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B1 Dossier

Preparación examen Aptis

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Enrique Gómez Cortés

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

226 views264 pages

B1 Dossier

Preparación examen Aptis

Uploaded by

Enrique Gómez Cortés

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

COURSE (30 hours)

Level A2 to B1

1
APTIS Intensive course

Welcome to your Aptis course. You are here to learn the format of the APTIS
test and the question types, to practise them, as well as to review and
consolidate simple and some complex grammar points and essential
vocabulary. The duration of this course is 30 hours.

This course is ideal for students who need to certify B1 and who have an A2
level.

Of course, you will have to study every day and do lots of practice exercises at
home. It is essential that you assimilate well the grammar and vocabulary. Do
not hesitate to ask your teacher questions if you have any doubts.

Good luck ! We hope you enjoy the course !

2
Aptis

B1 30-hour INDEX
Page number/s Description
4 Test structure
5-9 Description of CORE TEST
10-12 Present simple V continuous
13-16 Prepositions of place
17-18 Was Were
19-22 Past simple
23-25 Regular and irregular verbs in past simple
26-27 There is There are
28-31 Present perfect
32-33 Questions
34-39 Comparative & Superlative
40-41 1st Conditional
42-43 To have
44-45 It ........
46-47 Linkers
48-51 Adjectives -ed V -ing
52-61 Grammar Answers
62-66 Multiple choice - exercise 1
67-72 Multiple choice - exercise 2
73-82 Vocabulary practice for Aptis
83-97 Extra vocab exercises
98 False Friends
99 Words to describe Feelings
100-111 Description of WRITING TEST
112-114 Useful language for writing
115-123 Writing practice for Aptis
124-130 Description of READING TEST
131-148 Reading practice for Aptis
149-153 Description of LISTENING TEST
154-161 Listening practice
162-176 Description of SPEAKING TEST
177-179 Useful language for speaking
180-205 Speaking practice for Aptis
206-227 Practice test 1
228-253 Practice test 2
254-266 Answer sheet, Answer keys & Samples

3
Aptis General– TEST STRUCTURE

Aptis consists of 5 components: core (grammar and vocabulary), reading, listening, writing and
speaking.

The structure of the Aptis test is:

TEST TEST DESIGN ACTIVITY FORMAT

Speaking Part 1 Personal Respond to 3 personal information questions. 30 seconds for each response.
12 minutes information
Part 2 Describe, express Describe a picture and answer 2 additional 45 seconds for each response.
opinion and provide questions of increasing difficulty.
reasons and
explanations
Part 3 Describe, compare Describe two contrasting pictures and answer 45 seconds for each response.
and provide reasons and 2 additional questions of increasing difficulty.
explanations
Part 4 Discuss personal Answer 3 questions on an abstract topic. 1-minute preparation time.
experience and opinion 2-minute response time.
on an abstract topic
Listening Part 1 Information Listen to a short monologue or dialogue to 3-option multiple choice.
Approximately recognition identify specific information. (13 questions)
40 minutes Part 2 Information Matching people’s monologues to 6 pieces of information and 4
matching information. (4 questions) monologues
Part 3 Inference Long conversation. 4 pieces of information – 3-option multiple choice
Who says what?
Part 4 Inference 2 monologues with 2 questions for each 3-option multiple choice
monologue.
Core Part 1 Grammar Sentence completion (25 questions) 3-option multiple choice (formal English)
25 minutes Part 2 Vocabulary Word matching (similar meaning). Sets of 5 target words with 10 options.
(50 questions in Match words to definitions.
total) Sentence completion.
Word pairs or Word combinations (words
commonly used together).
(25 questions)
Reading Part 1 Sentence Choose words to complete sentences. (1 task, 3-option multiple choice.
35 minutes comprehension 5 questions)
(29 questions in Part 2 Text cohesion Put sentences into the correct order. (2 tasks, 2 tasks: 6 sentences jumbled up in each
total) 10 questions – 5 questions each task). task.
Part 3 Opinion matching Match people’s opinions to statements.(1 7 statements matched to 4 people’s
task, 7 questions). opinions.
Part 4 Long text Match headings to paragraphs. (1 task, 7 7 paragraphs and 8 headings.
comprehension questions).
Writing Part 1 Word-level writing Respond to messages using individual words. 1-5 words for each question.
50 minutes Part 2 Short text writing Write personal information. 20-30 words.
Part 3 Three written Respond to written questions on a social 30-40 words for each question.
responses to questions. network-type website.
Part 4 Formal and Write an informal email to a friend and a 40-50 words for the informal email.
informal writing formal email to an unknown person. 120-150 words for the formal email.

All parts have equal weight out of 50.

4
CORE TEST
(Grammar & Vocabulary)

5
8

Aptis core test

(grammar and vocabulary)

The core test is the same for Aptis General and Aptis Advanced. It consists of two parts.
The ﬁrst part assesses your knowledge of English grammar. The second part assesses
your knowledge of English vocabulary.

Part Description Preparation

Grammar In this part of the test, you will answer To know which parts of grammar
Part 1 25 questions. are tested, see the British Council /
EAQUALS core inventory. This is free and
Most of the questions test formal written available online at:
English. A small number of questions https://www.teachingenglish.org.uk/
test spoken English, such as knowing article/british-council-eaquals-core-
the appropriate grammar to use in a inventory-general-english
particular situation (formal or informal
situations, for example). One great way to prepare for the
grammar test is to use the British
All 25 questions are in the format of a Council’s LearnEnglish website:
3-option multiple choice. http://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org/
grammar
Complete a sentence by choosing the
correct word.

Vocabulary There are 25 questions in this part of the test. To help you prepare for this part of the
Part 2 test, the LearnEnglish website has games
There are a number of question types: and activities to help you improve your
Word matching: find a word with a vocabulary.
meaning similar to the target word. http://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org/
vocabulary
Word definition: match a definition to the
correct word. Another useful tip is to take note of
interesting words or word combinations
Word usage: complete a sentence by when you read English texts.
choosing the correct word.

Word pairs or word combinations:

select the most common combinations
of words. You are given a target word
and a list of words which may or may not
be commonly used in combination with
the target word. (e.g. where card is the
target word, birthday + card is a common
combination but blue + card is not).
6
9

Sample grammar questions

There are two question types. The ﬁrst focuses on written English grammar, and the
second focuses on the use of English grammar when speaking.

Here are some examples:

1. Written grammar
He__________me that the machine was broken.
O told
O spoke
O said

My boss says that I __________ to ﬁnish the report by Friday.

O must
O have
O should

My new computer works __________ faster than my old one.

O many
O more
O much

I have worked for this company __________ I left university.

O since
O after
O from

2. Spoken grammar
John: She’s French, isn’t she?
Ahmed: No, she’s __________ from Belgium.
O exactly
O actually
O anyway

Zeynep: I really don’t feel like going to see that movie tonight.
Peter: Ok. __________ we can go next week instead.
O Maybe
O However
O Nevertheless

7
10

Sample vocabulary questions

In the ﬁrst question type, you need to match words with similar meanings from a list of
options. To do this, click on the arrows and choose the similar word.

Here is an example:

For the next question type, you need to match a deﬁnition to a word. Click on the arrow
and choose the word that matches the deﬁnition.

Here is an example:

8
11

The next question type asks you to identify a word from a list that is commonly used with
the given word.

There is a ﬁnal question type that asks you to complete a sentence using a word from a list.

9
GRAMMAR
Exam practice & useful language

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47
Unit
98 Adjectives ending in -ing and -ed (boring/bored etc.)
Many adjectives end in -ing and -ed, for example: boring and bored. Study this example situation:

Jane has been doing the same job for a very long
bored time. Every day she does exactly the same thing
again and again. She doesn't enjoy her job any
more and would like to do something different.

Jane's job is boring.

Jane is bored (with her job).

boring

Somebody is bored if something (or somebody else) is boring. Or, if something is boring, it makes
you bored. So:
Jane is bored because her job is boring.
O Jane’s job is boring, so Jane is bored, (not Jane is boring)

If a person is boring, this means that they make other people bored:
George always talks about the same things. He's really boring.

Compare adjectives ending in -ing and -ed:

boring. I'm bored with my job.

interesting. I'm not interested in my job any more.
My job is < tiring. I: I get very tired doing my job.
satisfying. I'm not satisfied with my job.
depressing, (etc.) My job makes me depressed, (etc.)

In these examples, the -ing adjective tells In these examples, the -ed adjective tells you
you about the job. how somebody feels (about the job).

Compare these examples:

interesting interested
Julia thinks politics is interesting. Julia is interested in politics.
(not interesting in politics)
Did you meet anyone interesting at the Are you interested in buying a car?
party? I'm trying to sell mine.

surprising surprised
It was surprising that he passed the Everybody was surprised that he passed
exam. the exam.

disappointing disappointed
The movie was disappointing. We were disappointed with the movie.
We expected it to be much better. We expected it to be much better.

shocking shocked
The news was shocking. 1was shocked when 1 heard the news.

48
Exercises
Complete the sentences for each situation. Use the word in brackets + -ing or -ed.
1 The movie wasn't as good as we had expected, (disappoint...)
a The movie was disappoinUng .
b We were disappointed, with themovie.

2 Donna teaches young children. It's a veryhard job, but she enjoys it. (exhaust...)
a She enjoys her job, but it's often .......
b At the end of a day's work, she is often ............. ..

3 It's been raining all day. I hate this weather, (depress...)

a This weather is .
b This weather makes me .
c It's silly to g et.............................. becauseof the weather.

4 Clare is going to Mexico next month. She has never been there before, (exclt...)
a It will be a n ........................... experience for her.
b Going to new places is always .........................................
c She is really........................ about going to Mexico.

Choose the correct word.

1 I was disappointing- / disappointed with the film. I had expected it to be better.
(disappointed is correct)
2 Are you interesting / interested in football?
3 The new project sounds exciting / excited. I’m looking forward to working on it.
4 It's embarrassing / embarrassed when you have to ask people for money.
5 Do you easily get embarrassing / embarrassed?
6 I had never expected to get the job. I was really amazing / amazed when I was offered it.
7 She has really learnt very fast. She has made amazing / amazed progress.
8 I didn't find the situation funny. I was not amusing / amused.
9 It was a really terrifying / terrified experience. Everybody was very shocking / shocked.
10 Why do you always look so boring / bored? Is your life really so boring / bored?
11 He's one of the most boring / bored people I've ever met. He never stops talking and he never
says anything interesting / interested.

Complete each sentence using a word from the box.

amusing/amused annoying/annoyed boring/bored

confusing/confused disgusting/disgusted exciting/excited
exhausting/exhausted interesting/interested -surprisin g /surprised

1 He works very hard. It's not surprising that he's always tired.
2 I've got nothing to do. I'm .........................................
3 The teacher's explanation was ...... . Most of the students didn't
understand it.
4 The kitchen hadn't been cleaned for ages. It was really .
5 I don't visit art galleries very often. I'm not particularly in art.
6 There's no need to get just because I'm a few minutes late.
7 The lecture was . I fell asleep.
8 I've been working very hard all day and now I'm .
9 I’m starting a new job next week. I'm very about it.
10 Steve is good at telling funny stories. He can be very .
11 Helen is a very person. She knows a lot, she's travelled a lot and
she's done lots of different things.

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50
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52
53
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2. gone
3. been
4. been
5. gone
6. been
7. been
8. gone

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61
GRAMMAR PRACTICE

CHOOSE THE CORRECT ANSWER IN EACH QUESTION.

1 Mary is asleep. ___________________ make any noise!

a) Do b) Don’t c) Not d) No

2 Listen! The teacher _________________ to you.

a) is talking b) talking c) talks d) talk

3 What is that? Oh! It’s _______________ dog.

a) ours b) of us c) our d) us

4 That is _____________________ sister.

a) Alice b) of Alice c) the Alice’s d) Alice’s

5 How do the children normally go to school? ________________

a) by foot b) walking c) in car d) by car

6 Please send the fax to ___________________ .

a) them b) their c) they d) theirs

7 ___________________ do you go to the gym? Four days a week.

a) What frequency b) How often c) How long d) What time

8 __________________ is this? It’s not mine.

a) Of who b) Who c) Who’s d) Whose

9 Michael ____________________ home at 5 o’clock every day.

a) gone b) go c) goes d) going

10 Do the soldiers work at the weekend? No, ______________________ .

a) they do b) they don’t work c) they don’t d) they not work

11 Paul __________________ start his new job on Tuesday.

a) ´s going b) going c) going to d) ´s going to

12 Do you live in Paris? Yes, _____________________ .

a) I do b) I live c) I do live d) I am

13 What ______________ do after his military service?

a) is Ron going b) ‘s Ron going to c) Ron is going d) Ron is going to

62
14 The blue dress costs €64 and the red one costs €84. The red dress is _______________ the blue one.

a) ‘nt as expensive as b) cheaper than c) more expensive that d) n’t as cheap as

15 My brother Peter plays tennis ____________ my brother Sam.

a) best than b) more well than c) better that d) better than

16 The exam ____________ at the correct time.

a) don’t started b) didn’t start c) didn’t started d) doesn’t started

17 The child _____________ to the party alone last Saturday.

a) gone b) goes c) did go d) went

18 A: It’s very cold in here.

B: Don’t worry, I ______________ the heating

a) ‘ll turn b) ‘m going to turn on c) turn on d) ‘ll turn on

19 _______________ call a doctor for you?

a) Won’t I b) Would I c) Am I going d) Shall I

20 When the exam results come out, who _____________ with?

a) are going to celebrate b) you celebrate

c) you will celebrate d) will you celebrate

21 The soldiers ________________ stay in the barracks last weekend.

a) didn’t have to b) didn’t need c) must d) had

22 Must the soldiers get up at 6 o’clock on Sundays? No, they _______________ .

a) don’t b) needn’t c) mustn’t d) can’t

23 My little brother will be five when he __________________ to France.

a) will go b) go c) goes d) ´s going to

24 The twins __________________ swim when they were three years old.

a) could b) can c) knew d) could to

25 The company has worked with us __________________ a long time.

a) since b) for c) during d) while

26 We __________________ buy alcohol since we were 16 years old.

a) been able to b) ´ve been able c) ´ve could d) ´ve been able to

27 ___________________________ America?

a) Have you ever been in b) Has you ever been in

c) Have you ever been to d) Have you ever been

63
28 I ______________________ the picture when Roger called.

a) was looking at b) were looking at c) was looking d) was seeing

29 Most people think that __________________ is an interesting hobby.

a) travelling b) to travel c) the travel d) to travelling

30 Those are the people __________________ we sent the letters to.

a) whom b) which c) who d) whose

31 Those are the men _____________________ wives are in prison.

a) whose b) of whose c) who d) of who

32 The boy’s mother told him ___________________ the disco.

a) not to go to b) to not go to c) not going to d) not to going

33 “What can I do for you?”

The shop assistant asked the man what _______________________.

a) can he do for him b) he can do for him

c) could he do for him d) he could do for him

34 The man wanted to know if the client objected to __________________.

a) his opening the window b) he opening the window

c) him to open the window d) his to open the window

35 Mary normally has her hair _______________ at the hairdresser’s in town.

a) done b) did c) to do d) doing

36 Before arriving at the flat, Mike and Paula ________________ had supper.

a) didn’t b) did c) had d) have

37 Before you got the job in that company ___________________ anywhere else?

a) did you work b) had you work

c) has you worked d) had you worked

38 _____________________ you pay the bank now, they won’t give you another loan.

a) If b) Unless c) If not d) If don’t

39 The doctor said that his patient _________________ have an operation on his foot.

a) ought to b) ought c) should to d) had better to

40 The employees __________________ sign their names in the book before leaving.

a) supposed to b) should to c) are supposed to d) are supposed

41 The building ____________________ finished by next April.

a) should been b) ought be c) should to be d) should be

42 The car _______________ in the explosion.

64
a) was destroy b) was destroyed c) were destroyed d) destroyed

43 A new government _______________ next month.

a) ´s formed b) ´s going to be formed

c) will formed d) going to form

44 The criminal ________________ to prison for life.

a) has sent b) has sending c) has been send d) has been sent

45 If I __________________ a bad timetable, I won’t work.

a) ´m given b) ´m giving c) ´ll be given d) ´ll be giving

46 Tom would travel more if he _____________________ a car.

a) own b) would own c) had owned d) owned

47 The accident wouldn’t have happened if the driver ___________ more careful.

a) would have been b) would be c) had been d) wouldn’t have been

48 When we were children we ___________________ to the beach every summer.

a) used go b) used to go c) was used to go d) was used go

49 When I’m not feeling well, I ___________________ in bed.

a) usually stay b) use to stay c) used to stay d) normally to stay

50 Monica _______________ because her car keys aren’t here.

a) must already left b) must have already left

c) can’t left d) must to have left

65
KEY:

1. B
2. A
3. C
4. D
5. D
6. A
7. B
8. D
9. C
10. C
11. D
12. A
13. B
14. D
15. D
16. B
17. D
18. D
19. D
20. D
21. A
22. B
23. C
24. A
25. B
26. D
27. C
28. A
29. A
30. C
31. A
32. A
33. D
34. A
35. A
36. C
37. D
38. B
39. A
40. C
41. D
42. B
43. B
44. D
45. A
46. D
47. C
48. B
49. A
50. B

66
GRAMMAR PRACTICE

1. The product manager usually ___________ a report to the client on Friday morning.

a. sends b. send c. sent

2. Bill ______________ lunch with the Irish President the day before yesterday.

a. hadn’t b. didn’t have c. hadn’t got

th
3. Your English test will be __________ the 8 of June __________ 5 p.m.

a. on / at b. at / on c. in / at

4. His salary is the same ____________ mine.

a. like b. than c. as

5. All the employees _____________ to London tomorrow to do a training course.

a. fly b. flew c. are flying

6. Rafael Nadal has won ____________ tennis matches.

a. too many b. a lot of c. much

7. I ____________ the report yet.

a. haven’t finished b. finished c. didn’t finish

8. They ______________ in the International Department.

a. ‘d like working b. like working c. like work

9. There ______________ more jobs if the company gets the contract.

a. will be b. can c. may

10. How ______________ is your house from the office?

a. distant b. far c. long

11. _______________ the chief engineer who signed the contract.

a. Was he? b. Was it? c. Did he?

12. My job ______________ exciting but now I find it boring.

a. is usually b. use to be c. used to be

13. I was brought up in Ireland but I’ve been living in Germany ____________ the past 15
years.

a. since b. for c. during

14. You didn’t tell me you needed the tickets this afternoon. But don’t worry!
______________ them right now!.

67
a. I’ll book b. I’m going to book c. I’m booking

15. The junior executive felt very _________________ when he understood very little at the
meeting.

a. embarrassing b. embarrass c. embarrassed

16. A mechanic is a person ________________ job is to repair car engines.

a. whose b. who c. who’s

17. There’s _____________________ fresh air in the countryside.

a. full of b. plenty of c. a lot

18. Did the manager send the products? Michael asked: ___________________

a. if the manager did send the products

b. if had the manager sent the products
c. if the manager had sent the products

19. James didn’t get accepted for the job. He ________________ improved his computer
skills.

a. should’ve b. would’ve c. may have

20. If your company you to move to Alaska, _____?

a. asks/are you going b. asked/would you go c. had asked/will you go

21. John Lennon _________ in 1980. His records _____________ increasingly popular
since then.

a. died/became b. dead/are becoming c. died/have become

22. IT Corp. is ___________________ by Megacorp.

a. being taken over b. taking over c. been taken over

23. Mary goes to the hairdresser’s every Friday evening.

a. She’s having her hair done once a week.

b. She does her hair once a week.
c. She has her hair done once a week.

