TLE REVIEWER

Drafting
1. Horizontal lines are best drawn using this instrument.
a. triangles c. meter stick
b. ruler d. t-square
2. To completely describe a cone, sphere, and rectangular pyramid, how
many views are needed?
a. two c. three
b. One d. six
3. What line is projected as a shorter line in a drawing?
a. vertical line c. curve line
b. inclined line d. horizontal line
4. Geometrical solids are usually drawn in how many views?
a. two views c. six views
b. four views d. eight views
5. If all the information needed to complete construction of a product is
shown, then what do you call this type of mechanical drawing?
a. working drawing
b. schematic drawing
c. orthographic drawing
d. pictorial drawing
6. One of the best practices of a good draftsman is to NEVER letter without
__________.
a. guidelines c. lettering pens
b. pencil d. ink
7. In dimensioning an object, which view shows most clearly the shape of the
object?
a. Top view c. Right side view
b. Front view d. Bottom view
8. Central horizontal strokes of some letters placed at mid-height appear to
be below center due to optical illusion. Which letters are they?
a. b, e, f & h c. a, k, t & y
b. r, s, g & p d. b, p, g & f
9. Letters that are composed of uniform width elements are classified as
_________.
a. Italic letters c. Gothic letters
b. Text letters d. Roman Letters
10. Boxing method is the most widely used method of drawing a _________.
a. isometric view c. mechanical view
b. pictorial view d. perspective view
11. What is the horizontal guide line used to determine the general height of
lower case letters?
a. Cap line c. Base line
b. Waist line d. Drop line
12. These are lines to indicate the measurement of objects and are
represented by fine dark solid lines.
a. dimension lines c. leader lines
b. extension lines d. center lines
13. Drafting is considered as the universal language of __________.
a. artistry c. industry
b. humanity d. pottery
14. If a drawing has an equal measure, what does it refers to?
a. isometric drawing
b. perspective drawing
c. mechanical drawing
d. oblique drawing
15. When parts that are not seen are represented by series of light dash
lines then this line is classified as _________.
a. reference line c. section line
 b. visible line d. invisible line
16. What kind of drawing has one surface that is parallel to the picture
plane?
a. oblique drawing
b. isometric drawing
c. perspective drawing
d. orthographic drawing
17. This pictorial view is normally seen by the observer’s eyes. Which one is
it?
a. isometric drawing
b. oblique drawing
c. perspective drawing
d. orthographic drawing
18. A drawing instrument that serves as guide in drawing vertical and
diagonal lines as in triangles. It is generally used in drawing horizontal lines.
Which one it?
a. t-square c. triangle
b. extension line d. lettering guide
19. What is that fine line used to show clearly the dimension limits?
a. center line c. dimension line
b. extension line d. phantom line
20. A type of section used to emphasize the interior construction of an object
without destroying the continuity of the exterior view.
a. Phantom section or hidden section
b. Removed or detailed section
c. Revolved section
d. Full section
21. Where should you place the name of the top view for labeling?
a. below the view
b. above the view
 c. beside the view
d. inside the view
22. The lightest or finest line that represents the axis or center of objects
with symmetrical shapes is known as _________.
a. extension line c. visible line
b. center line d. cutting plane line
23. These are considered as the heaviest or darkest lines that surround a
drawing and are usually rectangular in shape.
a. border lines c. dimension lines
b. visible lines d. cutting plane lines
24. If a drawing is generally made without the aid of drawing instruments
and straight edges then it is classified as __________.
a. orthographic drawing
b. isometric drawing
c. freehand drawing
d. axonometric drawing
25. This view is generally drawn directly above the front view in an
orthographic drawing. Which one is it?
a. bottom view c. side view
b. rear view d. top view
26. Which of the following drawing instruments will you use if you are to
create distances into equal parts, transfer measurement and spacing points
or lines?
a. dividers c. compass
b. French curves d. templates
27. These lines are used to indicate the measurement of objects and are
represented by fine dark solid lines. a. dimension lines c. leader lines b.
extension lines d. center lines 28. When solidity of an object is shown by
gradual darkening of its particular portion or portions, what process is
involved?
a. darkening c. shadowing
 b. shading d. lighting
29. When parts that are not seen are represented by series of light dash
lines then this line is classified as _________.
a. visible line c. section line
b. invisible line d. reference line
30. One of the following is NOT included in the participles of an orthographic
drawing. Which one is it?
a. vertical line is drawn from top to bottom
b. no line or edge of the object can be projected longer than each true
length
c. the width of the top view is equal to the width of the side views
d. the side views are horizontally in line with the front view
31. Miley is asked to draw an art project without the aid of drawing
instruments and straight edges. Which of the following will she apply to
perform the task?
a. freehand drawing
b. orthographic drawing
c. isometric drawing
d. axonometric drawing
32. If you are to present the pictorial drawing that is most pleasing to the
eyes of the viewer then one of the following methods should be used.
a. isometric drawing
b. oblique drawing
c. perspective drawing
d. orthographic drawing
33. What is that kind of oblique drawing which is drawn with the side
reduced to one half of the corresponding dimension in the orthographic
drawing?
a. cabinet drawing c. oblique drawing
b. cavalier drawing d. isometric drawing
34. if you are to draw an isometric drawing, how many axes will you use to
perform the job?
a. two c. four
b. five d. three
35. A kind of perspective drawing with one vanishing point is known as
_________.
a. parallel perspective c. cabinet drawing
b. cavalier drawing d. angular perspective

Carpentry / Woodworking
1. Which part of the wood is consisting of substances that are insusceptible
to attacks by insects and has high level of durability?
a. Heartwood c. Cambium layer
b. Sap wood d. Late wood
2. Wood changes its shape during the drying process. What should be the
approximate moisture content or drying percentage of hardwood for home
furniture?
a. 5 – 10% c. 20%
b. 6 – 12% d. 25%
3. Fiber direction of wood should be taken into consideration when designing
a product. Which direction of fiber reaches the highest level of bending
strength?
a. Parallel to fiber direction
b. Across the fiber direction
c. Diagonal with the load
d. Along the fiber direction
4. What process is used in making bent wood products to easily distort the
shape of the wood without reverting to its original state?
