of the following does not characterize ideal anti-coagulant, which is it?
A. Minimum disruption of staining and morphology of leukocyte
B. Readily soluble in blood
C. No alteration in size of erythrocyte
D. Enhances platelet aggregation
E. None of the above

172. Anisocytosis is a common condition in animals with regenerative anemias, Heinz-body

anemia, and breed-associated variations in RBC shape
A. True B. False

173. One of the following terms explains more about leukocyte pathological condition in
circulation, which is it?
A. Right shift
B. Autoagglutination
C. Intravascular hemolysis
D. Rouleaux formations
E. All of the above

174. One of the following describes principle of hemoglobin determination by acid hematin
method
A. Erythrocyte lysed by 0.1N HCl to form coloured solution (acid hematin)
B. The amount of hemoglobin is determined by the amount of water droplet added to the
solution
C. The more early colour development, the higher blood hemoglobin level
D. When acid haematin colour matches with colour of standard hemoglobinometer
within a minute, no need of further adding water droplet to the solution
E. All of the above

35
175. Select a true statement among the following
A. Intravascular hemolysis is the removal and subsequent breakdown of erythrocytes by
macrophages
B. Extravascular hemolysis is the rupture of RBC within the vessels
C. Deactivation of methemoglobin reductase, enhances existence of ferric state in heame
group/hemoglobin.
D. Howell-Jolly bodies are precipitates of denatured hemoglobinattached to the RBC
membrane
E. None of the above

176. The total magnification power of high dry power microscope is:
A. A. 100x B. 400x C. 1000x D. 10x E. Not given

177. Which one of the following statement is true about reticulocytes?

A. Anucleated RBC in the circulation
B. Mature RBC that released from bone marrow in response to severe anemia
C. Indication of compensatory increment
D. They normally carry higher haemoglobin concentration
E. None of the above

178.Why quantitative and qualitative diagnosis of cellular components of the circulation is

important? Because:-
A. Blood cells are easily accessible than the primarily affected organs
B. Most pathogens primarily damage blood cells
C. Quantitative and qualitative blood cell based diagnosis is more confirmatory
D. Blood cells are more indicators of abnormalities than other samples
E. Cell counts are affected by the state of the blood circulation
E. All of the above

179. Which of the following statement is true?

A. In methemoglobin condition the heame group present in ferrous (2+) state, therefore,
no longer capable of binding oxygen.
B. Anisocytosis is a common condition in animals with regenerative anemias, Heinz-
body anemia, and breed-associated variations in RBC shape.
C. Unlike macrocytes, animals with microcytic erythrocytes have abnormal RBC shapes.
D. According to the Red cell distribution width (RDW) the lower the value of RBC
above the reference interval, the greater the erythrocyte size variation.
E. None of the above

36
180.One of the following is true about thrombocyte counting by hemocytometer method
A. Only platelets within large corner square (1mm2) is counted
B. This counting may be difficult as in some cases thrombocytes adhere themselves to
erythrocytes
C. Manual platelet counting is challenging as they are very small in size
D. B and C
E. All of the above

181. Select false statement among the following

A. Macrocytes are larger erythrocytes of abnormal shape
B. Relative Polycythemia has direct relation with dehydration
C. Rubricytes are larger than Metarubricytes cell in size
D. Reticulocytes are cells released to the circulation in response to inflammation
E. None of the above

182. Blood banking and transfusions in veterinary medicine particularly for small animals
have been practiced for a centuries and it is currently one of the usual activities of veterinary
clinicians working in Ethiopia
F. True B. False

183. One of the following doesn’t characterise heparin as anticoagulant

A. Forming a complex with anti-thrombin to prevent clot formation
B. Binds to calcium ion (Ca+2) and thereby inhibiting clot formation
C. Inability to inhibit leukocytes clumping
D. Interference with staining of leukocytes
E. All are characteristics of heparin

184. One of the following is a most commonly used fixative in thick blood smear preparation
A. Giemsa B. Haematoxylin C. Methanol D. Eosin E. None

185. One of the following is true about manual RBC counts

A. The ratio of dilution factor is 1 to 200
B. The ratio of dilution factor is ratio is 1 to 20
C. RBC diluting fluid lysis all WBC and thrombocytes leaving mature and immature
RBC in the solution
D. RBC is counted from the large four corner squares of hemocytometer chamber
E. All are correct

37
186. Which of the following is false about erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)?
A. Increment of serum albumin level, decreases ESR
B. Presence of anticoagulant retards ESR
C. Presence of inflammation enhances fibrin and globulins, hence increases ESR
D. ESR is appreciated from horizontally positioned tube leaving the first 5 minutes as
zero reading
E. None of the above

187. Before blood transfusion obtaining base line vitals are important especially in pet and
laboratory animals and such parameters include
A. PCV and current weight
B. Attitude and temperature
C. Pulse (rate/quality) and RR
D. Capillary refill time, and mucous membrane color
E. All of the above

188. Select true statement among the following

A. Thin smear deheamoglobinizes RBC before fixation
B. Intracellular organism can easily be examined in thin film than in the thick one
C. Jerky manner blood smear preparation is a source error in blood film
D. Vitamin K deficiency can prolongs Prothrombin time (PT)
E. None of the above

189. Most commonly blood smear most commonly prepared from:

A. Whole blood B. plasma C. Serum D. Anticoagulant E. all

190. Select the true statement from the given alternatives

A. In blood smear as the angle decreases the smear become thinner and thinner
B. In blood smear as the angle decreases the smear become thicker and thicker
C. Total leukocyte counting has more specific diagnostic value than differential count
D. Like EDTA, heparin binds to calcium to forms chelation in its mechanism of
preserving blood sample
E. None of the above

38
191. One of the following is a more recommended blood Sample collection site from guinea
pig
A. Saphenous vein
B. Jugular vein
C. Heart
D. Tail vein

192. Which of the following fluid cannot be used as diluent in some methods of manual
leukocyte counting?
A. Oxalate/Fluoride oxalate
B. 2 % acetic acid
C. 1% hydrochloric acid
D. Hayem’s solution
E. A and D

193. Which one of the following is not true about resistance?

A) It is specific to certain antigens
B) It is the same within breeds
C) It can be affected by stress
D) It can be maintained

194. Which statement is correct about neutrophils?

A) They are located in various tissues
B) They phagocytize the invading microorganisms
C) They expose the antigen to the immune system
D) They survive along with the ingested pathogen

195. Which one of the following isn’t/aren’t a humoral resistance factor?

A) Lysozyme
B) Macrophages
C) Complement
D) Interferons

39
196. In active immunity,
A) the transferred immunity is unspecific
B) the protective effect appears immediately
C) the animal itself produces the antibody
D) the protective effect is for short period

197. Interferons
A) are involved in opsonizing process
B) are proteins with antiviral actions
C) act as anaphylatoxic chemical
D) are proteins with bacteriocidal actions

198. Transhumance is not characterized by

A) pastoral animal husbandry
B) involvement in farming
C) migration of the entire group
D) None

199. Which one of the following cannot influence direction, path and extent of migration or
mobilization of the nomads or pastoralists?
A) Availability of water for animals
B) Type and amount of pasture
C) Access to animal health service
D) The spread of disease vectors

200. In the pastoral production system when do vector-borne diseases occur?

A) when there is disturbance of enzootic stability in animals
B) when animals are given insufficient minerals
C) when animals are kept overstocked on common pasture
D) when animal are mixed at watering points

201. From the animal health point of view which practice is not considered as a disadvantage
in the small-holder animal production system?
A) The existence of close contact between animals
B) Little interest or experience on animal husbandry
C) The keeping of small number of animals
D) Community keeping of animals on degraded communal pasture

40
202. Which disease complex is not linked with the replacement of authochothonous breeds by
exotic breeds?
A) Contact diseases
B) Vector-borne diseases
C) Plant poisoning
D) Mineral deficiencies

203. When should cows be vaccinated against specific respiratory viruses and bacteria to
improve the quality of colostral immunity?
A) at 5 months of pregnancy
B) at 3 to 4 weeks prepartum
C) at 7 months of pregnancy
D) at 3 to 4 weeks postpartum

204. Which one of the following is not a freeze dried or lyophilized vaccine?
A) Bovine pasturellosis vaccine
B) Peste des petits ruminants vaccine
C) Contagious bovine pleuropneumonia vaccine
D) African horse sickness vaacine

205. Which of the following vaccines confers immunity lasting for more than one year?
A) Ovine paturellosis vaccine
B) Peste des petits ruminants vaccine
C) Anthrax vaccine
D) Contagious caprine pneumonia vaccine

206. An intensive operation where cattle, sheep and goats are penned in groups of varying
sizes for fattening is called
A) Ranch
B) Dairy farm
C) Feed-lot
D) Small-holder farm

41
207. A type of clinical mastitis characterize by minimal inflammation signs of the mammary
gland is known as
A) Peracute mastitis
B) Acute mastitis
C) Subacute mastitis
D) Chronic mastitis

208. Which one of the following is/are not the characteristics of an ideal vaccine?
A) It should be safe for both the dam and the fetus
B) It should give long lasting immunity
C) It should cause adverse reaction
D) It should be stable under difficult keeping condition

209. Which one of the following is not the drawback of live vaccines?
A) It can revert to fully virulent form
B) It can be sources of infection
C) It is not stable
D) It has short life

210. The period of quarantine doesn’t depend on

A) Incubation period of the agent
B) Time taken for confirmation of the agent
C) Time taken for the animal to become noninfectious
D) None

211. The most effective measure for the risk of transmission during epidemics and
eradication campaigns is
A) Vaccination of animals
B) Slaughtering of infected animals
C) Restriction of the movement of animals
D) Chemoprophylactic treatment of animals

42
212. When should calves receive quality colostrum at 8-10% of body weight for the
prevention of Enzootic pneumonia?
A) In the first 12 hours after birth.
B) In the first 1 hour after birth
C) In the first 6 hours after birth
D) In the first 48 hours after birth

213. Which bacteria is the cause of contagious mastitis?

A) Streptococcus uberis
B) Escherichia coli
C) Staphylococcus aureus
D) Enterococcus faecalis

214. Which disease complexes are significant health problems for dairy operations?
A) Plant poisoning
B) Soil-borne diseases
C) Endoparasites
D) Contact diseases

215. Which statement is correct about killed vaccines?

A) They revert to virulent form
B) They have residual virulence
C) They require cold chain for storage
D) They induce short life immunity

216. A strategy undertaken in countries that do regularly vaccinate, either to boost immunity
following an outbreak, or to provide immunity against novel serotypes of virus is called
A) ring vaccination
B) reactive vaccination
C) routine vaccination
D) barrier vaccination

43
217. Which of the following is not a characteristic of the natural ecosystem?
A) It is diverse
B) It is a result of natural interactions
C) It is self sustaining
D) It needs the help of humans

218. Which one of the following is not the objective of the study of a disease’s ecology?
A) To increase in the understanding of the pathogenesis of disease
B) To raise in the understanding of the d transmission of disease
C) To use the knowledge of disease ecology to predict disease occurrence
D) None

219. A stable situation in which there is balance between host and parasite in inapparent
infection is
A) Ecological mosaic
B) Ecological climax
C) Ecological interface
D) Epidemiological interference

220. Where do diseases can be propagated between wildlife ecosystems and cultivated land
stocked with the domesticated stocks?
A) Ecological mosaic
B) Ecological climax
C) Ecological interface
D) Epidemiological interference

221. Which one of the following is not true about epidemic diseases?
A) They spread fast by vectors or fomites
B) They are caused by less virulent pathogens
C) They are caused by obligatory pathogens
D) Almost all animals are susceptible to them

44
222. Pathogens of endemic or enzootic diseases
A) are more less f compulsory
B) are highly adopted to single species
C) have very high tenacity
D) are rarely conveyed over long distance

223. Occasional invaders or migratory visitors

A) are characterized by rapid dispersal to new host
B) are distinguished by high reproduction rate
C) reside within the host population
D) None

224. Which one of the following is predetermined at the beginning of a cross-sectional study?
A) The total number of animals in the study
B) The number of animals without the disease
C) The number of animals with the disease
D) The number of animals possessing the risk factors