24. He’s studying _____ degree in _____ Law at _____ University of Leeds.

a. _ / / the b. a / __ / the c. a / the / the

25. While he ____________ on the phone, the thief _________ into the house and
__________ the jewels.

a. chatted/broke/robbed
b. was chatting/broke/stole
c. was speaking/had broken/stolen

68
26. You handed in the report on time, _______________ ?.

a. didn’t you b. haven’t you c. weren’t you

27. She _________________ for the national team in 25 tournaments so far.

a. has been playing b. has played c. is playing

28. By the year 2010, the company ________________ into the U.S.A.

a. will have expanded b. will be expanded c. will expand

29. The computer crashed, so we ______________ a technician.

a. must call b. must have called c. had to call

30. If you _ the service, we __ a lot of money.

a. ‘d outsourced/had saved
b. had outsourced/‘d have saved
c. outsourced/would have saved

31. Remember _ your passport before to the U.K.

a. to check/travelling b. checking/travelling c. check/to travel

32. Being bilingual doesn’t guarantee a job. _______, it will help to be shortlisted.

a. Nevertheless b. Moreover c. Furthermore

33. I wish they ______________ me on my mobile at weekends.

a. will call b. do call c. wouldn’t call

34. “Have you heard that Eva is having a baby at 50?”

a. “You joke!” b. “You’re joking!” c. “You’ve been joking!”

35. “Hi, Johanna. I _________________ if you had any plans for the weekend.”

a. am wondering b. was wondering c. wonder

36. Half the population are thought ________________ bird flu from eating imported
chicken.

a. to have caught b. to be caught c. having caught

69
37. I’ve told you before. ____________ I need is help, not sympathy.

a. That b. Which c. What

38. You _________________ me you weren’t coming to the party. I _____________ John
to accompany me.

a. wouldn’t told/would ask

b. could’ve told/could’ve asked
c. must have told/could have asked

39. That model is ____________ gorgeous. At 15, she’s got an ____________ huge career
ahead.

a. absolutely/absolutely b. extremely/absolutely c. absolutely/extremely

40. The secretary took ________ my mobile number but never called me ________.

a. up/up b. down/back c. away/up

41. They like nothing _____________ having a long break.

a. more than b. more that c. more as

42. Employees _____________ clock in by 8:30 a.m.

a. are supposed to b. should to c. are supposed

43. It’s time you ________________ some of your responsibility. You’ve too much on your
plate.

a. will hand over b. hand over c. handed over

44. Not only __________________ promotion, he also got a new company car.

a. had he got b. did he get c. he got

45. The _____________ political situation is deplorable. Well, ___________, it’s on the
verge of collapse.

a. current/actually b. actual/presently c. present/currently

46. I’ve been living here for 3 years and I just can’t get ______________ so late.

a. use to eating b. used to eating c. used to eat

47. __________________ that Sally was accepted into the Harvard Business School.

a. So intelligent was she at 15

b. Such was she intelligent at 15
c. So was her intelligence at 15

48. _______________ to send the e-mail, he _____________ in trouble with the boss.

a. Were he to forget/would have been

b. If he hadn’t forgotten/had been
c. Had he not forgotten/wouldn’t have been

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49. ________ my colleagues don’t object, I’ll ask for a reduction in working hours.

a. Providing b. Unless c. Despite

50. No doubt you’d rather he scheduled the meeting after lunch, _______________?

a. hadn’t you b. didn’t you c. wouldn’t you

71
KEY:

1. A
2. B
3. A
4. C
5. C
6. B
7. A
8. B
9. A
10. B
11. B
12. C
13. B
14. A
15. C
16. A
17. B
18. C
19. A
20. B
21. C
22. A
23. C
24. B
25. B
26. A
27. B
28. A
29. C
30. B
31. A
32. A
33. C
34. B
35. B
36. A
37. C
38. B
39. A
40. B
41. A
42. A
43. C
44. B
45. A
46. B
47. A
48. C
49. A
50. C

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VOCABULARY
Exam practice & useful language

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VOCABULARY PRACTICE FOR APTIS

WORD MATCHING :

Match the words on the left with words that have a similar meaning on the right. There are 5 extra
words.

SAMPLE 1 :

tall talk

speak bring

finish high

make arrive

leave do

choose walk

pick

end

sell

begin

SAMPLE 2 :

watch attempt
catch desire
enjoy bring
want listen
tell look
try take
sing
like
receive
say
plan

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SAMPLE 3 :

short overweight

sad taste

fat upset

stand angry

try pleased

weak order

send

tiny

get up

fragile

busy

SAMPLE 4 :

lie purchase

hate sell

pleased angry

difficult advise

prize loathe

buy deceive

tough

careful

present

award

thrilled

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MATCH WORDS TO DEFINITIONS :

SAMPLE 1 :

Complete the definition using a word in the box :

adjust stay lend apply steal amuse reject keep cough look after

To take something illegally _____________________

To cause to laugh ________________________

To continue to be in a place ______________________

To take care of __________________________

To make a formal request ________________________

SAMPLE 2 :

argue lend regret degree career afford wealthy share expensive download

Academic qualification ____________________

To have enough money _____________________

To be sorry for ___________________

Rich ______________________

To transfer data from a computer ______________________

SAMPLE 3 :

argue throw tracksuit lend bargain spend cheat borrow suit reject

To use up ____________________

To act dishonestly ____________________

Clothes worn for doing sport _____________________

To receive something you will return ____________________

Something bought at an advantageous price _________________

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SAMPLE 4 :

cope warn freeze discuss speed miss choose realise complain settle

To convert into ice ______________________

To express dissatisfaction _________________________

To select ___________________________

To move rapidly _________________________

To manage difficulties ____________________________

SENTENCE COMPLETION :

Complete the sentences in the exercises using one of the words in the list. There are 5 extra words.

SAMPLE 1 :

aggressive healthy talented talkative lively sociable ugly self- confident hardworking boring patient

Example : Peter is not very sociable ; he hates meeting new people

1. Teachers need to be very _____________________ with their students when they’re having
problems understanding.
2. My father was always very ______________________ . He only took one week’s holiday a year.
3. This film is very _____________________ . Can we watch a different one ?
4. Sally’s ___________________ personality makes her an ideal candidate for working with
children.

SAMPLE 2 :

noisy traffic crime accommodation booking cottage pollution wildlife neighbourhood countryside quiet

Example : There’s so much traffic in this city – just thousands of cars all day.

1. I can’t concentrate here because it’s too ___________________ .

2. I’m going to stay in Tom’s house when I go to London as ___________________ is just too
expensive.
3. I’d like to go to the __________________ this weekend because I’m tired of the city.
4. Our ___________________ has some really good schools and sports facilities.

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SAMPLE 3 :

grow up take after hang out brought up childhood get together split up grow get on mix up wedding

Example : I wasn’t invited to my cousin’s wedding as they got married in Australia.

1. I was married for two years but we _______________________ 6 months ago and I’m very sad.
2. My brother doesn’t ______________________ with my boyfriend. In fact, they hate each
other.
3. I think you ____________________ your mother. You’re both so impatient !
4. Our family always ____________________ at Christimas time. It’s a great tradition and we
always have great fun.

SAMPLE 4 :

successful outstanding skilled useless fit sensitive competitive potential well-known achievement performance

Example : Mark’s performance in the race was incredible. He won a gold medal.

1. He’s had a lot of injuries but he always comes back to win. He really is a(n)
_________________ athlete – there’s noone like him.
2. It was an incredible ___________________________ to win two gold medals at the
Olympic Games after so many injuries.
3. It’s ____________________ trying to compete against him – he’s much too good for me.
4. You’re so ____________________ that you always get angry when you lose !

SAMPLE 5 :

put aside grant donate mortgage affordable invest budget income debt savings pay off

Example : Sally earned a lot of money as a model so she decided to invest her money. Now she’s
a millionaire.

1. I have to find a(n) __________________________ house – this one is too expensive.

2. Peter was such a good student that he was given a(n) ___________________ to study abroad.
3. If I _____________________ a little money each week, I should be able to get that fabulous
dress for the party.
4. Our ____________________ for the holiday doesn’t cover such expensive hotels.

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WORD PAIRS or WORD COMBINATIONS (words commonly used together) :

Select a word from the list that is most often used with the words in the box:

SAMPLE 1 :

Example : atom + bomb

seat +

breaking +

rush +

pay +

long +

traffic income hour news queue belt rise plane stairs pay

SAMPLE 2 :

high +

heavy +

film +

married +

spread +

advice job couple rain shop price review sheet page wedding

SAMPLE 3 :

toy +

interest +

live +

cycle +

traffic +

music game cars lights road lane gun film rates money

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SAMPLE 4 :

bottle +

family +

current +

cough +

parking +

sneeze reunion bottle relative opener space glass affairs people places

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KEY

SAMPLE 4 :

opener reunion affairs bottle space

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FALSE FRIENDS

Spanish word English equivalent English word Spanish equivalent

actual current, present actual real
actualmente currently, nowadays actually en realidad, de hecho
agenda calendar, appointment book, diary agenda orden del día, plan secreto
alterado upset altered cambiado, modificado
argumento plot, reasoning argument discusión, riña
bravo fierce, wild brave valiente
carpeta folder carpet moqueta
carta letter cart carrito, carreta
casualidad coincidence, chance casualty Víctima (en un accidente)
chocar strike, collide choke ahogar
colegio school, secondary/high school college universidad
collar necklace, collar (for pets) collar cuello de prenda de ropa
compromiso obligation, commitment compromise mutuo acuerdo
constipado to have a cold constipated estreñido
contesta answer(s) contest concurso
costumbre habit, custom costume disfraz, vestuario
cráneo skull crane grúa
decepción disappointment, letdown deception engaño
desgracia misfortune, tragedy disgrace deshonra, ridículo
disgusto annoyance, upset disgust asco, repugnancia
diversión fun, amusement diversion desvío, distracción
dormitorio bedroom dormitory residencia universitaria
elaborar make/produce/create elaborate (adj) detallado, minucioso
embarazada pregnant embarrassed avergonzado/a
empresa business, company empress emperatriz
enviar send envy (v) envidiar
eventualmente by chance, occassionally eventually finalmente, con el tiempo
éxito success, hit exit salida
fábrica factory fabric tela, tejido
gentil pleasant, courteous gentle amable, moderado, suave
introducir to insert introduce (somebody) presentar
largo long large grande
lentilla contact lens lentil lenteja
librería bookshop, bookstore library biblioteca
mayor bigger, larger, older mayor alcalde
miseria poverty misery pena, tristeza
molestar bother, disturb molest abusar (sexualmente)
nudo knot nude desnudo
pan bread pan sartén
pared wall parade desfile
pariente relative parent progenitor
pie foot pie pastel
conservante preservative preservativo condom
presumir brag, show off presume suponer
quitar take away, strip quit dejar, renunciar
realizar make, do realise darse cuenta
recordar remind, remember record grabar
relativo related, relating, relative (to) relative pariente
resumir summarise, shorten resume seguir, reanudar
ropa clothes rope cuerda
sensible sensitive sensible sensato, prudente
sin without sin pecado
soportar tolerate, put up with support apoyar
suceso event success éxito
simpatía friendliness sympathy compasión, piedad
últimamente lately, recently ultimately en última instancia
Vicioso depraved, immoral, addict vicious violento, feroz, cruel

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(SOME) WORDS TO DESCRIBE FEELINGS

Afraid Angry / annoyed

Anxious Ashamed

Embarrassed Lonely

Worried Depressed

Confused Disappointed

Frustrated Proud

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WRITING
Exam practice & useful language

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Aptis writing test

There are four parts to the writing test. You will interact in a social media-type written
conversation and write emails. All writing tasks are marked by an examiner.

Make sure you fully understand the questions. Plan what you are going to write and then
edit your writing before clicking to the next question.

The most common mistakes include:

O not answering the questions (going off-topic)
• read the question and understand what you need to do
O writing too much but with poor grammar, spelling and punctuation
• keep to the word count and focus on accuracy
O not using a variety of sentence structures
O not writing in sentences or paragraphs
O using SMS spelling.

The total time allowed for the writing test is 50 minutes. The timings for each section below
are recommendations only.

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Part Description Preparation

Word-level In the ﬁrst part you have joined a club, The focus is on communication (this
writing course or activity and must answer a series means spelling, capitalisation and
Part 1 of ﬁve text messages from other members grammar will not be considered by the
of the club, course or activity. There is no markers).
extended writing in this part (no sentence
writing), just individual words.

If you are targeting a very high score,

you should spend no more than three (3)
minutes on this part.

Short text This part is about form ﬁlling. In this part, You are asked to write 20–30 words. The
writing you need to write in sentences. focus is on writing sentences that are
Part 2 If you are targeting a very high score, on-topic and have accurate grammar,
you should spend no more than seven punctuation and spelling.
(7) minutes on this part.
A common error is to write more than
30 words and as a result, make a lot of
mistakes. Keep to the word limit and
focus on accuracy.

Three In this part you will have a social Answer all three questions and don't go
written network-type interaction. You will off-topic.
parts of receive three questions and need to
text, all respond. Focus on accurate spelling and
of which punctuation and write sentences that
require If you are targeting a very high score, link together and make sense.
responses you should spend no more than ten (10)
Part 3 minutes on this part. Keep to the word count of 30–40 words
per answer.

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Part Description Preparation

Formal and This part requires that you write two Keep to the word count of 40–50 words
informal emails: for the ﬁrst email and 120–150 words for
writing 1) an informal email to a friend; and the second email.
Part 4 2) a more formal email to an unknown
person. Make sure your emails are written for
different people. The ﬁrst email should
Both emails are in reaction to clearly be an informal email to a friend or
information about a change. close family member, while the second
You should spend all of your remaining should clearly be a formal email to a
time on this part (around 30 minutes). company.

You are also assessed on how accurately

you write and your flexibility with English
language, so check your writing and use
a wide range of vocabulary, grammar
and cohesive devices.

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Sample writing questions

Writing part 1: Word-level writing

You need to write ﬁve pieces of information. This part is not worth many marks so don’t
spend too much time on it.

Here is the marking scale:

Areas assessed: Task fulfilment and communicative competence

3. (above A1) Fully intelligible responses for all five questions. Test-taker completely achieves
the task.

2. A1.2 Three or four of the responses are intelligible. Errors impede understanding in
one or two responses.

1. A1.1 One or two of the responses are intelligible. Errors impede understanding in two
or three responses.

0. A0 No intelligible responses.

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Writing part 2: Short text writing

There may be one or two questions. The areas assessed are how completely and
relevantly you have answered the question, grammatical range and accuracy, punctuation,
vocabulary range and accuracy, and cohesion.

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Here is the marking scale:

Areas assessed: task fulfilment / topic relevance, grammatical range and accuracy,
punctuation, vocabulary range and accuracy, cohesion.

5. B1 (or above) Likely to be above A2 level.

4. A2.2 • On topic.
• Uses simple grammatical structures to produce writing at the sentence level.
Errors with basic structures common. Errors do not impede understanding of
the response.
• Mostly accurate punctuation and spelling.
• Vocabulary is sufficient to respond to the question(s).
• Some attempts at using simple connectors and cohesive devices to link
sentences.

3. A2.1 • On topic.
• Uses simple grammatical structures to produce writing at the sentence level.
Errors with basic structures common. Errors impede understanding in parts
of the response.
• Punctuation and spelling mistakes are noticeable.
• Vocabulary is mostly sufficient to respond to the question(s) but
inappropriate lexical choices are noticeable.
• Response is a list of sentences with no use of connectors or cohesive
devices to link sentences.

2. A1.2 • Not fully on topic.

• Grammatical structure is limited to words and phrases. Errors in basic
patterns and simple grammar structures impede understanding.
• Little or no use of accurate punctuation. Spelling mistakes common.
• Vocabulary is limited to very basic words related to personal information and
is not sufficient to respond to the question(s).
• No use of cohesion.

1. A1.1 • Response limited to a few words or phrases.

• Grammar and vocabulary errors so serious and frequent that meaning is
unintelligible.

0. A0 No meaningful language or all responses are completely off-topic (e.g.

memorised script, guessing).

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Writing part 3: Three written parts of text, all of which require responses
In part 3, you will answer three social media-type questions.

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Here is the marking scale:

Areas assessed: task fulfilment / topic relevance, punctuation, grammatical range

and accuracy, vocabulary range and accuracy, cohesion.

5. B2 (or above) Likely to be above the B1 level.

4. B1.2 Responses to all three questions are on topic and show the following features:
• Control of simple grammatical structures. Errors occur when attempting
complex structures.
• Punctuation and spelling mostly accurate. Errors do not impede understanding.
• Vocabulary is sufficient to respond to the questions.
• Uses simple cohesive devices to organise responses as a linear sequence of
sentences.

3. B1.1 Responses to two questions are on topic and show the following features:
• Control of simple grammatical structures. Errors occur when attempting
complex structures.
• Punctuation and spelling mostly accurate. Errors do not impede understanding.
• Vocabulary is sufficient to respond to the questions.
• Uses simple cohesive devices to organise responses as a linear sequence of
sentences.

2. A2.2 Responses to at least two questions are on topic and show the following features:
• Uses simple grammatical structures to produce writing at the sentence
level. Errors with simple structures common and sometimes impede
understanding.
• Punctuation and spelling mistakes are noticeable.
• Vocabulary is not sufficient to respond to the question(s). Inappropriate
lexical choices are noticeable and sometimes impede understanding.
• Responses are lists of sentences and not organised as cohesive texts.

1. A2.1 Response to one question is on topic and shows the following features:
• Uses simple grammatical structures to produce writing at the sentence
level. Errors with simple structures common and sometimes impede
understanding.
• Punctuation and spelling mistakes are noticeable.
• Vocabulary is not sufficient to respond to the question(s). Inappropriate
lexical choices are noticeable and sometimes impede understanding.
• Responses are lists of sentences and not organised as cohesive texts.

0 Performance below A2, or no meaningful language or the responses are

completely off-topic (e.g. memorised script, guessing).

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Writing part 4: Formal and informal writing

The areas assessed are task fulﬁlment and register, grammatical range and accuracy,
vocabulary range and accuracy, and cohesion.

Register
'Register' means the different ways language is used in different situations, depending
on the relationships between the speaker and listener, or the author and the intended
reader. This is an important part of language use. For example, your language choices will
be different when you’re writing to a new business partner and when you’re writing to a
friend.

To be successful in part 4, you need to show that you can write in both casual and formal
registers. The ﬁrst section of part 4 asks you to write in an intimate or casual register (one
used among family members and close friends). The second part asks you to write in a
formal register (one used between strangers or in a business setting).

