Which one of the following statements correctly describes the SFP (Small

Form-Factor
Pluggable)+transceiver?
a. SFP+ complies with the 802.3ba standard, allowing four channels in a single
transceiver
and supporting up to 40 Gbps data rates.
b. SFP+ supports up to 10 Gbps and is slightly larger than SFP, with lower
power
consumption than XFP.
O c. SFP+ is the same module size as SFP and supports a theoretical maximum
transmission
speed of 16 Gbps.
d. SFP+ provides the same function as GBICs (Gigabit Interface Converters)
and is more
compact. It is theoretically capable of 5 Gbps.
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Identify the standard from the following list of CHARACTERISTICS.
This standard was released in 2003 and specifies a method for supplying
electrical
power over twisted-pair Ethernet connections.
This standard is also known as PoE (Power over Ethernet).
This standard specifies two types of devices: PSE (Power Sourcing Equipment)
and
PDs (Powered Devices).
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O a. 802.5bf
O b. 802.9de
O c. 802.7bc
d. 802.3af
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Hill Corporation Ltd., an Internet service provider, has been providing
networking solutions to
Riverdale High School for over a year. However, recently the administration at
Riverdale high
School has been complaining of an unstable connection. You are employed by
Hill Corporation
for the purpose of inspecting the issue at hand. What would be your first
check point to ensure
that there are no network issues from the service provider's end?
O a. The IDF (Intermediate Distribution Frame)
O b. The entrance facility
c. The MDF (Main Distribution Frame)
O d. The data room
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Network segmentation decreases both performance and security on a
network. Is this statement
TRUE or FALSE?
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a. True
Ob. False
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choice
Layer
switches operate anywhere between Layer 4 and Layer 7 and are also know as
switches or
switches.
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a. 4; content; routing
O b. 6; content; application
O c. 7; content; routing
O d. 5; content; application
O e. 6; content; routing
O f. 5; content; routing
O g. 7; content; application
Oh. 4; content; application
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Identify the multipath signal phenomena denoted by the letters 'A', 'B' and 'C'
in the following
diagram.
Access point (with antenna)
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O a. scattering; diffraction; reflection
O b. diffraction; absorption; scattering
O c. reflection; scattering; diffraction
d. absorption; diffraction; scattering IRIS is sharing your screen.
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As a network administrator, a client has approached you to set up the network
for MKV, a
software company. The company requires enough data for both uploading
and downloading
purposes; however, it prefers a connection that has a better download speed.
Which one of the
following DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) varieties do you think is best suited for
such a
requirement?
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Question 7
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a. ADSL (Asymmetric DSL)
Ob. VDSL (Very High Bit Rate DSL or Variable DSL)
Oc. SDSL (Symmetric DSL)
O d. DWDM (Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing or Dense WDM)
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You are creating a new Linux server as a virtual machine on your Windows 8.1
workstation.
Which one of the following commands will display TCP/IP (Transmission
Control
Protocol/Internet Protocol) information associated with every interface on a
Linux device?
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a. ip addr at the Windows command prompt
O b. ifconfig -a at the Linux server's shell prompt
O c. ipconfig-a at the Linux server's shell prompt
O d. ethtool-a at the Linux server's shell prompt
O e. ipconfig /all at the Windows command prompt
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HLP Ltd. has already set up a private web server for its corporate network with
Windows as an
operating system, and now they have contacted you to make their network
remotely accessible
to a certain group of employees. They have also requested you to ensure that
the selected
protocol provides secured and encrypted transmissions. Which one of the
following protocols
would you apply so that the employees can have secured remote access to the
computer
server?
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a. RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol)
Ob. POP3 (Post Office Protocol, version 3)
O c. The Telnet protocol
O d. The SSH (Secure Shell) protocol
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Which of the following are tasks handled by a router? (More than one task
applies).
a. A router can interpret Layer 3 and often Layer 4 addressing.
b. A router can connect dissimilar networks.
c. A router can reroute traffic if the path of first choice is down, but a second
path is
available.
d. A router forwards broadcasts over the network.
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In which one of the following modes will a vNIC (virtual NIC) access a physical
network using the
host machine's NIC (Network Interface Card)?