225. Cross-sectional studies are suitable to the study of

A) rare animal diseases
B) multiple causes of disease
C) rare risk factors
D) Diseases of short duration

226. The method of choice, when randomized controlled trials are unethical, is
A) Retrospective studies
B) Cross-sectional studies
C) Cohort studies
D) Case-control studies

227. In case-control studies

A) exposed and unexposed proportions in target populations be estimated.
B) incidence in exposed and unexposed individuals be estimated
C) temporal sequence of cause and effect can necessarily be determined
D only one outcome variable generally can be investigated

45
228. How much would be the sampling fraction if 200 cows were chosen from a population
of 10,000 dairy cows?
A) 0.2%
B) 0.02%
C) 20%
D) 2%

229. In which of the sampling methods the researcher uses whatever individuals are available
and easily obtainable?
A) Snowball sampling
B) Convenience sampling
C) Purposive sampling
D) Quota sampling

230. In which of the sampling methods the population to be sampled is divided into a defined
mutually exclusive sub-populations and a simple random sample of units is selected from
each subpopulation?
A) Simple random sampling
B) Cluster sampling
C) Systematic random sampling
D Stratified random sampling

231. Which method of sampling is dangerous if there is periodicity in the sampling frame that
coincides with selection?
A) Simple random sampling
B) Cluster sampling
C) Systematic random sampling
D) Stratified random sampling

232. Sensitivity is
A) the proportion of animals with disease that have a positive test for the disease
B) the proportion of nondiseased animals that have a negative test for the disease
C) the proportion of animals with a positive test result that really are diseased
D) the proportion of animals with a negative test result that really do not have the disease

46
233. Parallel testing increases
A) sensitivity of tests
B) positive predictive value
C) specificity of tests
D) None

234. The statistic that is used to assess the agreement between different tests with nominal
data, without assuming that one test is the best is
A) Cohen’s Kappa statistic
B) Sensitivity
C) Specificity
D) Predictive values

235. The term for the documentation of the occurrence of disease with the goal of developing
effective control and eradication strategies is
A) Monitoring
B) Risk analysis
C) Outbreak investigation
D) Surveillance

236. The application of management practices that reduce the opportunities for infectious
agents to gain access to or spread within, a food-animal production unit is known as
A) Biosecurity
B) Stamping out
C) Quarantine
D) Sanitation

237. Which one of the following is not a component task of epidemiological investigation of
an outbreak?
A) Establishing the case definition
B) Constructing the sampling frame
C) Defining the population at risk
D) Running a Case finding

47
238. All are the risk assessment steps with the exception of
A) risk estimation
B) entry assessment
C) risk communication
D) exposure assessment

239. People may be not willing to supply data during data collection
A) when data collection is laborious
B) if motivation is maintained
C) when there is trust
D) if the objectives are explained

240. The ratio of the disease risks in the exposed and unexposed group is known as
A Attributable risk
B Odds ratio
C Attributable proportion
D Relative risk

241. Which of the following is the infective stage of Fasciola hepatica?

A . Cercariae B. Metacercariae C. Rediae D. Miracidia E. Sporocysts

242. During inspection of the carcass of sheep slaughtered at Harar municipal abattoir. Fluid-
filled cyst containing with numerous invaginated scolex about 5 cm in diameter were found
attached to the brain. These cysts are called?
A) Coenurus cerebralis B) Cysticercus tenuicollis
C) Cysticercus ovis D) Cysticercus cellulosae
E) Hydatid cysts

243. the larval metacestode of Taenia hydatigena ?

A ). Cysticercus ovis B). Cysticercus tenuicollis C) . Cysticercus pisiformis
D). Cysticercus bovis E). Cysticercus cellulosae

48
244. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Taenia solium?
A) The scolex have rostellum armed with concentric rows of hooks.
B) In pigs a single dose of albendazole can eliminate the parasite.
C) Uterus has a median stem which has lateral branches 16 branches.
D) Man may also become infected with cysticerci from reverse peristalisis.
E) cysticerci may develop in the central nervous system producing neurocysticercosis.

245. Lateral uterine branches in gravid proglottids are counted for diagnosis of infection
caused by?
A). Diphyllobothrium latum B).Dipylidium caninum C). Taenia saginata
D). Hymenolepis nana E). Echinococcus granulosus

246. Cysticerci, which develop in fleas, are the intermediate stage of which one of the
following tapeworms?
A) . Taenia serialis
B). Dipylidium caninum
C). Taenia multiceps
D). Taenia saginata
E). Echinococcus granulosus

247. Which one of the followingtapeworms is a pseudophyllidean?

A) . Echinococcus granulosus
B). Taenia saginata
C). Diphyllobothrium latum
D). Dipylidium caninum
E). Taenia solium

248. The infective stage of Schistosoma spp?.

A. Cercariae B. Miracidia C . Rediae D. Encysted metacercariae E. Embryonated eggs

249. Onchosphere is the larval form of which of the following parasites?

A . Taenia solium
B. Toxocara vitulorum
C. Diphyllobothrium latum
D. Ascaris lumbricoides
E. Fascioloides magna

49
250. Which list of stages of Fasciola hepatica life cycle is in the right order?
A . Egg, redia miracidium, sporocysts, cercaria, adult fluke, metacercariae
B. Egg, cercaria, sporocysts, redia, metacercariae, adult fluke, miracidium
C. Egg, miracidium, sporocysts, redia, cercaria, metacercariae, adult fluke
D. Egg, sporocysts, redia, cercaria, metacercariae, adult fluke, miracidium
E. Egg, metacercariae, sporocysts, miracidium, redia, cercaria, adult fluke

251. The best option for definitive diagnosis in an outbreak of acute fasciolosis is?
A . Post mortem examination B. Faecal sedimentation test
C. McMaster egg counting D. Serum antibody assay E. Copro-antigen detection

252. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Once a snail is infected cercariae continue to be produced indefinitely.
B) Mature liver flukes in the bile ducts cause cholangitis.
C) The adult trematodes possess four suckers and rows of hooks for attachment.
D) The digestive system of digenetic trematodes is simple and incomplete.
E) All digenetic trematodes excluding Schistosoma spp. are hermaphrodites.

253. ‘Slime ball’ is a stage in the life cycle of which of the following parasites?
A . Dicrocoelium dendriticum
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Schistosoma mansoni
D. Schistosoma haematobium
E. Paramphistomum cervi

254. Acute ovine fasciolosis

A) occurs after ingestion of 500-1500 metacercariae
B) is the most common form of fasciolosis
C) outbreaks are presented as sudden deaths
D) occurs 6-10 weeks after ingestion of metacercariae
E) is caused by both mature and immature flukes

50
255. Coenurus cerebralis , which occurs in the brain of sheep and . cattle, is the intermediate
stage of
A . Taenia serialis
B. Taenia pisiformis
C . Taenia multiceps
D. Taenia saginata
E. Taenia ovis

256. Ultrasound and MRI usually help in the diagnosis of infection caused by ?
A . Dipylidium caninum
B. Hymenolepis diminuta
C. Echinococcus granulosus
D. Hymenolepis nana
E. Toxocara canis

257.causes intestinal schistosomiasis.

A . Schistosoma mansoni
B. Schistosoma haematobiu
C. Austrobilharzia species
D. Ornithobilharzia species
E. Macrobilharzia species

258. The only Taenia spp. that affects cats?.

A . Taenia taenieaformis
B. Taenia solium
C. Taenia hydatigena
D. Taenia crassiceps
E. Taenia serialis

259. Dogs are infected neither by the larval nor by the adult stages of
A) Taenia ovis B) Taenia solium
C) Echinococcus granulosus D) Taenia hydatigena
E) Taenia multiceps

51
260. Taenia solium develops in the definitive host after ingestion of
A . Cysticercoid larva
B. Cysticercus bovis
C. Cysticercus cellulosae
D. Taenia egg
E. Hydatid cyst

261. What is the mechanism that underpins the development of ‘bottle jaw’ in sheep?
A . Hypoalbuminaemia
B. Hyperkalaemia
C. Reduced protein synthesis
D. Accumulation of unfolded proteins
E. Endoplasmic-reticulum (ER) stress response

262. Cysticercus pisiformis can be found in

A . Cattle B. Sheep and goats C. Buffaloes D. Dogs and cats E. Rabbits

263. A sporocyst
A) Develops from redia B) is triangular in shape
C) Possesses cilia D) None of the above
E) Possesses long tails

264. The gynecophoric canal is found in

A . Schistosoma mansoni
B. Fasciola hepatica
C. Taenia asiatica
D. Diphyllobothrium latum
E. Sparganum mansoni

265. During inspection of the carcass of sheep slaughtered at Haramaya University abattoir
several grayish white fluids filled cysts about 8 cm in diameter were found attached to the
peritoneum. Upon laboratory investigation the protoscolex had both rostellum and hooks.
These cysts are called
A) Coenurus cerebralis B) Cysticercus tenuicollis
C) Cysticercus ovis B) Cysticercus cellulosae
E) Hydatid cysts

52
266. Black flies act as vectors of ?
A). Onchocerca volvulus
B). Dirofilaria tenuis
C). Dipetalonema evansi
D). Toxocara canis
E). Strongyloides stercoralis

267. Hexagonal basis capituli, short mouthparts (hypostome and palpi), presence of festoons
along the posterior margin, and eyes on the side of the scutum, are diagnostic features of
which one of the following ticks?
A) . Ixodes scapularis
B). Dermacentor variabilis
C). Rhipicephalus sanguineus
D). Amblyomma americanum
E). Otobius megnini

268. The life cycle stages of mites progress in which one of the following sequences?
A). Egg, larva, protonymph, deutonymph, tritonymph, adult
B). Larva, tritonymph, deutonymph, protonymph, egg, adult
C) . Larva, protonymph, tritonymph, deutonymph, adult, egg
D). Egg, adult, deutonymph, tritonymph, protonymph larva
E). Tritonymph, deutonymph, protonymph egg, larva, adult

269. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) Unlike the male female Culex pipiens have well-developed proboscis.
B) There is Morphological difference between three different nymphial stages of lice
C) hematopinus parasitized both mammals and birds.
D). like lice fleas are host specific
E) none of the above

270. is transmitted by the house fly?.

A) . Habronema muscae
B). Dipetalonema evansi
C) . Dicrocoelium dendriticum
D). Fasciola hepatica
E). Fasciola gigantica

53
271. Horse flies are the common name of members of which of the following insect families?
A). Tabanidae
B). Calliphoridae
C). Drosophilidae
D). Hippoboscidae
E). Oestridae

272. Mosquitoes act as vectors of?

A) .Malaria and Zika
B). Tularaemia and relapsing fever
C). African trypanosomiasis
D). Typhus and relapsing fever
E). Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever

273. A 7- year-old Warm blood gelding presents in July with intense pruritic dermatitis.
Which one of the following insect types is most likely involved in this condition?
A) . Culicoides (midges)
B). Ctenocephalides felis (flea)
C) .Culex species (mosquito)
D). Gastrophilus species (botfly)
E). Bovicola equi (biting louse)

274. What tick typically inhabits buildings and kennels?

A . Rhipicephalus sanguineus
B. Dermacentor reticulatus
C. Ixodes ricinus
D. Amblyomma maculatum
E. Hyalomma marginatum

275. All of the following are true about insect growth regulator (IGR ) except?
A). Interfere with chitin synthesis
B). Possess significant activity against adult fleas
C).Mimic action of juvenile insect hormones
D). Have low toxicity to vertebrates
E). Used as part of flea control

54
276. The presence of genal and pronotal combs, with the first and second spines of genal
comb approximately of equal length, are characteristic features of which of the following flea
species?
A) . Pulex irritans
B). Ctenocephalides cams
' C). Ctenocephalides felis
D). Ceratophyllus gallinae
E). Xenopsylla cheopis

277. ‘ Pinkeye disease’ in cattle is associated with which one of the following fly vectors?
A) . Stable fly B). Face fly C). Flousefly D).Horn fly E). Warble fly

278 Flesh flies is the common name for flies of which of the following families?
A) . Oestridae B). Tabanidae C). Hippoboscidae D).Simuliidae E). Sarcophagidae

279. Rhipicephalus ticks can transmit?

A) . Babesia bovis
B). Dirofilaria tenuis
C). Toxoplasma gondii
D). Hammondia hammondi
E). Listeria monocytogenes

280. Which of the following is the correct order of the life cycle stages of hard ticks?
A) . Egg, larva, nymph, adult
B). Adult, larva, egg, nymph
C). Larva, nymph, adult, egg
D). Egg, nymph, adult, larva
E). Adult, nymph, egg, larva

281. A teenage boy presented with a 14-day history of itching in his groin. On dermoscopic
investigation, there were moving, crablike insects, and nits were observed attached to his
pubic hair. What is your diagnosis?
A) . Infestation with Pediculus humanus capitis
B). Infestation with Tunga penetrans
C . Infestation with Phthirus pubis
D). Infestation with Pediculus humanus corporis
E). Infestation with Pulex irritans

55
282. Aside from finding adult fleas on a cat or dog, the presence of flea dirt is also considered
a definitive diagnosis of an infestation. What is ‘flea dirt’?
A) .Flea faeces B). Flea urine C. Flea bite D. Oral secretion of fleas E. Flea cuticle
18. Which one of the following parasites glues its eggs/nits to the hair shaft of the host?
A .Fleas B. Ticks C. Lice D).Mites E). Bugs

283.mites are identified by their three-segmented pedicels and funnel- shaped suckers.
A) . Sarcoptes scabiei
B). Psoroptes ovis
C) .Chorioptes bovis
D). Dermanyssus gallinae
E). Otedectes cynotis

284. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about morphology of Culicoides?
A ) at rest wings held over like a closed pair of scissors
B ) have a prominent antenna
C ) Small mouth parts hang vertically
D) Microscopic hairs cover the wings
E ) none of the above

285. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Simulium?