a. Cold water treatment
b. Sun drying
c. Heat treatment by hot stream
 d. High pressure treatment
5. What tool is used to adjust the “kerf” or teeth of the saw in order to
reduce friction between the saw blade and wood, and to discharge the saw
dust easily?
a. Triangular file c. Saw horse
b. Pliers d. Saw set
6. In sawing soft and thin wood, what is the recommended angle of the saw
to the wood?
a. 30 – 45 degrees c. 10 – 20 degrees
b. 15 – 30 degrees d. 40 – 50 degrees
7. Aside from having a sharp blade, how should you run a hand plane in a
wood to get a good result?
a. Run the hand plane parallel to the fiber direction of the wood
b. Run the hand plane against the fiber direction of the wood
c. Run the hand plane across the fiber direction of the wood
d. Run the hand plane diagonally with fiber direction of the wood
8. What type of wood joint should be used in constructing chairs and tables
to obtain strength and durability?
a. Miter joint c. Lap joint
b. Butt joint d. Mortise and tennon joint
9. When you intend to disassemble the product later or need to obtain a
strong joint, what construction hardware is appropriate to use?
a. Screws c. Hinges
b. Nails d. Dowel
10. What finishing material may be used to obtain a suitable wood color
before applying a transparent finishing material?
a. Paint c. Stain
b. Base coat d. Filter
11. One of the following is the operation performed in the preparation of
wood for commercial purposes. Which one is it?
a. sawing c. lumbering
 b. logging d. seasoning
12. Lumber is as good as its preparation. When it is dried the process
involved is ____________.
a. seasoning c. lumbering
b. staining d. logging
13. What is the conversion equivalent of one inch to centimeters?
a. 25.4
b. 2.54
c. 0.254
d. 0.0254
14. There are numerous kinds of saw. Which one is used for sawing along the
grain of wood?
a. back saw c. cross cut saw
b. rip saw d. turning saw
15. A surfaced lumber where four of its side are smooth or planed is called
_________.
a. S4S
b. S2S
c. Rough
d. S3S
16. Which of the following is used for the cutting and for making delicate
wood joint?
a. turning saw c. compass saw
b. keyhole saw d. back saw
17. A kind of caliper used for measuring the inside diameter of a cylinder is
____________.
a. vernier caliper c. inside caliper
b. outside caliper d. adjustable caliper
18. Removing or paring away some part of the wood requires the use of this
hand tool.
 a. chisel c. spoke shave
b. plane d. file
19. Nails are essential material in putting in place pieces of wood. To drive or
pull a nail the right tool for the job is ____________.
a. cross peen hammer
b. claw hammer
c. ball peen hammer
d. mallet
20. Sawing irregular shapes on thin pieces of wood is done with the use of
_________.
a. key hole saw c. rip saw
b. back saw d. coping saw
21. This fastening material holds better, look better, and can be removed
easily without damaging the wood. It is commonly known as __________.
a. screw
b. bolt
c. spike
d. nail set
22. A type of roof frame consisting series of triangles used to distribute loads
and stiffen the structure of the roof.
a. Girt
b. Rafter
c. Truss
d. Purlins
23. Cabinets and doors are common parts of a house. They require swinging
shutters for appropriate attachment with the use of _________. a. hinges c.
bolts b. screws d. handles
24. The finishing material has pigment, thinner, and drier. Which one is it?
a. stain c. varnish
b. paint d. shellac
25. With the numerous classifications of paints the one with flat finish used
only to paint wood is called __________.
a. flat wall enamel paint
b. cedar paint
c. trim paint
d. shake paint
26. It is a substance that makes paint less heavy. Which one is it?
a. pigment c. vehicle
b. drier d. thinner
27. Chisels are only effective if they are driven. Which of the following hand
tool is used to drive them?
a. chipping hammer c. wooden mallet
b. ball peen hammer d. claw hammer
28. A level compact wood surface is a must in wood works. Open grain and
minor wood defects are filled in by one of the following materials.
a. wood filler c. nail
b. saw dust d. shellac
29. Drills and bits are friendly tools that facilitates project making. Which of
the following are used for boring holes on wood?
a. nail set c. auger bit
b. drill bit d. saw set
30. Buildings are necessarily constructed to be strong and safe. What do you
call the lowest support on which it rests?
a. foundation c. post
b. floor d. ceiling
31. You are given a stock for measurement. Which of the following rules will
you use to appropriately measure length, thickness, and width?
a. tape rule c. steel rule
b. folding rule d. push-pull rule
32. The smallest division of the metric scale that you can find in the steel
rule is _________.
a. millimeter c. decimeter
b. centimeter d. meter
33. Time frame, costs and specifications of materials, steps and procedures
and evaluation scale are distinctive features of a __________.
a. project plan c. business plan
b. electrical plan d. mechanical plan
34. Which of the following tools is used in checking the squareness of the
corners and flatness of a surface?
a. Trammel point c. Sliding T-bevel
b. Steel Square d. Try square
35. Find the total number of board feet of five pieces of lumber with a
dimension of 2” x 4” x 12”.
a. 8 bd. ft c. 40 bd. ft
b. 96 bd. ft d. 480 bd. ft

Basic Masonry and Concrete

1. The most widely used masonry materials for construction works.
a. Concrete hollow blocks
b. Bricks
c. Rubbles stone
d. Ashlar
2. It is the masonry material manufactured from clay and other materials.
a. Stones c. Bricks
b. Adobe d. Course rubbles
3. What is the tool used to guide the vertical position in laying bricks?
a. Plumb bob c. Spirit level
b. Water hose d. String or chord
4. Which of the following is NOT a requirement to consider in proportioning
concrete mixture?
a. Economy c. Strength
b. Workability d. Flexibility
5. Concrete is said to be workable if it can be molded or deformed without
segregation. This characteristic is known as _________.
a. Consistency c. Mobility
b. Plasticity d. Workability
6. Which of the following classes of mixture produces a hard or tough
concrete?
a. Class AA c. Class B
b. Class A d. Class C
7. A good concrete can be produced also by hand mixing. Which of the
following is a good concrete mix proportion for hand mixing?
