MEDICO EXPRESS

KEY TO DPT PHYSIO MCQS

MCQ PEARLS BY DR HSK

EnR-P-001 (Introduction to Endocrinology)
Which of the following is a peptide hormone Insulin
Insulin acts by Tyrosine kinase receptor
2 messenger activated by GHRH is
nd
cAMP
Steroid hormones act by activating Intracelullar receptors
When the upregulation of hormone receptors occurs the target tissue becomes progressively more sensitive to
the stimulating effects of the hormones
The Receptors act through ion channels after Opens or closes the ion channels altering the movement of
binding to receptors ions

EnR-P-001 (Hypothalamus / Pituitary Gland)

The highest number of cells present in the anterior pituitary Somatotropes
is
Dwarfism due to resistance of GH receptor and decreased Levi Loran Dwarfism
IGF-1 is
Giant and tall person, enlarged forehead, Protrusion of Gigantism
tongue
Oxytocin and ADH is released by Supraoptic and Paraventricular nuclei
Vascular arrangement by which blood passing through the Hypothalamic Hypophyseal circulation
capillary bed of the hypothalamus flows through another
bed in the anterior pituitary before draining to veins
The only connection between the hypothalamus and the Median eminence
anterior pituitary is
Growth hormones primarily affect protein metabolism is Increased protein synthesis
Growth hormone exerts much of its effect through Somatomedin C
Panhypopituitarism resulting from postpartum hemorrhage Sheehan Syndrome
is called
Vasopressin or ADH Act on V2 receptors on the luminal side of
collecting tubules
Decrease urine osmolarity, Polyuria Diabetes Insipidus

EnR-P-002 (Thyroid gland)

About 93% of the metabolically active hormones secreted Thyroxine or T4
by the thyroid gland
TSH secretion from the anterior pituitary is controlled by TRH, Thyroid releasing hormone
Thyroid hormone secretion from Thyroid gland is TSH, Thyroid stimulating hormone
controlled by
Formation of thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins (TSI) Grave’s disease
antibodies against TSH causes
Protrusion of the eyeball as a result of hyperthyroidism Exophthalmos
Intolerance to heat, Increased sweating, Tachycardia Hyperthyroidism
 Bagginess under the eyes and swelling of the face Myxedema

Mental retardation, Scaliness of skin, Husky voice Hypothyroidism

EnR-P-003 (Adrenocortical hormones)

Aldosterone is secreted by which layer of Adrenal Glands Zona glomerulosa
Glucocorticoids are secreted by which layer of the Adrenal gland Zona fasciculata
The hormone not secreted by the adrenal cortex is Catecholamine/epinephrine
Apparent Mineralocorticoid Excess Syndrome (AME) is caused by a 11β-HSD2
deficiency of
Aldosterone acts through Intracellular receptors
Hirsutism, Buffalo-like torso, Purplish striae Cushing Syndrome
Secretion of large amounts of aldosterone Conn’s syndrome
Primary adrenal insufficiency Addison’s disease
High doses of dexamethasone suppresses ACTH in most patients Cushing’s disease
with

EnR-P-004 (Pancreatic hormones)

Insulin is secreted by Beta cells of the pancreas
Glucagon is secreted by Alpha cells of the pancreas
The delta cell of the pancreas secretes Somatostatin
Insulin acts by Tyrosine kinase pathway
Insulin's primary function is to Reduce blood glucose
Insulin receptor has 4 subunits
Somatostatin Depress secretion of both insulin and glucagon

EnR-P-005 (Abnormalities of Glucose regulation)

It is caused by to destruction of Beta cells of the pancreas or any Type 1 Diabetes Mellitus
other factor that causes decreased secretion of Insulin
It is caused by the development of resistance of insulin receptors in Type 2 Diabetes Mellitus
targeted tissue

EnR-P-006 (Parathyroid hormones)

The primary function of PTH is to increase Serum Calcium
PTH is secreted as a result of Decreased Serum Calcium
|Parathyroid hormone increases Bone resorption, Kidney reabsorption, and intestinal
absorption of Ca
The effect of PTH on Potassium is to Increased PO4 excretion

EnR-P-007 (Regulation of calcium in the body)

