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004) Mock Test - 4

The General Aptitude Test (GAT) consists of 150 questions to be completed in 150 minutes, with a total of 600 marks available. The test includes various sections such as English comprehension, fill in the blanks, and error identification, with penalties for incorrect answers. The document also contains specific instructions for answering questions and examples of the types of questions included in the test.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
84 views14 pages

004) Mock Test - 4

The General Aptitude Test (GAT) consists of 150 questions to be completed in 150 minutes, with a total of 600 marks available. The test includes various sections such as English comprehension, fill in the blanks, and error identification, with penalties for incorrect answers. The document also contains specific instructions for answering questions and examples of the types of questions included in the test.

Uploaded by

sahiljk12366
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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General Aptitude Test (GAT)

Raftaar Series
(TEST - 4)
TIME: 150 MINUTES TOTAL MARKS : 600

Instructions
1. These booklets contains 150 questions. Each test is printed in English. Each
questions comprises four responses. You will select the response which you want
to mark on the answer sheet.
2. All questions carry equal marks.
3. Choose ONLY ONE response for each question.
4. There will be penalty for WRONG ANSWERS.
ENGLISH PAPER-4 Q4. The worst thing about modern science is that
it has
Directions (1-5): In this section, you have
(a) produced dangerous weapons
one short passage. After this passage, you
will find several questions based on the (b) spread new superstitions
passage. First, read Passage, and answer (c) contributed to the decline of our values
the questions based on it. (d) discredited all religions
In the highest sense, religion is an Q5. The author holds that the perfect remedy for
intensely individual issue. But there is a man’s evil propensities is a
national question also. We must hold (a) the sense of shame
together, and we cannot hold together
only on the strength of police regulations. (b) religious sense
An internal regulator of conduct is (c) the combination of a sense of shame and
absolutely necessary. Will men be good religion
and wise without the aid of religion? As (d) the sense of good conduct
modern life has multiplied desires without FILL IN THE BLANKS
the corrective of a sense of spiritual
values, knowledge of modern science does Directions: Each of the following sentences
not reduce either greed or lust. Indeed, it in this section has a blank space and four
has nothing to do with these criminal words or group of words given after the
disturbances of the mind. On the contrary, sentence. Select the word or group of
it finds fresh tools for greater indulgence words you consider most appropriate for
in all forms of greed, lust, and anger. It is the blank space and indicate your
true that a sense of shame by itself often response on the Answer Sheet accordingly
prevents overt misconduct. But it does not Q6. One of the players forgot to ________
go to the root of the mischief; it does not (a) turn up for practice.
stop undesirable mental activities. The (b) turn in for practice.
only thing that can prevent or restrain
(c) turn to for practice
these evils is the religious sense.
(d) turn on for practice.
Q1. According to the author, religion is essentially
a Q7. People should refrain _________ evil deeds.
(a) personal matter (a) from doing (b)for doing
(b) the matter having national relevance (c) form doing (d) in doing
(c) the body of rules and regulations Q8. The manager needs to hold _______ his anger.
(d) the sacrifice of worldly desires (a) on (b) with
Q2. The statement “we must hold together” (c) down (d) back
means that we should Q9. The teacher found many mistakes in my
(a) be politically united composition, when she went _______ it.
(b) work together (a) into (b) about
(c) be spiritually united (c) for (d) through
(d) keep up our nation’s prestige Q10. He went ______ sea alone.
Q3. The author thinks that in the modern times (a) in (b) to
(a) the police have grown very powerful (c) into (d) on
(b) people’s needs have increased Q11. He was sorry _______ late last night
(c) politicians have become corrupt (a) About coming (b) To come
(d) we are practicing several faiths (c) To coming (d) From coming