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a. NAT mode
O b. Isolation mode
c. Host-only mode
O d. Bridged mode
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Which statements regarding the fields in IPv4 packet are INCORRECT? (More
than one
statement applies).
a. The TTL (Time to Live) field indicates the minimum duration that the packet
can remain
on the network before it is discarded.
b. The payload length indicates the size of the payload, or data carried by the
packet.
c. The flow label indicates which flow, or sequence of packets issued from one
source to
one or multiple destinations, the packet belongs to.
d. The source IP address is 32 bits in length and identifies the IP (Internet
Protocol) address
of the source host.
e. The destination address is 128 bits in length and identifies the IP (Internet
Protocol)
address of the destination host.
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You need to capture traffic that crosses a computer's network interface, the
output of which can
be saved to a file that you can filter or play back. Unfortunately, you do not
have time to install
Wireshark. Which command can you use instead?
O a. pathping
O b. tcpdump
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c. traceroute
O d. dig
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Xhang Pho, a senior network engineer, has been tasked with developing an
application to
channel live music festivals across the world with the help of the web. Given
such a situation,
which one of the following protocols should he opt for?
O a. IMAP4 (Internet Message Access Protocol, version 4)
O b. UDP (User Datagram Protocol)
c. TCP (Transmission Control Protocol)
O d. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol)
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An analyst is developing a proof of concept of a wireless-based attack as part
of a penetration
test against an organization's network. As part of the attack, the analyst
launches a fake access
point matching the SSID (Service set Identifier) of the organization's guest
access network.
When a user connects to the fake access point, the analyst allows the traffic to
flow through the
access point to the legitimate site while the data traversing the network is
logged for latest
analysis and exploitation. Which one of the following attacks has the analyst
successfully
performed in this scenario?
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O a. On-path attack
O b. Session hijacking
c. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) hopping
d. Bluesnarfing
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Question 16
Which of the following are NOT valid MAC (Media Access Control) addresses?
(More than one
address applies).
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a. C3:00:50:00:FF:FF
b. D0:00:00:00
c. 153.101.24.3
d. ::9F53
e. FE80::32:1CA3:BOE2
Which one of the following statements regarding Satellite Internet services for
a wireless WAN
(Wide Area Network) connection is CORRECT?
O a. Satellite downlink speeds reach 1000 Mbps.
b. Satellite services are typically symmetrical.
O c. Satellite services suffer more latency and jitter issues.
O d. Satellite services are only available for fixed location clients.
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The following statements describe how a cable modem is utilized in cable
broadband
connections. Which statements are CORRECT? (More than one statement
applies).
a. Cable broadband connections require that the customer use a special cable
modem, a
device that modulates and demodulates signals for transmission and
reception via cable
wiring.
b. Cable modems operate at the Network and Transport layer of the OSI
(Open Systems
Interconnection) model, and, therefore, do not manipulate higher-layer
protocols, such
as IP (Internet Protocol).
c. The cable modem could connect to a network device, such as a hub, switch,
or router,
thereby supplying bandwidth to a LAN (Local Area Network) rather than to
just one
computer.
d. The cable modem connects to a customer's PC (Personal Computer) via an
RJ-45, USB
(Universal Serial Bus), or wireless interface.
e. It is possible to use a device that combines cable modem functionality with
a SOHO
router to share available bandwidth on an entire network.
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Your organization is reassessing its WAN (Wide Area Network) connections to
determine how
much more bandwidth it will need to purchase in the next five years. As a
network
administrator, which one of the following data can you share that will help
management make
the right decision?
a. Wiring schematic
O b. Syslogs
O c. Baseline
O d. Logical network diagram
O e. Physical network diagram
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In ANDing, a bit with a value of 1 combined, or anded, with another bit with a
value of 1 results
in a 0. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?
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a. True
b. False
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Jeff Green has been hired as a systems analyst by an online retail company.
The company is
expecting a huge network traffic triggered by the Christmas sale, which will
begin from the
midnight of December 23. There is an urgent need to adopt a congestion
control technique,
and it is Jeff's responsibility to ensure that he selects an appropriate
open-loop congestion
control technique to prevent this congestion before it occurs. Which one of
the following open-
loop techniques should Jeff ideally choose to ensure that important traffic can
survive the
congestion while less sensitive frames are discarded?