Vitamin D is a steroid hormone, it acts by Intracellular receptors
The function of Vitamin D on plasma phosphate is It increased phosphate concentration
Vitamin D is synthesized from Intermediate Cholesterol metabolism
The active form of Vitamin D is Calcitriol
Exchangeable calcium salts in the bones provide The first line of defense in Ca regulation
Hormonal control of calcium provides The 2nd line of defense
Vitamin D Deficiency in children Rickets
Vitamin D deficiency in adults Osteomalacia
Bone disease is characterized by the loss of bone matrix and Osteoporosis
minerals
EnR-P-008 (Adrenomedullary hormones)
Epinephrine and Norepinephrine are secreted by Adrenal Medulla
Epinephrine and norepinephrine Controls the sympathetic nervous system
Excess production of adrenal medullary hormone Pheochromocytoma

EnR-P-009 (Spermatogenesis Capacitation & Acrosome reaction)

Testosterone is secreted by Leydig’s cells
Sperms formed each day in a human is 120 million
The changes resulting in sperm that make it capable of fertilizing the Capacitation
ovum are called
Which hormone is secreted by acrosome in large quantity Hyaluronidase
The average pH of the semen is 7.5
The life expectancy of ejaculated sperm in the female genital tract is 1 to 2 days

EnR-P-010 (Testosterone)
Testosterone is released by Leydig’s cell
The active form of testosterone is Dihydrotestosterone
Testosterone in many cells is converted to DHT by 5 Alpha Reductase
Failure of the testes to descent into the scrotum is called Cryptorchidism
Secretion of testosterone is controlled by which hormone from the GnRH
hypothalamus
Inhibin released from Sertoli cells inhibits the secretion of FSH and LH from anterior pituitary
Testosterone in fetal tissues is controlled by HcG

EnR-P-011 (Menstrual Cycle)

The Average duration of the menstrual cycle in females is 28 days
Monthly rhythmical changes occurring in the female during their Menstrual cycle
sexual life are called
Ovulation occurs on which day of the menstrual cycle 14th Day
The ovum is released during Ovulation. It is under the influence of Luteinizing hormone
which hormone
The proliferative phase of the endometrial cycle is under control by FSH
which hormone
The proliferative phase of the Endometrial cycle corresponds to Follicular phase
which phase of the Ovarian cycle
The secretory phase of the Endometrial cycle corresponds to which Luteal Phase
phase of the Ovarian cycle
Estrogen is secreted by Granulosa cells

EnR-P-012 (Female sexual hormones)

Testosterone is converted to Estrogen by the enzyme Aromatase
Theca cells are unable to synthesize Estrogen because These cells lack aromatase

Secretion of milk is inhibited by Progesterone

Ovarian hormones are steroids and they act through Intracellular receptors

EnR-P-013 (Puberty, menarche & menopause)

The period during which the cycle ceases and the female sex Menopause
hormones diminish to almost none is called
The onset of adult sexual life is called Puberty
The first occurrence of the Menstrual cycle is called Menarche
Menopause occurs normally at about which age 45

EnR-P-014 (Normal Pregnancy)

Human chorionic gonadotropin is secreted by Placenta
Involution of the corpus luteum at the end of the monthly female HcG
sexual cycle is prevented by
The increased uterine muscle contraction at the time of labor is Oxytocin
caused by
Lactation during the pregnancy is inhibited by Progesterone
Which of the following factors contributes to increased uterine Increased Estrogen to Progesterone ratio
muscle contraction

EnR-P-015 (Lactation)
Lactation during the pregnancy is inhibited by Progesterone
Milk production is stimulated by Prolactin
Suppression of the Female Ovarian Cycles in Nursing Mothers is Lactating amenorrhea
called
The milk, which is secreted initially before parturition Colostrum

MCQ PEARLS
HNSS-P-001 (Visual Acquity)
What is visual acuity? The ability of the eye to resolve two points separately when
situated close to each other.
What condition describes a normal eye? Emmetropia
What happens to light rays in a hyperopic eye? They focus behind the retina.
Which corrective measure is used for myopia? Concave (minus) lenses
What is a common feature of astigmatism? Blurred vision at all distances
What accumulates in the lens due to diabetes, leading to cataract Sorbitol
formation?
Which factor increases oxidative stress and promotes cataracts? Smoking
What type of lens corrects hyperopia? Convex (plus) lenses
What is the surgical treatment involving the removal of the lens Phacoemulsification
and its replacement with an IOL called?
What is a feature of myopia? Blurred distant vision

HNSS-P-002 (Refractive Errors)