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Here is the marking scale:

Areas assessed: task fulfilment / topic relevance, grammatical range and accuracy,
vocabulary range and accuracy, pronunciation, fluency and cohesion.

6. C2 Likely to be above C1 level.

5. C1 Response shows the following features:

• Response on topic and task fulfilled in terms of appropriateness of register.
Two clearly different registers.
• Range of complex grammar constructions used accurately. Some minor
errors occur but do not impede understanding.
• Range of vocabulary used to discuss the topics required by the task. Some
awkward usage or slightly inappropriate lexical choices.
• A range of cohesive devices is used to clearly indicate the links between
ideas.

4. B2.2 Response on topic and task fulfilled in terms of appropriateness of register:

appropriate register used consistently in both responses. Response shows the
following features:
• Some complex grammar constructions used accurately. Errors do not lead to
misunderstanding.
• Minor errors in punctuation and spelling occur but do not impede
understanding.
• Sufficient range of vocabulary to discuss the topics required by the task.
Inappropriate lexical choices do not lead to misunderstanding.
• A limited number of cohesive devices are used to indicate the links between
ideas.

3. B2.1 Response partially on topic and task partially fulfilled in terms of

appropriateness of register: appropriate register used consistently in one
response. Response shows the following features:
• Some complex grammar constructions used accurately. Errors do not lead to
misunderstanding.
• Minor errors in punctuation and spelling occur but do not impede
understanding.
• Sufficient range of vocabulary to discuss the topics required by the task.
Inappropriate lexical choices do not lead to misunderstanding.
• A limited number of cohesive devices are used to indicate the links between
ideas.

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2. B1.2 Response partially on topic and task not fulfilled in terms of appropriateness
of register: appropriate register not used consistently in either response.
Response shows the following features:
• Control of simple grammatical structures. Errors occur when attempting
complex structures.
• Punctuation and spelling is mostly accurate. Errors do not impede
understanding.
• Limitations in vocabulary make it difficult to deal fully with the task. Errors
impede understanding in parts of the text.
• Uses only simple cohesive devices. Links between ideas are not always
clearly indicated.

1. B1.1 Response not on topic and task not fulfilled in terms of appropriateness of
register. No evidence of awareness of register. Response shows the following
features:
• Control of simple grammatical structures. Errors occur when attempting
complex structures.
• Punctuation and spelling is mostly accurate. Errors do not impede
understanding.
• Limitations in vocabulary make it difficult to deal fully with the task. Errors
impede understanding in most of the text.
• Uses only simple cohesive devices. Links between ideas are not always
clearly indicated.

0. A1/A2 Performance below B1, or no meaningful language or the responses are

completely off-topic (e.g. memorised script, guessing).

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WRITING – USEFUL LANGUAGE

Part 1 – personal details:

Date of birth: 21st August 1988

Language: English, French, German, Spanish, Italian, etc

Part 2 – short sentences:

I live with ……………………

We spend time …………….. ING

I/We always / sometimes /often / hardly ever / never ………………….

I enjoy/love/hate/’m keen on ……………. ING because it’s …………………………

I’d like to ………………………… in the future / next year / next month…………….

I’ve never ………………………………, so I’d like to ……………………………..

It’s important to …………………………………., so ………………………………

Part 3 – talking in a chat room:

Hi there! Great to be a member!

I decided to join ………………….. because ………………………..

I’m interested in …………….. because ……………………………..

I like / love / enjoy / hate / prefer / I’m really into ……………… ING

I’d like to / ‘d love to / want to / need to / prefer to …………………………..

I’m really into ……………………

I’ve never …………………………….. / I’ve only ………………………… once/twice

I think it’s ………………………….. and ……………………………., but …………………………

On the one hand ……………………… but on the other hand …………………………….

I’m very pleased with …………………………

I’m very dissatisfied with ……………………………..

I think …………….. is excellent / wonderful / brilliant / awful / terrible / disappointing.

We should spend the money / time ………………………..

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Part 4 – informal email:

Hi (there) ……………..,

Have you heard / seen …………………………?

It’s great / terrible news that/about ………………..

I was so happy/unhappy to hear that/about ………………….

I’m glad / very unhappy about …………………….

Why don’t we ………………?

I suggest ……………………..?

It might help to ………………………….

We could try …………………………

In my opinion ……………………………

I believe that …………………………

I think it’s advisable / I don’t think it’s advisable to …………………

Fortunately / Unfortunately, I/we …………………

What a pity! / What a shame!

Regards / Best wishes / All the best / Yours / See you soon / Hope to hear from you soon

Part 4 – formal email:

Dear Mr/Ms…………… , Dear Sir/Madam,

It has come to my attention that…………………

I have recently been informed that …………………………..

I am writing to …………………………..

I would like to express my dissatisfaction regarding ……………………..

I feel that this is unacceptable and would like to insist that ……………………………..

……………… would (not) be suitable for …………………….

Unfortunately, ………………….

Moreover / Futhermore, …………………………..

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As you are aware, ………………..

I feel that ……………….. would be the best option (under the circumstances)

I would suggest …………………………..

An alternative solution would be ……………………….

While it is true that ………………………………., I would also like to say / point out / mention ……….

I look forward to hearing from you.

Yours sincerely / faithfully,

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WRITING PRACTICE FOR APTIS

PRACTICE EXERCISE 1.

Part 1.

You want to join a student union. Fill in the form. You should take about 3 minutes to do
this.

Your name:

Your email:

Your date of birth:

Your studies:

Your interests (list

three):

Part 2.

You are a new member of your university student union. Fill in the form. Write sentences.
Use 20-30 words. You have 7 minutes to do this.

Uni Students Union

Please write some reasons why you are interested in being a member of the student union.

_____________________________________________________________________________

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Part 3.

You are a member of a student union. You are talking to other members in the student union
in the chat room. Talk to them using sentences. Use 30-40 words per answer. You have 10
minutes in total. Answer all 3 questions.

Peter: Hi! Welcome to Uni Student Union. Why did you decide to join?

Sara: Welcome! What are the responsibilities of a student union?

Andrew: What is the most important responsibility a student union has?

Part 4.

You are a member of a student union. You received this email from the union.

Dear student,
We are writing to tell you that the international social activities organised with the group of
foreign students next week has been cancelled. Unfortunately, they have a very busy schedule
and they won’t have time to visit our university. However, we can organise the activites with
just our own students if you like.

Write an email to your friend. Write about how you feel about the situation and what you
are planning to do. Write about 50 words. You have 10 minutes to do this.

_____________________________________________________________________________

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_____________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________

Write an email to the president of the student union. Write about how you feel and what
you would like to do.

Write 120-150 words. You have 20 minutes to do this.

_____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________

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PRACTICE EXERCISE 2.

Part 1.

You want to join a film club. Fill in the form. You should take about 3 minutes to do this.

Your name:

Your town (where you

live):

Your date of birth:

Your first language:

The types of films you

like: (list three)

Part 2.

You are a new member of a film club. Fill in the form. Write sentences. Use 20-30 words. You
have 7 minutes to do this.

Hollywood film club

Please write how often you watch films and why you enjoy them.

_____________________________________________________________________________

Part 3.

You are a member of a film club. You are talking to other members in the film club in the
chat room. Talk to them using sentences. Use 30-40 words per answer. You have 10 minutes
in total. Answer all 3 questions.

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Sam: Hi! Welcome to Hollywood film club. I’ve been a member for two years. Why did you
decide to join?

Molly: Welcome! What do you enjoy most about watching films and what type of films do you
enjoy the best?

Ricky: Very few people go to the cinema nowadays. Why do you think this is?

Part 4.

You are a member of a film club. You received this email from the club secretary.

Dear member,
We are writing to tell you that the weekend we had organised for our members has been
cancelled because of train strikes. We are re-organising it for a later date. You can ask for a
refund or we can hold your deposit for the later date. Please contact us to tell us if you want a
refund or to change the date.

Write an email to your friend. Write about how you feel about the situation and what you
are planning to do. Write about 50 words. You have 10 minutes to do this.

_____________________________________________________________________________

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_____________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________

Write an email to the secretary of the film club. Write about how you feel and what you
would like to do.

Write 120-150 words. You have 20 minutes to do this.

_____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________

____________________________________________________________________________

_____________________________________________________________________________

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PRACTICE EXERCISE 3

Outdoor Club

Part 2:

What is your favourite activity to do outdoors?

Part 3:

1. Where are the best places to do outdoor activities where you live?
2. If you could try a new outdoor activity, what would it be?
3. What advice would you give to someone who wants to start a new outdoor activity?

Part 4: The Outdoor Club is planning an activity for this summer. The options are going to the
beach or to the mountains and if only adults should be allowed to go on the trip. Write an email
to your friend saying how you feel and what you think the club should do.

Write and email to the club secretary saying how you feel about the situation and what you think
the club should do.

PRACTICE EXERCISE 4

Music Club

Sentence In this part, you need to choose a word Make sure you read each sentence and
compre- (choice of three) to complete a sentence. all of the possible answer words carefully
hension There are ﬁve sentences to complete. before trying to answer this question.
Part 1 You do not need to understand all of the
sentences to complete each individual The best way to become a better
sentence. reader is to practise. Easy books written
especially for English language learners
This part assesses your ability to read a might help. For example, try:
sentence and to complete the sentence • Cambridge Bookworms Starter / Stage 1
with an appropriate word. • Cambridge Readers – Level 1
• Penguin Readers – Level 1
• Macmillan Readers – Starter / Beginner
• Headway Skills series.

Text In this part, there are two tasks. Both Read all the sentences carefully first.
cohesion have six sentences that make a whole Then, decide on the correct order (the
Part 2 text. The sentences have been put first sentence is identified for you).
into the wrong order and you need to
put them in the correct order. There is Appropriate readers for preparation of
only one correct way to organise the this level are:
sentences. Your task is to click on each • Cambridge Bookworms Stage 1 and 2
sentence and then move them so each • Cambridge Readers – Level 2
one is in the correct position. • Penguin Readers – Level 3
• Macmillan Readers – Elementary.
This part assesses your knowledge of
the cohesion of a text. You need to look
for clues in each sentence that show
how it links to the sentences around it.

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Part Description Preparation

Opinion In this part, you will match people’s Read over all four opinions before
matching opinions to statements. You will read attempting the questions.
Part 3 four people’s opinions on the same
topic. Then you need to read seven Appropriate readers for this level are:
statements and decide which person’s • Cambridge Bookworms Stage 2 and 3
opinion matches each statement. • Cambridge Readers – Level 3, 4 and 5
• Penguin Readers – Level 4
This part tests your ability to read and • Macmillan Readers –Pre Intermediate.
understand short texts.

Long text In this part, you will read a long text Read the whole text quickly. Then
compre- (about 750 words). You will also read carefully read the headings. Do all
hension eight headings. The task is to match this before starting the task. Look for
Part 4 seven of the headings to paragraphs clues to connect the headings to the
in the text. There is always an extra paragraphs; these might be similar
heading that does not ﬁt with any words, ideas or topics.
paragraph.
Appropriate readers for this level are:
This part is designed to test your ability • Cambridge Bookworms Stage 4, 5 and 6
to read and understand a long text. To • Cambridge Readers – Level 4, 5 and 6
get the correct answers you need to be • Penguin Readers – Level 5 and 6
able to demonstrate an understanding of • Macmillan Readers – Intermediate and
how the headings reﬂect the paragraphs • Upper Intermediate.
in different ways (sometimes using
similar words, sometimes similar ideas,
or by sharing a topic).

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Sample reading questions

Reading part 1: Sentence comprehension

In this part, you must select the appropriate word from a drop-down list.

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Reading part 2: Text cohesion
In the second part, you must sort the sentences into the correct order so that the text
makes sense. You do this by clicking on a sentence and dragging it to its correct position.

There are two of these tasks in this part.

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Reading part 3: Opinion matching
In the third part, you match four people’s opinions to seven statements by selecting the
correct person from the drop-down list.

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Reading part 4: Long text comprehension
For the ﬁnal part, you must scroll the reading text to see all of it. You can do this by
clicking on the side bar and moving the bar up and down.

To complete the task, you need to match seven headings to the correct paragraphs in
the text.

Select the appropriate heading from the drop-down list on the right-hand side.

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READING PRACTICE

PART 1:

Read the text below and choose the correct word for each space (A, B or C). There is an example at
the beginning.

SAMPLE 1:

EXAMPLE 0 A more B the most C the more

ANSWER _B_

Nelson Mandela: Surprising Facts You Probably Didn’t Know

He was one of (0) _____ iconic figures of modern times and countless words have been written about
his life and times, but there are things about Nelson Mandela you probably didn’t know. Here are just a
few:

1 Mandela’s birth name was Rolihlahla. In Xhosa, one of the official languages of South Africa,
“Rolihlahla” (1) _____ troublemaker. The name “Nelson” was given to him by his teacher on his first day
of elementary school. It was the early 1920s, and African children were given English names so British
colonials (2) _____ pronounce them easily.

2 He had a small part in Spike Lee’s 1992 biopic “Malcolm X.” At the very end of the movie, he (3) _____
a teacher reciting Malcolm X’s famous speech to a room full of Soweto school children. But the pacifist
Mandela wouldn’t say “by any means necessary.”

3 He had fancy (4) _____ with world leaders. But (5) _____ Mandela loved eating most was tripe.

1. A translates B means C says

2. A could B may C need

3. A does B interprets C plays

4. A meal B food C lunch

5. A how B that C what

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SAMPLE 2:

EXAMPLE 0 A for B from C of

ANSWER __ C__

History of St. Patrick

St. Patrick is the patron saint (0) _____ Ireland. His real name was Maewyn and it is thought that he was
Scottish or Welsh. He first came to Ireland as a slave. It was (1) _____ his time as a slave that he
converted to Christianity. After (2) _____ years, he escaped and returned home to his family and trained
to become a priest.

St. Patrick returned to Ireland as a bishop. He (3) _____ years travelling the country, building churches
and converting the pagan Irish people to Christianity. His time in Ireland (4) _____ 30 years and he died
th
on March 17 AD431. He is said to be buried in Downpatrick, County Down in Ireland.

There are many myths and legends surrounding St. Patrick, (5) _____ the most famous one is that he
drove all the snakes out of Ireland. It is now thought that snakes were a symbol for paganism. Although,
legend or not, the only snakes you can find in Ireland are in the zoo!

1. A at B during C for

2. A few B many C much

3. A lived B passed C spent

4. A lasted B happened C made

5. A because B since C but

SAMPLE 3:

EXAMPLE 0 A visit B visited C to visit

ANSWER __ C__

People’s Worst Travel Experiences

Tom’s story:

‘I’d been (0) _____ a friend in Berlin and was travelling by train all the way back to Lyon, in France,
where I lived. I had to change in Basel, so got (1) _____ and walked down to the ticket office. I couldn’t
find my next train on (2) _____ of the screens, so I asked a member of staff, who informed me that this
was the wrong stop and that my train left from the other station in Basel. We sped across the city and I
thought I’d made it, only to find the train pulling out as I ran onto the platform. I remember getting
some very strange looks from the people around me as I threw my bags on the floor and shouted in
frustration.

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Ben’s story:

‘I must have been nine or ten, and was on holiday with my parents in Greece. We’d hired a car for a(n)
(3) _____ days and were driving through a tiny mountain village when the engine suddenly cut out and
we came to a stop. None of us knew (4) _____ about cars and we had no idea what the problem was so,
in the end, my dad got out and went to find help. He (5) _____ there was no one around so he resorted
to knocking on a random door and then trying to explain the problem to an old Greek woman using
hand gestures. As luck would have it, there was a mechanic in the village who she called to come and
help us.

1. A in B of C off

2. A all B any C none

3. A amount B couple C few

4. A anything B everything C nothing

5. A asked B said C told

SAMPLE 4:

EXAMPLE 0 A do B finance C make

ANSWER __ C__

What do you think of banks?

Agnes

“I don’t like banks – never have and never will. They (0) _____ a lot of money from people like me, and I
don’t have a lot of money to give. Why (1) _____ I pay for a bank to have my money? I prefer to use
cash only – then I always know exactly how much I have. It also stops me from going overdrawn – (2)
_____ I don’t have it I can’t spend it!

Florence

“I have a bank account but I hate it. They charge me so much for (3) _____. For example, they charge me
for taking money (4) _____ and for writing a cheque. It’s terrible – every year I pay the bank for keeping
my money! I was late paying my credit card bill one month – only by a few days – and they made me pay
$40 for that! I don’t (5) _____ a lot of money so this was a big problem for me. Of course, they charge
me for the credit card too!

1. A could B might C should

2. A and B but C if

3. A all B everything C something

4. A out B for C from

5. A earn B gain C win

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PART 2:

SAMPLE 1 – Task 1:

The sentences below are from a report. Put the sentences in the right order. The first sentence is
done for you.

This report explains how the accident happened.

The woman was taken to hospital where she was examined by specialists.

The driver of another car, which was behind her, was talking on his mobile phone.

A 45-year-old woman was driving to work at around 8.15 a.m.

The woman was injured but the man wasn’t so he phoned the emergency services.

The traffic lights went red but the man in the other car was distracted and crashed into her.

SAMPLE 1 – Task 2:

The sentences below are from an email of complaint. Put the sentences in the right order. The first
sentence is done for you.

I would like to complain about my stay at your 4-star hotel.

The hotel receptionist told us that our booking was for a standard room.

I intend publishing what happened on social media if I don’t get a refund for the difference.

However, I told her we had paid for a deluxe room.

At first, I was excited about my holiday but when we arrived, everything started to go wrong.

She replied that there were no other rooms available so we had to stay in a standard room.

SAMPLE 2 - Task 1:

The sentences below are from some instructions. Put the sentences in the right order. The first
sentence is done for you.

Before starting the exam you should do the following.

To begin the exam, click on the link twice to start.

Enter the code that the organisation has given you.
To start with, make sure you have a good internet connection.
Then make sure you read the instructions to each part.
You should make sure all the files have been saved before logging out.

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SAMPLE 2 - Task 2:

The sentences below are from a review. Put the sentences in the right order. The first sentence is
done for you.

I was excited about having dinner in the new restaurant.

Then, the waiter served me the wrong wine.

On arrival, I was told I didn’t have a booking, which was not true.

When I eventually got a table, it was in the worst part of the restaurant.

Two of the things I ordered were not available that night.

He didn’t even apologise, so I asked to talk to the manager.

SAMPLE 3 - Task 1:

The sentences below are from an instruction guide. Put the sentences in the right order. The first
sentence is done for you.

If you want to report a crime, please follow these instructions.

Then you should wait until an officer can attend you.

Make sure you take valid identification with you.

When you get there, say that you want to report a crime.

As soon as you can, go to the police station that is nearest where the crime happened.

Try to be clear and calm when explaining the details to the officer.

SAMPLE 3 - Task 2:

The sentences below are from a biography. Put the sentences in the right order. The first sentence is
done for you.

He was born in the South of France in 1950.

He got a job as a salesman but hated it.

So, he decided to get a job to earn some money.