a. ½ kg of water + 1 kg of cement + 2 kg sand + 2.5 to 3 kg of gravel
b. 2 kg of water + 1 kg of cement + 2 kg sand + 2.5 to 3 kg of gravel
c. ½ kg of water + 2 kg of cement + 2 kg sand + 2.5 to 3 kg of gravel
d. ½ kg of water + 2 kg of cement + 3 kg sand + 2.5 to 3 kg of gravel
8. Which of the following should be avoided in placing concrete to its final
form?
a. Segregation of particles
b. Displacement of form and displacement of reinforcement in the form
c. Poor bond between successive layers of concrete
d. All of the above should be avoided
9. Gravel tends to settle, lighter materials and water to rise inside a
container when displayed in the delivery to the form. What do you call this
tendency?
a. Displacement
b. Segregation of Particles
c. Consistency
 d. Mobility of particles
10. Which factor/s regulates the strength of concrete?
a. Correct proportion of the ingredients
b. Proper method of mixing
c. Adequate protection of concrete during the process of curing
d. All of the abovementioned factors
11. What do you call the mixture of cement, sand and water that used to
bind stones, bricks or concrete hollow blocks?
a. Mortar c. Concrete
b. Plaster d. Cement
12. A mixture of cement, sand and water applied wet to an interior wall or
ceiling and hardening to a smooth surface is called _________.
a. Mortar c. Concrete
b. Plaster d. Cement
13. What is the type of hydraulic cement is widely used in small and large
construction including roads and highways?
a. Hydraulic cement c. Pozzolan cement
b. Portland cement d. Lime
14. What material or ingredient in cement is added to concrete before or
during mixing to improve its workability and consistency to fill all the voids of
aggregates inside the form?
a. Water c. Admixture
b. Sand d. Gravel
15. The inert material that is bound together into a conglomerate mass by
Portland cement and water is known as __________.
a. Aggregate c. Admixture
b. Concrete d. Mortar
16. In a total mass of concrete, how many percent comprises aggregate
components?
a. 50% c. 80%
 b. 75% d. 100%
17. Which of the following are known as coarse aggregates in a concrete
mixture?
a. Sand c. Concrete
b. Soil d. Stones
18. What do you call the artificial stone that is a result from mixing cement,
fine aggregates, coarse aggregates and water?
a. Mortar c. Concrete
b. Plaster d. Bricks
19. A conglomeration of cement, fine aggregates, coarse aggregates water
and reinforced by steel bars is called __________?
a. Reinforced concrete
b. Plain concrete
c. Natural concrete
d. Concrete with bars
20. How many cubic feet of sand and gravel should be mixed with one 40 kg
bag of cement to form a Class B mixture of concrete?
a. 3 cu. ft. and 6 cu ft. gravel
b. 2 cu. ft. and 4 cu ft. gravel
c. 2 cu. ft. and 5 cu ft. gravel
d. 1 cu. ft. and 3 cu ft. gravel
21. To produce a Class AA mixture of concrete, how many cubic feet of
gravel is added?
a. 3 cu. ft. c. 5 cu. ft.
b. 4cu. ft. d. 6 cu. ft.
22. What is the ration of cement, sand, and gravel to produce a Class C
mixture of concrete? a. 1 : 1 : 3 c. 1 : 2 : 5 b. 1 : 2 : 4 d. 1 : 3 : 6
23. Following are factors that regulate the strength of concrete except one.
Which is it?
a. Correct portion of ingredient
 b. Proper method of mixing
c. Adequate protection of concrete during curing
d. Dropping concrete mixture from high elevation
24. What class of concrete mixture is consisting of 1 bag cement, 2 cu. ft. of
sand and 4 cu. ft of gravel or 1:2:4?
a. Class AA c. Class B
b. Class A d. Class C
25. Which among the following is a surface finishing tool for concrete?
a. Crandal c. Float
b. Bolster d. Spade
26. Bricks are laid where its longer side is exposed to view. This arrangement
is called __________.
a. Header c. Bond
b. Stretcher d. Ashlar
27. In setting up concrete pavers, what material is used to prevent erosion
from drainage?
a. Filter fabric c. Compacted gravel
b. Jute sack d. Bed of sand
28. What do you call the process of hardening of concrete?
a. Curing c. Hardening
b. Setting d. Molding
29. In laying out concrete walls and fences, what concrete material is
commonly used?
a. CHB or Concrete hollow blocks
b. Bricks
c. Tiles
d. Boulders and stones
30. Seventy percent (70%) of concrete strength is reached at the end of first
week and thirty percent (30%) could be lost by premature drying of
concrete. What must be done within the curing period to prevent premature
drying?
a. Moisten the concrete at all times within the curing period
b. Submerge in water within the curing period
c. Flood with water within the curing period
d. Expose it to heavy rains during the curing period
31. To prevent undue evaporation of moisture in the concrete that may
affect its strength, what should be avoided?
a. Continuous sprinkling of water
b. Early removal of forms
c. Cover surface with wet burlap
d. Cover with wet sand
32. According to the building code of the Philippines, for how many days
shall concrete be maintained above 10 °C temperature and in a moist
condition?
a. 3 days c. 7 days
b. 5 days d. 10 days
33. What tool or instrument is used to set-up the lateral level of a concrete
fence?
a. Water hose level c. Plumb bob
b. Spirit level d. Straight edge
34. To obtain a fine textured concrete plaster, a mason may use this very
useful material. What is that material?
a. Rubber or plastic foam
b. Plastic or nylon string
c. Aligning stick
d. Cotton cloth
35. What material may be used by a mason in guiding, or making horizontal
line particularly in bricks, tiles and concrete blocks laying?
a. Aligning stick c. Plastic or nylon string
 b. Meter stick d. Thin GI wire

Basic Plumbing
1. A person who install pipes, fixtures and other apparatus to convey and
supply water in buildings to dispose and discharge waste water.
a. Carpenter c. Mason
b. Plumber d. Mechanic
2. What must be installed to prevent siphonage or backflow of the water seal
in the drainage system?
a. Vent Pipe c. Soil Pipe
b. Drain Pipe d. Cleanout
3. Which of the following is NOT required by the National Plumbing Code?
a. Drainage pipe should be inclined properly for a downward gravity
flow of water.
b. Drainage pipe should be provided with adequate cleanout.
c. No ventilation pipe is needed.
d. All pipe joints must be well-fitted and tightly connected.