What is the simplest and safest way to correct refractive errors? Eyeglasses
Which type of eyeglass lens corrects both near and distant vision with a Bifocals
visible line?
What type of contact lenses are made from water-containing plastic? Soft Lenses
Which contact lenses are specifically designed to correct astigmatism? Toric Lenses
What is the most common refractive surgery? LASIK (Laser-Assisted In Situ Keratomileusis)
Which refractive surgery is suitable for patients with thin corneas? PRK (Photorefractive Keratectomy)
Which newer refractive surgery technique removes a small piece of corneal SMILE (Small Incision Lenticule Extraction)
tissue?
What is the purpose of Orthokeratology? To temporarily reshape the cornea
For which condition is Refractive Lens Exchange (RLE) particularly High hyperopia or presbyopia
suitable?
Which type of eyeglass lenses correct near, intermediate, and distance Progressive Lenses
vision with no visible lines?

HNSS-P-003 (Fluid Systems of the Eye)

What is the average rate of aqueous humor formation in the eye? 2-3 microliters per minute
Which cells are involved in the secretion of aqueous humor? Epithelial cells of ciliary processes
What ions are transported actively to initiate the secretion of Sodium ions
aqueous humor?
How does aqueous humor flow from the ciliary process to the Through osmosis of water
anterior chamber of the eye?
What is the average normal intraocular pressure? About 15 mmHg
What device is used to measure intraocular pressure? Tonometer
What condition is characterized by damage to the optic nerve Glaucoma
due to increased intraocular pressure?
What are the common features of Primary Open-Angle Asymptomatic
Glaucoma (POAG) in its early stages?
Which type of glaucoma is associated with narrow anterior Primary Angle-Closure Glaucoma (PACG)
chamber angles?
What are the symptoms of congenital glaucoma in infants and Enlarged eyes, corneal clouding, excessive tearing, sensitivity to
children? light

HNSS-P-004 (Glaucoma)
What are common symptoms of open-angle glaucoma in its early stages? Often asymptomatic
Which type of glaucoma is associated with acute angle-closure crisis? Angle-Closure Glaucoma
What intraocular pressure (IOP) level is often seen in angle-closure glaucoma? Exceeding 40-50 mm Hg
How does the pupil react in angle-closure glaucoma? Fixed, mid-dilated, non-reactive to light
What is a common optic nerve feature in open-angle glaucoma? Cupping of the optic nerve head
What is the characteristic appearance of the cornea in angle-closure glaucoma? Corneal edema, cloudy appearance
Which demographic is at higher risk for open-angle glaucoma? African descent
What is a significant risk factor for angle-closure glaucoma? Hyperopia
How does open-angle glaucoma typically progress? Slow and gradual
Which gender is more commonly affected by angle-closure glaucoma? Female

HNSS-P-005 (Retina)
What is the outermost layer of the retina? Pigmented layer
What part of the retina is responsible for acute and detailed vision? Macula
What is the function of rods in the retina? Responsible for dark vision
Which structure contains the highest concentration of cones? Fovea
What is the function of melanin in the body? Protects against harmful rays and ROS
Where is the optic disc located? Nasal side of the retina
What condition involves the separation of the neural retina from the pigmented Retinal detachment
epithelium?
What is a common feature of retinal detachment? The sudden appearance of many floaters
Which investigation technique uses a laser to create cross-sectional images of the Optical Coherence Tomography (OCT)
retina?
What is the primary function of the fovea? Provides the highest visual acuity

HNSS-P-006 (Photochemistry of vision)

What happens to the retinal when light is absorbed by rhodopsin? It isomerizes from 11-cis to all-trans configuration
What does the isomerization of retinal trigger rhodopsin to convert into? Meta II
What does activated Meta II stimulate in the visual signal transduction Transducin
cascade?
Where does the conversion of all-trans-retinal back to 11-cis Retinal pigment epithelium cells
configuration occur?
What recombines with opsin to reform rhodopsin? 11-cis-retinal
What deficiency causes night blindness? Severe vitamin A deficiency
How long does it take to reverse night blindness with an intravenous Less than 1 hour
injection of vitamin A?
What happens to cyclic nucleotide-gated ion channels during the visual They close
signal transduction cascade?
Where is rhodopsin transported after it is reformed? Outer segments of rod cells
What is a key consequence of severe vitamin A deficiency related to Depressed amounts of retinal and rhodopsin
vision?