When he left school he decided to become an actor.

Eventually, he was offered a part in a very successful film.

He found it difficult to get regular work.

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SAMPLE 4 – Task 1:

The sentences below are from a recipe. Put the sentences in the right order. The first sentence is
done for you.

To make a delicious cake, follow these instructions.

Next, you should put the mix in the oven.

After 30 minutes, take it out to see if it is ready.

Make sure you have all the ingredients and the right measurements.

Pre-heat the oven for 40 minutes.

The ingredients should be added individually and not together.

SAMPLE 4 – Task 2:

The sentences below are from a report. Put the sentences in the right order. The first sentence is
done for you.

This report is to inform you about travelling to a foreign country.

If it isn’t, you should apply for a new one.

Then, contact your embassy about any necessary visas.

Make sure your passport is valid for at least three months after the date of your return.

If you do need one, make sure you have enough time to do the paperwork.

This might take some time.

PART 3:

SAMPLE 1:

FITNESS & THE COST

PERSON A. Sian Melonie, 32, from London

I used to go for cheaper alternatives, such as running and going to cheaper gyms, but it didn’t seem to
really work. ClassPass allows me to mix it up and do different exercises to challenge my body. I’ve
never struggled with my finances because of the cost of exercise but I have spent a lot in the past. In
terms of other fitness spending, I buy good quality food as I prefer to put unprocessed foods in my
body. I also spend lots on clothes.

PERSON B. Cearon O’Flynn, 34, from Kent

My biggest expense is my bike; it was £800, although through the cycle-to-work scheme I’ve paid for it
now. I cycle to work; this keeps me fit and saves me about £20 a week on petrol. I then use that bike to
cycle more over the weekend. I love cycling because it keeps me healthy, makes me feel comfortable
and allows me to run around with my kids. Exercising saves me money as I don’t have to drive to work.

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This eases my financial burdens.

PERSON C. Clare Riley, 56, from London

I do an hour with a personal trainer a week and two bootcamp classes that I pay extra for. I haven’t
always been into fitness, but when I reached 50 I concentrated on it more as your metabolism slows
down, etc. I do spend a lot compared to some people, but it works for me.
I also have gym membership, which costs me £25 a month. I don’t go to the classes at the gym as much
though as the standard of tuition isn’t great. I should probably just cancel my gym membership
altogether but I keep it as a safety net and sometimes go to pilates there.

PERSON D. Dan, 44, from Bristol: ‘It’s not always easy to pay for it all, but what bigger priority is
there than health?’
I have a personal trainer and gym membership. I also spend monthly on clothes, healthy food and race
entry fees. Surely the reason why people spend so much on exercise is because there isn’t an
alternative. Lots of us would spend two hours a day running or cycling if we could, but we are all in
offices for most of the day. At weekends it’s also hard to find the time to exercise outdoors because I
want to spend time with my family. I’d rather hang out with my four-year-old than training on Saturday
morning. Luckily, I’m in a position where I can invest what I need to on exercise, and what bigger
priority is there than health?

Four people respond in the comments section of an online magazine about fitness and how much it
costs. Read their comments and answer the questions below.

1. Who doesn’t like always doing the same thing. _______________

2. Who criticises his/her learning experience? ________________

3. Who says exercise helps with changes happening to his/her body? ________________

4. Who uses his/her bicycle to commute? ________________

5. Who likes eating things that have not been altered? ________________

6. Who feels that the cost of paying for fitness is more than justified? ________________

7. Who doesn’t spend as much money because of their fitness plan? ________________

SAMPLE 2:

MY LIFE AS AN IDENTICAL TWIN

TWINS A. Zuri and Zada Eshun, 24, grew up in Ghana and America, and now live in Essex.
Zuri: We were always in each other’s pockets growing up, but in high school we started branching out. I
was more outgoing and Zada was more reserved.
Zada: I was never really sure why I was so reserved compared with Zuri, but I always felt awkward
going out and trying to make friends. We were so close that I never felt I needed anyone else. All the
way through my undergraduate studies, I thought: “Well, I already have the closest friend I’m ever
going to find. I don’t have any gaps that need filling.”

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TWINS B. Bill and Gabriel Barrie, 20, are both students, splitting their time between Cambridge,
Oxford and London.
Bill: At the age of 10, Gabe and I decided to go to different prep schools. Being alone so suddenly was a
shock to the system, but I think it forged a lot of profound differences in us.
Those three years apart meant the seed was sown for what would become a lifelong rivalry. We’ve
been locked in a sort of battle of one-upmanship ever since.
Gabriel: I’m probably a bit more rebellious and outgoing than Bill. I am older by 28 minutes, which is
quite a lot for twins. I often joke about it to Bill: “You’ll know what I mean in 28 minutes.”

TWINS C. Tina Price-Johnson and Lynne Coppendale, are 44. They live in London and Doncaster.
Tina: We appeared absolutely identical until I developed epilepsy at 11. I’d have fits in school, meaning
my classmates had to clear the room and call for help. Everything changed. I’ve picked up more health
conditions since, including chronic lymphocytic leukaemia, whereas Lynne has barely taken a sick day.
Lynne: I feel very responsible for Tina, mainly because I am the means of “curing” her: her leukaemia is
very slow-moving, but eventually she will need chemotherapy, radiotherapy and probably a stem cell
transplant, which I can provide. If I couldn’t cling to the fact that I might eventually help her get better,
I would probably go to pieces.

TWINS D. Diane Prater and Lauren Tew, 62. They live in Winchester and Bristol.
Diane: Laurie was always the petite, pretty one. I was the hale and hearty one. We lived in a village and
played together all the time.
Our differences started to emerge when we were about nine and moved to the city. We continued to
grow apart from secondary school onwards. Our relationship was strained by the time I left to go to
university in Durham. Most of all, I looked forward to meeting people who would know me as an
individual.
Lauren: Diane and I have always been very open with each other when it comes to our emotions.
We’ve been there for each other at the hardest times. There is no halving grief because there are two
of you. Some things simply cannot be shared.

Four people respond to questions in interviews about their life as a twin. Read their comments and
answer the questions below.

1. Who mentions a change that was extremely challenging? _____________

2. Who states that being a twin eliminates the need to develop other connections? ________

3. Who blames a separation for causing ongoing competition? _____________

4. Who explains the impossibility of lessening strong feeling? _____________

5. Who says that a probable future happening keeps him/her grounded? _____________

6. Who resisted being treated as part of something? _____________

7. Who may be the key in finding a solution to something? _____________

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SAMPLE 3:

MOVING TO A NEW CITY

PERSON A. London, UK
“Arriving in London was like putting on the best pair of shoes you’ve ever worn. I realised London was
my home the day I arrived 32 years ago; it still is. I came to study ballet, and to arrive and swim in such
culture-rich waters was a homecoming. Irish by nationality, European by inclination, Londoner by
choice ... 32 years and counting.” (Connor Byrne, moved from Limerick to London in 1984)
PERSON B. New York, US
“New York is the antithesis of the pristine natural beauty and calm in Seattle, where I had a yard. I
found it impossible to ignore the roar of the adjacent six-lane highway in my new home. About a year
in, I began walking a lot. I realised every walk in New York is an epic saga for people-watching alone,
but on top of that, it got me involved in eclectic local communities. I began to realise New York City was
home when the hustle and bustle became soothing. Also, when you see the same people on the
subway every morning, leaving their flats at the same time and getting off at their respective stops. The
community feeling comes alive once you have familiar faces during the commute.”
(Helen Brew, moved from Seattle to New York)

PERESON C. Lima, Peru

“It was my first time ever living in a big capital city. I found it huge, noisy, congested and I was
exhausted and with the feeling of being constantly on guard. I was also amazed by the cultural
diversity. I felt at home when I fell asleep on the public transport, when I realised I was able to cross
the entire city changing from one bus to another a hundred times and when I was no longer afraid of
going out at night and coming back home on my own. (Patricia, moved from Barcelona to Lima in 2004)

PERSON D. Amsterdam, the Netherlands

“Amsterdam was so different than the busy, bustling, dirty and unpredictable Athens. Everything was
clean, manicured, ordered. It was very alienating at first. I also found it a bit boring. The moment I
realised I was home was when I was biking to work – everyone bikes here – and I came across some
tourists on rented bikes going the wrong way on the bike path. Instead of smiling permissively (which is
what my Athenian self would have done), I shot them the ‘Dutch Blaming Look’: a look of derision and
disdain, preserved for everyone who breaks any rule. I myself had been the recipient of that stare many
times, and my friends and I had given it its name. The moment I gave that look, I knew that I had
become a bona fide Amsterdammer.” (Tania Theodorou, moved from Athens to Amsterdam in 2002)

Four people respond to questions in interviews about their experiences of moving to new cities.
Read their comments and answer the questions below.

1. Who describes the physical surrounding that made him/her feel like an outsider? _________

2. Who says that he/she realised immediately that he/she had made the right choice? _______

3. Who started doing something that he/she originally would never have done? _______

4. Who felt that he/she had to be always on the lookout? _______

5. Who describes the possibility of detailed observation? _______

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6. Who found the busy city life almost relaxing? _______

7. Who mentions a lack of fear as a sign of feeling he/she belonged? _______

SAMPLE 4:

BEING OVERQUALIFIED FOR JOBS

PERSON A. Tony, 43, labourer, London: I feel like I am wasting my life

I have a first class degree in history of art, a higher national diploma (HND) and a foundation in both graphics and design. I
have worked as a book cover designer, been the opening manager for a number of restaurant managing teams of up to 40,
and I even spent four years at a major auction house researching and writing catalogue essays.

While I enjoy the physical demands of my role I am left intellectually unchallenged. I feel wasted and as if all I did before was
for nothing. I was made redundant in October and after five months of no replies to many job applications I was forced for
financial reasons to take this role. I am tremendously frustrated by the terrible recruitment agents who have been anything
but useful and respectful. I am a nice guy with great experience across a variety of fields; I work hard and am always keen
but feel like I am wasting my life.

PERSON B. Sarah, 26, marketing assistant, Sheffield: I don’t feel confident in my abilities any more
I am a graduate in languages who undertook various work placements before finding my part-time job during my part-time
MA. This job was not meant to be a career move, but I took it so I could gain some useful experience and skills in a
commercial role while also undertaking academic study.

If overqualified workers were able to retrain at an organisation in an area they are interested in, this would create greater
loyalty and allow organisations to fill skills gaps with people who already know the company. I am now unproductive
because I am bored and not challenged. My manager is protective of her work and her skillset, since this is a small company,
and there is a general lack of trust despite vast amounts of empty promises when I bring up my desire to learn or be given
more demanding work.

PERSON C. Simon, 55, parcel delivery worker, Coventry: British companies don’t really cherish and develop their
employees
When I started my current job I was actually a chartered IT professional but I have let this lapse as it didn’t seem appropriate
or to be doing me much good. I have a degree and am also qualified as a teacher but it isn’t a job I am gifted at. My situation
makes me laugh and cry. I laugh because I earn more than a lot of teachers do in a job for which, technically, I require no
qualifications at all; I cry because with “grade inflation” my degree is now not good enough to get me on to the graduate
development programme in the company I work for.

PERSON D. Kim, 52, administrator, Plymouth: I rarely get the opportunity to use my wider skills
I have three degree-level qualifications, some HNDs in project management and business as well as 15 years in a
management role running large projects. But the combination of very strictly adhered-to roles and ever-increasing demands
on very limited resources mean I rarely get the opportunity to use my wider skills which is frustrating. I don’t think there is a
one-size-fits-all solution. My observation is that this affects four groups in particular: new graduates, older workers who are
40-plus, anyone who’s had a career break (say, maternity leave), or anyone who needs shorter or flexible hours.

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Four people respond to questions in interviews about being overqualified for jobs. Read their comments and answer the
questions below.

1. Who feels that he/she did not keep his/her skills updated? _________

2. Who considers that there should be multiple remedies to this problem? _________

3. Who expresses disappointment at a lack of expected help? ____________

4. Who was beginning to have regrets about efforts made to be successful? ____________

5. Who mentions taking a job for training possibilities? ____________

6. Who mentions someone unwilling to share knowledge? ____________

7. Who feels they do not have a talent for a particular job? ____________

PART 4:

Match the correct heading to each paragraph. There is one extra heading which you will not use.

SAMPLE 1:

Notice the world around you Connect with people

Have objectives to look forward to Take care of your body

Make sure your work doesn't suffer Find ways to bounce back

Do things for others Keep learning

Easy Steps to Happier Living

1.____________________________

Caring about others is fundamental to our happiness. Helping other people is not only good for them;
it’s good for us too. It makes us happier and can help to improve our health. Giving also creates stronger
connections between people and helps to build a happier society for everyone.

2. ___________________________
Our relationships with other people are the most important thing for our happiness. People with strong
relationships are happier, healthier and live longer. Our close relationships with family and friends
provide love, meaning, support and increase our feelings of self-worth. Our broader social networks
bring a sense of belonging.

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3. ____________________________
Our body and mind are connected. Being active makes us happier as well as healthier. It instantly
improves our mood and can even lift us out of depression. We can also boost our wellbeing by spending
time outdoors, eating healthily, unplugging from technology and getting enough sleep.

4. ____________________________
Have you ever felt there must be more to life? Good news – there is. And it’s right here in front of us.
We just need to stop and take notice. Learning to be more mindful and aware does wonders for our
wellbeing, whether it’s on our walk to work, in the way we eat or in our relationships.

5. Keep learning
Learning affects our wellbeing in lots of positive ways. It exposes us to new ideas and helps us stay
curious and engaged. It also gives us a sense of accomplishment and helps boost our self-confidence and
resilience. We can share a skill with friends, join a club, learn to sing, play a new sport and so much
more.

6. ___________________________
Feeling good about the future is really important for our happiness. We all need goals to motivate us
and these have to be challenging enough to excite us, but also achievable. Choosing meaningful but
realistic goals gives our lives direction and brings a sense of accomplishment and satisfaction when we
achieve them.

7. _____________________________
All of us have times of stress, loss, failure or trauma in our lives. How we respond to these events has a
big impact on our wellbeing. We often cannot choose what happens to us, but we can choose how we
react to what happens. In practice it’s not always easy, but one of the most exciting findings from recent
research is that resilience, like many other life skills, can be learned.

SAMPLE 2:

Learning from the past Helping out other animals

Where to eat it Not close to home

Lost tradition Looking for variety

Not always in the same period Similarities and differences

Acorn-fed Pigs in Britain Produce Some of the World’s Best Ham.

1. _____________________________
When a customer travelled 70 miles from Oxford just to buy a slab of his pork, Jamie Burgess thought
nothing of it. “People know about Ibérico ham now and this is like a British version,” he says. “They’re
happy to come a long way for something a bit different.”

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2. ______________________________
The New Forest farmer makes the comparison loosely. He is referring to “pannage pork”, which, like
Ibérico, is produced from pigs fattened on acorns. In the UK, the pigs have access to their nutty diet for
just two months a year, so it doesn’t have quite the same taste and texture as the prized Spanish ham.

3. Where to eat it
But increasing numbers of food lovers are seeking it out. Chef James Golding, who previously worked at
the Savoy, Le Caprice and J Sheekey restaurants in London, believes pannage pork rivals the best in the
world for its flavour and texture, and he puts it on the menu at The Pig Hotel at Brockenhurst, in the
New Forest, whenever possible.

4. ______________________________
Pannage is an ancient practice virtually extinct outside the New Forest. This former royal hunting
ground entitles locals to release their animals into the forest to devour fallen acorns, beech mast and
chestnuts in the autumn, and they can stay out for days and weeks on end if there are rich pickings to be
found.

5. _______________________________
It’s nature’s own health and safety scheme – the pigs safely scoff as many acorns as they like, clearing
the area for the ponies and cattle that can poison themselves if they eat too many – 90 New Forest
animals died during the bumper 2013 acorn season.

6. _______________________________
The exact timing of the season depends on the weather and when the acorns fall. This year it has just
come to an end, so the pigs will be brought back in and fed a regular diet in preparation for slaughter in
a few weeks’ time.

7. ________________________________
“In the past few years we’ve definitely started to see more interest in pannage pork,” says Burgess.
“People are looking for something different these days and they’re paying a lot more attention to where
their food comes from and how it’s produced.”

SAMPLE 3:

How old you are is an important factor Expert opinion

More education is necessary Every other year, even if it costs money

Advice for using computers Questions that need to be answered

Recommendations Early detection

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How Often Should I Have an Eye Test?
1. ________________________________
Just over half of people between the ages of 40 and 75 have not had a recent eye test. But do they need
one? And is it necessary to spend between £20 and £30 to get tested by an optometrist or is it OK just to
pick up some cheap specs at the chemist?
2. ________________________________
Everyone over the age of 16 should have an eye test every two years, and more frequently if they have
an eye problem. Children ought to have annual tests. The college stipulates exactly how examinations
should be done, which includes looking at the outside and the back of the eye and testing for sight
defects (such as loss of visual acuity, whereby you can't read those letters on the chart).
3. _________________________________
Karen Sparrow, head of professional development at the Association of Optometrists, says it is best to
get your eyes properly assessed before going for the cheap over-the-counter option for your glasses.
4. _________________________________
Eye tests can pick up medical problems such as diabetes and high blood pressure before they become
symptomatic because these conditions lead to changes in the blood vessels at the back of your eye.
Other problems, such as age-related macular degeneration, where the central part of the back of the
eye stops working and you lose vision directly in front of you, cataracts, which cloud your vision, and
glaucoma, in which fluid builds up inside the eye, can all be detected by routine eye tests. Some of these
conditions are more treatable than others.
5. _________________________________
Sparrow says that age most noticeably impacts on our eyes between the ages of 40 and 60. This is when
many of us find it harder to read and begin to suffer from eyestrain. Age reduces our ability to focus
and, without help, our eyes feel tired and gritty and we get tension headaches. GPs will often suggest a
referral to the optometrist when patients complain of having regular headaches.
6. Advice for using computers
Even if we wear glasses, it is important to take care of our eyes if we use computer screens for extended
periods of time. The image on a screen makes us adjust our focus more often and tires our eyes – which
also feel dry because we forget to blink when we read on a screen. Sparrow advises five minutes away
from the computer every hour.
7. __________________________________
Most of us don't have eye tests every two years, but there is some evidence that it is beneficial to do so.
A review by Canadian optometrists recommended two-yearly tests, increasing to yearly over the age of
65. Some people are eligible for free tests, but even if you have to pay, it is likely to be worth it to
prevent gritty eyes and headaches.

SAMPLE 4:

Free time activities also a factor Other top choices

A good reason Learning opportunities help

Many prepared to find jobs elsewhere Which countries are most popular?

Some places attract one type of person Best place to get a job

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Moving Abroad for Work

1. Best place to get a job

London is the most desirable city in the world for foreign workers, beating New York and Paris, according
to a study. More than 200,000 people from 189 countries were surveyed by the Boston Consulting Group
(BCG) and international jobs websites.

2. ___________________________________
London was the only place in the UK to be in the top 40, which included Sydney, Barcelona, Berlin,
Singapore and Rome among the most popular cities.