4. The pipe that conveys waste from various fixture other than from the
water closet.
a. Waste pipe c. Vent pipe
b. Soil Pipe d. Drain pipe
5. It is a fitting or device that provides liquid seal to prevent the back
passage of air.
a. Trap c. Sewer
b. Fixture d. Loop
6. The tools used to tighten or loosen hexagonal fittings like unions and other
metal fittings.
a. Pipe vise c. Wrenches
b. Pliers d. Threader
7. It is a receptacle or vault used to collect organic waste discharged from
the house sewer.
a. Septic tank c. Water tank
b. Man hole d. Waste tank
8. The semi-liquid substance accumulated at the bottom of the septic tank.
a. Scum c. Sludge
b. Sediment d. Silt
9. What is the ideal inclination of a horizontal waste pipe as recommended
by the National Plumbing Code?
a. 2% slope c. 4% slope
b. 3% slope d. 0% slope or level position
10. For purposes of troubleshooting in case of stoppage of flow, what must
be installed in the pipe system?
a. Vent pipe c. Drain
b. Cleanout d. Tee fitting
11. An underground tunnel that carries off the drainage and waste matter
from a home or town is called ___________.
a. Sewer c. Sewerage
b. Fixture d. Drainage system
12. The kind of fitting used to connect fixed pipe and fixtures is a __________.
a. Union Fitting c. Wye fitting
b. Tee fitting d. Reducer
13. A fitting or device installed at the inlet of a water pump to prevent
backflow of water.
a. Check valve c. Suction valve
b. Inlet valve d. Gate valve
14. It is a device installed in water lines that can be closed or opened to
allow installation or troubleshooting of fixtures.
a. Check valve c. Gate valve
b. Inlet valve d. Float valve
15. A metal or plastic fitting used to connect smaller pipe from a larger pipe.
a. Reducer c. Nipple
b. Bushing d. Coupling
16. What material is used to seal off threaded fittings to avoid leakage?
a. Masking tape c. Scotch tape
b. Teflon tape d. Adhesive tape
17. Plastic pipes are commonly used in water fixture installation nowadays.
Which of the following is preferred?
a. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
b. Chlorinated PVC (CPVC)
c. Unplasticized PVC (uPVC)
d. Styrene rubber plastic (SR)
18. Which of the following is NOT a requirement of a drainage system?
a. All pipe joints are well-fitted and tightly connected with each other.
b. The drainage pipe should be leveled horizontally towards the main
sewer line.
c. The drainage system must be provided with a ventilation pipe.
d. Each fixture should be provided with a suitable trap that will prevent
backflow.
19. Showers, lavatories and bath tubs are fixed plumbing items in a
household called _________.
a. Fixtures c. Sewers
b. Traps d. Accessories
20. What do you call the piece of apparatus, equipment or furnishing used
for pipe installation?
a. Fixtures c. Traps
b. Fittings d. Elbows
21. What part of the plumbing fixtures does a P-trap is connected?
a. Floor drain c. Sinks and lavatories
b. Bath tubs d. Ventilation pipe
22. Organic waste discharged from the home sewer is collected in a
receptacle or vault called _________.
a. Sewerage c. Container vault
b. Septic tank d. Plumbing vault
23. The process of decomposition in the upper portion of the septic tank is
called _________.
a. Sedimentation
b. Anaerobic decomposition
c. Digestion
d. Accumulation
24. Sinks, lavatories, urinals and bath tubs are connected to a pipe in a
drainage installation to convey its discharges to the house drain. What do
you call that pipe?
a. Drainage pipe c. Waste pipe
b. Sewer pipe d. fixture pipe
25. Which among the following are general conditions for a good waste pipe
installation?
a. Right slope or grade of the pipeline
b. Right location of the cleanout
c. Correct manner of joining the pipes
d. All of the conditions above
26. For a vertical to horizontal directions or horizontal to horizontal change of
pipes, what should NOT be used?
a. Short radius fittings c. 45 ° fittings
b. Long sweep fittings d. Wye fittings
27. The ideal position of horizontal waste pipes were those installed at 2 0/0
slopes. Given a pipe installed with an inclined ratio of two (2) centimeters per
meter length, a three (3) meters pipe installed as a waste line will have an
inclination of how many centimeters?
a. 6 cm b. 4 cm
c. 10 cm d. 15 cm
28. The National Plumbing Code on soil pipe provides that, at least one of the
vertical stacks in the plumbing system must extend full size to the roof. What
is its purpose?
a. To ventilate and dispose off the sewer gas above the roof
b. To prevent siphoning of the water trap seal by force of suction
c. To prevent the possibility of back pressure which may force the
water seal off the fixture trap
d. All of the above purposes
29. Which pipe layout is susceptible to stoppage or retarded flow?
a. Pipe with 2 % inclination
b. Pipe with less than 2 % inclination
c. Pipe with more than 2 % inclination
d. Pipe with 3 % inclination
30. In installing a water closet, what is the ideal diameter of the pipe to be
used as soil pipe?
a. At least 3 inches or 75 mm diameter
b. Less than 3 inches or 75 mm diameter
c. Not more than 3 inches or 75 mm diameter
d. At least 4 inches or more than 75 mm diameter
31. Among the processes that take place inside a septic tank, which of them
refers to the decomposition of the accumulated sludge at the bottom of the
tank?
a. Sedimentation
b. Digestion
c. Anaerobic decomposition
d. Decomposition
32. The Plumbing Code on House Drain provides that there must be no more
than two closets that shall discharge into a _________ pipe diameter?
a. 3 inches or 75 mm c. less than 75 mm
b. 80 mm d. 70 mm
33. What should be provided in the house drain to prevent breaking of the
floor case of drain stoppage?
a. Cleanout c. Drain flow
b. Trap d. Fitting
34. What is the interval distance of a cleanout in a pipe layout as provided by
the National Plumbing Code?
a. One (1) cleanout for every ten (10) meters pipe layout
b. One (1) cleanout for every twenty (20) meters pipe layout
c. One (1) cleanout for every fifteen (15) meters pipe layout
d. One (1) cleanout for every twenty-five (25) meters pipe layout
35. What is the most common plumbing tool used to tighten or loosen metal
pipe fittings and connections?