HNSS-P-007 (Adaptation)
What is the adjustment to bright light conditions called? Light Adaptation
What happens to photosensitive chemicals in rods and cones in They are reduced
bright light?
Which type of photoreceptor adapts quickly but does not achieve Cones
the same sensitivity change as the other?
What causes an increase in retinal sensitivity during dark Regeneration of rhodopsin and increase in open sodium channels
adaptation?
What term describes the initial adaptation driven by rods in low- Rod-Cone Break
light conditions?
What role does pupillary dilation play in dark adaptation? Allows more light to enter, enhancing sensitivity
What is the consequence of maladjustment to varying light Poor vision and bleaching of visual images
conditions?
Which disease is a cause of night blindness? Retinitis Pigmentosa
Which condition can lead to retinal detachment? Diabetic Retinopathy
What is the effect of neuronal signal amplification during dark Enhances transmission in low light
adaptation?

HNSS-P-008 (Color vision)

How many main color sensations are there in the tri-color mechanism Three (Red, green, blue)
of color determination?
What is the ratio of cone stimulation for the perception of orange light? [Link]
What results from equal stimulation of all cones? White light perception
What type of color blindness occurs when red cones are non- Protanopia
functioning or absent?
What type of color blindness occurs when green cones are non- Deuteranopia
functioning or absent?
What type of color blindness is associated with a shortened visual Protanopia
spectrum at the long wavelength end?
Which color blindness condition is more common in males due to Red-Green Color Blindness
genetics?
What tool is used to diagnose color vision deficiencies? Ishihara color plates
What challenge might individuals with color blindness face in everyday Difficulty selecting ripe fruits or matching clothing
tasks?
What is a common cause of color blindness? Genetic inheritance

HNSS-P-009 (Visual Pathways)

What structure focuses light that enters the eye? Cornea
Where do optic nerve fibers from each eye meet? Optic chiasma
Which condition is characterized by loss of vision in one eye? Monocular Vision Loss
What causes Bitemporal Hemianopia? Lesions at the optic chiasm
Which condition involves loss of vision in the same half of the Homonymous Hemianopia
visual field in both eyes?
What type of lesion causes Superior Quadrantanopia ("Pie in the Lesions in the temporal lobe affecting Meyer's loop
Sky")?
What condition is described by the loss of vision in the central Central Scotoma
visual field?
What causes Tunnel Vision? Advanced glaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, or optic
neuropathies
What is Visual Neglect often associated with? Lesions in the parietal lobe due to stroke or brain injury
affecting the non-dominant hemisphere
What is the effect of removing the primary visual cortex? Blindness in the contralateral visual field

HNSS-P-010 (Field of vision)

What is the physiological blind spot also known as? Optic disc
Where is the physiological blind spot located in the visual field of Temporal (lateral) visual field
each eye?
In anatomical terms, where is the physiological blind spot situated in Nasal side of the retina
the retina?
What is a scotoma? A localized area of partial or complete loss of vision
What can cause a scotoma in retinal diseases? Age-related macular degeneration (AMD)
Which optic nerve disorder can cause a scotoma? Optic neuritis
What cerebral cause can lead to a scotoma? Stroke affecting the visual cortex
What inflammatory condition can cause a scotoma? Multiple sclerosis
What infectious disease can cause a scotoma? Cytomegalovirus retinitis
What toxic exposure can lead to a scotoma? Methanol

HNSS-P-011 (Visual fields)

What is the term for loss of vision in one eye? Monocular Vision Loss
What causes Monocular Vision Loss? Lesions in the optic nerve of the affected eye
What is the term for loss of vision in the outer halves of both Bitemporal Hemianopia
visual fields?
What can cause Bitemporal Hemianopia? Lesions at the optic chiasm due to pituitary tumors
What is the term for loss of vision in the same half of the visual Homonymous Hemianopia
field in both eyes?
What causes Homonymous Hemianopia? Lesions in the optic tract, lateral geniculate nucleus
What is the term for loss of vision in a quarter section of the Quadrantanopia
visual field in both eyes?
What causes Quadrantanopia? Lesions affecting the optic radiations or occipital lobe
What is the term for constriction of the visual field to a small Tunnel Vision
central area, leading to loss of peripheral vision?
What causes Tunnel Vision? Advanced glaucoma, retinitis pigmentosa, optic neuropathies