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Q12. Vinod, two of _______brothers attend primary Q21. Had he worked hard (a)/ he would pass the
school, wishes to be a school teacher after his examination (b)/ in first class (c)/ No error.
graduation from the University (d)
(a) Whom (b) Them Q22. Two millions people (a)/ attended the
(c) Whose (d) Which meeting (b)/ held in the parade ground (c)/
No error(d)
Q13. The teacher gives many examples to______
the idea contained in the poem Q23. As a kind-hearted lady. my grandma shows
mercy (a)/ to everyone yet she suffers (b)/ in
(a) bring about (b) bring in
an incurable disease (c)/ No error(d)
(c) bring forth (d) bring out
Q24. The aero plane was (a)/ cut of from all (b)/
Q14. The more electricity you use, _______ contact until its radio was repaired (c)/No
(a) your bill will be higher error (d)
(b) will you bill be higher Q25. The manager wanted to know who has
(c) will be higher your bill arrived(a)/ early that day (b)/ the cashier or
(d) the higher your bill will be the accountant. (c)/ No error (d)
Q15. Madhu has not been able to recall Directions for the following items:
where_______ In this section, each item consists of a
(a) does she live (b) she lives sentence with a word underlined and is
followed by four words.
(c) she does live (d) she live
Select the word that is most opposite in
Q16. If I hadn’t come along at that moment, meaning to the underlined word and
Rahim______ the one arrested instead of the indicate your response in the Answer
real thief. Sheet accordingly
(a) might be (b) may have been Q26. Reminisce
(c) can have been (d) could have been (a) remind (b) retrace
Q17. Wheat is not native to India and barley (c) forget (d) curtail
__________ Q27. Erudite
(a) isn’t either (b) is either (a) eradicate (b) ignorant
(c) is neither (d) isn’t neither (c) pendant (d) pauper
Directions for the following items: Q28. Esoteric
Each item in this section has a sentence (a) concentric (b) exoteric
with three parts labeled (a), (b) and (c).
Read each sentence to find out whether (c) meteoric (d) categoric
there is any error in any part and indicate Q29. Debilitate
your response in the Answer Sheet against (a) strengthen (b) rehabilitate
the corresponding letter i.e. (a) or (b) or (c) torture (d) soothe
(c). If you find no error, your response
Q30. Callow
should be indicated as (d).
(a) hollow (b) sallow
Q18. No other newspaper (a)/ has so large a
circulation (b)/ like this newspaper in (c) experienced (d) fertile
India.(c)/ No error(d) Directions: Given below are some
Q19. It was (a)/ me who telephoned (b)/ the fire idioms/phrases followed by four
service. (c)/ No error. (d) alternative meanings to each.
Q20. Though she appears to be very tall (a)/ she Choose the response (a), (b), (c) or (d)
is just an inch (b)/ taller than me. (c)/ No which is the most appropriate expression
error. (d)

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Q31. Having no arguments to defend his point, Q37. Yugoslavia attacked the American jet
the speaker began to beat about the bush. instead Present of peace keeping forces.
(a) wander across the words (a) instead the presence
(b) speak in a haphazard manner (b) despite the presence
(c) speak in a wrong manner (c) in spite the presence
(d) make use of irrelevant reference (d) No improvement required.
Q32. A bolt from the blue. Q38. India had already suffered centuries of
(a) a delayed event servitude but now we are independent.
(b) an inexplicable event (a) has had already suffered
(c) an unexpected event (b) had already been suffering
(d) an unpleasant event (c) has already suffered
Q33. Cold comfort (d) No improvement required.
(a) absurdity (b) deception Q39. What looks appalling like genocide has been
taking place in Bihar.
(c) slight satisfaction(d) foolish proposal
(a) can be taken
Q34. To be all at sea
(b) has never been taken
(a) a family voyage
(c) would be taken
(b) lost and confused
(d) No improvement
(c) in the middle of the ocean
Q40. Some of the people were pulled on buses
(d) a string of islands
and killed.
Q35. Ravi wants to blaze a trail in his activities
(a) pulled within (b) pulled from
(a) be supported(b) be the centre of
(c) pulled out (d) pulled to
attraction(c) initiate work and be a
pioneer(d) blow the trumpet Q41. One can be killed on the spot until one
belongs to the wrong group.
Q36. Their friendship lasted for an eternity to the
end of his life (a) why one (b) then one
(a) without concealment (c) again one (d) if one
(b) for a long time Directions (42-46): In this section, you
have one short passage. After this passage,
(c) without trouble
you will find several questions based on
(d) with romance the passage. First, read Passage, and
Directions for the following items: answer the questions based on it.
In this section, look at the underlined part Our home stood behind the railroad
of each sentence. Below each sentence are tracks. Its skimpy yard was paved with
given three possible substitutions for the black cinders. The only touch of green we
underlined part. If one of them (a), (b) or could see was far away, beyond the tracks
(c) is better than the underlined part, over where the white folks lived. But
indicate your response on the Answer cinders were fine weapons. All you had to
Sheet against the corresponding letter (a), do was crouch behind the brick pillars of a
(b) or (c). If none of the substitutions house with your hands full of gritty
improves the sentence, indicate (d) as ammunition, and the first black head you
your response on the Answer Sheet. Thus saw from behind another row of pillars
a “No improvement’ response will be was your target. It was fun. One day, the
signified by the letter (d). gang to which I belonged found itself
engaged in a war with the white boys who
lived beyond the tracks. As usual, we laid