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a. Admission policy
O b. Window policy
Oc. Discarding policy
Od. Acknowledgment policy
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Which TWO VPN (Virtual Private Network) tunneling protocols are used with
IPsec to increase
the security of the transmissions?
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O a. Open VPN and IKEv2 ((Internet Key Exchange) v2
b. L2TP (Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol) and GRE (Generic Routing Encapsulation)
Oc. PPTP (Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol) and PPP (Point-to-Point Protocol)
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To achieve the utmost fault tolerance, as a network administrator, you want to
ensure that
critical devices are all equipped with redundant NICs (Network Interface
Cards), routers, and
processors, which can immediately assume the duties of an identical
component in case one of
the components fails. Which one of the following will help you ensure these
devices contain the
necessary components you require?
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O a. Hot-swappable parts
O b. Clustering
O c. Load balancing
d. Automatic failover
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Which of the following statements regarding wireless standards are
CORRECT? (More than one
statement applies).
a. NFC (Near-Field Communication) is a form of Bluetooth that transfers data
wirelessly over
short distances (usually 50cm or less).
b. RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) uses electromagnetic fields to store
data on a small
chip in an RFID tag, which includes an antenna that can both transmit and
receive, and
possible a battery.
c. Based on the 802.15.4 standard, ZigBee is a low-powered,
battery-conserving wireless
technology designed to handle small amounts of data and is therefore ideal
for use in
ISM (Industrial, Scientific, and Medical) sensors.
d. Z-Wave provides three basic types of functions: signaling, control and
communication.
e. Bluetooth operates in the radio band of 2.4 GHZ to 2.4835 GHZ and is
defined by IEEE
802.15.1 specifications.
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Homeland is an organization that rescues abandoned dogs. They set up a
hotline for the public
to report any street dog that they spot anywhere in the city or any dog that
they feel needs to
be rescued. Within 12 hours of the hotline being activated, the network starts
experiencing
congestion, messages are corrupted or dropped, and connected devices start
resending frames
to make up for the loss. These kinds of problems are overwhelming the
network. This generates
even more traffic, making the congestion even worse. Which one of the
following policies
Homeland should adopt to detect congestion on the network after
experiencing several missed
acknowledgment messages?
O a. Implicit signaling
O b. Choke packet
O c. Backpressure
d. Explicit signaling
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You work for a small fashion design firm. Because of a video that recently
went viral, your
company has received national recognition. Within a few days, your web
server crashes. What
kind of attack most likely caused the crash?
O a. Spoofing
O b. Ransomware
Oc. Friendly DoS (Denial-of-Service)
d. Phishing
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Question 26
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Which statements regarding MPLS (multiprotocol label switching) are TRUE?
(More than one
statement applies).
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Question 27
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a. One of the benefits of MPLS is that MPLS connections are highly scalable.
b. MPLS offers potentially faster transmission than traditionally routed
networks.
c. Collectively, the MPLS labels are sometimes called a fragment because of
their placement
between Layer 3 and Layer 2 information.
d. MPLS enables multiple types of Layer 3 protocols to travel over any one of
several
connection-oriented Layer 2 protocols.
In the context of IPv6 Autoconfiguration, when a computer using IPV6 for the
first time makes a
connection, the computer creates its IPv6 address. It uses FE80:/64 as the first
64 bits, called the
prefix. The last 64 bits can be generated in two ways. The first way is where
the 64 bits are
randomly generated. The second way is where the 64 bits are generated from
the network
adapter's MAC (Medium Access Control) address. Which one of the following
statements
regarding the second way is CORRECT?
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O a. To generate the interface ID, the OS (Operating System) takes the 48 bits
of the device's
MAC address, inserts a fixed 8-bit value in the middle of the 48 bits and inverts
the value
of the seventh bit.
O b. To generate the interface ID, the OS (Operating System) takes the 64 bits
of the device's
MAC address, inserts a fixed 8-bit value in the middle of the 64 bits and inverts
the value
of the seventh bit.
c. MAC addresses consist of 64 bits and must be converted to the 48-bit
standard, called
EUI-48 (Extended Unique Identifier-64) standard.