a. Pipe wrench
b. Mechanical wrench
c. Adjustable wrench
d. Expansion wrench

Basic Electricity
1. Circuit breakers are used to protect household electrical circuits. What is
the capacity rating breaker used for convenience outlets or general purpose
circuits?
a. 20 amperes c. 15 amperes
b. 30 amperes d. 60 amperes
2. A form of electricity where the flow of current is always in the same
direction _________.
a. power c. alternating current
b. direct current d. voltage
3. The force which opposes and reduces the flow of electrical current is
recognized as ________.
a. resistance c. electromagnetic force
 b. power d. frequency
4. A part of an electrical circuit, consist of batteries, generator or a main
electrical power which supplies electricity.
a. load c. control
b. source d. voltage
5. What is the voltage required by an automatic pressure cooker having a
resistance of 30 ohms when the current flowing is 8 amperes?
a. 480 volts c. 120 volts
b. 160 volts d. 240 volts
6. A law that states that current is directly proportional to voltage and
inversely proportional to resistance is known as _________.
a. kirchoff’s law c. ohm’s law
b. law of resistivity d. PEC
7. What amount of current does a 40-watt fluorescent lamp draw from a 220
volts power source?
a. 18 amperes c. 25.5 amperes
b. 55.5 amperes d. 50.5 amperes
8. There are several factors involved in electrical wiring installation but the
foremost consideration is ________.
a. cost
b. labor
c. safety
d. function
9. What is the standard number or diameter of wire for receptacles or
convenience outlet layout?
a. No. 14 AWG c. No. 18 AWG
b. No. 12 AWG ` d. No.
10 AWG 10. To comply with the requirements of the Philippine Electrical
Code the appropriate fuse rating for lighting outlet should be _________.
a. 20 amperes c. 60 amperes
 b. 30 amperes d. 15 amperes
11. Planning and designing of electrical wiring plan is being done in order to
__________.
a. provide efficient and effective wiring system of the building
b. maintain quality workmanship
c. avoid overloaded circuit
d. protect the circuit from high current
12. In a 220-volt power line, three 50-watt incandescent bulbs are connected
in parallel. How many more bulbs will light if one of the bulbs is open?
a. two
b. one
c. all
d. none
13. An electrical component used to control electrical circuit in two different
locations.
a. Four-way switch
b. Three-way switch
c. Push-button switch
d. Remote controlled switch
14. In a simple electrical connection, one of the lines of the source is
connected to __________.
a. Terminal 1 of the load
b. Terminal 2 of the load
c. Terminal 1 of the switch
d. Terminal 1 & 2 of the switch
15. Which of the following electrical symbols means that there are three
wires running in a line?
a. --/--/--/------ c. ---------------
b. --/--/--/--/--- d. S3W
16. To conserve energy, what kind of lamp should be used in lighting
fixtures?
a. Incandescent lamp
b. Mercury lamp
c. Compact fluorescent lamp
d. Neon lamp
17. The size of electrical wire recommended for installing lighting fixtures.
a. No. 12 AWG c. No. 18 AWG
b. No. 14 AWG d. No. 10 AWG
18. In calculating electrical usage, what is the equivalent value per square
foot of a living space as established by the National Electric Code?
a. 10 watts per square foot
b. 5 watts per square foot
c. 4 watts per square foot
d. 3 watts per square foot
19. What is the normal value for a power used for each 20-amp small-
appliance circuit that is used for calculating electrical usage?
a. 1,000 watts c. 2,000 watts
b. 1,500 watts d. 2,500 watts
20. What type of category of lighting is used to illuminate the area where a
visual activity – such as reading, sewing or preparing food – occurs?
a. Ambient or general lighting
b. Accent lighting
c. Task lighting
d. Decorative lighting
21. How do you classify that conduit made of PVC plastic which is used to
protect individual conductors from moisture and physical harm and often
allowed for interior installation?
a. Rigid nonmetallic conduit
b. Thin wall metal conduit
 c. Armored cable conduit
d. Flexible hose
22. Which of the following has the largest diameter of wire according to the
American Wire Gauge (AWG)?
a. No. 10 AWG c. No. 14 AWG
b. No. 12 AWG d. No. 16 AWG
23. Which of the following test instrument is used to determine the presence
or absence of current flowing in a receptacle for a small-appliance circuit?
a. Ohm meter c. Test lamp
b. Ammeter d. Oscilloscope
24. What unit is used to express the number of complete cycles performed in
one second in an alternating current?
a. frequency c. resistance
b. power d. hertz
25. What condition of a circuit refers to a huge amount of current flow
caused by the line 1 of a live circuit directly touching line 2 without passing
through a load?
a. short circuit c. open circuit
b. grounded circuit d. parallel circuit
26. A type of circuit in which the current flows in two or more paths is known
as _________.
a. series circuit c. open circuit
b. parallel circuit d. grounded circuit
27. This condition exists when there is a break in the flow of electrons in
some part of the circuit.
a. short circuit c. series circuit
b. shunt circuit d. open circuit
28. Following Ohm’s Law, what formula is used to find the unknown voltage
in the circuit?
a. E = 1 X R c. I = E / R
b. E = I / R d. E = R / I
29. It is a close conducting path by which a current can transfer electric
energy from a source to a load.
a. electric current c. load
b. resistance d. electric circuit
30. In the illustration below the total voltage across A and B _________.
a. 3 volts c. 45 volts
b. 1.5 volts d. zero volts
31. A series connected dry cells will result to _________.
a. increase in the amount of current
b. increase in the amount of voltage
c. increase total resistance
d. more powerful supply of electricity
32. When a coil of wire passes through the rotating magnetic field electricity
is generated. This phenomenon is associated with ___________.
a. magnetism c. generating
b. relativism d. fluidity
33. Electrical symbols can be represented with graphical symbols commonly
known as ____________.