A) They are usually black with a humped thorax
B) female eyes are close together (holoptics)
C ) have conspicuous segmented maxillary palps
D ) Colorless wings with indistinct venation
E ) It affects all domestic animals including man

286. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Phlebotomus?

A) Microscopically have hairy appearance
B) have small brown eyes
C) The mouthparts hang down wards- piercing sucking
D) The wings are lancelet in outline and held erect over the body at rest
E) Very long antennae up 16 segments bear many short hairs

56
287. Which one of the following is correct about mosquitoes?
A) has prominent eyes and small mouth part
B) The wings are scaly held crossed flat over the abdomen at rest
C) small slender flies with short legs.
D) Male flies have mandibles and feed on blood.
E) All except D

288. Which one of the following statements is correct about family tabanidea?
A) They have large eyes which are dichoptic in the female
B) Tabanus has a brownish wing
C) Chrysops has a dark band across the wings
D). Haematopota has mottled or speckled wings
E) all of the above

289. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) Only female fleas are blood suckers.
B) Only adult’s fleas are parasitic.
C) fleas spent most of the life cycle on the host.
D) Ctenocephalides are responsible for provoking allergic flea bite dermatitis in poultry.
E) All except A

290. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about musca?

A) There are 4 distinct dark longitudinal stripes on the thorax
B) They are responsible for the transmission of pathogenic bacteria
C) mouth parts are adapted for sponging
D). have sticky hairs on paid- like structures at the end of the clawed legs
E) The mouthparts consist of conspicuous forward projecting proboscis

291. Which one of the following statements is incorrect about Stomoxys calcitrans?
A) Vector for nematode parasites.
B) Serve as intermediate host for protozoal disease.
C) They are commonly called biting midges
D) Have conspicuous and forward projecting proboscis
E) All except D

57
292. Which one of the following statements is correct?
A) Trichodectes is a biting louse of dog and important as a vector of Dipylidium caninum.
B) Cuclongaster is louse of fowl only found on wing.
C) Anopluras are the sucking lice occur on both mammals and birds
D) Tabanus do not fly away from their breeding sites and most active during night
E) Haematopinus is the smallest louse of domestic animals.

293. Which one of the following statements is incorrect?

A) Musca autumnalis biologically transmuted protozoal diseases
B) Simulium transmuted Onchocerca volvulus which cause river blindness
C) Only female fleas are blood suckers.
D) culicoides transmit both dirofilaria immitis and avian malaria
E) Psoroptic mange characterized by the formation of many pea-sized nodules

294. Which one of the following statements is correct?

A) tse-tse fly biologically transmitted anthrax
B) only female fleas are blood suckers.
C) chrysops has a dark band across the wings
D) simulium transmitted viral causing bluetongue
E) all exept B.

295. Prostatic and Para prostatic cysts can lead to prostate enlargement and cause clinical
signs similar to other causes of enlargement. To differentiate possible causes of enlargement,
which of the following is the best initial diagnostic technique?
A. Abdominal and rectal palpation
B. Abdominal radiographs
C. Abdominal ultrasonography
D. Surgical biopsy

296. Cats are particularly sensitive to the effects of many insecticides. Which of the following
insecticides is most appropriate for use in or around cats?
A. Benzene hexachloride
B. Carbophenothion
C. Imidacloprid
D. Permethrin

58
297. Which of the following parasites is most likely to infect the urinary bladder of dogs or
cats?
A. Capillaria plica
B. Dioctophyma renale
C. Stephanurus dentatus
D. Trichuris vulpis

298. Which of the following prostatic conditions is rarely a primary finding and is usually
secondary to another prostatic disorder?
A. Benign prostatic hyperplasia
B. Prostatic calculi
C. Prostatic cyst
D. Prostatitis

299. All of the following statement is true about anemia except.

A. Feline leukemia virus infection can cause anemia specially in dogs
B. Anemia caused by decreased erythropoietin is non regenerative
C. Conditions causing hemolysis can lead to regenerative anemia
D. Both dogs and cats are affected by IMHA

300. There are several types of rodenticides used as bait for targeted species. Unfortunately,
they may be ingested by nontarget species such as pets, wildlife, or livestock and cause
immediate or delayed illness or death. The most accurate way to identify the active ingredient
of a rodenticide that caused a case of poisoning is by which of the following?
A. Brand and manufacturer
B. Clinical signs of affected animals
C. Color and shape of the bait
D. EPA registration number

301. A farm dog is brought to a veterinarian because of depression, limping, coughing, and
pale mucous membranes. You suspect accidental poisoning. In speaking with the dog’s
owner, he tells you he recently was trying to reduce the rodent population in his fields. Based
on the clinical signs, what is the most likely rodenticide the dog has been exposed to?
A. Bromethalin
B. Strychnine
C. Warfarin
D. Zinc phosphide

59
302. A 10-month-old, female-spayed Collie is brought to the clinic because of decreased
night vision. Ophthalmoscopic examination reveals fewer, thinning retinal vessels; an
increase in reflectivity of the tapetal fundus; and decreased pigmentation in the non-tapetal
fundus. Which of the following conditions is most likely?
A. Collie eye anomaly
B. Progressive retinal atrophy (PRA)
C. Retinal dysplasia
D. Rhegmatogenous retinal detachment

303.The most common cause of recurrent otitis externa is untreated otitis media. In fact, more
than 50% of dogs with chronic otitis externa have been shown to have concurrent otitis
media. The presence of which of the following is most suggestive of concurrent otitis media
in a patient with otitis externa?
A. Fever
B. Head shaking
C. Large numbers of rod-shaped bacteria on cytology
D. Ptosis (drooping eyelid)

304. A very ill female dog with a history of recent heat that is drinking an increased amount
of water vaginal discharge and enlarged abdomen is presented to veterinary clinic Which of
the following conditions is most likely?
A. False pregnancy
B. Metritis
C. Pyometra
D. Utrine prolaps

305. ____________is the most common type of lymphoma affecting 80-85% of dogs
worldwide.
A. Renal lymphoma
B. Multicentric lymphoma
C. Alimentary lymphoma
D. Mediastinal lymphoma

60
306. A 3-year-old dog named Link is brought to your clinic with the following symptoms:
hypersalivation, miosis, frequent urination, diarrhea, vomiting and dyspnea. After taking a
detailed history, you strongly suspect tetraethyl pyrophosphate (organophosphate) poisoning,
given the neighbor’s obsession over his garden. Which one of the following best describes
the way the organophosphate’s function?
A. Organophosphates inhibit cholinesterase, an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, a
neurotransmitter that carries signals between nerves and muscles
B. Organophosphates increase cholinesterase production, an enzyme that breaks down
acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter that carries signals between nerves and muscles
C. Organophosphates inhibit the release of epinephrine which breaks down acetylcholine, a
neurotransmitter that carries signals between nerves and muscles
D. Organophosphates inhibit the release of epinephrine which breaks down acetylcholine, a
molecule that prevents signal transduction between nerves and muscle
E. Organophosphates inhibit cholinesterase, an enzyme that breaks down acetylcholine, a
neurotransmitter that inhibits signal transduction between nerves and muscle

307. __________is the inability to completely reduce the penis into the preputial cavity,
most commonly occurs in a dog after manual semen collection, less commonly after coitus.
A. Paraphimosis
B. Priapism
C. Penile neoplasia
D. Phimosis

308. Cartilage is a slippery substance which acts as a buffer or cushion between the bones in
a joint. It allows the bones to move over or around each other without pain.
_________________ occurs when the cartilage within a joint becomes damaged.
A. Hip dysplasia
B. Arthritis
C Synovitis
D Osteomyelitis

61
309. ____________is a condition in which the eyelids roll in and result in eyelashes and
facial hair rubbing against the cornea which can lead to corneal ulceration, corneal scarring ,
discomfort and impaired vision
A. Cataracts
B Entropion
C Ectropion
D Keratoconjuctivitis

310. ______________and ________- allow the eye to control entry of inflammatory cells,
protein and low molecular weight compounds from the systemic circulation
A. Blood aqueous and blood retinal barriers
B. Blood lens and blood aqueous barriers
C. Blood conjunctival and blood retinal barriers
D. Blood aqueous and blood conjunctival barriers

311. Anemia may be regenerative, indicating the bone marrow is responding and attempting
to replace red blood cells (RBCs), or nonregenerative, in which the bone marrow response is
not able to meet the increased need for RBCs. Which of the following CBC findings is
consistent with nonregenerative anemia?
A. Macrocytosis
B. Normochromia
C. Nucleated RBCs
D. Polychromasia

312. Which of the following clinical signs is most likely to be present in a cat with heart
disease?
A. Anorexia
B. Coughing
C. Excessive urination
D. Subcutaneous edema

313. Cystic endometrial hyperplasia is a secondary infection that occurs as a result of

hormonal changes. When does cystic endometrial hyperplasia occurs
A. Two to eight weeks before heat cycle
B. Two to eight weeks after last estrus
C. After eight weeks of the last estrus
D. Two weeks before estrus

62
314. Hemolytic anemia is typically a regenerative anemia that results from loss of RBCs that
is not due to bleeding. It is due to factors that accelerate RBC destruction. Which of the
following is the most common primary mechanism of hemolytic anemia in dogs?
A. Immune-mediated
B. Infection
C. Neoplasia
D. Toxins

315. ___________are group of hormones that is used lower the level of progesterone in the
blood relaxes and open cervix and cause uterus to contract therefore expelling the bacteria
and pus in case of pyometra
A. Estrogen
B. Oxytocin
C. Prostaglandin
D. Luteinizing hormone

316. A boy brought a dog with a history of giving birth before a weak and the bitch neglects
her off springs with signs of depression, fever, lethargy and inappetence. The tentative
diagnosis will be likely
A. False pregnancy
B. Mastitis
C Metritis
D Retained fetal membrane

317. Which of the following is the best way of managing and preventing eclampsia in queens
A. Iv fluids and injection of calcium
B. Oral calcium supplementation and weaning the kittens as soon as possible
C. Feeding of high-quality diet formulated for pregnant and nursing mothers
D. Separating the kittens few times per day and allowing her to eat

63
318. Laryngeal paralysis is a common disorder of older, large-breed dogs. Denervation of the
cricoarytenoideus dorsalis muscle of the larynx causes the vocal folds and arytenoid
cartilages to fail to abduct during inspiration, creating an upper airway obstruction. Although
the etiology is usually unknown, trauma and neoplasia can cause laryngeal paralysis. Which
of the following conditions can also cause laryngeal paralysis?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Hyperadrenocorticism
C. Hyperparathyroidism
D. Hypothyroidism

319. A toxin found in the saliva of some ticks can cause rapidly progressive paralysis, called
tick paralysis. Which of the following is the most appropriate management for tick paralysis?
A. Anticholinesterase drugs
B. Atropine
C. Prednisone
D. Removal of the tick

320. Which one of the following is not the component of haemostasis?

A. Blood vessel
B. Thrombocytes
C. Coagulase
D. Fibrinolytic factors

321.Which one of the following misrepresent microcytic hypochromic anemia?