3.____________________________________
In the report, Ali Aslan Gümüs, a 45-year-old Turkish jobseeker, said: “If you ask a young person in this
country, ‘Where do you want to go in the UK?’ they’ll never say Liverpool or Manchester. They all say
London because of the multi-cultural society.”

4. ____________________________________
Some cities were chosen because of their appeal to people working in specific industries, such as Zurich
for bankers and Los Angeles for people who want to be actors.

5. ____________________________________

The authors of the report noted that many of the most popular cities had a combination of strong
economies and famous cultural attractions. Mike Brooker, managing director of The Network job
agency, said: “People have never made their career choices strictly on the basis of what happens when
they’re at work. There’s always an implicit calculation of what the job will allow them to do in their free
time.”

6. _____________________________________

The US was the most popular country to move to, with 42 per cent of people saying they wanted to
work there, compared to 37 per cent in Britain. Canada is the third most desirable country overall, while
Germany, Switzerland and France were the favourite non-English-speaking countries for those wanting
to go abroad.

7. ______________________________________
The report, Decoding Global Talent, found that 64 per cent of the people surveyed were prepared to
move abroad for jobs. The proportion was generally higher in developing countries or those that are
experiencing political instability and far lower elsewhere, with the figure standing at only 44 per cent in
Britain.

145
KEY
QUESTION 1:
SAMPLE 1: SAMPLE 2: SAMPLE 3: SAMPLE 4:
1. B 1. B 1. C 1. C
2. A 2. B 2. B 2. C
3. C 3. C 3. C 3. B
4. A 4. A 4. A 4. A
5. C 5. C 5. B 5. A
QUESTION 2:
SAMPLE 1:
1. This report explains how the accident happened.

2. A 45-year-old woman was driving to work at around 8.15 a.m.

3. The driver of another car, which was behind her, was talking on his mobile phone.

4. The traffic lights went red but the man in the other car was distracted and crashed into her.
5. The woman was inured but man wasn’t so he phoned the emergency services.

6. The woman was taken to hospital where she was examined by specialists.

1. I would like to complain about my stay at your 4-star hotel.

2. I was excited about my holiday but when we arrived, everything started to go wrong.

3. The hotel receptionist told us that our booking was for a standard room.

4. However, I told her we had paid for a deluxe room.

5. There were no other rooms available so we had to stay in a standard room.

6. I intend publishing what happened on social media if I don’t get a refund for the difference.

SAMPLE 2:
1. Before starting the exam you should do the following.

2. Make sure you have a good internet connection.

3. Enter the code that the organisation has given you.
4. To begin the exam, click on the link twice to start.
5. Then make sure you read the instructions to each part.
6. You should make sure all the files have been saved before logging out.

1. I was excited about having dinner in the new restaurant.

2. I was told I didn’t have a booking, which was not true.

3. When I eventually got a table, it was in the worst part of the restaurant.

146
4. Two of the things I ordered were not available that night.

5. Then, the waiter served me the wrong wine.

6. He didn’t even apologise, so I asked to talk to the manager.

SAMPLE 3:
1. If you want to report a crime, please follow these instructions.

2. Go to the police station that is nearest where the crime happened.

3. Make sure you take valid identification with you.

4. Say that you want to report a crime.

5. Then you should wait until an officer can attend you.

6. Try to be clear and calm when explaining the details to the officer.

1. He was born in the South of France in 1950.

2. When he left school he decided to become an actor.

3. He found it difficult to get regular work.

4. So, he decided to get a job to earn some money.

5. He got a job as a salesman but hated it.

6. Eventually, he was offered a part in a very successful film.

SAMPLE 4:
1. To make a delicious cake, follow these instructions.

2. Make sure you have all the ingredients and the right measurements.

3. The ingredients should be added individually and not together.

4. Pre-heat the oven for 40 minutes.

5. Next, you should put the mix in the oven.

6. After 30 minutes, take it out to see if it is ready.

1. This report is to inform you about travelling to a foreign country.

2. Make sure your passport is valid for at least three months after the date of your return.

3. If it isn’t, you should apply for a new one.

4. Then, contact your embassy about any necessary visas.

5. If you do need one, make sure you have enough time to do the paperwork.

6. This might take some time.

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QUESTION 3:
SAMPLE 1: 1. A 2. C 3. C 4. B 5. A 6. D 7. B
SAMPLE 2: 1. B 2. A 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. D 7. C
SAMPLE 3: 1. D 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. B 6. B 7. C
SAMPLE 4: 1. C 2. D 3. A 4. B 5. B 6. A 7. C

QUESTION 4:
SAMPLE 1: SAMPLE 2:
1. Do things for others 1. Not close to home
2. Connect with people 2. Similarities and differences
3. Take care of your body 3. Where to eat it
4. Notice the world around you 4. Lost tradition
5. Keep learning 5. Helping out other animals
6. Have objectives to look forward to 6. Not always in the same period
7. Find ways to bounce back 7. Looking for variety
Extra: Make sure your work doesn’t suffer Extra: Learning from the past
SAMPLE 3: SAMPLE 4:
1. Questions that need to be answered 1. Best place to get a job
2. Recommendations 2. Other top choices
3. Expert opinion 3. A good reason
4. Early detection 4. Some places attract one type of person
5. How old you are is an important factor 5. Free time activities also a factor
6. Advice for using computers 6. Which countries are most popular?
7. Every other month, even if it costs money 7. Many prepared to find jobs elsewhere
Extra: More education is necessary Extra: Learning opportunities help

148
LISTENING
Exam practice

149
Aptis listening test

The Listening test has four task types. You can choose to listen to the text once or twice.

Part Description Preparation

Information In this part, you will listen to a short Visit the British Council's LearnEnglish
recognition phone message or a short monologue website for lots of very useful activities,
Part 1 or dialogue, and you need to identify tips, apps and podcasts:
speciﬁc information such as a phone http://learnenglish.britishcouncil.org/
number, a time or a place.
The elementary podcasts are useful
preparation for these questions.

Information In this part, you will listen to four There are quite a few useful practice
matching people’s monologues and match the videos and podcasts on the LearnEnglish
Part 2 person to information. There are six website, so that's a very good starting
pieces of information to match to the point. In addition, try to listen to as much
monologues. English as possible (e.g. ﬁlms, television
or radio).

Opinion In this task, you listen to a dialogue Listening to authentic speech, such as
matching between a man and a woman and then television drama programs or ﬁlms, is a
Part 3 decide who expresses an opinion. good way to prepare for this task.

There are four questions. Your task is to

decide if the man, woman or both the
man and woman have expressed the
opinion.

Monologue In these tasks, you listen to a monologue There are a number of higher-level
compre- and answer two questions. podcasts on the LearnEnglish website.
hension Also try the BBC World Service radio
Part 4 The focus here is not on understanding station.
the meaning of what the speaker is
saying, but on identifying clues in their
language or tone to help identify the
attitude of the speaker, their intention
or opinion.

150
Sample listening questions

Remember that if you'd like to hear a question for a second time, just click on the Play
button ( ). The system will not allow you to listen more than twice.

Listening part 1: Information recognition

You listen to a short monologue or dialogue and identify speciﬁc information such as a
phone number, a time, or a place.

151
Listening part 2: Information matching
You listen to four different people and match the person to the information.

152
21

Listening part 3: Opinion matching

You listen to short conversations with two speakers to identify the attitude of the speaker,
their intention or opinion.

Listening part 4: Monologue comprehension

You listen to a monologue to identify the attitude of the speaker, their intention or opinion.

153
Servicio de Idiomas
Edificio 18 (Celestino Mutis), Planta 1ª
954 238 200

There are twenty-five questions in this part of the test. For each question (1-25) there are three options and a
short recording. Choose an option (A, B or C) and write it on the line.

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Servicio de Idiomas
Edificio 18 (Celestino Mutis), Planta 1ª
954 238 200

11. Listen to two friends. Why will they start going to 12. Listen to a couple. What do they AGREE is a
the sports centre? disadvantage about getting a dog?

A. To get something free A. A dog is expensive.

B. To lose weight B. They have a small house.
C. To meet others C. A dog makes noise.

Answer: Answer:

13. Listen to a television presenter. What will the 14. Listen to two friends. How will they communicate
television show help viewers do? in the foreign language?

A. Find a place to go on holiday with children A. They will use a book.

B. Buy an inexpensive plane ticket B. They will use an app.
C. Learn the best way to travel C. They will take a class.

Answer: Answer:

15. Listen to two friends. What happened during the 16. Listen to two friends. What do they agree about
job interview? the tennis match?

25. Listen to a man. What does he say about the

housing while working abroad?

A. It was difficult to keep the house clean.

B. The location of the house was not ideal.
C. Something about the house surprised him.

Answer: _____________

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Servicio de Idiomas
Edificio 18 (Celestino Mutis), Planta 1ª
954 238 200

KEY:

1. A
2. B
3. B
4. C
5. C
6. C
7. B
8. A
9. C
10. B
11. C
12. A
13. A
14. B
15. B
16. C
17. A
18. C
19. A
20. B
21. C
22. B
23. A
24. C
25. C

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Servicio de Idiomas
Edificio 18 (Celestino Mutis), Planta 1ª
954 238 200

There are twenty-five questions in this part of the test. For each question (1-25) there are three options and a
short recording. Choose an option (A, B or C) and write it on the line.

7. Listen to a couple. Why do the couple decide to 8. Listen to a couple. Why ISN’T the man going to
go to the Italian restaurant? take his brother on the city tour?

A. Because of the food A. The man has already bought the concert tickets.
B. Because of the service B. The man thinks his brother prefers a concert.
C. Because of the entertainment C. The man’s brother took the tour on a previous visit.

Answer: Answer:

9. Listen to a manager and a waiter. What should the 10. Listen to two friends. Why might the student
waiter do next? decide NOT to study in another country?

A. Pick up dirty dishes A. She might not have enough money.

B. Put away clean dishes B. She might not get on the course.
C. Help customers C. She might not pass a test.

Answer: Answer:

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Servicio de Idiomas
Edificio 18 (Celestino Mutis), Planta 1ª
954 238 200

11. Listen to a mother and a son. Why isn't the son 12. Listen to a couple. Why should they wait to take
in school? the picture?

A. Because of an illness A. The phone doesn't have any battery.

B. Because of the weather B. The light isn't good.
C. Because he did something wrong C. The memory card is full.

Answer: Answer:

13. Listen to a couple. Where will the family have the 14. Listen to a couple. What activity will they start?
meal?

A. In their garden A. An exercise class

B. In their dining room B. A language class
C. In a restaurant C. A cooking class

Answer: Answer:

15. Listen to a couple. What will they do with their 16. Listen to a phone message. What is the man
children on Saturday? going to do about his cancelled flight?

A. Leave them with a neighbour A. Call off his trip

B. Leave them with a relative B. Take the next flight
C. Leave them alone C. Use another means of transport

Answer: Answer: ___

17. Listen to a shop assistant and a customer. What 18. Listen to an announcer. What does she explain
does the sales assistant suggest? about the upcoming sports competition?

A. The expected date of going into outer space A. Give the player advice about which sport to play
B. The lack of available information B. Help the player decide where to study
C. The preciseness of the predictions C. Warn the player about a possible problem

Answer: _ Answer: _

25. Listen to a couple. What do they NOT agree

about the painting they have just bought?

A. The quality of the painting

B. Where to put the painting
C. The importance of the painter

Answer: _____________

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Servicio de Idiomas
Edificio 18 (Celestino Mutis), Planta 1ª
954 238 200

KEY:

1. B
2. B
3. C
4. A
5. B
6. A
7. C
8. C
9. A
10. C
11. B
12. B
13. B
14. C
15. B
16. A
17. B
18. C
19. C
20. A
21. A
22. C
23. C
24. C
25. B

161
SPEAKING
Exam practice & useful language

162
33 Aptis Candidate Guide

Aptis speaking test

For each question, you are given a maximum amount of time to speak, but you can end
the recording early by clicking on a stop button. Please make sure you fully respond to the
question before you stop the recording.

The most common reasons people receive lower scores than they expect include:
O not doing a proper sound check (details on how to do this are shown below)
O not speaking clearly
O not answering the questions
O giving under-length answers – not using the full amount of time to speak
O overusing words such as 'and' and 'so'
O speaking in simple sentence lists
O not using a variety of sentence structures.

Before the Speaking test begins, you’ll be asked to check your microphone.

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34 Aptis Candidate Guide

Part Description Preparation

Personal In this part, you are asked to answer It’s a good idea to practice introducing
information three questions on personal topics. You yourself and talking about your personal
Part 1 are expected to talk for 30 seconds per experiences. Think about how you can
question. talk about familiar topics (e.g. holidays,
weekend activities, sports) and practise
giving general information about those
topics.

Describe, In this part you are asked to describe a You should try to be ﬂuent and
express photograph and then answer two questions spontaneous, showing little sign of
opinion and related to the topic illustrated in the photo. effort. Make sure you answer all three
provide The three questions increase in complexity questions.
reasons (from description to opinion). You are
and expla- expected to talk for 45 seconds per
nations question.
Part 2

Describe, In this part you are asked to compare two To prepare for this task, practise
compare pictures and then answer two questions comparing two different things (e.g.
and provide related to the topic. The three questions two cities or two houses). Focus on
reasons increase in complexity (from description to describing their advantages and
and expla- speculation). You are expected to talk for disadvantages.
nations 45 seconds for each question.
Part 3 To achieve a very high score in this part,
it’s important to make sure you are using
correct grammatical structures when
you speculate.

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35 Aptis Candidate Guide

Part Description Preparation

Discuss In the ﬁnal part, you will see a picture and A common error is to describe the
personal be asked three questions about an abstract photo. You will not receive a high score
experience topic. if you describe the photo. The questions
and opinion are more abstract (e.g. how you feel
on an You are given one (1) minute to prepare an about something).
abstract answer and in this time, you can take notes.
topic You are expected to talk for two (2) Another common error is to go off-topic.
Part 4 minutes. Focus on answering each question in
clear, smoothly ﬂowing, well-structured
speech.

To prepare for this part, it is a good idea

to practise speaking for two minutes on
an abstract topic
(e.g. How do you feel about________?).

Make sure you practise using your

planning time to structure what you are
going to say.

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36 Aptis Candidate Guide

Speaking part 1: Personal information

In this part, you answer some questions about yourself. Listen to the instructions and
speak clearly into your microphone when you hear the signal.

Each part of the test will appear automatically. You can stop recording your response
before the timer runs out by tapping on the stop button, but we recommend that you try to
speak for the full time available to maximise your score.

When the time to record comes, the timer begins. This tells you the amount of time you
have been recording for (in the screen shot below, the timer shows that it has been
recording for 25 seconds).

166
37 Aptis Candidate Guide

As each new question appears, the same procedure is followed.

167
38 Aptis Candidate Guide

The areas assessed in this part of the Speaking test are how completely and relevantly
you have answered the question, grammatical range and accuracy, vocabulary range and
accuracy, pronunciation and ﬂuency.

Here is the marking scale:

Areas assessed: task fulfilment / topic relevance, grammatical range and accuracy,
vocabulary range and accuracy, pronunciation, fluency.

5. B1 (or above) Likely to be above A2 level.

4. A2.2 Responses to all three questions are on topic and show the following features:
• Some simple grammatical structures used correctly but basic mistakes
systematically occur.
• Vocabulary is sufficient to respond to the questions, although inappropriate
lexical choices are noticeable.
• Mispronunciations are noticeable and frequently place a strain on the
listener.
• Frequent pausing, false starts and reformulations but meaning is still clear.

3. A2.1 Responses to two questions are on topic and show the following features:
• Some simple grammatical structures used correctly but basic mistakes
systematically occur.
• Vocabulary is sufficient to respond to the questions, although inappropriate
lexical choices are noticeable.
• Mispronunciations are noticeable and frequently place a strain on the
listener.
• Frequent pausing, false starts and reformulations but meaning is still clear.

2. A1.2 Responses to at least two questions are on topic and show the following
features:
• Grammatical structure is limited to words and phrases. Errors in basic
patterns and simple grammar structures impede understanding.
• Vocabulary is limited to very basic words related to personal information.
• Pronunciation is mostly unintelligible except for isolated words.
• Frequent pausing, false starts and reformulations impede understanding.

168
39 Aptis Candidate Guide

1. A1.1 Response to one question is on topic and shows the following features:
• Grammatical structure is limited to words and phrases. Errors in basic
patterns and simple grammar structures impede understanding.
• Vocabulary is limited to very basic words related to personal information.
• Pronunciation is mostly unintelligible except for isolated words.
• Frequent pausing, false starts and reformulations impede understanding.

0. A0 No meaningful language or all responses are completely off-topic

(e.g. memorised script, guessing).

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40 Aptis Candidate Guide

Speaking part 2: Describe, express opinion and provide reasons and explanation
In this part, you will see a photo and answer three questions. You have 45 seconds to
respond to each question.

170
41 Aptis Candidate Guide

Speaking part 3: Describe, compare and provide reasons and explanations

In this part, you will see two photos and answer three questions.

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42 Aptis Candidate Guide

The areas assessed in parts 2 and 3 of the Speaking test are how completely and
relevantly you responded to the question, grammatical range and accuracy, vocabulary
range and accuracy, pronunciation, ﬂuency and cohesion.

The marking scale is the same for parts 2 and 3.

Areas assessed: task fulfilment / topic relevance, grammatical range and accuracy,
vocabulary range and accuracy, pronunciation, fluency and cohesion.

5. B2 (or above) Likely to be above the B1 level.

4. B1.2 Responses to all three questions are on topic and show the following features:
• Control of simple grammatical structures. Errors occur when attempting
complex structures.
• Sufficient range and control of vocabulary for the task. Errors occur when
expressing complex thoughts.
• Pronunciation is intelligible but inappropriate mispronunciations put an
occasional strain on the listener.
• Some pausing, false starts and reformulations.
• Uses only simple cohesive devices. Links between ideas are not always
clearly indicated.

3. B1.1 Responses to two questions are on topic and show the following features:
• Control of simple grammatical structures. Errors occur when attempting
complex structures.
• Sufficient range and control of vocabulary for the task. Errors occur when
expressing complex thoughts.
• Pronunciation is intelligible but inappropriate mispronunciations put an
occasional strain on the listener.
• Some pausing, false starts and reformulations.
• Uses only simple cohesive devices. Links between ideas are not always
clearly indicated.

2. A1.2 Responses to at least two questions are on topic and show the following
features:
• Uses some simple grammatical structures correctly but systematically makes
basic mistakes.
• Vocabulary will be limited to concrete topics and descriptions. Inappropriate
lexical choices for the task are noticeable.
• Mispronunciations are noticeable and put a strain on the listener.
• Noticeable pausing, false starts and reformulations.
• Cohesion between ideas is limited. Responses tend to be a list of points.

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43 Aptis Candidate Guide

1. A2.1 Response to one question is on topic and shows the following features:
• Uses some simple grammatical structures correctly but systematically makes
basic mistakes.
• Vocabulary will be limited to concrete topics and descriptions. Inappropriate
lexical choices for the task are noticeable.
• Mispronunciations are noticeable and put a strain on the listener.
• Noticeable pausing, false starts and reformulations.
• Cohesion between ideas is limited. Responses tend to be a list of points.