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down our cinder barrage thinking this and labeled P, Q, R and S. you are required
would wipe the white boys out. But they to find the proper sequence of the four
replied with a steady bombardment of sentences and mark your response
broken bottles. We retreated. During the accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
retreat, a broken milk bottle caught me Q47. S1 : All who ever took a pen in hand must
behind the ear, opening a deep gash. The have at some time felt baffled.
sight of blood pouring over my face
S6 : So it is always well to be as certain as
completely demoralized our ranks. My
possible about the facts or opinions which
fellow combatants left me standing
one means to put on paper.
paralyzed in the centre of the yard and
scurried for their houses. A kind neighbor P : A common reason is that the writer has
saw me and rushed me to a doctor. not tied up his thoughts in advance
Q42. The locality, where the author lived, was Q : Perhaps they do not really know what
they mean; very often they have not got their
(a) behind a brick quarry
ideas properly sorted out before they started
(b) near a coal mine to write.
(c) far away from where the whites lived R : There are several causes for that vexing
(d) close to where the whites lived condition.
Q43. The author used the cinders for S : People often say “I know what I mean, but I
(a) harassing the white boys can’t say it.”
(b) cooking his food (A) Q-S-P-R (B) R- P- S- Q
(c) building houses (C) Q-P-S-R (D) R- S- P- Q
(d) laying them on the railroads Q48. S1 : Yet, we have as a people shown great
Resilience
Q44. The weapons used by the whites in the gang
fight were S6 : The question is how we can integrate
(a) as effective as the author’s better as a society so that march to wards
(b) less effective than the author’s economic freedom and world power
(c) more dangerous than the author’s status is aided, not hampered.
(d) as harmless as the author’s P : Despite the yawning disparity in the
Indian society, we have a very high level of
Q45. The author was hit by a broken bottle
satisfaction quotient.
(a) as soon as the fight began
Q : Our belief in our collective destiny has
(b) during a lull in the fight
never been in doubt.
(c) after the fight was over
R: This is true even when the Indian society
(d) when the author’s gang was withdrawing
is compared with those of developed nations.
Q46. At the sight of the author’s bloody wound,
S : Always accommodating and reinventing
his friends
to make things work.
(a) were terrified
(A) S- Q- P- R (B) R- P- Q- S
(b) were filled with shame
(C) S- P- Q- R (D) R- Q- P- S
(c) grew very angry
(d) felt depressed and defeated Q49. S1: The Indian Civil Service gradually
Directions: In this section each item
developed into one of the most efficient and
consists of six sentences of a passage. The
first and sixth sentences are given in the powerful civil services in the world.
beginning as S1 and S6. The middle four
sentences in each have been jumbled up S6: though these qualities obviously served

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(d) to make the Constitution an instrument of
British, and not Indian interests. social Change
P: and often participated in the making of Q53. In which case did the Supreme Court take
the view that the Fundamental Rights and
policy Directive Principle sare complementary to
Q: independence, integrity and hard work each other and there was no need to sacrifice
one for the other?
R: They developed a certain tradition of (a) Golak Nath case
S: Its members exercised vast power (b) Keshavananda Bharati case
(c) Minerva Mills case
(A) P-Q-R-S (B) Q-R-S-P
(d) All of the above
(C) R-S-P-Q (D) S-P-R-Q Q54. The rule of passing resolution by 2/3rd
Q50. S1 : If you are unable to sleep well ,often majority of total number of members of the
wake up at night then you are suffering from House of Parliament is applicable in the case
a sleep disorder. of
S6 : Not many people realise that they have (a) amendment of the Constitution
sleep disorder, which can lead to several (b) approval of proclamation of emergency
health problems. (c) impeachment of President
P : Sleep disorder can be dangerous and gets (d) disapproval of proclamation of emergency
worse as you age
Q55. After approval by both Houses of
Q : There is documented evidence of Parliament, the proclamation of emergency
accidents, less work output and depression issued by the President shall be valid :
due to sleep disorders
(a) for period of six months
R : Not only does sleep disorder results in
sleep deprivation, but also it can threaten (b) for an indefinite period unless revoked by
your life. the subsequent proclamation
S : According to experts, sleep disorder is a (c) for an indefinite period if both Houses of
major health hazard and has been found to be Parliament approves the proclamation after
worse than drunken driving every six months
(A) R- Q- P- S (B) S- P- Q- R (d) for further period of two months only
(C) R- P- Q- S (D) S- Q- P- R Q56. Which is not a correct statement regarding
financial emergency?
GK PAPER-4 (a) President can ask States to follow a
Q51. Who said in the Constituent Assembly that certain canon of financial propriety
the Directive Principles of State Policy are (b) The States may be asked to reserve the
like a ‘cheque on a bank pay able at the money bills for the consideration of the
convenience of the bank’? President
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) K T Shah (c) President can suspend the normal
(c) B R Ambedkar (d) K M Munshi allocation of revenues
Q52. The Directive Principles of State Policy seek (d) President can reduce the salaries of civil
servants and not judges
(a) to establish the supremacy of the
Constitution Q57. Every proclamation issued under Article
352 shall be :
(b) to curb the authoritarian rule
(a) laid before each House of the Parliament
(c) to strengthen judiciary
(b) laid before the Lok Sabha