A. Iron deficiency
B. Copper deficiency
C. Vitamin B6 deficiency
D. Severe Hemorrhage

322. Which of the following is not in the right combination with regard to tests used in
coagulation disorder?
A. APTT----Measure of intrinsic pathway
B. PT----Measure of extrinsic pathway
C. PT----Measure of common pathway
D. ACT---Measure of extrinsic pathway

64
323. Identify the causes of extravascular hemolysis among the following lists:
A. Anaplasmosis
B. Piroplasmosis
C. Leptospirosis
D. Bacillary hemoglobinuria

324. One of the following diseases/condition is not characterized by Disseminated

Intravascular Dissemination (DIC)?
A. Infectious canine hepatitis
B. Infection with Erysipelothrix rshusiopathie
C. Babesiosis
D. Warfarin poisoning

325. Regenerative anemia is an important finding in all except one:

A. Chronic diseases of kidney
B. White marrow damage
C. In hemolytic disorder
D. Sever hemorrhage

326. One of the following is different from the other?

A. Prothrombin
B. Thrombin
C. Fibrinogen
D. Plasmin

327. Which of the following is not the cause of Leukopenia?

A. Canine distemper
B. Bone marrow exhaustion
C. Sequestration of leucocytes in capillaries of lungs
D. Excitement and fear

328. Which of the following leads to eosinopenia?

A. Skin allergy
B. Fasciolosis
C. Decomposition of body proteins
D. Hyperadrenocorticism

65
329. Prolonged coagulation time is observed in all of the following with the exception of one:
A. Thrombocytosis
B. Severe liver disease
C. Vit. K deficiency
D. Advanced stage of DIC

330. Clinical hemorrhage and prolonged bleeding time occur when thrombocyte count is
A. less than 15,000/µl.
B. Less than 150,000/µl
C. Less than 5000/µl
D. Between 5000 to 10,000/µl

331. The mature form of red blood cells are also known as:
A. Erythrone
B. Erythrocytes
C. Reticulocytes
D. Rubricytes

332. Which of the following represent the right erythrocyte maturation sequence ?
E. Rubriblast-----› Rubricyte-----› Prorubricyte-----› Metarubricyte-----›Reticulocyte
F. Rubricyte -----› Metarubricyte -----› Prorubricyte-----› Rubriblast-----›Reticulocyte
G. Rubriblast-----› Prorubricyte -----› Rubricyte -----› Metarubricyte-----›Reticulocyte
H. Prorubricyte -----› Rubriblast -----›Reticulocyte -----› Rubricyte-----›Metarubricyte

333. Clotting factor VII is an important component of

A. Extrinsic coagulation pathway
B. Common Path way
C. Intrinsic path way
D. None

334. All glassware used in coagulation tests should be cleaned with

A. Hydrochloric acid, soap and water and rinsed with repeated tap water followed by distilled
water
B. Sulfuric acid, soap and water and rinsed with repeated tap water followed by distilled
water
C. Benzoic acid, soap and water and rinsed with repeated tap water followed by distilled
water
D. Carbonic acid, soap and water and rinsed with repeated tap water followed by distilled
water

66
335. One of the following is wrong about the microhematocrit method of PCV determination:
A. It is accurate and reproducible
B. It requires a minimum amount of blood
C. Results can be red very fast
D. It is easier to appreciate Icterus index

336. Which of the following is different fro the other concerning the causes of jaundice?
A. Babesiosis
B. Anaplasmosis
C. Equine infectious anemai
D. Fasciolosis

337. One of the following is a liver specific enzyme:

A. Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST)
B. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
C. Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)
D. Glutamate Dehydrogenase (GLDH)

338. In which of the following coagulation phases are fibrin formed?

A. Vascular phase
B. Clot retraction phase
C. Coagulation phase
D. Clot distraction phase

339. Which one of the following is not the component of haemostasis?

A. Blood vessel
B. Thrombocytes
C. Coagulase
D. Fibrinolytic factors

340. Retardation of erythrocyte sedimentation rate is not affected by

A. Room temperature
B. Protein in the blood
C. PH of blood
D. Glucose content of the blood

67
341. One is different from the other
A. Squash preparation
B. Fine needle aspiration
C. Needle spread
D. Starfish preparation

342. Not an appropriate causes of aplastic anemia

A. Bracken fern poisoning
B. Irradiation
C. Carcinogenic chemicals
D. Folic acid deficiency

343. Which of the following is not evident in anemia due to chronic blood loss?
A. Non-regenerative anemia
B. Hypochromic anemia
C. Microcytic anemia
D. Non-regenerative anemia

344. Which of the following conditions are characterized by regenerative anemia?

A. Chronic renal disease
B. Chronic inflammatory diseases
C. Neoplastic diseases
D. Trauma
345. Which of the following ration is wrongly matched with the color of ruminal liquor?
A. Hay----Olive to brownish green
B. Grain--- Yellowish brown color
C. Silage--- Yellowish brown color
D. Hay----Milk grey color

346. Elevated level of rumen chloride is an indication of all except:

A. Abomasal disease
B. Obstruction of intestinal flow
C. Abomasal reflux
D. Obstruction of the rumen

68
347. Decreased CSF/plasma glucose ratio (hypoglycorrhachia) is attributed to all except
A. CNS septic (pyogenic) infections
B. Brain tumors
C. TB meningitis
D. Viral meningitis

348. Elevated PH of ruminal liquor is associated with the following except:

A. Simple indigestion
B. Urea indigestion
C. Putrefaction of ruminal content
D. Grain over feeding

349. Increased CSF of protein corresponds to the following except:

A. Lysis of contaminant blood from traumatic tap
B. Increased permeability of epithelial membrane
C. Increased production by CNS tissue
D. Obstruction as in cases of Tumors or abscess
E. Severe trauma to brain tissue

350. Which of the following is the best marker for epididydmal function?
A. Acid phosphatase
B. Zinc
C. α-Glucosidase
D. Fructose

351. In which of the following one will not usually observe change in protein content of
CSF?
A. Bacterial meningitis
B. Brain tumor
C. Viral meningitis
D. Tuberculous meningitis

69
352. Choose the wrongly matched combination of odor and related condition upon rumien
liquor examination
A. Ammonia smell-------Urea poisoning
B. Moldy rotting-------protein putrefaction
C. Sour odor-------excess lactic acid
D. Sweetish odor--------rumen impaction

353. One of the following is the best stain in sperm morphology analysis:
A. Hematoxylin-eosin mixture
B. Wright’s stain
C. Giemsa stain
D. Eosin-nigrosin mixture

354. Which of the following is true with regard to the prostatic fluid in the semen?
A. pH slightly acidic to neutral
B. Contains fructose
C. Contains citric acid
D. Contains zinc

355. Increased in the content of chloride in the milk is an indicator of

A. Mastitic milk.
B. Normal milk exposed to high temperature
C. Milk with high acidity
D. In dairy cows fed with high chloride ration

356. In the cytology of CSF predominance of lymphocytes is evident during one of the
following:
A. Fungal meningitis
B. Parasitic meningitis
C. Bacterial meningitis
D. Viral meningitis

70
357. Sperm concentration is accurately measured using
A. Hemocytometer
B. Motility test
C. Volumetric test
D. Microscopic examination

358. Increased in the content of chloride in the milk is an indicator of

A. Mastitic milk.
B. Normal milk exposed to high temperature
C. Milk with high acidity
D. In dairy cows fed with high chloride ration

359. Upon serum analysis during myocardial infarction.

A. Increased ALT is evident
B. Increased AST is evident
C. Normal ALT is evident
D. Normal AST is evident

360. Because CSF is ultrafiltrate of plasma coagulation,

A. It coagulates few minutes after collection.
B. It will never coagulate after collection
C. Its contents are identical to plasma
D. Its contents are by far more than the plasma

361. LD1 and LD2 isoenzymes are primarily located in:

A. Liver
B. Skeletal Muscle
C. Brain tissue
D. Cardiac muscle

71
362.Which one of the following is not a cause of polyuria?
A. Diabetes insipidus
B. Acute interstitial nephritis
C. Diabetes mellitus
D. Chronic interstitial nephritis

363. Which of the following represents the wrong combination?

A. Test for peripheral blood uptake-----urea
B. Test for portal blood clearance----bile acids
C. Tests for hepatic synthesis------serum glucose
D. Test for peripheral blood uptake-----serum bilirubin

364. What is the best liver function test for routine use?
A. Serum albumin test
B. Bile acid test
C. Determination of urea level
D. Determination of clotting factors
E. All are answers

365. Which of the following conditions are responsible for decrease in specific gravity of
urine?
A. Diabetes mellitus
B. Dehydration
C. Fever
D. Hypovolemic shock

366. Where do the renal tubules modify the concentration of urea in the initial glomerular
filtrate?
A. Proximal tubules
B. Descending limb of Henle’s loop
C. Thin ascending limb of Henle’s loop
D. A and C
E. All are answers

72
367. Which of the following is wrong about California mastitis test?
A. Gel is formed by the reaction of alkyl aryl in the CMT reagent with bacterial cell
B. It is the routine method used to determine the sub-clinical form of mastitis
C. Can be used to determine the somatic cell count (SCC)
D. It is a rapid and accurate cow-side test

368. Lack of sedimentation in the rumen liquor examination is indicative of?

A. Frothy bloat
B. Ruminal acidosis
C. Gaseous bloat
D. Inactive microflora

369. Which of the following is not responsible for an increased in the value creatinine in the
blood?
A. Impaired renal blood flow
B. Obstruction of urinary system
C. Primary renal disease with reduced GFR
D. Unilateral obstruction of urethra
26. One of the following is a liver specific enzyme:
A. Aspartate Aminotransferase (AST)
B. Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH)
C. Alanine Aminotransferase (ALT)
D. Glutamate Dehydrogenase (GLDH)

370. Which of the following represents the unorganized form of urine?

A. Casts
B. Fat droplets
C. Leucocytes
D. Bacteria

371. Identify the wrongly matched color of urine and the corresponding conditions?
A. Pale yellow to yellow brown---Normal color
B. Colorless to pale----Diabetes insipidus
C. Dark yellow to yellow brown----Dehydration
D. Yellow brown to greenish yellow----Decreased fluid intake

73
372. Which of the following is wrong about clinically useful leakage enzymes
A. ALT is a liver specific leakage enzyme in dogs and Cat
B. SDH is a liver specific leakage enzyme in ruminants
C. AST is a very specific leakage enzyme in ruminants
D. SDH is a liver non-specific leakage enzyme in dogs and cats

373. Identify the fungi which is usually affects the nerve system of animals.
(A) Microsporum spp (B) Trichophyton verrucosum
(C) Cryptococcus neoformans (D) Candida

374. Which one of the following bacteria don’t produce classical toxins in the disease
process?
(A) Salmonella Typhimurium (B) Clostridium tetani (C) Brucella abortus (D) None

375. Endospore swelling of the vegetative cell is observed in ______?

(A) Bacillus anthracis (B) Listeria species (C) Clostridium species (D) Bacillus cereus

376. In which of the following animal diseases, antibiotic therapy is not usually practiced?
(A) Listeriosis (B) Botulism (C) Colibacillosis (D) Salmonellosis (E) none

377. The bacteria which cannot survive in hot environment (>30 oC) is ______ ?
(A) Dermotophilus congolensis (B) Mycobacterium bovis (C) Nocardia asteroides (D)
Leptospira spp

378. The bacteria in which egg-based media is used for isolation is____?
(A) Dermatophilus congolensis (B) Leptospira spp (C) Candida (D)
Mycobacterium bovis