a. symbols and lines c. graphs and chart
b. schematic diagram d. pictorial diagram
34. The meaning of each symbol in an electrical plan is indicated in the
__________.
a. legend c. nameplate
b. schedule of load d. riser diagram

Basic Electronics
1. In the electronic symbol of a transistor, the electrode with an arrow is the
_________.
a. Emitter c. Collector
b. Base d. Cathode
2. You will find an electrode nearest the white band on a rectifier. What is it?
a. Gate c. Cathode
b. Anode d. Main terminal
3. An ordinary radio can be tuned to different stations. The electronic
component responsible for this function is the _________. a. Oscillator coil c. IF
transformer b. Tuning capacitor d. detector diode
4. Printed on the dial of an AM radio is an RF band covering ____________. a.
535 – 1,605 kHz b. 88 – 108 MHz c. 16 Hz – 20 kHz d. 76 – 90 MHZ
5. Volt Ohm Millimeter or VOM is a measuring instrument. Which of the
following VOM functions uses its internal battery? a. DC milliameter c. DC
voltmeter b. Ohmmeter d. AC voltmeter
6. The condition of a loud speaker is tested more accurately using one of the
ranges listed below.
a. R x 1
b. R x 10
c. R x 1K
d. R x 10K
7. There are various types of diodes. The diode that acts as a regulator is the
_________.
a. Silicon diode c. Light emitting diode
b. Tunnel diode d. Zener diode
8. The common cause of an erratic or distorted sound of a transistor radio is
a defective _________.
a. Volume control c. Antenna
b. Amplifier d. Tuner
9. An appliance with 110 Volts AC supply is accidentally plugged to a 220
Volts AC outlet. What component is usually destroyed?
a. Switch c. Line fuse
b. AC plug d. Power transformer
10. What happens to a transistor radio when batteries are connected in
reverse polarity?
 a. It will operate normally.
b. It will operate for a while and eventually stops.
c. It will erratically operate.
d. It will not operate.
11. When a diode is tested and the reading is zero, it means the diode is
__________.
a. Shorted c. Leaky
b. Open d. Good
12. If the arrow of a transistor symbol is pointing inward , it tells us that the
transistor is:
a. NPN c. Bipolar
b. PNP d. Injunction
13. One of the following is a non-polarized electronic component.
a. Resistor c. Diode
b. Transistor d. Electrolytic capacitor
14. A schematic diagram shows the components of an electronic circuit by
means of __________.
a. Linear appearance
b. Construction
c. Physical Appearance
d. Symbol
15. The voltage rating found in as capacitor is called __________.
a. Blow-up voltage c. Working voltage
b. Peak-reverse voltage d. Breakdown voltage
16. The type of current whose amplit ude drops to zero periodically and
is produced in rectifier is known as ________________.
a. Pulsating Direct Current
b. Damped Alternating Current
c. Varying Direct Current
 d. Saw tooth wave
17. A resistor is color coded with Yellow-Violet-Black- Gold. Which of the
following is the value and tolerance of the capacitor?
a. 47 ohms, 5% c. 4 ohms, 5%
b. 47 ohm, 5% d. 470 ohms, 5%
18. A diode is an electronic part that all times is expected to do one of the
following functions. Which one is it?
a. allow current to flow in both directions
b. multiply voltage
c. allow current to flow in one direction only
19. There are varied sources of electrical power. The 220 volts power source
from MERALCO is classified as ____________.
a. Pulsating Direct Current
b. Alternating current
c. Pure Direct current
d. Varying Direct current
20. It is a type of metal used as a heat sink for power transistor in the audio
amplifier. Which one is it?
a. Aluminum c. Copper
b. Zinc d. Silver
21. When you are asked to amplify you are expected to do this:
a. Filter c. Control
b. Decrease d. Increase
22. A device used to change sound waves to audio signals is called
___________.
a. Microphone c. Loudspeaker
b. Transistor d. Diode
23. It is important for a radio mechanic to differentiate an AM signal from an
FM signal. AM means __________.
a. Audio Modulation
 b. Amplitude Modulation
c. Altitude Modulation
d. Auxiliary Modulation
24. The antenna bar of an AM radio receiver is made of this material
a. Ferrite c. Plastic
b. Iron d. Ceramic
25. An insulator that separates the two plates of a capacitor is known as
__________.
a. Vacuum c. Air
b. Dielectric d. Ceramic
26. If the components or instruments below are connected in a circuit, which
one would the polarity be important?
a. Switch c. Bulb
b. DC ammeter d. Resistor
27. The voltage rating found in as capacitor is called __________.
a. Working voltage c. Blow-up voltage
b. Peak-reverse voltage d. Breakdown voltage
28. There are various types of diodes. The diode that acts as a regulator is
the __________.
a. Silicon diode c. Light emitting diode
b. Tunnel diode d. Zener diode
29. The common defect of a carbon resistor is ___________.
a. Change in value with respect to its tolerance
b. Shorted resistor
c. Open resistor
d. Broken resistor
30. Frequencies are essentials elements in the operation of radio works. The
basic unit frequency is __________.
a. Hertz c. Siemens
 b. Farad d. Henry
31. Working efficiently is a good work habit. Tinning the tip of a soldering
iron refers to:
a. Cleaning the tip with a sand paper
b. Applying flux to the tip
c. Cutting the tip
d. Making the tip pointed
32. What is the rate or speed of the horizontal scanning or horizontal retrace
in the screen of a television system?
a. 15,750 hertz c. 60 hertz
b. 100 megahertz d. 60 kilohertz
33. What do you call the design drawn on the foil side of the printed circuit
board?
a. foil pattern
b. schematic diagram
c. magnetic board
d. parts placement guide
34. In a schematic diagram of a radio, symbols of part or components are
indicated. Which of the following symbols represents a transistor?
a. R1 b. C1 c. T1 d. Q1
35. What solution or chemical is used in etching copper clad in a period
circuit board?
a. Muriatic acid
b. Hydrogen peroxide solution
c. Ferric chloride
d. Sulfuric acid solution

Foods
1. Mila has sautéed some meat in the pan. There are some brown bits left on
the bottom of the pan. While the pan is still on the stove, she added some
white wine and scrapped the bottom of the pan. What do you call the
technique she just used?
a. Cleaning c. Caramelizing
b. Deglazing d. Flambé
2. If a recipe calls for you to “beat” something, what are you being asked to
do?
a. Harass it.
b. Roll it with a rolling pin.
c. Agitate the mixture until it is smooth.
d. Cut it into smaller pieces.