Od. MAC addresses consist of 48 bits and must be converted to the 64-bit
standard, called
EUI-64 (Extended Unique Identifier-64) standard.
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In the context of terminal emulation, which one of the following statements
regarding VNC
(Virtual Network Computing or Virtual Network Connection) is CORRECT?
a. VNC uses the Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP).
O b. VNC is a standard developed by Microsoft and used by Windows Remote
Desktop.
O c. VNC is open source, allowing companies to develop their own software
based on VNC.
O d. VNC is faster than Remote Desktop and requires less network bandwidth.
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A rollover cable reverses the transmit and receive wire pairs and a crossover
cable reverses all
the wires without regard to how they are paired. Is this statement TRUE or
FALSE?
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a. True
O b. False
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Which one of the following switch security options monitors network traffic at
one-second
intervals to determine if the traffic levels are within acceptable thresholds?
O a. switchport security
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b. BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit)
O c. storm control
O d. STP (Spanning Tree Protocol)
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You are working on a school district's 802.11n WLAN. Within each school,
several access points
serve students, teachers, and administrators. So that users can move about
the school with their
laptops and not lose network connectivity, each of the access points must
share which one of
the following?
O a. The same channel bonding
O b. The same beacon frame
c. The same ESSID (Extended Service Identifier)
Od. The same BSS (Basic Service Set)
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Study the following list of CHARACTERISTICS and identify the routing protocol.
An IGP (Interior Gateway Protocol) and a link-state protocol used on core or
edge
routers.
Introduced as an improvement to RIP (Routing Information Protocol).
•
.
Imposes no hop limits on a transmission path.
•
Maintains a database of the other routers' links.
Demands more memory and CPU (Central Processing Unit) power for
calculations
but keeps network bandwidth to a minimum with a very fast convergence
time, often
invisible to users.
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Question 33
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O a. IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System)
Ob. EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol)
O c. OSPF (Open Shortest Path First)
d. BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)
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Which one of the following DNS (Domain Name System) records identifies a
mail server?
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a. mail1 IN A 178.99.201.12
O b. mailserver IN AAAA 178.99.201.12
O c. mailserver IN PTR 178.99.201.12
O d. mail1 IN MX 178.99.201.12
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Which one of the following statements regarding the types of wireless
topologies is
INCORRECT?
Oa. Infrastructure topology: An intervening connectivity device, a WAP
(Wireless Access Point)
or AP (Access Point), accepts wireless signals from multiple nodes and
retransmits them
to the rest of the network.
b. Hybrid topology: Several access points work as peer devices on the same
network, where
the AP (Access Point) devices cooperate to provide more fault tolerant
network access to
clients. A wireless controller might be used only initially to configure the APs,
or the APS
might remain connected to the wireless controller for continued management.
Oc. Ad hoc topology: A small number of nodes closely positioned transmit
directly to each
other without an intervening connectivity device.
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Which scanning tool was used to detect a SOHO router's administrative
username and
password as depicted in the following diagram?
192.168.5.879 with HTTP probes
401-Basic realm="Default Name: admin Password:MyUnisa"
Sweeping 191.187.1.190 with SMTP probes
191.168.0.116
a. Nessus
O b. Metasploit
O c. Nmap
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Question 36
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D
Which of the following are CHARACTERISTICS of fiber-optic cables? (More than
one
characteristic applies).
a. Noise immunity - Because fiber does not conduct electrical current to
transmit signals, it
is unaffected by EMI (Electromagnetic Interference).
b. Connector - With fiber cabling, you can use any of two different types of
connectors
including RJ-45 and RJ-11.
c. Size and scalability - Depending on the type of fiber-optic cable used,
segment lengths
vary from 2 to 40,000 meters.
d. Cost - Fiber-optic cable is the most expensive transmission medium.
Because of its cost,
most organizations find it impractical to run fiber to every desktop.
e. Throughput - Fiber has proved reliable in transmitting data at rates that
reach 100
gigabits (or 100,000 megabits) per second per channel.