379. On gram staining, “filamentous” patterns are characteristic of

_____________________?
(A) Dermatophytes (B) Brucella spp (C) Dermatophilus spp (D) “A” and “C” (E) All

380. Nutrient agar support’s well the growth of _______?

(A) Leptospira spp (B) Mycobacterium spp (C) Brucella (D) None

74
381. Identify the bacteria which is mainly transmitted by the feces of animals?
(A) Dermotophilus congolensis (B) Mycobacterium paratuberculosis (C) Brucella abortus
(D) None

382. Identify the specimen which is unsuitable for the isolation of Listeria from dead animals
(A) Milk B) Placenta C) Foetal abomasal contents D) Kidney

383. A bacterium which causes sever gastro-intestinal damages in animals is ____?

(A) Dermatophilus congolensis B) E. coli O15:H7 C) Clostridium tetani D) All

384. The common effect of infection due to Brucella in animals is ______?

A) Abortion B) Diarrhoea C) Caseous lymphadenitis D) Mastitis

385. Which one of the following bacteria can grow in foods stored at refrigeration
temperature?
A) Bacillus anthracis B) Listeria monocytogenes C) E. coli D) Salmonella

386. The following bacteria shows different morphological characteristics. Which one?
(A) Salmonella B) Edwardsiella C) E. coli D) None
387. Among the following bacterial species, one cannot grow on MacConkey agar. Which
one?
(A) Bacillus cereus (B) Listeria (C) Clostridium tetani (D) All (E)
none

388. Identify the specimen which is suitable for the diagnosis of Anthrax from live animals
(A) Milk B) oedematous fluid C) Placenta D) Liver

389. The following drug is highly effective in killing of Bacillus anthracis

(A) Tetracycline B) Penicillin G C) Vancomycin D) None

390. Identify the wrong matching from the following items

A. Cryptococcus neoformans inhabits soil with bird droppings
B. Ehrlichia ruminantium Vector borne
C. Aspergillus flavusSexually transmitted
D. Leptospira  Survival is limited to moist environment

75
391. Leptospira species are best cultured on
A. blood agar B. Nutrient agar C. MacConkey Agar D. None

392. The following organism is known to affect only the skin of animals
(A) Nocardia asteroides B) Cryptococcus neoformans C) Dermatophilus congolensis D)
none

393. The organism known to produce a toxin that blocks the delivery of neurotransmitters
is__________
(A) Clostridium tetani (B) Clostridium botulinum (C) Shigella (D) Bordetella

394. An organism that is less likely to be transmitted to animals from the external
environment is_
(A) Brucella abortus (B) Leptospira spp (C) Candida (D) Mycobacterium bovis

395. An organism that is known to affect the lymphatic system of its host is _______
(A) Haemophilus (B) Penicillium (C) Histaplasma farciminosum (D) Erysipelothrix

396. Identify correct statement about Actinobacilli species

A) Are gram positive rod/coccobacilli
B) Animals get infected by Actinobacilli from their environments
C) Are difficult to isolate in commonly used culture media such as blood and Macconkey
agar
D) CAMP test with Staphylococcus aureus is used to differentiate Actinobacilli species
E) None

397. Identify correct statement about fungi

A) The growth requirements of most fungi in culture media is usually neutral pH (pH=7)
B) Most fungi require enriched media for isolation
C) Most fungi are labile (easily damaged) in the environment
D) fungi use light to generate energy
E) All F) None

76
398. Identify incorrect statement about Dermatophytes
A) Are gram positive organisms
B) Mainly inhabits the mucus membranes of animals
C) Are strict aerobes
D) Grow slowly on sabouraud dextrose agar

399. Which one of the following viruses is transmitted by insect vectors?

(A) Rift valley fever virus (B) African horse sickness virus (C) Bluetongue virus
(D) All

400. Identify the virus responsible for profuse, watery diarrhea in calves?
(A) Rabies virus (B) Bluetongue virus (C) Coronavirus (D) Foot and mouth disease
virus

401. One of the following virus family is not affecting cattle?

(A) Paramyxoviridae (B) Bunyaviridae (C) Rahabdoviridae (D) None

402. Which one of the following viruses is known to affect the respiratory system of animals
(A) African horse sickness virus (B) Infectious bursal disease virus (C) Rotavirus (D)
All

403. Which cells/tissue of animals are readily/easily affected by pox virus

(A) liver cell (B) blood vessels (C) epidermal cells (D) adipocytes
404. Which of the following is not a DNA virus?
(A) Adenovirus (B) Paramyxovirus (C) Papilloma virus (D) Poxvirus

405. Identify the virus with morphological feature not conforming icosahedral or helical
symmetry?
(A) Pox virus (B) Adenovirus (C) Paramyxovirus (D) A&B (E) A&C

406. Which one of the following statements doesn’t characterize herpesvirus?

77
(A) enveloped (B) have an icosahedral symmetry
(C) transmit from one animal to other by coitus
(D) Produce persistent infection (E) None

407. Which of the following animals cannot be considered as reservoir/amplifier host for
Ebola virus?
(A) Monkey (B) Bat (C) Pigs (D) Goat (E. None

408. Identify incorrect statement about Rhabdoviruses

(A) are relatively stable in the environment when the pH is alkaline
(B) viruses are thermolabile
(C) resistance to the ultraviolet irradiation of sunlight.
(D) enveloped

409. Which one of the following viruses is considered as agent of viral hemorrhagic fever?
(A) African horse sickness virus (B) Infectious bursal disease virus (C) Rotavirus (D)
Ebola virus

410. Digital hyperkeratosis of all dog footpads is symptom of infection due to__________?
(A) Foot-and-mouth disease virus (B) Canine Distemper Virus (C) Adenovirus (D)
Parvovirus

411. The following virion contains three capsid layer

(A) Bluetongue virus (B) Pox virus (C) Adenovirus (D) Rinderpest virus

412. filamentous /thread like morphology is the feature of __________________

A. Ebola virus B. Rinderpest virus C. Reoviridae D. Coronaviridea

413. A virus known to develop an infectious cycle only in chickens (Gallus gallus) is
(A) Avian paramyxovirus 1 (B) Avian influenza (C) Infectious bursal disease virus D)
Marek’s diseases virus

414. _______________are probably present in all vertebrate genomes.

78
(A) Reoviridae (B) Paramyxoviridae (C) Retrovirus(D) Coronavirus

415. Swelling of the coronary region of the hoof in sheep is resulted from infection by _____
(A) Rinder pest virus (B) Corona virus (C) Bluetongue virus (D) PPR virus

416. Identify incorrect statement

A. Herpesvirus virion survives little outside the host animal.
B. The use of detergent based disinfectants is effective for inactivation of Rabies virus.
C. Papillomavirus are susceptible to lipid solvents.
D. Asfavirus survival is maintained between arthropod vector and host animals.

417. ______________ are the main source of MERS-Cov for humans and other animals.
(A) Cattle (B) dogs (C) camel (D) pigs

418. The isomer of nucleocapsid in ________________is conforming to icosahedral

symmetry.
(A) Influenza virus (B) Rhabdoviruses (C) pox virus (D) Picornaviruses

419. A virus having preference for rapidly dividing cell is__________?

(A) Foot-and-mouth disease virus(B) Canine Distemper Virus (C) Adenovirus (D) Parvovirus

420. Club shaped surface spikes/crown/ are prominent in ________________

(A) Influenza virus (B) Rhabdoviruses (C) pox virus (D) Coronaviridea

421. The virus family containing large number of arborviruses is ______

(A) Orthomyxoviridae virus (B) Rhabdoviridea (C) Bunyaviridae (D) Coronaviridea

422. Identify incorrect matching

A. Bovine herpesvirus 1 pustular vulvovaginitis
B. Paramyxovirus Infectious bovine rhinotracheitis
C. Papillomaviruses warts
D. Bovine herpesvirus 2 Bovine mammillitis

423. _________toxication affects the pathogenesis of Papillomavirus infection in cattle

79
 (A) Lantana camara (B) bracken fern (C) Cyanide (D) Nitrate

424. One of the following virus family is not affecting sheep?

(A) Paramyxoviridae (B) Bunyaviridae (C) Rahabdoviridae (D) None

425. _______________ virus is highly transmitted by treatment needle inoculation

A. Canine distemper B. Feline immunodeficiency C. Rabies D. FMD

426. Identify correct statement about Prion disease

A. The causative agent is a small viral particle
B. Immunization is one of the current protocols in controlling the disease
C. Autoclaving of is necessary to eliminate the causative agent from animal tissues
D. The diseases is not contagious

427. Which one of the following viruses is transmitted by mosquito vectors?

(A) Rift valley fever virus (B) African swine fever virus
(C) Bluetongue virus (D) Crimean-Congo haemorrhagic fever

428. Tick eradication is not helpful the control of _______________-

(A) Louping ill (B). Nairobi sheep disease (C)African horse sickness (D). Crimean-Congo
hemorrhagic fever

429. Which one of the following is false about Hill’s causal criteria?
A. The same associations in different studies support causality
B. A strong association between exposure and outcome increases the likelihood that the
exposure is a cause of that outcome.
C. The effect must precede its cause
D. The risk of disease increased directly with the level of exposure

430. Which one of the following can serve as a primary source of infection for Fasciolosis.
A. Stagnant water B. F. Hepatica C. feed trough D. Snail

80
431. In which of the following conditions that the slope of the ascending phase of epi curve
becomes steeper
A. long incubation periods
B. Diseases with common source of infection
C. Diseases with Sparsely populated populations
D. Low numbers of new disease

432. Which one of the following is false about Epi curve

A. In descending phase of the curve the herd immunity of the population becomes
increased
B. In ascending phase of the curve the herd immunity of the population becomes
increased
C. At the endemic phase phases of the disease the animals are sub-clinically infected
D. In Plateau phase of the disease we attain the maximum number of cases.

433. A population of 500 cattle at Haramaya woreda was investigated for mastitis on
Decemer.16/2022 and 5 cases of mastitis were detected. Based on this scenario, which one is
true?
A. The probability of any animal in the population picked by chance to have mastitis is 0.1
B. The probability of any animal in the population picked by chance to have mastitis is 0.02.
C. The probability of any animal in the population picked by chance to have mastitis is 0.01.
D. The probability of any animal in the population picked by chance to have mastitis is 0.2.

434. What will be the cumulative incidence of a disease, if there had been 10 new cases of
an illness in a cattle population of 1,000 in a farm?
A. 0.1 B. 0.01 C. 1 D. 0.5

435. Based on question number 7, which one of the following is correct

A. The probability of any animal in the population picked by chance to have a disease is 0.1.
B. The risk of developing new disease in the population is 0.1
C. The probability of any animal in the population picked by chance to have a disease is 0.01.
D. The risk of developing new disease in the population is 0.01

81
436. Brucellosis was diagnosed in 10 cattle from November 1st until November 31/ 2020
in X dairy farm. The population of cattle in the farm was 2000. What is the incidence rate of
Brucellosis in X dairy farm in this period?
A. 0. 5 per 1000 per month C. 0.17 per 1000 per day
B. 5 per 100 per month D. 0.17 per 100 per day

437. Which one of the following is false about the principles of Epidemiology
A. Disease does not occur in a random fashion
B. Disease is preventable
C. Disease is caused by a single factors or determinants
D. The cause of disease have changed and evolved over time.