0 Performance below A2, or no meaningful language or the responses are

completely off-topic (e.g. memorised script, guessing).

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44 Aptis Candidate Guide

Speaking part 4: Discuss personal experience and opinion on an abstract topic

In this part, you again need to answer three questions but this time you answer them all in
one response.

You have one minute to prepare a structured response. A timer on the screen will show
how long you have left. When preparation time is over, the message appears at the bottom
'You now have two minutes to talk'. You should speak until the recording automatically
stops after two minutes.

174
45 Aptis Candidate Guide

During the preparation time, it is important to take notes, as these will help you organise
and remember what you want to speak about. Rather than writing out exactly what you
want to say, make brief notes and use these to structure your speech.

Here is the marking scale:

Areas assessed: task fulfilment / topic relevance, grammatical range and accuracy,
vocabulary range and accuracy, pronunciation, fluency and cohesion.

6. C2 Likely to be above C1 level.

5. C1 Response addresses all three questions and is well-structured.

• Uses a range of complex grammar constructions accurately. Some minor
errors occur but do not impede understanding.
• Uses a range of vocabulary to discuss the topics required by the task. Some
awkward usage or slightly inappropriate lexical choices.
• Pronunciation is clearly intelligible.
• Backtracking and reformulations do not fully interrupt the flow of speech.
• A range of cohesive devices are used to clearly indicate the links between ideas.

Responses to all three questions are on topic and show the following features:
4. B2.2 • Some complex grammar constructions used accurately. Errors do not lead to
misunderstanding.
• Sufficient range of vocabulary to discuss the topics required by the task.
Inappropriate lexical choices do not lead to misunderstanding.
• Pronunciation is intelligible. Mispronunciations do not put a strain on the
listener or lead to misunderstanding.
• Some pausing while searching for vocabulary but this does not put a strain
on the listener.
• A limited number of cohesive devices are used to indicate the links between ideas.

3. B2.1 Responses to two questions are on topic and show the following features:
• Some complex grammar constructions used accurately. Errors do not lead to
misunderstanding.
• Sufficient range of vocabulary to discuss the topics required by the task.
Inappropriate lexical choices do not lead to misunderstanding.
• Pronunciation is intelligible. Mispronunciations do not put a strain on the
listener or lead to misunderstanding.
• Some pausing while searching for vocabulary but this does not put a strain
on the listener.
• A limited number of cohesive devices are used to indicate the links between ideas.

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46 Aptis Candidate Guide

2. B1.2 Responses to at least two questions are on topic and show the following
features:
• Control of simple grammatical structures. Errors occur when attempting
complex structures.
• Limitations in vocabulary make it difficult to deal fully with the task.
• Pronunciation is intelligible but occasional mispronunciations put an
occasional strain on the listener.
• Noticeable pausing, false starts, reformulations and repetition.
• Uses only simple cohesive devices. Links between ideas are not always
clearly indicated.

0. A1/A2 Performance below B1, or no meaningful language or the responses are

completely off-topic (e.g. memorised script, guessing).

176
SPEAKING – USEFUL LANGUAGE

Part 1 – personal questions:

I like, love, enjoy …………………….

I live in ……………………………………….

My neighbourhood is …………………………………….

I have three siblings; one sister and two brothers. I get on/don’t get on with ……………………

It’s sunny/cloudy/raining, etc.

It’s cold, cool, warm, hot, boiling.

I’d like to visit ……………………. because ……………………….

My favourite season is (spring, summer autumn, winter) because ………………………

My best friend is …………………………. . We spend lots of time together.

My favourite sport is ……………………………

I play/don’t play ……………………………………………

I watch (sport)/ I’m a(n) X supporter.

In my free time I love ……………………………..

Part 2 – describing a photo:

1) What’s in the picture? In the picture I can see……………….

There’s / There are ………….

There isn’t a ………. /There aren’t any …………….

2) What’s happening? A/The man/woman is …………. ING

There are people ……………. ING
It’s (raining, snowing, sunny, etc)

3) Where in the picture? At the top/bottom of the picture……….

In the middle of the picture …………..

On the left/right of the picture …………….

Next to/in front of/behind/near/on top

of/under/opposite ……

4) When something isn’t clear. It looks like a ………………

He/she looks + adjective

177
He/she looks like he/she is ……
It might be a ……………….
He/she could be ……………. ING
Maybe it’s a …………………….

Questions related to picture:

should / ought to/ a good idea / useful /useless

Part 3 – talking about 2 photos:

 In BOTH photos there are people ………………….. ING

 In one photo ………………………. WHEREAS/WHILE in the other photo ……………………
 On the one hand …………………… . On the other hand ……………………………..
 Although ……………………………………………
 These are very different activities ……………
 X is easier because ……………………………….., but …………………………………..
 Most people who …………………………………….
 They seem to be …………….. ING
 He/she looks ………………………….
 He/she looks like he/she is ………………………. ING
 They may/might have ………………………
 They are probably …………………………

Part 4 – one photo, 3 questions, preparation time:

 It seems to me
 I’m convinced that ………………………
 The way I see it ………………………….
 The last time I felt ……………………….
 To be honest……………….
 What I would probably say about X is that …………………..
 I would say that ………………………..
 I’m not really sure but it seems ……………………..
 I suppose I …………………..
 I’d like to point out that …………….
 The main problem is …………………
 Another example of ………………… is ……………….
 If I really think about it, I’d say that ………………………
 What I said doesn’t mean that ……………………..
 It’s true that ………………………, but I feel that ………………….
 A good way to ……………………… is to ……………………

178
 The best way to ……………………….
 It’s (not) a good idea to …………………….
 From my point of view ……………………..
 I strongly believe ………………………….
 While …………………………….., it’s true that ………………………………
 Firstly / secondly / and last but not least
 I’ve never actually thought about this before, but I’d say …………………………..
 Although / even though / however / in spite of / despite / besides / what’s more /
actually / in fact
 On the one hand …………………… . On the other hand
 As everyone knows ………………….
 There can be no doubt that …………………
 It’s a fact that ………………………..
 There are two sides to the question ………………..
 Some people say that …………………….., while others think ……………………….

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SPEAKING EXERCISES FOR APTIS

PART 1: 3 questions about personal topics (30 seconds for each question).

SAMPLE 1:

1. Tell me about your family.

2. What do you like doing in your free time?
3. What’s the weather like today?

SAMPLE 2:

1. Tell me about where you live.

2. What do you like to do at the weekend?
3. How do you like to celebrate your birthday?

SAMPLE 3:

1. Tell me about your country.

2. What places would you like to visit in the future?
3. Which season of the year do you like best?
SAMPLE 4:

1. Tell me about your best friend.

2. What sports do you like to play and watch?
3. Who do you like to spend your free time with?
SAMPLE 5:

1. What do you like doing in your free time?

2. Tell me about your hometown or city.
3. What do you do when you go out with your friends?

SAMPLE 6:
1. What’s your favourite sport?
2. Describe your bedroom.
3. What ways of travelling are there in your country?

SAMPLE 7:

1. What did you do before coming here today?

2. What did you do yesterday?
3. Talk about a day you’ve enjoyed recently.

180
SAMPLE 8:

1. What did you do last weekend?

2. Tell me when you last you did something outside.

3. What clothes are you wearing today?

SAMPLE 9:

1. When was the last time you went to the cinema?

2. Describe the room where you are now.

1. Tell me about what you see.

2. What kind of people play these sports?
3. Which one is more difficult?

SAMPLE 2.

1. Tell me about what you see.

2. Which kind of celebration is more special?
3. Which celebration will the people remember for longer?

195
SAMPLE 3:

1. Tell me about what you see.

2. Why do people communicate in these different ways?
3. Which type of communication do you think is more effective?

SAMPLE 4:

1. Tell me what you see.

2. What kind of people go to these events?
3. Which event do you think is more exciting?

196
PART 4: one photo and 3 questions (1 minute to think about your answer. You can make
notes if you want. Two mintues to answer all 3 questions).

SAMPLE 1:

 Tell me about a time when you felt stressed.

 How did you manage the situation?
 What are some ways of avoiding stress.

197
SAMPLE 2:

 Tell me about when you last had an argument with someone.

 How did you feel after the argument?
 How can we avoid arguments?

SAMPLE 3:

 Tell me about when you were on your own.

 How did you feel about it?
 What are some of the ways of passing the time on your own?

198
SAMPLE 4:

 Tell me what advantages and disadvantages there are about having pets.
 Why do people choose dangerous pets?
 Which pet do you think is the best type to own?

199
SAMPLE 5:

1. When was the last time you were in a hurry?

2. How do you feel when you don’t have enough time for things?
3. Do you think the world is moving too fast?

SAMPLE 6:

1. Talk about the first time you saw a high-risk sport.

2. How would you feel if you did a high-risk sport?
3. Do you think high-risk sports are for all ages?

200
SAMPLE 7:

1. Talk about the last time you helped someone.

2. Why do you think people do not like to ask for help?
3. Do you think there is enough community spirit nowadays?

SAMPLE 8:

1. Talk about a time you wanted something and couldn’t get it.
2. How did it make you feel?
3. Do you think material things make us happy?

201
SAMPLE 9:

1. Talk about the last book you read.

2. Why do some people prefer books and others prefer films?
3. Do you think paper books will disappear in the future?

SAMPLE 10:

1. What is your favourite article of clothing?

2. How do you feel when you wear it?
3. Do you prefer to buy clothes online or in physical shops?

202
SAMPLE 11:

1. Talk about the last gift that you received.

2. How did you feel when you received it.
3. Do you prefer handmade gifts or those bought in a shop?

203
PRACTICE
TESTS

204
Aptis General

Practice
tests
April 2020

www.britishcouncil.org/aptis
205
Practice tests

Aptis practice test version 1

Grammar
& Vocabulary
Instructions

O Please do not write on the question paper. Use the answer sheet.
O Answer as many questions as you can in the time allowed.
O Follow the recommended times for each section.

The test has two sections:

Grammar – 25 questions (about 12 minutes)

Vocabulary – 25 questions (about 13 minutes)

Total time – 25 minutes

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Practice tests

Grammar
(25 questions – 12 minutes)

Write your answers (A – C) to questions 1 – 25 on your answer paper.

Do not write on this question paper. The answer to question 0 is given as an example on
your answer paper (A).

0 are
How old ____________ you? (Example)

A. are
B. age
C. have

01 The woman ____________ sold me those flowers spent twenty minutes wrapping them.

A. what
B. that
C. who

02 A: I’ve just seen Mark.

B: You ____________ have seen him. He’s on holiday at the moment.

A. can’t
B. shouldn’t
C. needn’t

03 He emphasised in his speech that ____________ he received when younger had been
excellent.

A. education
B. an education
C. the education

04 She takes the bus to work ____________ day.

A. early
B. many
C. every

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Practice tests

05 I’ll call you when I ____________ home.

A. get
B. will get
C. getting

06 We ate dinner and ____________ we watched a film.

A. then
B. since
C. so

07 We’re ____________ in a beautiful holiday home at the moment.

A. stay
B. staying
C. stayed

08 When I got home, Jenny ____________ on the telephone.

A. was speaking
B. speaking
C. speak

09 Coffee ____________ to be much cheaper a few years ago.

A. would
B. has
C. used

10 I’m not sure about my future. ____________ I will start a business.

A. Perhaps
B. Absolutely
C. Clearly

11 They ate their lunch while they ____________ coming home from school.

A. were
B. was
C. are

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Practice tests

12 She bought it herself, ____________ she?

A. hasn’t
B. didn’t
C. shouldn’t

13 If the dress ____________ been so expensive, she would have bought it.

A. hadn’t
B. weren’t
C. aren’t

14 I ____________ a great book this morning – I really want to finish it.

A. was reading
B. read
C. have read

15 Excuse me? Can I try ____________ this jacket to make sure it fits?

A. under
B. with
C. on

16 I saw Wi Joo this morning and she ____________ if you were free tomorrow.

A. told
B. asked
C. said

17 When I go to university, I may ____________ history.

A. study
B. to study
C. studying

18 It ____________ be meat free – it tastes just like chicken!

A. could
B. can
C. can’t

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Practice tests

19 It was a dark, moonlit night when the traveller ____________ at the inn.

A. arrived
B. was arriving
C. had arrived

20 If I hadn’t gone out last night, I ____________ be so tired now.

A. won’t
B. wouldn’t
C. hadn’t

21 I ____________ like mushrooms, but I can’t stop eating them now.

A. wouldn’t
B. didn’t use to
C. couldn’t

22 The newspaper China Today ____________ published for over 60 years.

A. is being
B. has been
C. was being

23 They said they ____________ studying for ages.

A. will have
B. are
C. had been

24 My father, ____________ is a dentist, told me not to drink sugary drinks.

A. who
B. which
C. that

25 ____________ memory of the day I met the president is very special to me.

A. The
B. A
C. (-)

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Practice tests

Vocabulary
(25 questions – 13 minutes)

You need to write all answers on your answer paper. Do not write on this question paper.

01 Write the letter (A – K) of the word that is most similar in meaning to a word on the left (1 – 5).
Use each word once only. Write your answers (A – K) on your answer paper. You will not
need five of the words (A – K). The answer to question 0 is given on your answer paper as
an example (L).

0. create (Example) A train

B look after
1. choose C make
D decide
2. close E take
F shut
3. improve G propose
H believe
4. care J develop
K worry
5. practise L make

02 Finish each sentence (6 – 10) using a word from the list (A – K). Use each word once only.
Write your answers (A – K) on your answer paper. You will not need five of the words (A – K).

6. To oppose is to… A concern

B challenge
7. To teach is to… C instruct
D appear
8. To accept is to… E worry
F obtain
9. To get is to… G wish
H compensate
10. To pay is to… J assume
K approve

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Practice tests

03 Write the letter of the word on the right (A – K) that matches the definition on the left (11 – 15).
Use each word once only. Write your answers (A – K) on your answer paper. You will not
need five of the words (A – K).

11. Wanting to know or learn something. A artificial

B brave
12. Not natural or real. C crucial
D curious
13. Not clear and difficult to understand or see. E fierce
F lazy
14. Having a flat, even surface. G obscure
H peculiar
15. Having a lot of strong feelings. J smooth
K emotional

04 Finish each sentence (16 – 20) using a word from the list (A – K). Use each word once only.
Write your answers (A – K) on your answer paper. You will not need five of the words (A – K).

16. He had to walk down a long dark ____________ to get to A atmosphere

his room. B canteen
C ceiling
17. The teacher should maintain ____________ in the classroom D corridor
to make the lesson effective. E discipline
F envelope
18. She opened the ____________ and took a coat out of it. G fringe
H hedge
19. You should cut your ____________ regularly, otherwise your J museum
hair will get in your eyes. K wardrobe

20. The local ____________ has an exhibit about the history of

this area.

5 Write the letter of the word on the right (A – K) that is most often used with a word on the
left (21 – 25). Use each word once only. Write your answers (A – K) on your answer paper.
You will not need five of the words (A – K).

21. abstract A clean

B club
22. athletics C efforts
D food
23. congested E friends
F painting
24. frantic G roads
H speed
25. household J status
K tasks

212
Practice tests

Aptis practice test version 1

Reading
Instructions

O Please do not write on the question paper. Use the answer paper.
O Answer as many questions as you can.
O Time yourself properly to finish all the tasks.

213
Practice tests

Reading
(29 Questions – 35 minutes)

01 Choose one word (A, B, or C) for each space and write the letter on the answer sheet.
The first one (0) is done for you as an example with the answer A marked on your answer
sheet.

0. A. buy (Example) B. eat C. watch

1. A. very B. more C. same
2. A. think B. remember C. forget
3. A. closes B. loses C. works
4. A. hospital B. room C. business
5. A. almost B. around C. nearly

A
Can you (0) ____________ some things after you finish work today?

We need (1) ____________ milk and eggs.

Don’t (2) ____________ to get a can of dog food.

The shop (3) ____________ late today.

I have an appointment at the (4) ____________.

I will see you at home at (5) ____________ 7 o’clock.

Love,
Samantha

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Practice tests

02 The sentences below give information for people joining a gym for the first time.
Put the sentences (B – F) in the right order. Write your answers on the answer sheet
(Questions 6 – 10).

The first sentence (A) is given for you on the answer sheet as an example.

A If you would like to join our sports centre, please pay attention to the following.
(Example)

B Please use the card immediately to open the sports hall doors to test it works.

C We will give you one of these when we receive your first month’s payment.

D In exchange, one of the staff there will give you your numbered key card.

E You can do this at the front desk any time during opening hours.

F Before you can use the centre, you’ll need a member’s card.

03 The sentences below are from a book about Japanese art history.
Put the sentences (B – F) in the right order. Write your answers on the answer sheet
(Questions 11 – 15).

The first sentence (A) is given for you on the answer sheet as an example.

A In Japanese art there is a technique of arranging flowers in a traditional way.

(Example)

B Artists need to learn how all these elements and their meanings relate to each other.

C This technique allows artists to use flowers to create beautiful works.

D Their choices are important because different sizes and shapes have their own
meanings.

E They can learn about these in one of the many schools in Japan.

F The artist starts by choosing what to use for the flower arrangement.

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Practice tests

04 Four people were asked by a local newspaper about their opinions of the town’s library.
Read the texts and answer Questions 16 – 22.
Choose one answer (A, B, C or D) and mark it on your answer sheet.

A Town Library

Person A
‘The problem with the library is the lack of computers. The few they have are always taken
and people have to wait ages to use one. This is worse during the summer months when
we have exams. I prefer to revise in the library because it's too noisy at home. Many of
the bookshelves seem half empty, so maybe some of them could be removed and more
computers installed.’

Person B
‘A lot of the books for children are quite old and in poor condition. They should update
the collection with current authors and replace a few of the favourite classics as well. The
children's area is well organised but books get scattered about. You need a member of
staff there to ensure the area is always kept tidy. There are usually three people working
on the front desk, which seems unnecessary.’

Person C
‘I find it difficult to find things in the library. The way the shelves are arranged isn’t
logical. They’re not clearly labelled and books often get put back in the wrong place. The
children's area is too close to the study area, which is supposed to be quiet. It isn’t when
large school groups come in. Also, the computers are too close together and there’s not
enough space to work.’

Person D
‘I've always loved the library. When I was a child it was a great place to meet friends and do
homework. I still go there to go online and read the news. There's no shortage of books,
but there are so few people working there. I’ve noticed that particularly when I’ve been
on a computer. There’s never anyone around to ask for help when they go wrong, which is
frequently.’