HNSS-P-012 (Eye movements)

The muscle that moves the eye inward is the: Medial Rectus
The muscle responsible for moving the eye downward is the: Inferior Rectus
Which muscle rotates the eye upward and laterally? Inferior Oblique
The cranial nerve responsible for controlling the lateral rectus Abducens (VI)
muscle is:
The function of the medial longitudinal fasciculus (MLF) is to: Interconnect the brain stem nuclei of cranial nerves III, IV, and
VI
The superior colliculus and pretectal areas integrate visual Oculomotor nerves
information and send control signals to the brain stem nuclei of:
Which nerve tract helps coordinate eye movements by Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus (MLF)
interconnecting brain stem nuclei of cranial nerves III, IV, and
VI?
 Reciprocal innervation in eye muscles allows for: Smooth and precise eye movements
The vestibular nuclei in the brain stem send signals to the Eye movements with head movements
oculomotor system via the MLF to coordinate:
Visual signals from the occipital cortex reach the brain stem Occipitotectal and occipitocollicular tracts
through the:

HNSS-P-013 (Strabismus)
Esotropia is characterized by: One or both eyes turning inward
Congenital esotropia is: Present at birth or develops in the first six months of life
Exotropia is defined as: One or both eyes turning outward
Intermittent exotropia occurs: Occasionally, often when the person is tired, daydreaming, or
focusing on distant objects
Hypertropia is identified by: One eye turning upward
Acquired hypertropia can develop due to: Trauma, illness, or neurological conditions later in life
Hypotropia is characterized by: One eye turning downward
Cyclotropia involves: Rotation of the eyes around their anterior-posterior axis
Microstrabismus (Microtropia) is: Very small-angle strabismus, often less than 5 degrees
Vertical strabismus is a general term for misalignment where: One eye is higher or lower than the other

HNSS-P-014 (Accommodation)
Accommodation is the process by which: The eye's lens changes its shape to focus on objects at varying
distances
When the ciliary muscles contract, the lens becomes: More convex, increasing its refractive power
The relaxation of the ciliary muscles results in the lens: Flattening, decreasing its refractive power
The accommodation process is regulated by a: Negative feedback mechanism
Clues for adjusting lens strength include: Chromatic aberration, convergence, foveal depth clarity, and
oscillation
Components of the near response in accommodation include: Accommodation of the lens, convergence of the eyes, and
pupillary constriction
Visual signals for accommodation are processed in: Brodmann’s cortical areas 18 and 19 in the brain
Signals for adjusting lens strength are transmitted to the pretectal Brodmann’s cortical areas 18 and 19 in the brain
area from:
The Edinger-Westphal nucleus controls: The autonomic functions of the eye
Clinical features of presbyopia include: Difficulty reading small print, need for increased light, eye
strain, headaches, blurry vision at normal reading distance,
holding reading material at arm's length, difficulty with fine
motor tasks, fatigue, requirement for bifocal or reading glasses,
and fluctuating vision

HNSS-P-015 (Pupillary light reflex)

The pupillary light reflex involves: Activation of the circular muscles of the iris, causing the pupil to
constrict
Lesions in the pretectal nucleus may result in: Relative afferent pupillary defect
Impaired pupillary constriction in response to light stimulation Edinger-Westphal nuclei or oculomotor nerves
may result from lesions in:
Midbrain lesions disrupting neural pathways involved in the Abnormal pupillary responses
pupillary light reflex can lead to:
Increased intracranial pressure can result in impaired pupillary Exerting pressure on the oculomotor nerve or its nuclei
function by:
Horner syndrome is caused by: Damage to sympathetic nerves innervating the eye
Features of Horner syndrome include: Miosis, ptosis, anhidrosis, enophthalmos, vasodilation, and
heterochromia
Physiological anisocoria is considered benign if the difference in Less than 0.5 mm and stable over time
pupil size is:
Adie's pupil is characterized by: A dilated pupil that reacts slowly to light but constricts with
accommodation
Third nerve palsy is characterized by dysfunction of the: Third cranial nerve (oculomotor nerve)

HNSS-P-016 (Sense of hearing)