438. Which one of the following is not the limitations of Koch’s postulates
A. Micro-organisms were assumed to be the sole causes of diseases
B. Ignored multifactorial etiology
C. Applicable for non-infectious Diseases
D. Ignored the influence of environmental factors,

439. In which one of the following phases of the epicurve that we get maximum numbers
of cases
A. Ascending phase
B. Descending phase
C. Threshold phase
D. Plateau phase

440. Disease was the product of a displeased supreme being ( punishment for sinful
behavior) is
A. Demons theory
B. Metaphysical medicine theory
C. The universe of natural law theory
D. Divine wrath theory

441. Total population of dogs in Harar for 2020 EC, taken in December was 1000, from this
25 of them were died due to distemper. Calculate the cause specific mortality rate due to
distemper
A.5% B. 2.5% C.3.5% D. 1.5%

82
442. You are assigned at Haramaya University dairy farm to diagnose clinical mastitis and
you start your diagnosis on December 2022 and you get 25 case/1000 cows during your
first diagnosis and you follow the caw for a year and you get 15 additional cases during your
follow up period. Based on the above statement, calculate the cumulative incidence of
mastitis at Haramaya university dairy farm
A. 0.015 C. 0.045
B. 0.05 D. 0.034

443. Based on question number 17 what is the prevalence of mastitis at Haramaya university
dairy farm?
A. 0.04% C. 4%
B. 0.03% D. 3%

444. Which one of the following data is not important to design a disease control or
eradication program in an animal population?
A. Extent of the disease in that population,
B. Factors associated with its occurrence,
C. Facilities required to control the disease
D. Costs and benefits involved.
E. Non

445. Which one of the following can be the primary determinants of disease?
A. Sex C. Infectious agents
B. Age D. Body Condition

446. Due to cold environmental condition in December 2022, an outbreak of cattle

pasteurellosis is occurred in Haramaya district. Based on this scenario what you can say
about the Epidemiological triangle.
A. The environment in-favors the agent
B. The environment in-favors the host
C. The agent and host co -exist harmoniously on the environment
D. Non

83
447. Black leg is a disease caused by Clostridium chauvoei and cattle which are less than 2
years of age with good nutritional condition (well muscular ones) are more susceptible and
the disease is mostly occurred in dry season where the ground grass is scarce. Based on the
this scenario what is/are the primary (necessary) causes of the disease?
A. season
B. age
C. body condition
D. Clostridium chauvoei

448. Based on question number 20 what are the host risk factors of the disease?
A. Species, age, body condition
B. Agent, age, body condition
C. Season, body condition, age
D. Season, age, agent

449. The cumulative incidence of clinical mastitis at Y dairy farm in this year is 0.20, what it
will be after three years
A. 0.39
B. 0.29
C. 0.49
D. 0.59

450. The regular frequency of occurrence of the disease in a population is termed as

A. Pandemic C. Epidemic
B. Endemic D. Sporadic

451. Which one of the following can be a point source epidemic?

A. FMD outbreak in cattle
B. Trypnosoms outbreak in cattle
C. Botulism intoxication in cattle due to a batch of meal contamination
D. Hemorrhagic septicemia outbreak in cattle

452. In which one of the following conditions that the incubation periods of disease will
become short
A. Low pathogenic agent
B. High resistance of the host.
C. High dose of infectious agent.
D. Low virulence of the agent

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453. Identify the wrong statement
A) Agar does not ensure any essential nutrients for the growth of bacteria
B)Dry heat confers best method ofsterilization than moist heat sterilization
C) Bacteria canbepreserved best at -70°C
D) Bacteria grow on inert media
454. One of following bacteria can be grouped in large sized rods

A) Enterobacteriacae B)Actinomycetes C)Spirochaetes D) Clostridium

455.The two corner-stones on which modern microbiology is based are:

A) Francesco Redi’sexperiments on decaying meat and Pasteur's germ theory of disease
B) Rudolf Virchow’s concept of biogenesis and Koch's postulates
C) Koch's postulates and Pasteur's germ theory of disease
D) Aristotle’s theory of spontaneous generation and Antony Leeuwenhoek’s principle

456. One of the following bacteria is acidophilic

A) Thermococcus B) Staphylococcus
C) Micrococcus D) Helicobacter pylori

457. A growth medium that serves as both selective and differential.

A)MacConkey agar B) Nutrient agar C)Tryptose agar D) Mannitol salt agar

458. One of the following statements is wrongabout prokaryotic cells

A) Prokaryotic cells possess 70s ribosomes in their mitochondria

B) Prokaryotic cells do not have clear nuclear membrane in their cytoplasm
C) Prokaryotic cells nucleic acid is mostly circular
D)All

459. Not true statement about Staphylococcus species

A) Motile, oxidase- positive, form spores D) Some are anaerobic
B) The pathogenic ones are catalase-positive C) S. aureusis haemolytic

460. A structure in which an endotoxin resides and considered as major constituent of the
outer membrane of bacterium that aids stabilize membrane structure

A) The core polysaccharide B) Lipid A of LPS

C) O side chain polysaccharides D) Lipopolysaccharide

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461. Means of recombination in which incorporation of bacterial genetic material (DNA)
from a donor bacterium into the nucleic acid of a bacteriophage to susceptible recipient cell is
termed as

A) Conjugation B) Transduction C) Transformation D) Transposons

462. A special class of proteins, which produce non-specific aqueous diffusion channels
across the membrane

A) Porins B) Peptidoglycan C) Teichoicacids

D) Lipo-protein

463. The genes, which are required for insertion into the plasmid, can be produced by
cleaving donor DNA containing the genes using

A) Jumping genes B) Restriction enzymes C) Cloning vector

DHormones

464. One of the following statements is mismatched

A) Mycobacterium-mycolic acid
B) Leptospira-Spiralshaped
C) Mycobacterium - Lacks cell wall structure
D) Bacillus - Ca with dipicolinicacid

465) The most responsible element that confers heat resistance nature of bacterial endospores
(1pt)

A) K+ B) Na+ C) Ca2+ D) Carbon

466) Exudative epidermitis is a disease of pig caused by:

A) S. aureus B) S. epidermidis C) S. hyicus D) All

467) Not true statement about Streptococcus

A) Morphologically long chain
B) Stable in the environment for long period of time
C) Susceptible to desiccation and survive only for short periods
D) Possess thick polysaccharide capsules

468) Complete removal or destruction of all viable microorganisms which can be applied on
inanimate objects

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A) Disinfection B) Antisepsis C) Sterilization D) Chemotherapy
469) Identify the wrong statement
A) Enterococcusis gram positive bacteria that grow on MacConkey agar
B) Mycobacterium species can be demonstrated best in smears using the Modified Ziehl-
Neelsen stain
C) Beta-hemolysis is indicated by clear zones with complete hemolysis around colonies in
Streptococcus
D) All

470) Which one of the following bacteria is psychrophiles?

A) Vibrio B) Pseudomonas C) Bacillus D) All
471)An antibiotic that acts oncell wall synthesis
A) Gentamycin B) Tetracycline C) Cephalosporin D) Sulphonamide

472) Of the following alternatives pick out the incorrect one about bacterial plasmid
A) Replicate independently B) Serve to produce vaccinesand hormones
C) Carry antimicrobial resistance genes D) All

473) Amicroaerophile organism that is damaged by the normal atmospheric O 2 level and
require O2 levels below the range of 2 to 10% for growth.
A) Campylobacter B) Bacteroides C) Clostridium D)
Thermococcus

_______474) A drug that interfere with the formation of folic acid

A) Chloramphenicol B) Sulphonamide/trimethoprim C)
Ciprofloxacin D) Thermococcus

475) Bestselective medium used for the isolation of Staphylococcus aureus

A) Edwards medium B) Mannitol salt agar C) TSI agar D) Enriched medium

476) One of the following statement is correctconcerning exotoxins

A) Heat-labile B) Proteins, usually of high molecular weight

C) Weakly antigenic D) Converted into toxoids

477) Which of the following statement is wrong about antimicrobial agents?

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A) Individual antibacterial agents are not effective against all pathogenic bacteria
B) Penicillin inhibits cell wall synthesis by acting on peptidoglycan
C) Biochemical differences in metabolic pathways between mammalian and bacterial cells
account for selective antibacterial toxicity
D) Aminoglycosides bind to 50s ribosomal subunits and affect protein synthesis

478. The expected response of the heart to systolic pressure overload is

A. Concentric hypertrophy
B. Eccentric hypertrophy
C. Myocardial dilatation
D. All

479. Identify the wrongly paired cause and sequela.

A. Tricuspid vegetative valvular endocarditis  septic pulmonary embolism

B. Aortic vegetative valvular endocarditis  renal infarction
C. Mitral vegetative valvular endocarditis  renal infarction
D. Tricuspid vegetative valvular endocarditis  myocardial infarction
E. Right heart failure  nutmeg liver

480. The following events happen in ventricular septal defect (VSD) which is the most
common cardiac malformation in large domestic animals. Read them carefully and

88
 choose the letter which shows the right arrangement (from earliest to latest
pathogenetic event).
i. Blood flow reverse to a right to left direction
ii. Bluish discoloration of the visible mucus membranes (cyanosis).
iii. Eccentric hypertrophy of right ventricle.
iv. Blood flows from left to right through a VSD due to higher left ventricle
pressures.
v. Deoxygenated blood reaches the systemic circulation.
vi. Right ventricular volume overload happens.

The correct arrangement will be:

A. i, vi, iii, iv, v and ii.
B. vi, iii, iv, i, v and ii.
C. iv, vi, iii, i, v and ii.
D. iii, vi, iv, i, v and ii.

481. Which of the following is falseregardingpulmonary emphysema?

A. The volume of affected lung increases.
B. It is alveolar hyperinflation accompanied by rupture of alveolar walls.
C. It can be caused by pneumothorax.
D. Appears grossly puffy and ruptured alveoli can be seen histologically.

482. Which of the following isnotdirectly responsibleforpulmonary edema?

a. Congestive heart failure
b. Acute inflammation
c. Some circulating toxins or viruses
d. Poisoning by nitrogen dioxide or silo gas
e. Protein loss

483. Cranioventral distribution of bronchopneumonia in animals is largely explained by:

a. Centripetal forces
b. Centrifugal forces
c. Gravitational forces
d. All

484. A type of pneumonia resulted from entrance of materials that were normally supposed to
end in GIT into the lungs is called
a. Granulomatous pneumonia

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 b. Aspiration pneumonia
c. Tuberculous pneumonia
d. Interstitial pneumonia

485. During lung inspection, the affected parts were found to be homogenously dark-red,
flabby and sunken from the surrounding healthy tissue. In addition, they were firm to touch,
meat-like and sink in water. Besides, many round worms were recovered from the
bronchioles and bronchi of the lung. Based on this information, what do you call this
abnormality of the lung?
a. Oedema
b. Emphysema
c. Congestion
d. Atelectasis
e. Infarction

486. Find the mismatched combination

a. End stage liver  cirrhosis
b. Ptyalism  rabies
c. Lumpy jaw  Actinomycosis
d. Wooden tongue Actinobacillosis
e. Rubber jaw  Actinomycosis

487. What is polyodontia?

a. Many ears
b. Many teeth
c. Many digits
d. Many teats

488. Find a not true statement regarding bloat or ruminal tympany:

a. Plants high in soluble proteins are responsible for primary or froth bloat.
b. Free gas bloat can be caused by esophageal obstruction.
c. Postmortem finding of ‘bloat line’ indicates the bloat happened after death.
d. It is a life-threatening condition leading to death.

489. Which type if diarrhea can be caused by Salmonella?

a. Malabsorptive diarrhea
b. Secretory diarrhea
c. Effusive diarrhea
d. Psychogenic diarrhea
e. All except D

490. Diarrhea is so life-threatening in young animals than adults mainly because:

a. Only young animals are exposed to diarrhea causing pathogens.

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 b. Young animals have lower body water compared to adults.
c. The immunity is under developed to fight off the causative agents.
d. It takes longer for proliferative compartment to replace the lost intestinal cells.

491. Telescopingof one segment of bowel into an outersheath formed by another is:
a. Intussusception
b. Volvulus
c. Twisting
d. Hernia

492. The terminal lesion following the intestinal torsion is:

a. Dry gangrene
b. Wet gangrene
c. Gas gangrene
d. None

493. Which of the following is characteristic signs of dehydration?

a. Sunken eyes
b. Sticky subcutaneous tissues
c. Increased capillary refill time
d. All

494. A congenital complete segmental obstruction of the lumen of the digestive tract is called
a. Choke
b. Stenosis
c. Atresia
d. Hernia

The following two questions (495-496) are to be answered based on the information given in
the following box. Read carefully and answer the question accordingly.