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Practice tests

16. Who thinks the library needs more staff?

A. Person A B. Person B C. Person C D. Person D

17. Who wants less space to be taken up with books?

A. Person A B. Person B C. Person C D. Person D

18. Who thinks the organisation of the library should be improved?

A. Person A B. Person B C. Person C D. Person D

19. Who thinks the library should have more books?

A. Person A B. Person B C. Person C D. Person D

20. Who thinks the library can get noisy?

A. Person A B. Person B C. Person C D. Person D

21. Who has had technical problems with computers?

A. Person A B. Person B C. Person C D. Person D

22. Who uses the library for study?

A. Person A B. Person B C. Person C D. Person D

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Practice tests

05 Read the text below. Match the headings A – H to the paragraphs 1 – 7 (Questions 23 – 29).
Write your answers (A – H) on the answer sheet. There is one more heading than you need.
The answer to Paragraph 0 is given on the answer sheet as an example (J).

The Kon-Tiki

(J) A sight not seen in 500 years (Example)

0. In 1947, the strangest craft to set sail in 500 years crossed the South Paciﬁc from Peru
to Indonesia. A Norwegian scientist called Thor Heyerdahl built the boat, Kon-Tiki, named
after the Indonesian Sun God, and made the massive journey across open seas with the
aim of proving his theory about the origins of the Indonesian people.

1. Heyerdahl believed that the Indonesian people had come from Peru. He said stone
heads found on Easter Island were so similar to those around Lake Titicaca in Peru
that there had to be a connection. But other scientists claimed that it would have been
impossible for the Peruvians to make the journey across open sea. They said the stone
ﬁgures had been made by Indonesians to frighten a local enemy they were ﬁghting.
Heyerdahl thought these battles were really between Indonesian natives and Peruvian
invaders, and that the Peruvians could have made the journey. It was this that he wanted to
prove.

2. Kon-Tiki was designed by copying pre-Columbian illustrations and paintings. It was built
in Peru using local materials like wood, reeds and rope made from plants. There was no
metal used at all in the construction. The ﬁnished boat was 15 metres long and 5 metres
wide. The six-man crew, and a parrot called Lorita, shared a small cabin of 5 metres long
and 2 metres wide. They also had to carry enough supplies for the 100-day crossing. They
carried with them 1,250 litres of water and 200 coconuts as well as fruits and roots. The
US Army had also given them emergency rations and survival equipment. Their diet was
supplemented with the wide variety of ﬁsh that they were able to catch while at sea.

3. The crew members - four Norwegians and a Swede - who went with Heyerdahl included
a steward, an engineer, a sociologist and translator, a guide and radio experts. The only
modern equipment they carried was a compass and a radio, which was mainly used for
giving weather reports and relaying their position to the Norwegian government.

4. They set out from the Peruvian sea port of Callao on April 28th, 1947. A navy boat pulled
them 50 miles out to sea before releasing them. From there they sailed west, carried along
by the Humbolt current. Their ﬁrst sight of land, Puka-Puka island, was made 93 days later.
Four days after that they saw Angatau Island and spoke to people from there but could not
land. Finally, after 101 days at sea and sailing 6,980 kilometres, they touched dry land on
the desert island of Raroia. However, people from nearby islands arrived in boats and took
them to their village where they were welcomed with traditional dancing and parties.

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Practice tests

5. Heyerdahl’s trip sparked a number of reactions in other scientists. They said that he
and his team hadn’t sailed but drifted, and that it was chance that they reached their
destination. They also claimed that there was more evidence that the people of the
Indonesian islands had originally come from the West, and not from the East. However, as
recently as 2011, genetic evidence has been found which supports Heyerdahl’s claims.

6. Since the Kon-Tiki’s ambitious crossing, there have been several similar expeditions. Not
all of them were successful, but in 1970, the Spanish explorer, Vital Alsar, succeeded in
crossing the Paciﬁc Ocean in the longest recorded journey of its kind. Alsar was convinced
that ancient sailors could read the ocean currents like road maps. He successfully proved
the point in 1973 when he repeated the voyage. More recently still, a Norwegian team
recreated the trip with a copy of Thor Heyerdahl’s craft and made an award-winning
documentary of the experience.

7. Thor Heyerdahl’s impressive journey has captured the imagination of generations.

His book, The Kon-Tiki expedition was published in 1948 and immediately became a
best-seller. His documentary, made on 8mm ﬁlm, taken during the journey and including
interviews with the crew, won an Academy Award in 1951. The Kon-Tiki museum in Oslo
is one of the most visited places in Norway. And as recently as 2012, Kon-Tiki, the most
expensive Norwegian feature ﬁlm of the journey, was nominated for an Oscar.

Headings

A Where they went, others have followed

B A debatable success
C Water shortage
D An experienced team
E Three months in the Paciﬁc
F He had something to prove
G The technical aspects
H People are still talking about it
J A sight not seen in 500 years (Example)

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Practice tests

Aptis practice test version 1

Listening
Instructions

O You will hear 17 short recordings.

O You will hear each recording twice.
O Answer as many questions as you can.

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Practice tests

Listening
(17 Questions)

0 Brian planned to see his friend tonight. Why does he say he can’t come?

not well
Brian said he can’t come because he is ____________ . (Example)

1. busy
2. on holiday
3. not well

01 Ken calls to plan a visit. When does Ken want his friend to visit?

Ken wants his friend to visit ____________ .

1. at 7.30
2. after 7.30
3. before 7.30

02 Alan calls his friend to suggest ways of travelling to his city. How do most people
get there?

Most people travel to Alan’s city by taking a ____________ .

1. bus
2. train
3. plane

03 Monica leaves you a message about her son Mark. What does he eat every morning?

In the morning, Mark usually has ____________ .

1. ﬁsh
2. milk
3. eggs

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Practice tests

04 Ana calls you to change when her party is. What day will the party be?

Ana’s party next week will be on ____________ .

1. Saturday
2. Thursday
3. Friday

05 Martin leaves his friend Maggie a message after a party. What did he lose?

Martin lost his ____________ .

1. money
2. glasses
3. bag

06 Listen to two friends discussing their plans. What do they decide to do?

The friends are going to ____________ .

1. go to the park
2. go swimming
3. go to the woods

07 Listen to a woman in a shop. What type of TV does she want to buy?

The woman wants to buy ____________ .

1. an old-fashioned TV
2. a ﬂat screen TV
3. an expensive TV

08 Listen to a person talking about a house. What doesn’t she like about it?

She is going to remove the ____________ .

1. doors
2. carpet
3. windows

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Practice tests

09 Listen to the radio announcement. Whose birthday is it in May?

The person who has a birthday in May is ____________ .

1. Kitty
2. Paul
3. George

10 Alana calls her colleague. What time is the car getting her?

The car is coming at ____________ .

1. 2.30 pm
2. 12.45 pm
3. 12.30 pm

11 Two friends are talking about a job. Why is the job difficult?

The difﬁcult thing about the job is working ____________ .

1. with doctors
2. at weekends
3. long hours

12 Listen to an announcement in a department store. Which items have the best reductions
this weekend?

This weekend, the best reductions are on ____________ .

1. fridges
2. sports clothing
3. casual shoes

13 Listen to the announcement about a new shop. Who is the new shop for?

The new shop is for people who like ____________ .

1. deals
2. luxury items
3. food

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Practice tests

14 Four people are talking about their weekends.

Complete the sentences below.

a Speaker A ____________ .

b Speaker B ____________ .

c Speaker C ____________ .

d Speaker D ____________ .

1. has busy mornings before relaxing.

2. goes cycling in the park.
3. has quiet mornings.
4. doesn’t relax during the day.
5. relaxes by keeping busy.
6. meets friends in the morning.

15 Listen to two people talking about working for companies of different sizes. Read the
statements below and decide who expresses which opinion – the man, the woman, or both
the man and the woman.

Who expresses which opinion?

a Promotion chances are more limited in smaller companies. ____________

b Large companies offer more training opportunities. ____________

c Large companies have narrowly defined roles for employees. ____________

d People are impressed by large companies. ____________

1. Man
2. Woman
3. Both

16 Listen to a travel reviewer on the radio talking about a trip and answer the questions
below.

What is the reviewer’s opinion of the river trip?

a 1. It was too old fashioned.

2. It was not varied enough.
3. The facilities were not adequate.

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Practice tests

b What is the reviewer’s opinion of cruises overall?

1. They are not suitable for individual travellers.

2. They are becoming less and less popular.
3. They are probably not worth the money.

17 Listen to a caterer talking on the radio about catering for large events and answer the
questions below.

a What does the man think is the most important thing at large events?

1. Excellent service.
2. A wide range of food.
3. The quality of the venue.

b What is the man’s opinion about catering in general?

1. The best firms always specialize.

2. It is hard to find a reliable caterer.
3. Appropriate scheduling is the key to good catering.

You now have five minutes to copy your answers onto the answer sheet.

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Practice tests

Aptis practice test version 2

Grammar
& Vocabulary
Instructions

O Please do not write on the question paper. Use the answer sheet.
O Answer as many questions as you can in the time allowed.
O Follow the recommended times for each section.

The test has two sections:

Grammar – 25 questions (about 12 minutes)

Vocabulary – 25 questions (about 13 minutes)

Total time – 25 minutes

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Practice tests

Grammar
(25 questions – 12 minutes)

Write your answers (A – C) to questions 1 – 25 on your answer sheet.

Do not write on this question paper. The answer to question 0 is given as an example on
your answer paper (A).

0 are
How old ____________ you? (Example)

A. are
B. age
C. have

01 A: Do you think you will get the job?

B: ____________ , but I’m not sure.

A. Possible
B. Possibility
C. Possibly

02 I ____________ 25 years old.

A. have
B. am
C. do

03 I have ____________ English for three years.

A. studied
B. study
C. studying

04 A: I enjoy working on challenging projects at work.

B: So ____________ I!

A. am
B. do
C. can
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Practice tests

05 We could cook dinner. ____________ , we could buy some takeaway food.

A. Therefore
B. On the other hand
C. Although

06 You really should ____________ to Barcelona – it’s a wonderful city.

A. go
B. to go
C. going

07 You need ____________ new shoes – those ones are too old!

A. to buy
B. buy
C. buying

08 When I was at school I used ____________ a good student.

A. to be
B. be
C. being

09 I’ve got no plans for the weekend. Maybe ____________ visit my parents.

A. I
B. I’m
C. I’II

10 I’m reading a really ____________ book on the history of Europe.

A. interest
B. interesting
C. interested

11 He’s about 40, but in this photograph he looks much ____________.

A. young
B. younger
C. youngest

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12 She has ____________ two books.

A. written
B. wrote
C. write

13 I don’t recommend driving in the morning because there’s too ____________ traffic.

A. much
B. many
C. most

14 I never do my homework, ____________I hate studying at home.

A. so
B. because
C. although

15 They’re so different. I ____________, there’s no way they’ll be happy together.

A. mean
B. decide
C. wish

16 Because of computers, many people don’t watch a lot of ____________ now.

A. the television
B. a television
C. television

17 I think, in the future, people ____________ live much longer than they do now.

A. ought
B. will
C. would

18 Call me tomorrow after 8.30, because I will just ____________ at home.

A. about to relax
B. have to relax
C. be relaxing

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19 The doctor says I will ____________ much better by the end of the week.

A. to feel
B. be feeling
C. have felt

20 ____________ been reading this book now for a week and it isn’t getting any better!

A. I’ve
B. I’m
C. I’d

21 The garden is looking untidy – you need to get rid ____________ the weeds.

A. from
B. out
C. of

22 The next meeting ____________ on the sixth of June.

A. is holding
B. will be held
C. holds

23 ____________ of China is very interesting.

A. A history
B. History
C. The history

24 You ____________ have bought that car. What a waste of money!

A. shouldn’t
B. mustn’t
C. couldn’t

25 This is a ____________ train to London. It doesn’t stop on the way.

A. direction
B. directly
C. direct

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Vocabulary
(25 questions – 13 minutes)

You need to write all answers on your answer paper. Do not write on this question paper.

01 Write the letter (A – K) of the word that is most similar in meaning to a word on the left (1 – 5).
Use each word once only. Write your answers (A – K) on your answer sheet. You will not
need five of the words (A – K). The answer to question 0 is given on your answer sheet as
an example (L).

0. big (Example) A area

B rule
1. design C money
D base
2. policy E chance
F department
3. fortune G plan
H approach
4. wonder J business
K surprise
5. opportunity L large

02 Finish each sentence (6 – 10) using a word from the list (A – K). Use each word once
only. Write your answers (A – K) on your answer sheet. You will not need five of the
words (A – K).

6. The group of people who protect a country is a/an... A figure

B board
7. A covering for floors is called a/an... C cottage
D army
8. A type of house in the country is called a/an... E desk
F crowd
9. A large group of people together is called a/an... G carpet
H character
10. A type of table used for work is called a/an... J case
K example

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03 Finish each sentence (11 – 15) using a word from the list (A – K). Use each word once only.
Write your answers (A – K) on your answer sheet. You will not need five of the words (A – K).

11. He made a/an ____________ because he was careless. A sock

B hood
12. The jacket has a/an ____________ to protect your head. C light
D script
13. The ship sailed into the ____________ on time. E witness
F error
14. The actors read their lines from the ____________. G port
H call
15. The cycling ____________ broke the world record. J champion
K country

04 Finish each sentence (16 – 20) using a word from the list (A – K). Use each word once
only. Write your answers (A – K) on your answer sheet. You will not need five of the
words (A – K).

16. The board will ____________ the plan tomorrow. A fly

B involve
17. She needs to ____________ some money for school. C approve
D benefit
18. This fact is going to ____________ everything. E complicate
F compete
19. Two teams are going to ____________ in the race. G focus
H presume
20. She couldn’t ____________ on the question. J borrow
K catch

5 Write the letter of the word on the right (A – K) that is most often used with a word on the
left (21 – 25). Use each word once only. Write your answers (A – K) on your answer sheet.
You will not need five of the words (A – K).

21. adverse A property

B hygiene
22. vacant C mechanism
D effort
23. collaborative E agreement
F formula
24. unanimous G personnel
H profile
25. humble J effect
K origins

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Aptis practice test version 2

Reading
Instructions

O Please do not write on the question paper. Use the answer paper.
O Answer as many questions as you can.
O Time yourself properly to finish all the tasks.

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Practice tests

Reading
(29 Questions – 35 minutes)

01 Choose one word (A, B, or C) for each space and write the letter on the answer sheet.
The first one (0) is done for you as an example with the answer A marked on your answer
sheet.

0. A. information (Example) B. eat C. watch

1. A. hour B. afternoon C. week
2. A. say B. tell C. speak
3. A. when B. where C. what
4. A. then B. next C. later
5. A. home B. trafﬁc C. job

Dear Simon,

A
Can you give me some (0) ____________ about the meeting tomorrow?

Is the meeting in the morning or the (1) ____________?

Can you (2) ____________ me the number of the meeting room?

I don’t know (3) ____________ the meeting is about.

Please call me (4) ____________ today.

I will be at (5) ____________ all day.

Regards,
Samantha

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Practice tests

02 The sentences below give information for people joining a gym for the first time.
Put the sentences (B – F) in the right order. Write your answers on the answer sheet
(Questions 6 – 10).

The first sentence (A) is given for you on the answer sheet as an example.

A When using your new library card, please follow these instructions.
(Example)

B You must return such books to the library on time to avoid a fine.

C If the book has a red sticker on it, you have one day to read it.

D You must show this to a member of staff each time you want to borrow a book.

E First, you will need to write your name and address on the library card.

F You need to pay any such fines before you can borrow another book.

03 The sentences below are from a local history book.

Put the sentences (B – F) in the right order. Write your answers on the answer sheet
(Questions 11 – 15).

The first sentence (A) is given for you on the answer sheet as an example.

A The first settlers on the island built Stone Tower when they arrived a thousand
years ago. (Example)

B This was a big advantage because nobody could make a surprise attack by ship.

C The settlers used these stones to build the famous tower you see today on top of
the hill.

D At that time, there were a lot of stones all over the island.

E The view from this high ground meant they could see boats far out to sea.

F As a result, the island was safe for many hundreds of years.

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04 Four people were interviewed by a local newspaper about where they prefer to go
shopping.
Read the texts and answer Questions 16 – 22 on the next page.

Shopping Preferences

Person A
‘I like to buy fresh food direct from the producers. Nothing beats the look and smell of
fruit and vegetables carefully laid out on stall after stall. Browsing outdoors is a great way
to spend Sunday morning. Prices are expensive there, but that’s not my priority. I very
occasionally go to the big retail park on the outside of town when I need new clothes or
shoes. I’d rather not though, so I don’t go unless I have to.’

Person B
‘Small and local are my key words when it comes to shopping. The convenience of large
supermarkets is undeniable, and I do visit them occasionally, but I don’t want to see our
historical high street disappearing. I love chatting to the shopkeepers and the other
villagers when I’m out and about. It’s a great way to find out about what’s happening in the
area. Internet shopping is really taking off now too, but it isn’t really for me.’

Person C
‘Those markets where you can buy directly from the farmers are great, but they’re so
expensive. The same can be said for the traditional small shops around my village. My
priority is to get my shopping quickly and easily, so that rules out wandering around from
shop to shop. I usually stop off at the new shopping centre on my way home from work. It’s
huge, I can get everything I need there at once.’

Person D
‘It’s hard to avoid enormous retail parks and shopping centres these days, but they’re a
fact of life. Usually, the larger the store, the cheaper things are. That’s a real consideration
for me as I have a tight budget. I try to stick to large, impersonal stores or, even better, the
web. I’m not a fan of talking with local shopkeepers actually – I find them nosy. I prefer to
click a button and have things delivered to my door.’

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Practice tests

04 Four people were interviewed by a local newspaper about where they prefer to go
shopping.
Read the texts and answer Questions 16 – 22 on the next page.

16. Who likes supporting traditional shops in their area?

A. Person A B. Person B C. Person C D. Person D

17. Who prefers shopping at farmers’ markets?

A. Person A B. Person B C. Person C D. Person D

18. Who tries to avoid large shopping complexes?

A. Person A B. Person B C. Person C D. Person D

19. Who shops regularly in a large complex for convenience?

A. Person A B. Person B C. Person C D. Person D

20. Who likes speaking with the locals to obtain information?

A. Person A B. Person B C. Person C D. Person D

21. Who likes internet shopping better than other methods?

A. Person A B. Person B C. Person C D. Person D

22. Who thinks price is the most important thing to consider?

A. Person A B. Person B C. Person C D. Person D

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Practice tests

05 Read the text below. Match the headings A – H to the paragraphs 1–7 (Questions 23 – 29).
Write your answers (A – H) on the answer sheet. There is one more heading than you need.
The answer to Paragraph 0 is given on the answer sheet as an example (J).

The Hula Hoop

(J) What is it? (Example)

0. Many adults and children love the hula hoop, either for exercise or simply for fun. You
can whirl it around your waist, spin it on your arms or legs or even rotate it around your
neck at an extremely high speed. Hula hoops can be made from bendy wood or even
strong grass twisted together. However, these days they are primarily solid plastic tubes.
Hula hoops have endured throughout history, never quite fading away, and are still popular
today.

1. So, when did this fascination for hula hooping really begin? Many believe it started in
the 1950s, simply as a means of pleasure. However, it actually dates back much further,
as far back as the ﬁfth century in ancient Greece where it was a means of exercising. It
re-emerged in thirteenth century Scotland as a therapy for those who suffered from heart
disease or back conditions. In those early days, it was simply called the ‘hoop,’ the word
‘hula’ was added by British soldiers on a visit to Hawaii in the nineteenth century; they
believed that the action was similar to that of the traditional island Hula dance.