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(c) decided by the Prime Minister and Q63. Which of the following are not necessarily
conveyed to the President the con sequences of the proclamation of the
(d) all of the above President’s rule in a state?
Q58. The duration of proclamation of Financial 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative
Emergency is Assembly
(a) at the first instance one month 2. The removal of the Council of Ministers in
the State
(b) at the first instance two months
3. Dissolution of the local bodies
(c) at the first instance six months
4. Takeover of the state administration by the
(d) at the first instance one year
Union government
Q59. Emergency can be pro claimed:
Choose the correct answer from the codes
(a) in whole of the country given below:
(b) only in that part of country where actual (a) 1, 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 3
aggression has taken place
(c) 2 and 3 (d) 1, 3 and 4
(c) in any part of the country
Q64. Which of the following Articles of the Indian
(d) in the entire country or any part of Constitution deal with citizenship in India?
territory of India
(a) Articles 333 to 337 (b) Articles 17 to 20
Q60. A resolution ratifying the proclamation of
(c) Articles 5 to 11 (d) Articles 1 to 40
National Emergency re quires to be passed :
Q65. The boundary of a State in India can be
(a) by Parliament
altered
(b) by each House of Parliament
through the procedure laid down in the
(c) by both the Houses of Parliament in a joint Article :
sitting
(a) 368 (b) 130
(d) by each House of Parliament in separate
(c) 70 (d) 3
sittings with majority of total membership of
each House and by majority of not less than Q66. Which one of the following does not
2/3rd of members present and voting constitute the Electoral College for electing
the President of India?
Q61. National emergency can be declared by the
President only (a) Elected members of Rajya Sabha
I. On grounds of war (b) Elected members of Lok Sabha
II. On grounds of external aggression (c) Elected members of the Legislative
Assembly of each state
III. On grounds of internal disturbance
(d) Elected members of the Legislative
IV. On the written recommendation of the
Council
Union
Q67. Who among the following en joys the rank
Cabinet
of a Cabinet Minister of the Indian Union ?
(a) I and II (b) I, II and III
(a) Deputy Chairman, Rajya Sabha
(c) I, II and IV (d) I, II, III and IV
(b) Deputy Chairman of the Planning
Q62. Which Article of the Constitution empowers Commission
the Parliament to legislate on any matter of
(c) Secretary to the Government of India
the State List?
(d) None of these
(a) Article 115 (b) Article 183
Q68. The five year term of the President is
(c) Article 221 (d) Article 226
calculated from the :
(a) first day of the month he assumes charge