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A 6-month old feeder lamb found dead on pasture. At necropsy, lamb was in poor body
condition or emaciated. Mucous membranes were pale. Fluctuant, non-painful, swollen
area in inter-mandibular and ventral neck regions. As the necropsy progressed the tissues
were noted to be very pale which is indicative of profound anemia. There was also marked
indication of generalized edema. Up on opening the abomasum, red-white “barber-pole”
appearing parasites were observed with abundant brown-black fluid. A histologic section
of the skin showed marked dermal edema with marked dilation of the lymphatics. The
result of blood collected before the death of the lamb showed reduced red blood cell
count.
495. The parasite that caused the given pathological condition is:
a. Haemonchuscontortus
b. Ostertagiaostertagi
c. Spirocercalupi
d. Gasterophilusintestinalis

496. The generalized edema caused is mainly attributed to:

a. Red blood cell loss
b. Obstruction of lymphatic drainage
c. Increased hydrostatic pressure
d. Decreased plasma colloid-osmotic pressure
497. Considering their microanatomical location, which area of the hepatic lobule is the most
vulnerable to anoxia and nutritional compromise?
a. The hepatocytesaround the central vein
b. The hepatocytesaround the portal triad
c. The hepatocytes of the mid-zonal area
d. All hepatocytes in each lobule are equally affected.
498. Which one of the following statements is false regarding urinary system pathology?
a. Urethroliths are more common in male animals than in females.
b. Urinary tract infection is common in male animals than in females.
c. Renal failure is responsible for softening of the mandible called rubber jaw.
d. Bracken fern causes bleeding cystic tumor of the urinary bladder.

499. Suppose you are a veterinarian employed in one of the SPANA (Society for the
Protection of Animals Abroad) projects in Ethiopia. The carthorse owner came and explained

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the case to you that he had been giving his working carthorse highly concentrated feeds. Then
he rested his horse during the weekend with no feed change and suddenly took the horse to
heavy work on Monday. He added, the horse had painful cramps and urine was dark colored
just before death which gave you a clue that there was myoglobinuria. Based on these
considerations, what is the name of this disease?

a. White muscle disease

b. Von Recklinghausen’s disease
c. Monday morning disease
d. Miller’sdisease
500. If you note reddish urine only at the beginning of urination, the hematuria is originated
from:
a. Ureter
b. Kidney
c. Urethra
d. Urinary bladder
501. The presence of urinary constituents in the blood andtheir toxic effects is called:
a. Uremia
b. Azotemia
c. Hypersthenuria
d. Hyposthenuria
502. Thrombosis due to glomerular disease is attributed to:
a. loss of calcium.
b. loss of albumin.
c. loss of thrombin.
d. loss of anti-thrombin III.
503. Important organ or material to collect in diagnosing abortion is
a. Placenta
b. Stomach content of the fetus
c. Visceral organs of the fetus
d. Serum from the dam
e. All of the above
504. Which of the following is false regarding the general rules about infectious abortions?
a. Bacterial and mycotic infections usually compromise the placenta.

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 b. Viral infections usually move through the placenta and then kill fetus.
c. Mares get bacterial and mycotic infections of the placenta through thecervix.
d. Cows get bacterial and mycotic infections of the placenta systemically.
e. None of the above
505. Which of the following is incorrect regarding necrosis of the brain tissue?
a. The special term for necrosis in the brain is calledmalacia.
b. Neither fibroplasia nor scarring happen in the brain necrosis.
c. There is scarring because neurons do not regenerate.
d. Dead tissue is consumed and cleanedup leaving a hole in the brain.
506. Clostridium botulinum causes flaccid paralysis because
a. The toxin depletes ATP needed for muscle contraction.
b. The toxin prevents the release of acetylcholine onto the motor endplate.
c. The toxin depletes ATP needed for muscle relaxation.
d. The toxin interferes with thiamin availability to the nervous system.
507. The manifestations of nutritional osteodystrophy include
a. Osteoporosis
b. Rickets
c. Osteomalacia
d. Fibrous osteodystrophy
e. All
508. Which one not correct regarding infection of bones and/or joints?
a. Both can get infectedby a puncture from the outside.
b. Both can get infected bycirculating bacteria in the blood.
c. Bone infection can spread and cause arthritis.
d. The healing of bone is by far quicker than healing in other tissues.
509. Which of the following is false about rabies?
a. It is one of the most dangerous viral encephalitis.
b. The virus reaches the CNS through retrograde axonal transport.
c. It is usually dumb rabiesin dogs and furious form in cattle and sheep.
d. Negri bodies can be visible in brain histopathology sections

510. Atrophy of skeletal muscle can be caused by

a. Senility

94
 b. Wasting disease and starvation
c. Absence of blood and nerve supply
d. Disuse and pressure
e. All
511. The incorrect statement about maternal behavior in animals is:
a. It is characterized by sudden onset
b. It is genetically pre-determined
c. The quality can be improved through experience
d. Visual cues are crucial for the recognition of the newborn
512. Visual signals are:
a. Short lasting and fast travelling
b. Short lasting and slow travelling
c. Long lasting and fast travelling
d. Long lasting and slow travelling
513. What signals might be best employed by a nocturnal forest animal seeking to identify its
territory?
A. Visual and Olfactory B. Auditory and Olfactory
C. Tactile and Olfactory D. Visual and auditory
514. Learning in which an animal associates its own behaviour with a particular outcome is:
A. insight B. Classical conditioning C. Operant conditioning D. imprinting
515. One of the following statements is not true
A. All behavioural activities in animals are directed to satisfying a need or obtaining a
reward.
B. Innate behaviour involves a collection of responses that are predetermined genetically.
C. Instinctive behaviour patterns are not completely inflexible.
D. “Olfaction is to animals what writing is to humans”.
516. Hunger and thirst are two examples of

A. Directed taxis
B. random kinesis
C. behavioral stimuli
D. circadian rhythm
517. Animals move from a less desirable location to a more desirable location by means of
A. Courtship displays

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B. kinesis and taxis
C. biological clocks
D. circadian rhythm

518. Most behaviors occur in response to what kind of stimuli?

A. external and internal B. secondary and internal
C. varied and external D.isolated and internal

519. The daily cycle of activity that occurs over a 24-hour period of time is called a
A. kinesis behavior B. circadian rhythm C. stimulus-response D taxis behavior .

520. Which of these stimuli is most likely to trigger hibernation behavior?

A. shorter days B. higher temperatures C. lack of food D. reduced heartbeat

521. Which phrase best describes an instinctive behavior?

A. typically innate and relatively inflexible
B. generally learned flexible and cumulative
C. usually performed incorrectly for the first time
D. often occurs where mistakes are not costly

522. Habituation and imprinting illustrate that behaviors are made up of what?
A. unchanging responses to preset stimuli
B.both innate and learned components
C. simple responses to complex stimuli
D. reversible stimulus-response learning

523. Animals are able to adapt to new situations because they can learn to
A. modify their behaviors
B. perform innate behaviors
C .imitate their parents
D. imprint on individuals

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524. A process in which an animal learns to associate a previously neutral stimulus with a
behavior that was once triggered by a different stimulus is called
A. parental conditioning
B. habitual imprinting
C. classical conditioning
D. role model imitation

525. Some behavior patterns appear only after a specific developmental stage or time. This
stage or time is called:
(a) Imprinting • (b) maturation . (c) Learning (d) Instinct

526. The change of behavior by life experiences is called:

(a) Instinct (b) maturation (c) Learning (d) Imprinting

527. The decrease in response to repeated or continuous stimulation is called:

(a) Instinct (B) maturation (C) habituation (d) Imprinting

528. The uses cognitive or mental processes to associate experiences andsolve problems are
called:
(a) Instinct (b) maturation (c) habituation (d) insight

529. The behavior in which one animal is aggressive or attacks another animal, the other
responds by returning the aggression or submitting is called:
(a) agnostic (b) Territory (c) Hierarchy (d) Altruism

530. The organization of group of animals in such a way that some members of the group
have greater access to resources like food or mates than others is called:
(a) Agnostic (b) Territory (c) Hierarchy (d) Altruism

531. The area owned anddefended by animal is:

(a) Hierarchy (b) Altruism (c) agnostic (d) Territory

532. A "Skinner box" is used for experiments in

A) classical conditioning B) operant conditioning
C) migration D) aggression

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533. A rat in a box learns to associate pressing a lever with obtaining food.
A) classical conditioningB) fixed-action pattern
C) habituationD) operant conditioning
E) imprinting

534. Identify the incorrect statements among the following

A. Imprinting includes both learning and innate components and is irreversible
B. In intraspecific territoriality, only members of the same species are excluded from that
territory
C. Measurements of blood pressure are used to know acute welfare changes.
D. Polyandry is the least common type of mating systems in animals

535. The wrong statement about mating system in Animals is:

A. In polyandrous systems, the females are often more showy than the males
B. In polyandrous systems, one female mate with many males
C. In polygyny one male mates with many females
D. Mammalian mating systems are predominantly monogamous

536. Identify the incorrect statements among the following

A. Changes in ANS responses can be induced by other factors besides changes in welfare
B. Glucocorticoids are a useful measure of acute welfare changes
C. Measurements of blood pressure are used to know acute welfare problems.
D. Among reproductive hormones, prolactin is the least sensitive to welfare changes.

537. The statement which does not reflect the belief of Animal welfare Activist is
A. Oppose all efforts to end human-animal interaction and historic use of animals
B. Support the humane treatment of animals that ensures comfort and freedom from
avoidable pain and suffering
C. Advocate legal rights for animals as they believe that, animals and humans are equal
D. Believe that humans have the right to own animals, to protect them and hold as property

538. One of the following statements is not true

A. Welfare is a characteristic of an animal, not something that is given to it
B. Behavioral observations can tell us whether particular restrictions are important to the
animal
C. Promoting higher standard of animal welfare is business opportunity
D. All farming systems restrict normal behaviour

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539. The observation which is not an indicator of poor welfare is
A. Behavioral abnormalities B. Lameness C. Depression D. ranges of activities

540. The incorrect statement is

A. Elevated glucocorticoids level in the blood indicates acute welfare changes
B. Heart rate changes can be used as a measure of chronic changes
C. Elevated Blood pressure indicates acute changes in welfare
D. Reproductive hormones offer a measure of acute welfare changes

541. Among the following animals the one which is not considered as sentient is:
A. Mouse B. Guinea pig C. Rabbit D. Spider

542. The incorrect statement about the five animals’ freedom is:
A. They give a detailed account of what should be measured in welfare assessment
B. They do not define the minimum standard that should be provided as they are ideal states
C. There is a consensus they are a good starting point for welfare assessment
D. They provide an initial indication of the relevant aspects that need to be considered

543. The one which is not the welfare problem of working equines in Ethiopia is:
A. Lameness B. Body lesions C. Obesity D. Poor body condition E. Working too young/old.

544. One is not the main welfare problem of dogs in this country is:
A. Being tethered for long periods B. Infertility
C. Abandonment when ill/old D. Lack of health care.

545. The incorrect statement is:

A. Welfare concerns the quality of animal life
B. Death affects the quantity of animal life
C. High death rates can indicate poor welfare conditions
D. method of slaughter is not a welfare issue
546. The correct statement is:
A. Autonomic nervous system responses offer a good measure of chronic welfare problems
B. Pathological changes in organs are indicators of recent welfare problems.
C. Measurements of blood pressure are used to know acute welfare changes.
D. Heart arrhythmias can tell us about chronic welfare problems.