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Which of the following are remote access methods? (More than one method
applies).
a. Terminal emulation, also called remote virtual computing, which allows a
remote client to
take over and command a host computer.
b. VPN (Virtual Private Network), which is a virtual connection that remotely
accesses
resources between a client and a network, two networks, or two hosts over
the Internet
or other types of networks.
c. VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) which is a network logically defined by
grouping ports
on a switch so that some of the local traffic on the switch is forced to go
through a
router, thereby limiting the traffic to a smaller broadcast domain.
d. Point-to-point remote access over a dedicated (usually leased) line such as
DSL (Digital
Subscriber Line) or T-1 access to an ISP (Internet Service Provider).
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Which statements regarding the 802.11ac standard are CORRECT? (More than
one statement
applies).
a. 802.11ac access points function more like a hub than a switch.
b. The standard was officially approved in early 2014.
c. 802.11ac operates on the 5-GHz band.
d. 802.11ac access points can handle multiple transmissions at one time over
the same
frequency spectrum.
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An administrator has added four switches to a campus network. The switch in
wiring closet A is
only connected to the switch in wiring closet C. The switch in wiring closet B is
connected to the
switch in in wiring closet C and wiring closet D. The switch in wiring closet D is
only connected
to the switch in wiring closet B. Which one of the following topologies is
represented in this
design?
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a. mesh
b. star
O c. bus
O d. ring
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An IPv6 address has 128 bits that are written as eight blocks (also called
quartets) of
hexadecimal numbers separated by colons. Each block is 16 bits long. Leading
zeroes in a four-
character hex block can be eliminated. If blocks contain all zeroes, they can be
eliminated and
replaced by double colons. To avoid confusion, only one set of double colons is
used in an IPV6
address. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?
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O a. False
b. True
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A network technician is planning to update the firmware on a router on the
network. The
technician has downloaded the file from the vendor's website. Before
installing the firmware
update, which one of the following steps should the technician perform to
ensure file integrity?
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a. Perform a hash on the file for comparison with the vendor's hash.
b. Perform antivirus and anti-malware scans of the file.
Oc. Download the file a second time and compare the version numbers.
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iii.
Structured cabling standards allow for three basic types of cable installations.
Which statement
(s) regarding the three basic types of cable installations is (are) CORRECT?
A patch cable is a relatively long (usually between 50 and 70 feet) length of
cabling
with connectors at both ends.
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Question 43
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i.
ii.
The diagram illustrates horizontal cabling from a switch in a data room to
workstations.
Data jack
Data room
<10 m-
90 m
Workstation
Data jack
Cross
connect
<10 m-
90 m
Workstation
Data jack
90 m
<10 m
Workstation
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ution
The backbone consists of IRIS is sharing your screen.
interconnection between the
Frame), and between the MDF and the demarcation point.
Data jack
<10 m-
90 m
Workstation
Data jack
90 m
<10 m-
connect
Workstation
The backbone consists of the cables or wireless links that provide
interconnection between the entrance facility and MDF (Main Distribution
Frame), and between the MDF and the demarcation point.
O a. only ii
b. only i and ii
O c. i, ii and iii
O d. only ii and iii
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Which of the following statements regarding public key encryption are
CORRECT? (More than
one statement applies).
a. In public key encryption, data is encrypted with a private key known only to
the user and
decrypted with a mathematically related public key that can be made available
through a
third-party source, such as a public key server. This ensures data
confidentiality, as the
sender's public key will only work if the data has not been tampered with.
b. Data can be encrypted with the public key, and then can only be decrypted
with the
matching private key. This ensures data integrity, as only the intended
recipient (the
owner of the keys) can decrypt the data.
c. The combination of a public key and a private key is known as a key pair.
d. A public key server is a publicly accessible host such as a server on the
Internet that freely
provides a list of users' public keys, much as a telephone book provides a list
of peoples'
phone numbers.
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Which of the following are common types of DNS (Domain Name System)
servers? (More than
one server applies).
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Question 45
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a. forwarding DNS server
b. iterative DNS server
c. authoritative DNS server
d. primary DNS server
e. secondary DNS server
f.caching DNS server
Nathan, a network engineer, has been contracted by a company to fix an error
that has led to an
increase in network latency during conference calls with various clients. What
is the correct way
to diagnose this issue?