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(b) first day of the month following the month Which of the above given pairs is/are
he assumes charge correctly matched?
(c) day he assumes charge Select the correct answer using the code
(d) date of his election result given below:
Q69. In the election of the President, the value of (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 3 only
the vote of the Lok Sabha members : (C) 2 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only
(a) is same Q74. Which part of the earth’s surface receives
(b) differs according to the geographical size the highest amount of insolation?
of the respective state (A) Tropical deserts (B) Equatorial region
(C) Savanna region (D) No such criteria
(c) differs according to the number of votes a
Q75. Tides in the sea have stored in them:
member represents
(A) hydraulic energy
(d) None of these (B) kinetic energy
Q70. The President of India is : (C) gravitational potential energy
(a) Commander-in-Chief of Defence Forces (D) a combination of all the above three forms
(b) Supreme Commander of Armed Forces of energy
Q76. In the earliest days when life originated on
(c) Head of the Government earth, the atmosphere contained:
(d) Supreme Commander of Defence Forces (A) free oxygen
of the Union and Executive Head of the Union (B) no oxygen
Q71.Consider the following statements: (C) oxygen in fixed form
1. Mughals were able to produce cast iron. (D) oxygen bound to carbon
Q77. The earth’s early atmosphere had a high
2. Akbar popularised the device of cooling
temperature because of
water using saltpetre.
(A) high amount of carbon dioxide
Which of the statements given above is/are (B) high amount of cosmic radiation
correct? (C) bombardment by X-rays and gamma-rays
(A) 1 Only (B) 2 Only (D) high temperature of the earth’s surface
(C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Q78. Greenhouse effect is caused by which
property of car bon di oxide?
Q72. Consider the following statements:
(A) transparency to long wave radiation and
1. The Agra Fort was built with red sandstone opaqueness to short wave radiation
where Rajput architectural styles were also (B) transparency to short wave radiation and
incorporated. opaqueness to long wave radiation
2. The magnificent gateway to Fatehpur Sikri, (C) Its capacity to absorb heat
the Buland Darwaza was built with Marble (D) Its quality of having high heat of
only. condensation
Which of the statements given above is/are Q79. The approximate surface temperature on
correct? the sun lit side of the earth is
(A) 1 Only (B) 2 Only (A) 31°C (B) 23°C
(C) 17°C (D) 10°C
(C) Both 1 & 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Q80. What part of the total amount of sun’s
Q73. Consider the following authors and their energy does the top atmosphere of the Earth
works : Author: Work directly reflects back into space?
1. AbulFazal-Ain-i-Akbari (A) one-half (B) one-third
2. Abdul Hamid- Lahori Padshah Nama (C) one-fifth (D) one-tenth
Q81. When it rains, the relative humidity in the
3. Muhammad Kazim-Alamgir Nama atmosphere is
(A) 0 percent (B) 50 percent

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(C) 75 percent (D) 100 percent (C)The process of heat transfer in liquids and
Q82. Arrange the following types of clouds in the gases is through convection mode
increasing order of their heights: (D)The process of heat transfer from a body
1. Cumulus 2. Stratus 3. Cirrus at higher temperature to a body at lower
4. Nimbus temperature without heating the space
(A) 1, 3, 2, 4 (B) 2, 4, 1, 3 between them is known as radiation
(C) 3, 2, 4, 1 (D) 4, 2, 1, 3
Q89.The amount of heat required to change a
Q83.Trade winds blow in the Northern Hemi
liquid to gaseous state without any change in
sphere from
temperature is known as
(A) north to south
(B) south to north (A) specific heat capacity
(C) north-west to south-east (B) mechanical equivalent of heat
(D) north-east to south-west (C) latent heat of vaporization
Q84.Which of the following are forms of (D) quenching
precipitation?
1. Snow 2. Dew 3. Hail 4. Fog Q90.The following figure shows displacement
Choose the correct answer form the codes versus time curve for a particle executing
given below simple harmonic motion:
(A) 1 and 2 (B) 1 and 3
(C) 1, 2 and 3 (D) 2, 3 and 4
Q85.Clear nights are colder than cloudy nights
because of
(A) Precipitation (B) Condensation
(C) Insolation (D) Radiation
Q86.Kidney secretes an enzyme, which changes
plasma protein angiotensinogen into
angiotensin. The enzyme is
(A)Renin (B)Nitrogenase Which one of the following statements is
(C)Hydrolase (D)Mono-oxygenase correct?
Q87.Red blood cells (RBCs) have (A)Phase of the oscillating particle is same at
(A) no nucleus, no mitochondria and no t=1s and t=3s
endoplasmic reticulum (B)Phase of the oscillating particle is same at
(B) nucleus, mitochondria and endo-plasmic t=2s and t=8s
reticulum (C)Phase of the oscillating particle is same at
(C) nucleus, mitochondria but no endo- t=3s and t=7s
plasmic reticulum (D)Phase of the oscillating particle is same at
(D) no mitochondria but endoplasmic t=4s and i=10s
reticulum is present Q91.The Radcliffe Committee was appointed to
Q88.Which one of the following statements is (A) delimit the boundaries between India and
NOT correct? Pakistan
(A)In the conduction mode of transference of (B) solve the problem of minorities in India
heat, the molecules of solid pass heat from (C) give effect to the Independence Bill
one molecule to another without moving (D) enquire into the riots in East Bengal
from their positions
Q92.The demand for the Tebhaga Peasant
(B)The amount of heat required to raise the Movement in Bengal was for
temperature of a substance is called its
specific heat capacity (A) the reduction of the share of the landlords
from one-half of the crop to one-third