The function of the pinna is to: Send sound waves into the ear canal.
The tympanic membrane vibrates in response to: Sound waves.
The middle ear ossicles consist of: Malleus, incus, and stapes.
The Eustachian tube connects the middle ear to the: Nasopharynx.
The oval window connects the middle ear to the: Cochlea.
The primary function of the middle ear is: Amplification of sound.
Impacted earwax can lead to: Reduced ability to hear.
The treatment for impacted earwax includes: Ear drops, Irrigation, Manual removal, Suction, and
Microsuction.
Otomycosis is a fungal infection of the: Outer ear canal.
The impedance matching mechanism in the auditory system is Efficient sound transmission.
important for:

HNSS-P-017 (Inner Ear/Cochlea)

The cochlea is responsible for: Hearing.
The organ of Corti is located in the: Cochlea.
The vestibular system detects: Rotational movements of the head.
The function of the semi-circular canals is to detect: Rotational movements of the head.
The utricle and saccule within the vestibule have sensory organs Maculae.
called:
The vestibulocochlear nerve carries information from the inner Brainstem.
ear to the:
The basilar membrane in the cochlea vibrates in response to: Fluid pressure waves.
Hair cells in the cochlea are stimulated to release Bending motion caused by basilar membrane vibrations.
neurotransmitters by:
The endocochlear potential is generated by: Stria vascularis.
Sound waves are converted into fluid pressure waves in the: Cochlea.

HNSS-P-018 (Organ of Corti)

The organ of Corti responds to: Vibration of the basilar membrane.
The location of the organ of Corti is: On the surface of the basilar fibers and membrane.
The organ of Corti contains: Hair cells and spiral ganglion.
Hair cells in the organ of Corti act as: Sensory receptors.
The stereocilia on hair cells: Bend in response to sound vibrations.
Basilar membrane vibration excites hair cells by: Shearing the hairs against the tectorial membrane.
Inner hair cells stimulate: 90% of auditory nerve fibers.
Outer hair cells may control the sensitivity of inner hair cells by: Tuning at different sound pitches.
Bending of stereocilia on hair cells opens channels allowing Potassium ions.
movement of:
The endocochlear potential is crucial for the function of hair Amplifies and enhances the sensitivity of the hair cells to sound.
cells because it:

HNSS-P-019(Determination of sound frequency)

The normal range of human hearing is approximately: 20 Hz to 20,000 Hz.
Factors such as age, genetics, and noise exposure can: Affects a person's hearing capabilities.
The place principle in the auditory system relies on the: Spatial organization of the basilar membrane in the cochlea.
Low-frequency sounds activate the basilar membrane: Near the apex of the cochlea.
High-frequency sounds activate the basilar membrane: Near the base of the cochlea.
Intermediate-frequency sounds activate the basilar membrane: At positions between the apex and base.
The nervous system determines sound frequency by: Identifying the positions along the basilar membrane that are
most stimulated.
The place principle alone cannot fully explain: How the nervous system differentiates between low frequencies
below 200 Hz.
Low-frequency sounds from 20 to 2000 Hz can cause: Volleys of synchronized nerve impulses.
Destruction of the apical half of the cochlea does not completely The ability to discriminate lower-frequency sounds.
eliminate:

HNSS-P-020 (Auditory pathway)

Which structure is responsible for converting sound waves into Cochlea
electrical signals in the auditory pathway?
Where does the first processing of auditory information occur in Cochlear Nuclei
the brainstem?
Which brain structure integrates inputs from both ears and plays Superior Olivary Complex (SOC)
a role in sound localization?
The lateral lemniscus carries information about sound intensity Inferior Colliculus (IC)
and timing to which brain structure?
Which lobe of the brain houses the primary auditory cortex Temporal Lobe
responsible for processing sound information?
Which type of deafness is characterized by impairment of the Conduction Deafness
physical structures of the ear that conduct sound waves to the
cochlea?
What is a common cause of sensorineural deafness? Exposure to loud noises
What is a symptom of conduction deafness? Sounds may be faint or muffled, and there may be associated ear
pain or pressure
What investigation is commonly used to assess congenital Otoacoustic emissions (OAEs)
hearing loss?
Which type of deafness can occur at any age and is characterized Acquired Hearing Loss
by difficulty understanding speech and asking for repetition?