2. In 1950s America, Californian toy company Wham-O perfected a plastic version of the
toy which attracted global interest. In as little as four months, 25 million of the hoops
were sold. Within two years, over 100 million had been sold, starting a trend which swept
throughout the country. In the USA alone, 50,000 were produced in a single day. Many
people in countless corners of the world developed a passion for the trend, from infants to
grandparents and from factory workers to CEOs.

3. Many popular songs were written about the hula hoop during the 1960s. Nevertheless,
the toy’s popularity began to fade over the next few decades. However, the hula hoop
never completely vanished from the public arena and most toys stores continued to stock
the toy. Recently it staged a spectacular revival, rallying a new generation of fans. the
former first lady Michelle Obama of the USA was spotted ‘hooping’ on the White House
Lawn. Nowadays, the circular toy has been incorporated in a range of ﬁtness schemes.
These use special weighted hoops to suit individual needs, including ‘collapsible’ ones
designed for easy storage.

4. The hula hoop is associated with many different world records. In 1960, a group of
American 11 year olds established a record for the longest ‘non-stop’ spinning session,
lasting precisely 11 hours and 34 minutes. In 1976, an even younger contestant won an
uninterrupted 10 hour 47 minutes contest at just eight years old. The present-day record
holder, Bric Sorenson, was able to keep his hula hoop spinning from April 2 to April 6, 1987,
accumulating an incredible 90 non-stop hours.

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Practice tests

05 Read the text below. Match the headings A – H to the paragraphs 1–7 (Questions 23 – 29).
Write your answers (A – H) on the answer sheet. There is one more heading than you need.
The answer to Paragraph 0 is given on the answer sheet as an example (J).

5. Another record is for 132 hoops spun by an individual at once. This record was
established by Paul Blair on November 11, 2009, earning him the nickname ‘Dizzy Hips’.
This act involves participants holding all the hula hoops without any help from anyone else
and spinning them between the shoulders and hips. As soon as the hoops have started
to rotate, competitors cannot touch them again with their hands. If they do, their record
attempt fails.

6. In another record event, the contestant runs while simultaneously spinning. A ribbon
tied around the hoop allows the judges to check if it is still revolving. The hoop must be
rotating before crossing the starting line. If it ceases to spin, then contestants must stop
and start it again. This is the only time that they can touch the hoop with their hands.
The current female holder for this record is Australian Boo Crystal Chan, who completed
10 kilometres in one hour, 27 minutes and 25 seconds on March 12 2009. The male
champion, Paul ‘Dizzy Hips’ Blair, was 20 minutes and 50 seconds faster than Boo.

7. In 2005, an American man, Ashrita Furman, successfully spun the world’s largest hula
hoop at 13.88 metres in diameter. While the heaviest recorded was actually a tractor tyre
which weighed 53 pounds! This monster was spun for a total of 71 seconds in Austria,
2000, by Roman Schedler. And in Chung Cheng sport arena, Taiwan, on October 28, 2,496
people managed to spin their hula hoops at the same time for over three minutes without
dropping one, making it the world record for mass simultaneous hula hooping.

Headings

A A Collection of Records
B Without a Single Break
C Hooping Back in Fashion
D Hooping Appeals to Both Genders Alike
E Fun, Fitness or Treatment?
F The Hula Hoop Goes Global
G Spinning Multiple Hoops
H Hooping and Running at the Same Time
J What is it? (Example)

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Practice tests

Aptis practice test version 2

Listening
Instructions

O You will hear 17 short recordings.

O You will hear each recording twice.
O Answer as many questions as you can.

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Practice tests

Listening
(17 Questions)

0 Brian planned to see his friend tonight. Why does he say he can’t come?

not well
Brian said he can’t come because he is ____________ . (Example)

1. busy
2. on holiday
3. not well

01 You have to collect someone from the station. What kind of bag will she have?

Her bag will be ____________ .

1. big and red

2. big and black
3. small and red

02 Your business colleague calls to say where the meeting will be. Where is room 308?

Room 308 is ____________ .

1. on the 4th floor

2. before the office
3. after the copy machine

03 Your colleague calls to arrange a meeting. What time does he want to meet you?

He wants to meet you at ____________ .

1. 11.30 am
2. 10.30 am
3. 12.30 pm

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Practice tests

04 Jooyeon asks her sister to go shopping. What does she want to buy?

Jooyeon wants to buy ____________ .

1. books
2. clothes
3. coffee

05 Listen to the message. What is Maggie’s phone number?

Maggie’s phone number is ____________ .

1. 210 732 4319

2. 210 732 4931
3. 210 732 3491

06 Listen to two friends discussing their plans. What do they decide to do?

The friends are going to ____________ .

1. go to the park
2. go swimming
3. go to the woods

07 A customer is talking to a waitress. What does he order for dessert?

He orders ____________ .

1. ice cream
2. apple pie
3. chocolate cake

08 Listen to a woman discussing holiday plans. Where do she and her husband usually go?

For their holidays, they usually go to ____________ .

1. their children’s home

2. sunny and warm places
3. Jack’s parents’ home

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Practice tests

09 Listen to two new friends talking. Why does Maria prefer Madrid?

Maria prefers Madrid because ____________ .

1. she has family there

2. it is better than London
3. she doesn’t like Manchester

10 Two friends are talking about the man’s new job. What did he use to do?

He used to be a ____________ .

1. doctor
2. factory worker
3. teacher

11 You hear the following in an airport. What time will the plane now leave?

The plane will now leave at ____________ .

1. 11.30 am
2. 10.00 am
3. 11.00 am

12 Listen to the sports centre advertisement. When are the discounted fitness training
classes?

The discounted fitness training classes are from ____________ .

1. Thursday to Saturday
2. Tuesday to Thursday
3. Monday to Wednesday

13 Listen to an advertisement. What is offered at the Albion School this year?

This year at the school, you can ____________ .

1. get cheaper courses

2. get value for money
3. talk with locals

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Practice tests

14 Four people are talking about science.

Complete the sentences below.

a Speaker A ____________ .

b Speaker B ____________ .

c Speaker C ____________ .

d Speaker D ____________ .

1. enjoyed science experiments at school.

2. finds science difficult to understand.
3. wants to study science.
4. likes reading science books.
5. preferred non-science school subjects.
6. now enjoys science.

15 Listen to two business people on the radio talking about business meetings. Read the
statements below and decide who expresses which opinion – the man, the woman, or both
the man and the woman.

Who expresses which opinion?

a Meetings help speed up decision making. ____________

b Meetings should follow a specific format. ____________

c Meetings are often unnecessarily long. ____________

d Meetings help to strengthen team bonds. ____________

1. Man
2. Woman
3. Both

16 Listen to the film critic talking about an old film that he has recently watched again and
answer the questions below.

What is his opinion about the latest version of the film?

a 1. The newly edited version is too long.

2. It is unlikely to appeal to a wide audience.
3. It really demonstrates the director’s original vision.

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Practice tests

b What is his opinion about re-releasing classic films?

1. It demonstrates a lack of new ideas.

2. The films generally don’t age well.
3. It is important for the cinema industry.

17 Listen to a presentation about human versus computer translation and answer the
questions below.

a According to the speaker, what is the appeal of computer translation tools?

1. They can be used for many different languages.

2. They are able to translate text with minimum delay.
3. They are able to process long and complex documents.

b What is the speaker’s overall opinion of computer translation?

1. It has reached a critical stage of development.

2. It will never be able to replace human translation.
3. It will influence the way we communicate in the future.

You now have five minutes to copy your answers onto the answer sheet.

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Practice tests

Aptis practice test

Writing
& Speaking

246
Practice tests

Writing
(Four parts – 50 minutes)

You need to write all answers on this question paper.

01 You are in a travel club. You have 5 messages from a member of the club.
Write short answers (1 – 5 words) to each message.

What do you do?

What did you do yesterday?

What’s your favourite colour?

What’s the weather like today?

How do you get to work?

02 You are a new member of the travel club. Fill in the form. Write sentences.
Use 20 – 30 words. You have seven minutes to do this.

Aptis Travel Club

Please write some reasons why you are interested in travel.

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Practice tests

03 You are a member of a travel club. You are talking to some members in the travel club chat
room. Talk to them using sentences.
Use 30 – 40 words per answer. You have ten minutes to do this.

Sam: Hi! Welcome to the club. Can you remember the first time you went on a journey
yourself?

What was it like?

Miguel: Welcome! What are the most interesting places to visit in your country?

Michelle: What is the most exciting journey you’ve been on?

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Practice tests

04 You are the member of a travel club. You received this email from the club.

Dear member,
We are writing that the famous travel writer, Mr David Price, will unfortunately not be able
to attend our next club meeting. Although Mr Price will not be there to sign copies of his
new book Around the World in Eighty Ways, members of the club will be able to buy a
copy at the price of 25 pounds. If you would like to reserve a copy of the book, please
contact the club secretary.

Write an email to your friend. Write about your feelings and what you are planning to do.
Write about 50 words. You have ten minutes to do this.

Write an email to the secretary of the club. Write about your feelings and what you
would like to do.
Write 120 – 150 words. You have 20 minutes to do this.

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Practice tests

Speaking
(Four parts – 12 minutes)

In the actual test, there will be a recording that gives you your instructions. Your
instructions will also appear in writing to help you.

01 Part One. In this part, I’m going to ask you three short questions about yourself and your
interests. You will have 30 seconds to reply to each question. Begin speaking when you
hear this sound. [beep]

Q1: Please tell me about your family.

Q2: What do you like to do on weekends?
Q3: Tell me about your hometown or city.

02 Part Two. In this part, I’m going to ask you to describe what is happening in a picture. Then
I will ask you two questions about it. You will have 45 seconds for each response. Begin
speaking when you hear this sound. [beep] Make sure you answer as fully as possible.

Describe this picture.

Tell me about a time you visited a museum.

Do you think people should pay to visit museums, or should they be free?

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Practice tests

03 Part Three. In this part I’m going to ask you to look at the pictures, then ask you two
questions. You will have 45 seconds for each response. Begin speaking when you hear this
sound. [beep] Make sure you answer as fully as possible.

What kind of people play these two sports?

Which of these two sports is more difficult to play?
Why?

04 Part Four. Look at the picture and answer the questions below. You will have 60 seconds
to think about your answers before you start speaking.

Tell me a time when you were on your own.

How did you feel about it?
What are some of the ways of passing time on your own?

You now have two minutes to talk.

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Practice tests

Aptis

Answer Sheet,
Answer Keys
and Sample
Answers

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Practice tests

Aptis Test Answer Sheet

Grammar Examiner Vocabulary Examiner Reading Examiner Listening Examiner
Use Only Use Only Use Only Use Only

0 A 0 L 0 A 0 3
1 1 1 1
2 2 2 2
3 3 3 3
4 4 4 4
5 5 5 5
6 6 0 A 6
7 7 6 7
8 8 7 8
9 9 8 9
10 10 9 10
11 11 10 11
12 12 0 A 12
13 13 11 13
14 14 12 14a
15 15 13 14b
16 16 14 14c
17 17 15 14d
18 18 16 15a
19 19 17 15b
20 20 18 15c
21 21 19 15d
22 22 20 16a
23 23 21 16b
24 24 22 17a
25 25 0 J 17b
Total Total 23 Total
24
25
26
27
28
29
Total

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Practice tests

Aptis Practice Test Answer Key

Version 1
Grammar Examiner Vocabulary Examiner Reading Examiner Listening Examiner
Use Only Use Only Use Only Use Only

0 A 0 L 0 A 0 3
1 B 1 D 1 B 1 3
2 A 2 F 2 C 2 2
3 C 3 J 3 A 3 3
4 C 4 B 4 A 4 1
5 A 5 A 5 B 5 2
6 A 6 B 0 A 6 2
7 B 7 C 6 F 7 1
8 A 8 K 7 C 8 1
9 C 9 F 8 E 9 3
10 A 10 H 9 D 10 1
11 A 11 D 10 B 11 3
12 B 12 A 0 A 12 1
13 A 13 G 11 C 13 1
14 A 14 J 12 F 14a 3
15 C 15 K 13 D 14b 4
16 B 16 D 14 B 14c 5
17 A 17 E 15 E 14d 1
18 C 18 K 16 D 15a 2
19 A 19 G 17 A 15b 2
20 B 20 J 18 C 15c 1
21 B 21 F 19 C 15d 3
22 B 22 B 20 C 16a 2
23 C 23 G 21 D 16b 3
24 A 24 C 22 A 17a 2
25 A 25 K 0 J 17b 1
Total Total 23 F Total
24 G
25 D
26 E
27 B
28 A
29 H
Total

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Practice tests

Aptis Practice Test Answer Key

Version 2
Grammar Examiner Vocabulary Examiner Reading Examiner Listening Examiner
Use Only Use Only Use Only Use Only

0 A 0 L 0 A 0 3
1 C 1 G 1 B 1 1
2 B 2 H 2 B 2 3
3 A 3 C 3 C 3 1
4 B 4 K 4 C 4 2
5 C 5 E 5 A 5 3
6 A 6 D 0 A 6 2
7 A 7 G 6 E 7 2
8 A 8 C 7 D 8 3
9 C 9 F 8 C 9 1
10 B 10 E 9 B 10 3
11 B 11 F 10 F 11 2
12 A 12 B 0 A 12 1
13 A 13 G 11 D 13 3
14 B 14 D 12 C 14a 5
15 A 15 J 13 E 14b 6
16 C 16 C 14 B 14c 2
17 B 17 J 15 F 14d 3
18 C 18 E 16 B 15a 2
19 B 19 F 17 A 15b 1
20 A 20 G 18 B 15c 3
21 C 21 J 19 C 15d 1
22 B 22 A 20 B 16a 1
23 C 23 D 21 D 16b 3
24 A 24 E 22 D 17a 2
25 C 25 K 0 J 17b 2
Total Total 23 E Total
24 F
25 C
26 B
27 G
28 H
29 A
Total

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Practice tests

Writing
(Four parts – 50 minutes)

You are in a travel club. You have 5 messages from a member of the club.
Write short answers (1 – 5 words) to each message.

01 What do you do? I’m a teacher

What did you do yesterday? I visited the zoo

What’s your favourite colour? Blue

What’s the weather like today? It’s snowing

How do you get to work? By tram

02 You are a new member of the travel club. Fill in the form. Write sentences.
Use 20 – 30 words. You have seven minutes to do this.

Aptis Travel Club

Please write some reasons why you are interested in travel.

When I was a child I used to love travelling up and down the countryside with my

family. Back then, we used to drive because we would take so much stuff with us for

camping and other activities.

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Practice tests

03 You are a member of a travel club. You are talking to some members in the travel club chat
room. Talk to them using sentences.
Use 30 – 40 words per answer. You have ten minutes to do this.

Sam: Hi! Welcome to the club. Can you remember the first time you went on a journey
yourself?

What was it like?

Hi. Yes I can. I was about seven and I travelled across the country to stay with my

aunt and cousins in the countryside. I was terrified at first but then started to enjoy

the freedom.

Miguel: Welcome! What are the most interesting places to visit in your country?

I think the cities have a lot to offer a tourist. If you don’t speak French, then visiting

the countryside can be difficult.

Michelle: What is the most exciting journey you’ve been on?

I think, definitely, the time I visited Everest. I didn’t go all the way to the top but still,

the nature and to be so high up was incredible!

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Practice tests

04 You are the member of a travel club. You received this email from the club.

Write an email to your friend. Write about your feelings and what you are planning to do.
Write about 50 words. You have ten minutes to do this.

Hi Geoff,

I am so angry that this guy has cancelled at the last moment. I was really looking forward

to hearing what he had to say. Forget it, I don’t think I’ll bother with the book after all,

I feel let down and it made me laugh they still want 25 pounds for the book – ha.

Write an email to the secretary of the club. Write about your feelings and what you
would like to do.
Write 120 – 150 words. You have 20 minutes to do this.

Dear Club Secretary,

I received your email dated 16.03 and would like to let you know that I do hope

Mr Price is well, and that the reason for his absence isn’t too serious. Although, I am

an avid fan of his travel writing in general, I think I will wait until I can purchase a

signed copy of his book. To be honest I am a little disappointed as I already have

signed copies of his first two and was really looking forward to getting this one.

Please let me know if the club is planning on inviting him back soon. If not, I will look

online to see if I can get a copy.

Regards,

Greg

258
Practice tests

Speaking
(Four parts – 12 minutes)

In the actual test, there will be a recording that gives you your instructions. Your
instructions will also appear in writing to help you.

Q1: Please tell me about your family.

I have a very big family. I have three brothers and two sisters. We all get along really
well, which is good.

Q2: What do you like to do on weekends?

Generally, I just like to relax – I sometimes meet up with friends and we go out, or
sometimes I watch a movie.

Q3: Tell me about your hometown or city.

I live in the countryside. The nearest village is about five miles away. It’s nice and
quiet.

259
Practice tests

Describe this picture.

There is a young girl looking at some things inside a glass box – maybe she is in a
museum. There is an adult with her and she is looking in the box too.

Tell me about a time you visited a museum.

I haven’t been to a museum since I was about ten. To be honest, I can’t really
remember it – I was with my school and I just remember the journey back home.

Do you think people should pay to visit museums, or should they be free?
I don’t think anything is free – it must be paid for somehow. In my country, guests
pay and local people can go in free.

260
Practice tests

What kind of people play these two sports?

I think very different people play these sports. I think golf is for people who have
a lot of money and time to spare and basketball, although possibly played by
everybody, is usually played by busy people who like to play team sports.

Which of these two sports is more difficult to play?

Why?
I think they are so different, a comparison is not really applicable. One is very
athletic and a team sport while the other is solitary and requires long periods of
thought and concentration. They are, of course, both sports but they are vastly
different. So, hmm, if you are fit, then I guess basketball would be easier than golf. It
seems to be that you can rely on your teammates a bit, and they can encourage you
if you are not playing well.

261
Practice tests

04 Part Four. Look at the picture and answer the questions below. You will have 60 seconds
to think about your answers before you start speaking.

Tell me a time when you were on your own.

How did you feel about it?
What are some of the ways of passing time on your own?

You now have two minutes to talk.

The last time I was on my own was when I was travelling around the country. I
wanted to spend some time up in the hills and forests, just being with nature. I love
the sounds, smells, and the feeling you get, and being with other people makes it
very difficult to relax and just be with nature.

I felt so very relaxed it was hard when I came back in to the town. I like to be with
friends but I do find it really important to spend time alone and to have only yourself
and the ‘birds and the bees’ around.

I have talked about one – relaxing – but another thing that I really enjoy is reading.
I love just sitting with a good book and the feeling of being engrossed in a story
without a care in the world and any distractions. Another way is when I go for drives
– I suppose it’s like exploring or finding my town all for myself. I often put some
music on and have a sing along too – I never usually sing in front of people – I guess
I must be shy.

262
Practice tests

Notes

263
Practice tests

264

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