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(B) the grant of ownership of land to peasants (C) Establishment of alien rule only
as they were the actual cultivators of the land (D) All of the above
(C) the uprooting of Zamindari system and Q98. The Government of India Act of 1935
the end of serfdom borrowed its preamble from
(D) writing off all peasant debts. (A) The Constitution of the USA
Q93.Annie Besant was1.Responsible for starting (B) The Constitution of Australia
the Home Rule Movement2.The founder of
(C) From the Government of India Act of 1919
the Theo-sophical Society3.once the
President of the Indian National Congress (D) From Pitt’s India Act
Select the correct statement/statements Q99.Where did the so-called ‘Black Hole Tragedy’
using the codes given below. take place?
(A) 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (A) Deccan (B) Monghyr
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1,2 and 3 only (C) Calcutta (D) Murshidabad
Q94.With reference to Ryotwari Settlement, Q100.Which of the following statements is/ are
consider the followingstatements:1. The rent correct regarding Brahmo Samaj?
was paid directly by the peasants to the 1. It opposed idolatry.
Government.2. The Government gave Pattas 2. It denied the need for a priestly class for
to the Ryots.3. The lands were surveyed and interpreting the religious texts.
assessed before being taxed. Which of the
statements given above is/are correct? 3. It popularised the doctrine that the Vedas
are infallible. Select the correct answer using
(A) 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only the codes given below:
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1,2 and 3 only (A) 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
Q95.Mahatma Gandhi undertook fast unto death (C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1,2 and 3 only
in 1932 mainly because
Q101.Who contemptuously referred to Mahatma
(A) Roundtable Conference failed to satisfy Gandhi as a half naked fakir?
Indian political aspirations
(A) Lord Wavell (B) Lord Irwin
(B) Congress and Muslim League had
differences of opinion (C) Lord Willingdon (D) Winston Churchill
(C) Ramsay Macdonald announced the Q102.Who among the following controlled
Communal Award maximum trade in the western coastal region
during the 17th century?
(D) All of the above
(A) Portuguese
Q96.Which of the following parties were
established by DR. B. R. Ambedkar? (B) Dutch
1. Peasants and Workers party of India (C) The house of Jagat Seth
2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation (D) Mulla Abdul Gaffar
3. The Independent Labour Party Select the Q103.On October 16, 1905, when the partition of
correct answer using the codes given below: Bengal was enforced, the great poet
Rabindranath Tagore, to emphasise the unity
(A) 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only of Bengal, suggested the programme of
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1,2 and 3 only (A) singing Bande Mataram
Q97.The decline of Indian Handicrafts industry in (B) tying of Rakhi on each other’s wrists
the 19th century was attributed to
(C) composing of patriotic songs
(A) Competition from British manufacturing
industries only (D) establishing national educational
institutions.
(B) Disappearance of Indian Princely Courts
only