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a. By checking if the connection has any jitter
b. By checking the interface statistics of the network
O c. By checking if the network is operating at maximum capacity
Od. By calculating the error rate
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Used side-by-side with Kerberos, what service does LDAP (Lightweight
Directory Access
Protocol) provide Active Directory?
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Question 47
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O a. Accounting
b. Auditing
O c. Encryption
d. Authorization
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Question 40
A technician, Jacinth visits a site that has reported a network down emergency.
He immediately
reboots the switches and the router because the network is down. Which one
of the following
network troubleshooting methodology steps should Jacinth first have
performed?
O a. Once a theory is confirmed, determine the next step to solve the issue.
b. Document findings, actions, and outcomes.
Oc. Determine if anything has changed.
Od. Implement the solution or escalate as necessary.
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Which one of the following statements regarding the SMB (Server Message
Block) protocol is
CORRECT?
O a. It is a signaling protocol used to make a connection between hosts prior
to data transfer.
O b. It is a protocol used for accessing network-based LDAP directories.
O c. It is used by Windows and UNIX-based operating systems to share files.
d. It is a simple protocol used to synchronize block messages written to iSCSI
drives on a
network.
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Question 49
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Which of the following statements regarding routers and routing protocols
are CORRECT?
(More than one statement applies).
a. An EGP (Exterior Gateway Protocol) that spans multiple autonomous
systems and is used
by edge and exterior routers on the Internet is BGP (Border Gateway Protocol)
b. Static routing is a technique in which a network administrator configures a
routing table
to direct messages along specific paths between networks.
c. Fast convergence time, low network overhead, and support for multiple
protocols are all
characteristics of EIGRP (Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol).
d. IS-IS (Intermediate System to Intermediate System) is a distance-vector
routing protocol,
designed for use on interior routers only.
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Suppose your Windows workstation's wireless network adapter is configured
to use the 802.11b
wireless networking standard. Also, suppose a café you visit has an 802.11g
access point.
Assuming you have the correct SSID (Service Set Identifier) and logon
credentials, what will
happen when you attempt to associate with the café's wireless network?
O a. Your wireless networking client will be able to see the access point, but
unable to
associate with it.
O b. Your wireless client will not be able to see the access point.
c. Your wireless networking client will be able to see the access point and
successfully
associate with it.
Od. Your wireless networking client will be able to see the access point and
attempt to
associate with it, but the incompatible frequencies will prevent successful
authentication.
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Question 51
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Your company is experiencing a growth spurt and is ready to invest in a more
sophisticated
disaster recovery plan. Currently the only backup plan consists of a few spare
computers in a
storage closet, with data on the servers duplicated weekly to an off-site
backup service. The
owners of the company have committed to acquiring additional servers to
duplicate critical
servers in their current network, and they want the servers to be configured
identically to the
servers now in use. The new servers will be stored at an off-site data center
and updated every
time the on-site servers are updated. What type of disaster recovery site is
your company
creating?
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O a. Hot site
O b. Warm site
O c. Site survey
d. Ambient site
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Which one of the following statements describes a stateless firewall?
a. A stateless firewall manages each incoming packet as a stand-alone entity,
without
regard to currently active connections.
Ob. A stateless firewall inspects each incoming packet to determine whether it
belongs to a
currently active connection.
Oc. A stateless firewall blocks designated types of traffic based on application
data contained
within packets.
d. A stateless firewall filters packets based on source and destination IP
(Internet Protocol)
addresses.
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Question 53
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The difference between a packet sniffer and a protocol analyzer is the level of
interpretation and
analysis the tool provides for the data captured from the network interface. Is
this statement
TRUE or FALSE?
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a. False
Ob. True
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Which one of the following statements regarding troubleshooting address
problems is FALSE?
O a. Ifconfig is used to query DNS (Domain Name Server) nameservers for
information about
host addresses and other DNS records.
b. The utility ping (Packet Internet Groper) is used to verify that TCP/IP
(Transmission
Control Protocol/Internet Protocol) is installed, bound to the NIC (Network
Interface
Card), configured correctly, and communicating with the network.
Oc. The ipconfig command shows current TCP/IP (Transmission Control
Protocol/Internet
Protocol) addressing and domain name information on a Windows computer.