HNSS-P-021 (Sense of Taste)

Which taste sensation is described as savory or meaty? Umami
What is taste blindness also known as? Taste insensitivity
What is a common example of taste blindness involving the Phenylthiocarbamide (PTC)
inability to taste certain thiourea compounds, such as
phenylthiocarbamide?
Approximately what percentage of people exhibit taste blindness 15 to 30 percent
to PTC?
What are the primary taste sensations? Sweet, Salty, Sour, Bitter, Umami
Taste cells are continually being replaced through mitotic Epithelial cells
division of which surrounding cells?
Where are taste buds found on the tongue? On three types of papillae: Circumvallate, Fungiform, Foliate
How many taste buds do adults typically have? 3000 to 10,000
What is the lifespan of each taste cell in lower mammals? About 10 days
Beyond the age of 45 years, many taste buds degenerate, leading Old age
to decreased taste sensitivity in what stage of life?

HNSS-P-022 (Excitation of Taste buds)

What is the initial charge of the taste cell membrane? Negatively charged
What causes the depolarization of taste cells? Application of taste substances
What type of ion channels are involved in the perception of salty and sour tastes? Ion channels
Which nerve is responsible for transmitting taste sensation from the anterior two- Lingual nerve
thirds of the tongue?
Which nerve is responsible for transmitting taste sensation from the posterior tongue Glossopharyngeal nerve
and pharyngeal region?
Which nerve is responsible for transmitting taste sensation from the base of the tongue Vagus nerve
and pharyngeal region?
Where does the chorda tympani nerve transmit taste sensation to after leaving the Facial nerve
lingual nerve?
After reaching the brain stem, taste signals are transmitted to which structure for Tractus solitarius
further processing?
Which part of the brain is involved in the processing of taste signals? Parietal cerebral cortex
What controls saliva secretion during food ingestion and digestion in response to taste Superior and inferior salivatory nuclei
signals?

HNSS-P-023 (Abnormalities of Taste sensations)

What is the term for the complete loss of the sense of taste? Ageusia
What can cause ageusia? Damage to taste buds, certain medical conditions, neurological
disorders, or medications
What is hypergeusia? Increased sensitivity to taste stimuli leading to highly increased
taste perception
What can cause hypergeusia? Hormonal changes, certain medical conditions, medications, or
psychological factors
What is hypogeusia? Reduced sense of taste affecting one or more taste modalities
What can cause hypogeusia? Age-related factors and certain medical conditions
What is dysgeusia? Abnormal or distorted sense of taste, perceiving metallic, bitter,
salty, or sweet tastes even in the absence of corresponding
stimuli
What can dysgeusia be a symptom of? Various medical conditions
What are some senile changes in taste buds? Reduced taste sensations and perception, medication side effects,
dry mouth, loss of appetite
What is the term for the complete loss of the sense of taste? Ageusia

HNSS-P-024 (Taste preference and aversion)

What is taste preference? The tendency to choose certain types of food over others
How can taste preferences change? Based on the body's need for specific substances
What do adrenalectomized, salt-depleted animals prefer? Water with high sodium chloride concentration
What do animals injected with excessive insulin choose? Sweet food to replenish depleted blood sugar
What is taste aversion? Development of a dislike or avoidance of a particular food or
taste after experiencing negative consequences
What is an example of taste aversion? Developing a dislike for a food after becoming sick from eating
it
What influences taste preference or aversion more, taste Central processes
receptors or central processes?
How are taste preferences influenced by previous experiences Development of taste aversion after negative experiences with
with taste? food
What is taste preference? The tendency to choose certain types of food over others
How can taste preferences change? Based on the body's need for specific substances

HNSS-P-025 (Sense of smell)

What are the primary sensations of smell? Camphoraceous, Musky, Floral, Pepperminty, Ethereal, Pungent,
Putrid
Where is the olfactory membrane located? In the superior part of each nostril
What is the surface area of the olfactory membrane in each About 2.4 square centimeters
nostril?
What is the function of olfactory cells? They are the receptor cells for the sense of smell
How many olfactory cells are there in the olfactory epithelium? Approximately 100 million
What structures project from the mucosal end of each olfactory Olfactory hairs (cilia)
cell into the nasal cavity?
What is the function of Bowman's glands in the olfactory They secrete mucus onto the surface of the olfactory membrane,
membrane? helping to trap and dissolve odor molecules for detection by
olfactory cells
What are the primary sensations of smell? Camphoraceous, Musky, Floral, Pepperminty, Ethereal, Pungent,
Putrid
Where is the olfactory membrane located? In the superior part of each nostril
What is the surface area of the olfactory membrane in each About 2.4 square centimeters
nostril?