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Q104.Which of these battles proved decisive in Q112. Which one of the following metals floats in
the Anglo French rivalry in India? cold water?
(A) Battle of Wandiwash (A) Magnesium (B) Calcium
(C) Potassium (D) Copper
(B) Battle of Plassey
Q113. Which one of the following solutions is not
(C) Battle of Mysore
capable of conducting electricity?
(D) Battle of Seringapatam (A) Copper sulphate (B) Sodium chloride
Q105.The capital of Tipu Sultan, where he died (C) Sugar (D) Sodium hydroxide
while fighting the Fourth Anglo-Mysore war Q114. Two convex lenses have focal lengths of 50
in 1799, was cm and 25 cm, respectively. If these two
(A) Bangalore (B) Mysore lenses are placed in contact, then the net
(C) Seringapatam (D) Helle Bid or Halebid power of this combination will be equal to
Q106.Which financial services company (A) +2 dioptre (B) +6 dioptre
announced the new phase of its Girls4Tech (C) -6 dioptre (D) +3 dioptre
programme in India? Q115. Which one of the following terms cannot
[A] Mastercard [B] Visa represent electrical power in a circuit?
[C] Maestro [D] Paypal (A) VI (B) I2 /R
Q107.Which Union Ministry awards the ‘National (C) I2 R (D) V2 R
Startup Awards 2022’? Q116. The refractive index of crown glass is close
[A] Ministry of Commerce and Industry to 3/2. If the speed of light in air is , then the
[B] Ministry of Home Affairs speed of light in the crown glass will be close
[C] Ministry of Science and Technology to
[D] Ministry of Electronics and IT (A) (3/2)c (B) (4/9)c
Q108.‘Expected loss-based’ and ‘incurred loss’ (C) (2/3)c (D)(9/4)c
approach, which are seen in the news, are Q117. The volume of a sealed packet is 1 litre and
associated with which institutions? its mass is 800 g. The packet is first put inside
[A] Banks water with density 1 g cm-3 and then in
[B] Mutual Funds another liquid B with density 1.5 g cm-3. Then
[C] Insurance Companies which one of the following statements holds
[D] Stock Exchanges true?
Q109.Which country’s ‘Sea Level Change Team’ (A) The packet will float in both water and
has released a study on Rising Sea Levels on liquid B.
Coasts? (B) The packet will sink in both water and
liquid B
[A] Japan [B] Philippines (C) he packet will sink in water but will float
[C] Indonesia [D] USA in liquid B.
Q110.Geotail mission was a joint project of NASA (D) The packet will float in water and sink in
and which country’s space agency? liquid B
[A] India [B] China Q118.Kinetic viscosity of a given liquid is the
[C] Japan [D] Australia ratio of the
Q111. Which one of the following is the correct (A) coefficient of viscosity to the density
reactivity series with water? (B) Coefficient of viscosity to the surface
(A) Zinc > Iron > Lead> Copper tension
(B) Copper> Lead> Zinc > Iron (C) density to the coefficient of viscosity
(C) Copper > Zinc> Iron> Lead (D) surface tension to the coefficient of
(D) Zinc>Copper> Iron> Lead viscosity

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Q119.A vessel contains oil of density 0.8 gm/cm3 the temperature of the mixture is
over mercury of density 13.6 gm/m3/ A (A) 0℃ (B) 50℃
homogenous sphere floats with half of its (C) 80℃ (D) 100℃
volume immersed in mercury and the other Q126. A fan produces a feeling of comfort during
half in oil. The density of the material of the hot weather because
sphere in CGS unit is (A) Our body radiates more heat in air
(A) 3.3 (B) 6.4 (B) fan supplies cool air
(C) 7.2 (D) 12.8 (C) conductivity of air increases
Q120. Water flows out of the hole of a bucket and (D) our perspiration evaporates rapidly
follows a parabolic path. If the bucket falls Q127. A man with a dark skin, in comparison
freely under gravity , the water flow (ignoring with a man with a white skin , will experience
the resistance ) (A) less heat and less cold
(A) follows a straight –line path relative to the (B) less heat and more cold
falling bucket (C) more heat and less cold
(B) follows a parabolic path relative to the (D) more heat and more cold
falling bucket
Q128. The audible frequency range of a human
(C) stops
ear is
(D) decreases but continues to flow
(A) 20 Hz to 200 Hz (B) 2 Hz to 20 Hz
Q121. A bullet travelling horizontally hits a block
kept at rest on a horizontal surface and gets (C) 200 Hz to 2000 Hz (D) 20 Hz to 20000 Hz
embedded into it , the two together then Q129. Sound moves with higher velocity if
move with a uniform velocity . Which one of (A) pressure of the medium is decreased
the following conservation laws holds? (B) temperature of the medium is increased
(A) Conservation of angular momentum (C) humidity of the medium is increased
(B) Conservation of kinetic energy (D) Both (b) and (c) above
(C) Conservation of linear momentum Q130. Suppose you are standing 1 m in front of a
(D) Conservation of velocity plane mirror. What should be the minimum
Q122. A car accelerates from rest with vertical size of the mirror so that you can see
acceleration 1.2 m/s2. A bus moves with your full image in it?
constant speed of 12 m/s in a parallel lane. (A) 0.50 m (B) 2 m
How long does the car take from its start to (C) Half of your height (D) Twice your height
meet the bus? Q131. Light travels slower in glass than in air
(A) 17 s (B) 8 s because
(C) 20 s (D) 12 s (A) refractive index of air is less than that of
Q123. The weight of a body is 9.8 N at the place glass
where g = 9.8 ms-2. Its mass is (B) refractive index of air is greater than that
(A) zero (B) 9.8 kg of glass
(C) 10 kg (D) 1 kg (C) density of glass is greater than that of air
Q124. Momentum of a body is (D) density of glass is less than that of air
1. A vector quantity Q132.To obtain the powerful parallel beams of
2. A conserved quantity in an isolated system light from a vehicle’s headlight, one must use
3. Same as force in linear motion (A) front surface silvered plane mirror
Select the correct answer using code given (B) back surface silvered plane mirror
below : (C) concave mirror
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 3 only (D) convex mirror
(C) 1 and 2 only (D) 1,2 and 3. Q133.A hollow sphere of radius 50 cm is charged,
Q125.1 gm of ice at 0℃ is mixed with 1 gm of such that the potential on its surface is 500 V.
steam at 100℃ . After thermal equilibrium , What is the potential at the centre of sphere?