O d. The nslookup (Name Space Lookup) utility allows you to query the DNS
(Domain Name
System) database from any computer on the network and find the host name
of a device
by specifying its IP (Internet Protocol) address, or vice versa.
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A variant of BYOD (Bring Your Own Device), what does CYOD (Choose Your
Own Device) allow
employees or students to do?
a. They can supply their choice of cloud application or storage.
O b. They can supply their own software on a computer or mobile device.
Oc. They can choose a device from a limited number of options.
O d. They can use whatever devices they wish to bring.
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A network technician is tasked to set up an access method for Joan, an
administrator, to work
from home. Joan needs access to locally mapped corporate resources to
perform her duties.
Which one of the following would provide secure access to the corporate
resources?
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a. Allow RDP (Remote Desktop Protocol) through an external firewall.
O b. Connect utilizing a VPN (Virtual Private Network).
O c. Use TFTP (Trivial File Transfer Protocol) to transfer files to corporate
resources.
Od. Utilize an SSH (Secure Shell) connection to the corporate server.
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IPv6 addressing does not utilize classful addressing, therefore every IPv6
address is classless. Is
this statement TRUE or FALSE?
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O a. True
b. False
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What type of scenario would be best served by using a PaaS (Platform as a
Service) cloud
model?
Oa. A group of developers needs access to multiple operating systems and the
runtime
libraries that the OS (Operating System) provides.
Ob. A small organization needs to have high availability for their web server.
c. An organization wishes to gain access to applications through an online
user interface,
while maintaining compatibility across operating systems.
Od. An organization needs to have a hosted virtual network infrastructure for
their services,
which are run on virtual machines.
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TACACS+ (Terminal Access Controller Access Control System Plus) DIFFERS
from RADIUS
(Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) in that it does which of the
following? (More than
one difference applies).
a. Relies on TCP (Transmission Control Protocol) and UDP (User Datagram
Protocol), at the
Transport layer.
b. Is most often used for device administration access control for technicians,
although it
can be used for network resource access control for users.
c. Was developed by Cisco Systems, Inc., for proprietary use.
d. Encrypts all information transmitted for AAA (RADIUS only encrypts the
password).
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In 1993, the IETF (Internet Engineering Task Force) devised a shorthand
method for identifying
network and host bits in an IP address. What is this method, and how is it
used?
O a. The method is known as CIDR (Classless Interdomain Routing) notation,
or slash notation.
CIDR notation takes the network ID or a host's IP address and follows it with a
forward
slash (), which is then followed by the number of bits that are used for the
network ID.
b. The method is known as CIDR (Classful Interdomain Routing) notation, or
slash notation.
CIDR notation takes the host ID or a host's IP address and follows it with a
forward slash
V), which is then followed by the number of bits that are used for the host ID.
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Throughput is the amount of data that could theoretically be transmitted
during a given period
of time. Bandwidth refers to the number of data bits that are actually received
across a
connection each second. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?
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O a. False
b. True
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A network technician is installing a new wireless network for a client. The
client has experienced
issues with other building occupants connecting to the wireless network and
using the
bandwidth. The client wants to avoid this from happening by using
certificate-based
authentication. Which one of the following technologies should the network
administrator
implement?
O a WEP-TKIP
O b. WPA-PSK
Oc. AES-CCMP
d. EAP-TLS
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Question 64
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Which one of the CHARACTERISICS regarding the SIMILARITIES and
DIFFERENCES between STP
(Shielded Twisted Pair) and UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) is (are)
INCORRECT?
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1.
Throughput
. STP and UTP can both transmit data at 10 Mbps, 100 Mbps, 1 Gbps and 10
Gbps. Only STP can transmit at rates faster than 10 Gbps.
iv.
V.