3. Energy value is expressed in terms of calories which represents the
chemical energy that is released as heat when food is oxidized. Which
nutrient has more than twice the calorie per gram?
a. Carbohydrate c. Fat
b. Protein d. Mineral
4. Food furnishes the body with the different nutrients it needs. Which of the
following nutrients is needed as the main structural component of the body?
a. Carbohydrates c. Fat
b. Protein d. Fiber
5. Fresh produce contains chemical compounds called enzymes which cause
the loss of color, loss of nutrients, flavor changes, and color changes in
frozen fruits and vegetables. These enzymes must be inactivated to prevent
such reactions from taking place. What kind of vegetables needs pre-cooking
before packing?
a. Non-acidic c. Neutral
b. Acidic d. Basic
6. Which cooking method is the LEAST healthy?
a. Grilling c. Frying
b. Baking d. Broiling
7. Frostings are products that are closely associated with sugar. What kind of
sugar used primarily in the preparation of flat icings and butter creams?
 a. Brown sugar c. Granulated sugar
b. Refined sugar d. Confectioner sugar
8. While Rachel is reading a magazine, she comes across a simple cake
recipe. But the recipe calls for one cup of buttermilk, which she don’t have.
What could she use instead of buttermilk?
a. regular milk and vinegar
b. coffee creamer
c. vinegar and butter
d. regular milk and butter
9. Martha, a busy mother is on a limited food budget. Which of the dishes
below is a good choice for her to prepare the viands that will still give her
family their nutrient requirements?
a. Ampalaya con karne c. Pork adobo
b. Relienong talong d. Chicken tinola
10. Which ingredient practically used in all native delicacies?
a. Sugar c. Butter
b. Coconut milk d. Rice flour
11. Water is a remarkable substance for it occurs and used in various ways.
When water boils at 212 degrees, what does “rolling boil” means?
a. the bubbles are rolling non-stop
b. the bubbles are forming rapidly and cannot be stopped when stirred
c. the bubbles are forming slowly and can be stopped when stirred
d. the bubbles are spilling out of a container
12. A cake just wouldn’t be a cake without frosting for it adds visual appeal
and flavor. What is the classification of fudge frosting?
a. Soft c. Thick
b. Uncooked d. Cooked
13. Meat is cooked to improve its palatability, increase tenderness and
quality. To minimize meat shrinkage and retain much of its nutritive value,
the best cooking temperature is:]
a. moist heat c. high heat
 b. low to moderate heat d. dry heat
14. What does ‘proofing’ means?
a. Weighing the dough to make sure loaves are the same size
b. Letting the yeast grow to produce carbon dioxide
c. Testing cakes for doneness
d. Brushing risen loaves before baking with egg whites for a shiny
glazed finish
15. The boiling point of water is a very important reference point in cooking.
When boiling water what does adding salt do?
a. Make the water softer
b. Makes the water boil more quickly
c. Makes the water boil at higher temperature
d. Makes the water boil at a lower temperature
16. Food safety is the most important factor in cooking. It doesn’t matter
how delicious or complicated the recipe is: if the food makes people sick
because of improper cooking or handling, all the efforts will be wasted. How
long does it take for bacteria to double their numbers at warm
temperatures?
a. half an hour c. 4 hours
b. 2 hours d. 1 day
17. What is the final cooking temperature for raw chicken?
a. 140 °F b. 165 °F c. 155 °F d. 140 °F
18. Several ingredients act as leaveners in baking. Which ingredient for
bread hurts the leavening (rising) ability?
a. sugar b. flour c. salt d. water
19. Meats are considered rich in proteins; what kind of protein is found in
connective tissue of meat that converts to gelatin when it is cooked?
a. Elastin c. Marbling
b. Gluten d. Collagen
20. How do you know if you are “simmering” something?
a. If there is cooking oil involved
 b. If the liquid, you are dealing with has reached a rolling boil
c. If you are maintaining the temperature of the liquid just below
boiling point
d. If the liquid has reached more than the boiling point

21. Always serve beverage on _________ side of the guest using the right
hand.
a. right c. center
b. left d. left or right
22. One of the objectives of good food preparation is to conserve the
nutritive value of the food. What is the best way to prepare vegetables to
retain the most antioxidant activity?
a. Serve raw c. Boil
b. Steam lightly d. Microwave
23. Salads usually use brightly colored fruits, vegetables and greens. What’s
the best way to help oil-based salad dressings adhere to the greens?
a. Used only expensive lettuce
b. salt salad before tossing
c. Add a drop of sugar to dressing
d. Make sure greens are completely dry before applying dressing
24. Nutrients are substances that enrich the body. Which of these nutrients
is needed for a healthy immune and strong connective tissue?
a. Fiber c. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin K d. Fluoride
25. Iron is absorbed the best from the diet comes from which sources?
a. meat
b. milk and milk product
c. spinach, pechay, other green leafy vegetables
d. enriched whole grains
26. Healthy diets are:
 a. adequate and balanced
b. do not include sugars
c. controlled
d. low in potassium
27. Which of the following is NOT TRUE about water in the human body?
a. helps regulate body temperature
b. will relieve fatigue, migraines, and high blood pressures
c. the largest component of the adult human body weight
d. provides a medium for chemical reactions
28. Which of the following is the correct sequence of stages in the breading
procedure?
a. Flour, egg wash, flour
b. Flour, egg wash, bread crumbs
c. Flour, water, bread crumbs
d. Egg wash, flour, bread crumbs
29. Vera is planning to have a party of more than 50 guests. What type of
table service would you recommend to her?
a. Blue plate service c. Formal service
b. French service d. Buffet service
30. A kind of cloth plays vital role in setting the mood of the dining table.
What do you call that long narrow strips of cloth used on bare tables?
a. Silence cloth c. Top cloth
b. Table cloth d. Table runner
31. When testing the doneness of the cake, a cake tester is inserted at what
part of the cake?
a. Bottom side c. side
b. Center d. Upper side
32. Chef Roy is preparing a chocolate frosting? What cooking technique
would you recommend to her?