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(A) Zero (B) 10 V (B) It has high electro negativity
(C) 200 V (D) 500 V (C) It has high dissociation energy
Q134. When an electric blub breaks, what is the (D) It has stable electronic configuration
reason for a mild bang? Q142. The metal compound commonly found in
(A) A chemical reaction between the enclosed Sindhoor or Kumkum is based on
gases (A) Tin (B) Lead
(B) Compressed gases rush out suddenly (C) Copper (D) Zink
(C) The air rushes into fill the evacuated Q143. Consider the following statements:
space 1. Among the fertilizers used, urea contains
(D) None of these maximum percentage of N.
Q135. Which one of the following is the correct 2. The mixture of calcium sulphate and
statement? calcium dihydrogen phosphate is known as
For an open circuit, the value of load, superphosphate of lime.
(A) would be infinite 3. Potassium magnesium sulphate is called
(B) would be zero the muriate of potash.
Which of the statements given above are
(C) depends on the voltage of the source
correct?
(D) depends on other components of circuit (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
Q136. Which one of the following is correct? (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
The wavelength of the X-rays Q144. Human stomach produces acid ‘X’ which
(A) is longer than the wavelength of sound helps in digestion of food. Acid ‘X’ is
waves (A) acetic acid (B) methanoic acid
(B) is longer than the wavelength of the (C) hydrochloric acid (D) citric acid
yellow sodium Q145. Which one of the following vegetables is
(C) is longer than the wavelength of radio not obtained from wild cabbage?
waves (A) Lettuce (B) Broccoli
(D) is of the order of 0.1 nanometer
(C) Kale (D) Kohlrabi
Q137. The process of nuclear fusion in the sun
Q146.Softening of mature ripe fruits is due to
requires
(A) dissolution of middle lamella
(A) very high temperature and very high
(B) degradation of primary wall
pressure
(C) delignification
(B) low temperature and high pressure
(D) removal of suberin deposits in the cell
(C) high temperature and low pressure
wall
(D) very high temperature and no pressure
Q147. Cell membrane is selectively permeable
Q138. The atomic weights are expressed in terms
because
of atomic mass unit. Which one of the
(A) it is made up of selected organic
following is used as a standard?
molecules
(A) 1H1 (B) 12C6
(B) it does not allow transport of some
(C) O8
16 (D) 35CI17
substances form region of higher
Q139. The pure form of carbon is concentration to the region of lower
(A) diamond (B) graphite concentration
(C) charcoal (D) fullerene (C) the movements of organic molecules
Q140. The acid contained in vinegar is occurs only at specific concentration
(A) acetic acid (B) ascorbic acid (D) it allows the movement of certain
(C) citric acid (D) tartaric acid molecules in and out of the cell while the
Q141.Why is nitrogen molecule chemically less movement of other molecules is prevented
active? Q148. AIDS is caused by Human Immuno
(A) It has small atomic radius Deficiency Virus (HIV) which is

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(A) Retro virus (B) Lente virus
(C) Arbo virus (D) Immune virus
Q149.The main thinking part of the brain is
(A) midbrain (B) hypothalamus
(C) forebrain (D) hindbrain
Q150. Consider the following diseases:
1. Cholera 2. Tuberculosis
3. Filariasis 4. Typhoid
Which of the above diseases are caused by
bacteria ?
(A) 1 and 3 only (B) 2 and 4 only
(C) 1 , 3 and 4 (D) 1, 2 and 4

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