Cost
STP and UTP vary in cost
STP is more expensive than UTP
Connector
STP and UTP use Registered Jack 45
Noise immunity
UTP is more noise resistant
Size and scalability
Maximum segment length for both: 100 meters on Ethernet networks that
support data rates from 1 Mbps to 10 Gbps
Maximum segment length for both: 100 meters on Ethernet networks that
support data rates from 1 Mbps to 10 Gbps
O a. only iv
O b. i and ii
c. ii, iii and iv
O d. iii and iv
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Routers rate the
and
of a routing protocol's data based on the criterion of
AD (Administrative Distance), convergence time and overhead.
a. reliability, priority
O b. availability; support
O c. throughput; latency
O d. hop count; load
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Which one of the following is NOT a step every IT technician should take to
safeguard sensitive
information, logged data and other legal evidence until the incident response
team can take
over the collection of evidence?
a. Access files on a computer being collected for evidence
Ob. Create documentation detailing the scene
O c. Secure the area and disconnect devices from the network
O d. Protect the chain of custody of evidence
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Which of the following statements regarding SANS (Storage Area Networks)
are TRUE? (More
than one statement applies).
a. A SAN abstracts storage services from computer services, and then provides
high-speed
network services to connect them.
b. A SAN cannot be installed in a location separate from the LAN (Local Area
Network) it
serves.
c. SANS are highly scalable and have a very high fault tolerance, massive
storage capabilities
and fast data access.
d. SANS use one of these technologies: Fibre Channel (FC), FCoE (Fibre
Channel over
Ethernet), iSCSI (Internet SCSI) or IB (InfiniBand).
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How does the STP (Spanning Tree Protocol) prevent or stop broadcast storms?
Oa. It enables routers to choose one set of best paths and ensures that
alternate paths are
used only when the best paths are obstructed.
O b. It examines the source IP address field in each broadcast packet and
temporarily blocks
traffic from that address.
c. It enables switches to calculate paths that avoid potential loops and
artificially blocks the
links that would complete a loop.
Od. It helps routers define the boundaries of a broadcast domain.
Oe. It enables firewalls to keep access lists that name hosts known for
high-volume broadcast
traffic and block those hosts from transmitting to the network.
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From the list below, HOW MANY are examples of routing metrics used to
determine the best
path?
.
•
.
.
Hop count, which is the number of network segments crossed
Theoretical bandwidth and actual throughput on a potential path
Delay, or latency, on a potential path, which results in slower performance
Load, which is the traffic or processing burden sustained by a router in the
path
MTU (Maximum Transmission Unit), which is the largest IP (Internet Protocol)
packet size in bytes allowed by routers in the path without fragmentation
(excludes
the frame size on the local network)
Routing cost, which is a value assigned to a particular route as judged by the
network administrator, the more desirable the path, the lower its cost
Reliability of a potential path, based on historical performance
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.
.
A network's topology
A network's infrastructure
O a. 9
O b. 7
c. 8
O d. 6
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The University of Philadelphia wants you to format an IPv4 address through
which the Dean of
the University wants to go on a videoconference with the teaching staff about
certain
educational norms which they plan on implementing. Which one of the
following classes of
classful addressing will you apply to deliver the requirement?
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O a. Class A
b. Class C
O c. Class D
Od. Class E
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A short circuit is one where needed connections are missing, such as when a
wire breaks. Is this
statement TRUE or FALSE?
O a. True
b. False
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When an 802.1Q tag is added to an Ethernet frame, where is it placed?
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a. It is inserted between the destination and the source addresses.
Ob. It is inserted between the source address and the Ethernet type field.
Oc. It is appended to the end of the frame.
d. It is inserted between the preamble and the destination address.
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You are the CEO (Chief Executive Officer) of an ISP (Internet Service Provider)
firm, and you want
to replace the existing routers of your clients with the new updated versions
which are out in
the market. What type of a business document will you submit to request
vendors to submit a
good proposal for your product query?
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O a. A SOW (Statement of Work)
O b. A MOU (Memorandum of Understanding)
c. A RFP (Request for Proposal)
O d. A MSA (Master Service Agreement)
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As a network engineer, you have been sent to ZoomCar Enterprises to have a
routine check on
the network devices. In doing so, you suddenly notice that there are still some
old-generation
routers installed at certain points. You plan on replacing these old routers with
the new
upgraded ones. At which life cycle phase can you remove an old device from
the network?
a. The requirement phase.
b. The documentation and maintenance phase.
Oc. The implementation phase.
Od. The development phase.
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The process of managing and applying security patches includes which of the
following? (More
than one option applies).
a. tamper detection
b. vulnerability reporting
c. risk mitigation
d. discovery
e. operating system procedure
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