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547. One of the following statements is not true
A. Welfare is a characteristic of an animal, not something that is given to it
B. Behavioral observations can tell us whether particular restrictions are important to the
animal
C. Promoting higher standard of animal welfare is business opportunity
D. All farming systems restrict normal behavior

548. The major welfare issues in animal experimentation are:

A. The source of laboratory animals
B. The housing of laboratory animals
C. Nature of procedures involving laboratory animals
D. All of the above

549. Techniques in pain management of animals include:

A. Pain scoring B. Analgesia
C. Anaesthesia D. All

550. Ethical guidelines for the use of animals in research states that researchers:
A. Must have respect for animals’ worth, regardless of their utility value
B. Are responsible for studying whether there are alternatives toexperiments on animals
C. must minimize the risk of suffering and provide good animal welfare.
D. All

551. The ways of avoiding or ameliorating harms to animals in research does not involve:
A. Applyingthe 3Rs principle
B. reduction in the number of animals used to obtain information ofgiven amount and
precision.
C. Minimizepainful procedures applied tothose animals which have to be used
D. None

552. Which of the following influences the attitudes of vets to animal welfare?
A. Age& sex B. Previous experience
C. Legislation D. Training E. All

100
553.For which farm animal species is heat stress likely to be a problem?
A. Sheep B. Poultry C. Cattle D. goat

554. One is notthe principal welfare problems for poultry during loading, unloading and
transport.
A. Removal of birds from houses
B. Leg pain in broilers/turkeys
C. Fractures in laying hens
D. Heat stress in meat birds
E. None

555. The effectiveness of local animal welfare legislation in slaughter plants and on farm may
be ineffective as a result of poor enforcement due to:
A. Limited resources
B. Limited training of slaughterhouse personnel
C. Difficulties in assessing activities carried out on farm
D. All of the above

556. What concepts can you use to assess wild animal welfare in captivity and free range?
A. Five Freedoms
B. Behavioral categories
C. Assessment of inputs and outputs.
D. All of the above

557. Animal welfare legislation may be ineffective because of:

A. Proscriptive legislation not giving required provision
B. Domestic economic and political pressure
C. Variable enforcement
D. Accepted practices
E. All of the above

558. The welfare concerns associated with captive wild animals are:
A. Inappropriate housing/husbandry
B. Nutritional imbalances
C. Inability to express natural behavior
D. All of the above

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559. Welfare concerns when taking animals from the wild does not include:
A. Rough collection techniques can result in stress, injury or death
B. Overcrowding in holding cages
C. Long journeys with limited access to food and water
D. Stress of capture and journey predisposing to disease and mortality
E. None of the above

560. What needs to be assessed once a welfare compromise has been detected?
A. Severity B. Duration C. Number affected D. All

561. The life cycle of trichostrongylid nematodes can best be described as:
A. Direct and non-migratory, with transmission by host ingestion
B. Direct and non-migratory, with transmission by skin penetration
C. Direct and migratory, with transmission by host ingestion
D. Direct and migratory, with transmission by skin penetration
E. Indirect and migratory, with transmission by ingestion of the intermediate host

562. The larval stage of Ancylostoma caninum can infect people, causing a disease called:
A. Toxocariasis B. Visceral larval migrans C. Chagas disease D. Cutaneous larval migrans

563. Microfilariae are:

A. The last larval stage in filarioid nematodes
B. Infective to the definitive host of filarioid nematodes
C. Infective to the intermediate host of filarioid nematodes
D. Always found in the blood of the host
E. Always found in the epidermis of the host

564. Paratenic hosts may be involved in the life cycles of:

A. Trichinella B. Metastronglus C. Ascaris D. All of the above

565. Infectivity of which of the following parasites requires a period of development in the
environment (outside the host)?
A. Taenia B. Toxocara C. Dipylidium D. Balantidium E. Trichinella

102
566. Identify the correct definition of the term erratic parasite:
A. The organism doesn’t necessarily have to live on or within a host.
B. Are parasites that are found in unusual location in their normal host.
C. Are those that are found in unusual host.
D. Organisms which can live either a parasitic or non-parasitic existence.

567. Pigs or dogs are the sources of human infection by each of the following parasites
except:
A. Echinococcus granulosus B. Taenia solium
C. Ascaris lumbricoides D. Trichinella spiralis

568. Which one of the Nematodes parasites is not found in the abomasum of animals?
A. Trichostrongylus axei B. Haemonchus C. Ostertagia D. Nematodirus

569. Which one statement is odd about nematode parasites?

A. Female generally larger than the male.
B. The shape of most nematodes is cylindrical and elongated forms.
C. Alimentary Canal is absent in nematodes parasites.
D. The body of nematodes parasites is covered with cuticle.

570. Severely, affected animals show severe tachypnea, dyspnea and frequently adopt the
classic 'air-hunger' position of mouth breathing with the head and neck outstretched is
caused due to one of the following parasite infection in animals?

A. Nematodirus B. Dictyocaulus C. Cooperia D. Haemonchus

571. Identify the correct definition of the term parasite?

A. A micro-organism that invades host cells and replicates inside them.
B. An organism that lives in or on another living body to benefit itself.
C. An organism that lives in or on another living body to benefit the host.
D. . All.

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572. One of the following Strongylus species affecting horses is devoid of teeth?
A. Strongylus vulgaris B. Strongylus edentates C. Strongylus equinus D. None

573. Which one is true about the Genus Chabertia?

A. The largest nematodes found in the small intestine of ruminants.
B. They have huge and bell shaped buccal capsule.
C. They are associated with nodule formation in the intestine. D. All

574. Of the following statements, which one is incorrect about Trichnella spiralis?
A. It is a very wide host range and the cause of an important worldwide zoonosis.
B. The adults occur in the striated muscles and their larvae in the small intestine.
C. They have short lifespan and adult worms are rarely found in natural infections.
D. In females uterus contain developing larvae.

575. Intense pruritis around the anus causes the animals to rub, resulting in broken
hairs, bare patches and inflammation of the skin over the rump and tail head is caused
due to one of the following parasite in horse?
A. Trichuris B. Strongylus C. Oxyuris D. Ascaris

576. Which one nematode parasite affects pet animals?

A. Toxascaris leonina B. Spirocerca lupi C. Ancylostoma caninum D. All

577. Which one nematode parasite is found in large intestine?

A. Ancylostoma B. Bunostomum C. Oesophagostomum D. Stephanurus

578. The intermediate host(s) for Metastrongylus of sheep and goats is/are:
A. Earthworms B. Dogs C. Molluscs D. Cats and dogs

579. The eggs of whipworms (Trichuris spp.) are best described as:
A. Thin shelled, unembryonated with bipolar plugs
B. Thick shelled, unembryonated with bipolar plugs
C. Thin shelled, embryonated with bipolar plugs
D. Thick shelled, embryonated with bipolar plugs

580. The Paratenic host(s) for Ascaris suum is/are:

A.Rodents and birds B. Earthworms and dung beetle C. Mice D. Dung beetle and Rodents

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581. Lachrymation, conjunctivitis, and photophobia are the clinical signs of one
nematode parasite?
A. Thelazia B. Habronema C. Spirocerca D. Parafilaria

582. Which of the following is a quantitative microscopic faecal sample examination?

A. Direct Smear C. Sedimentation Technique
B. Floatation Technique D.MC master egg counting technique

583. From the given alternatives which one of the microscopic faecal examination is
used when adequate laboratory facilities are lacking?

A. Floatation Technique C. Direct Smear

B. Sedimentation Technique D. Baermann Technique

584. What type of laboratory technique is used to isolate Trematodes eggs from faeces?

A. Floatation Technique C. Faecal culture

B. Sedimentation Technique D. Baermann Technique

585. Which is the best laboratory method for recovering lung worm larvae from a
fresh fecal sample?

A. Floatation Technique C. Baermann Technique

B. Faecal culture D. Sedimentation Technique

586. Which one of Trypanosomes species is/are found out of tsetse flies belt in Ethiopia?
a. T. equiperdum B. T.vivax C. T.evansi D. All

587.Of the following sentences which one is incorrect about Ehrlichia ruminantum?
a. Ehrlichia ruminantum more pathogenic than Ehrlichia bovis.
b. Ehrlichia ruminantium is transmitted mainly by Amblyomma ticks.
c. Ehrlichia ruminantium is reproduce them self through binary fission.
d. Ehrlichia ruminantum is transmitted only through transtadial from one stage of ticks to
other stages.

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 588.Which one of the following is not tick borne diseases?
a. Cowdriosis B. Theileriosis C. Trypanosomosis D. Anaplasmosis

589.Among the following statements which one is correct about Babesia?

a. It is mainly associated with the infection of leukocytes.
b. Babesia is undergoing a repeated schizogony in the lymphocytes.
c. Trans-stadial and transovarian transmission from one generation to next by biting
flies is common in babesia.
d. Babesia causes rapid destruction of red blood cells which lead to
haemoglobinuria and haemoglobinaemia.

590. Of the following sentences which one is incorrect?

a. Tsetse fly becomes infected with trypanosomes when feeding on non- infected animal.
b. The initial stage of development of T. congolense and T. brucei takes place in the mid
gut.
c. T. congolense and T. brucei are complete their development in salivary glands.
d. All stages of development of T. vivax take place in the proboscis.
E.A and C

591. Which one statement is/are wrong about control and prevention aspects of
Trichomonas foetus in bovine?

a. In the bull, slaughter is the best policy.

b. Use of artificial insemination (AI) from infected donors is a satisfactory method for
control.
c. If breeding is by natural service recovered cows should be disposed of since some
may be carriers.

d. The practice of using communal bulls is to be discouraged in the community.

592.Which one of the following Theilreia Species is/are not reported in Ethiopia?
A. Theireria mutans B. Theilreia parva C. Theileria annulata D. A and C

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 593.Which one statement is/are true about Coccidian Species?
a. The size and shape of coccidian oocysts are varying between different species.
b. Different coccidian species needed different sporulation time.
c. Coccidian species can be differentiated based on their pathogenicity.
d. A and B. E. All

594.Among the following statements which one is/are correct about Cryptosporidium?
a. Sporulated oocysts possess two sporozoites
b. Sporulation takes place within the host and sporulated oocysts released in the faeces.
c. Cryptosporidiosis is common in young animals when compared to adult animals.
d. The oocysts of the parasites can be detected in the faeces by using floatation solution
like that of other coccidian parasites oocysts.

e. B and C

595. Which one sentences is/are incorrect about the Genus Toxoplasma?
a. The parasite involves both direct and indirect life cycle.
b. Cats serve as final host for the parasite.
c. Rodents, herbivores and human beings can serve as Intermediate host for the parasite.
d. The infective stages of the parasite are found in skeletal muscle and cardiac
muscle of intermediate hosts.
e. Sporulated Oocysts passed within the final host faeces.

596. Which one protozoan pathogen is/are not transmitted by ticks?

a. Babesia B. Theilreia C. Coccidian D. Trichonomas E. C and D

597. Which one statement is correct about Leishmaniasis?

a. It is a major tick-borne disease caused by obligate intramacrophage protozoa.
b. Dogs are reservoir hosts for Leishmania infantum.
c. Amastigotes is found in invertebrate hosts.
d. Promastigotes is found in vertebrate hosts.

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598. Which one is/are the not reservoir hosts of Leishmania?
a. Forest rodents and Bats B. Dogs and Hyraxes C. Cattle and sheep D .None

599. Which one protozoan pathogen is/are not transmitted by ticks?

a. Anaplasma B. Leishmania C. Babesia D. Ehrlichia

600. Which protozoan parasite is moved by cillia?

a. Balantidium B. Trypanosomes C. Toxoplasma D.Ameoba

601. Heart water is caused by?

a. Ehrlichia C.Babesia
b. Theileria D. Anaplasma

602. The disease of camels caused by T. evansi and transmitted by

biting flies is known as? A.Chaga disease B. Surra C. Dourine D. Nagana
603. Which trypanosome species moves sluggish active, adheres to red blood cells by
anterior end during the preparation of wet films?
a. T. vivax B. T. brucei C. T. congolense D.T.evansi

604. Which one is the Intermediate host for the Sarcocystis species?
a. Dogs and cats B. Sheep and goats C. Cattle and sheep D.Human

605. Which one is not a clinical sign of chronic forms of trypanosomiasis?

a. Intermittent fever B. Anemia C. Progressive loss of condition D. Parasitemia

606. The structure covers the entire cell surface on top of the cell membrane, and the
basis for antigenic variation in trypanosome parasites is called?
A.Varaiable Surface glycoproteins B. Flagella C. Undulating membrane D.Kinetoplast

607. The vector (intermediate host) of Theireria parva is?

a. Rhipicephalus rufipes B.Ambylomma gemma
C. Hyalomma detritum D. Rhipicephalus appendiculatus

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608. Which intestinal protozoan parasite is detected in the faeces using the acid-fast
staining technique?
A. Toxoplasma B. Emeria C. Cryptosporidium D. Balantidum

609. Which pair of Eimeria species is the most pathogenic in chickness?

a. E. necatrix and E. maxima C. E. acervulina and E. maxima
b. E. brunette and E. necatrix D. E. acervulina and E. necatrix

610. Among the following laboratory techniques, which one is used to differentiate
trypanosome species based on their movement??
A. Wet film B. Buff coat technique
C. Thin smear D. A and B

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