a. Cook chocolate in a double boiler
 b. Cook chocolate over high degree
c. Cook chocolate over low flame
d. Cook chocolate using steam
33. Ka Rosa is preparing a native rice cake (biko). She ran out of panocha, a
local sweetener, what could be the best substitute for panocha?
a. Brown sugar c. Washed sugar
b. Powdered sugar d. White sugar
34. What is that kitchen tool appropriate in applying egg wash to pies and
pastries?
a. Rubber scraper c. Tong
b. Spatula d. Pastry Brush
35. Which of the following mixing technique is described when a baker mixes
the dough with a pressing motion accompanied by folding and pressing?
a. Beat b. Cream c. Knead d. Fold
36. What type of cakes contains butter or other fats?
a. Batter cakes c. Chiffon cakes
b. Butter cakes d. Sponge cake
37. The recipe calls to pour the mixture of flour and liquid to the pan. What
flour mixture is being described?
a. Batter c. Dough
b. Butter d. Egg wash
38. Family Sebastiano is experiencing a hard time financially. Which of the
following shows a very appropriate economic practice?
a. Reduced quantity of food prepared
b. Recycle leftovers
c. use substitutes
d. reduced quality of food prepared 30
39. What is the process that changes the flavor, breaks down the cellulose
and reduces the water content of vegetables?
a. Cutting c. Washing
 b. Preparation d. Cooking

Cosmetology
1. A client comes into the salon for a scalp treatment. She has some obvious
abrasions on her scalp. Which treatment should be acceptable?
a. Apply an antiseptic scalp treatment with minimum massage.
b. Apply an oil treatment with a heat cap.
c. Advise the client of her scalp condition and reschedule her
appointment.
d. Give a first aid treatment and proceed with manipulations.
2. During an analysis procedure, cleansing milk is applied to the skin using:
a. downward circular motion
b. rounded strong movements
c. upward circular movements
d. outward movements
3. If a powder foundation is being used for a facial make-up application, a
concealer is applied:
a. after eye color application
b. after lipstick application
c. after foundation application
d. before foundation
4. For which one of the following are oil manicures recommended?
a. Leconychia c. Brittle nails
b. Split nails d. Free edge
5. When does the manicurist wash her hands for a manicure service?
a. Before and after each manicure service.
b. Before each manicure service.
c. After each manicure service.
d. During each manicure service.
6. If the hair is cut partially wet and partially dry, the results will be _________.
a. even c. perfect
b. uneven d. curly
7. The angle or degree at which a subsection of hair is held, or elevated,
from the head with cutting is called _________.
a. sectioning c. angling
b. elevation d. graduation
8. Following a haircut, when is texturing most effective?
a. When performed on dry hair styled the way it will typically be worn.
b. When performed at the shampoo bowl after the conditioner is
applied.
c. When performed on soaking wet hair that has been brushed.
d. When performed on moderately damp hair prior to styling.
9. What kind of cosmetic is used to set the foundation, giving a matte finish,
and also to conceal small flaws or blemishes?
a. powder c. eyeliner
b. lipstick d. blush
10. For corrective make-up application, how is a highlight produced?
a. A highlight is produced when a darker foundation than the original
one is applied to a particular part of the face.
b. A highlight is produced when a lighter shade than the original one is
applied to a particular part of the face.
c. A highlight is produced when a medium shade similar to the original
one is applied to a particular part of the face.
d. A shadow subdues or minimizes prominent features.
11. What kind of cosmetic is used to smooth out the face and cover spots or
uneven skin coloration?
a. lipstick c. eyeliner
b. blush d. foundation
12. When cutting curly hair, keep in mind that:
 a. curly naturally layers itself
b. curly hair expands less than straight hair
c. straight hair shrinks more than curly hair
d. curly hair expands more than straight hair
13. “Removing bulk” and “removing weight” are more modern term for:
a. thinning the hair
b. Straightening the hair
c. shortening the hair
d. graduating the hair
14. During manicure service, do not shake the bottle to mix nail polis, as this
causes:
a. separation of ingredients
b. air bubbles
c. foaming
d. sprayed brush bristles
15. The classic barbering comb is used with clippers when:
a. cutting longer lengths
b. detailing is not required
c. cutting thicker lengths
d. cutting the hair close to the head
16. The amount of elevation from head form is:
a. dictated by parting size
b. equal to the subsection size
c. measured in degrees
d. measured in inches
17. What is the skin type that has medium pores, a smooth and even
texture, good circulation, healthy color, may tend toward dryness on the
cheeks while being oily in the t-zone?
a. oily skin
 b. sensitive skin
c. combination/normal skin
d. dry skin
18. A section of hair that is molded in a circular movement in preparation for
the formulation of curls is:
a. shaping b. parting c. base d. section
19. By parting the hair at the parietal ridge and continuing all the way
around the head, you can locate the:
a. crown b. sides c. front d. top
20. Blunt or straight lines are cut in the hair with:
a. hair cutting shears c. a clipper
b. a straight razor d. thinning shears
21. The relationship between hair, face and body type is called ___________.
a. emphasis c. symmetry
b. proportion d. contrasting lines
22. For corrective make-up application, a darker shade of eye color makes
the natural color of the eye appear
a. lighter c. smaller
b. darker d. deeper
23. The condition of the hair and scalp is most influenced by the shampoo
products.
a. color c. thickness
b. acidity or alkalinity d. lathering ability
24. For nail polish application, the functions of top coat include to :
a. prevent staining of the nail
b. protect the enamel from chipping
c. fill in ridges
d. prevent the nail from breaking
25. What type of nail products is a cuticle cream?
 a. emulsion c. exfoliant
b. astringent d. emollient
26. What is the effect of highlighter above the cheekbones?
a. To emphasize good bone structure
b. To diminish cheekbones
c. To attract attention to the eyes
d. To attract attention to the nose
27. During the nail application, when do excess nail polish is best removed?
a. after all fingers are done
b. with the use of a pusher
c. when it is necessary
d. right after each application
28. In manicuring, softening the cuticle with cuticle oil is good treatment for:
a. white spots on nails
b. hang nails
c. cut or bleeding cuticle
d. redness or swelling around the nail
29. Dead cuticle tissue is usually removed:
a. just before the base coat is applied to nail
b. as the last step of manicuring procedure
c. after loosing the cuticle by the pusher
d. right after the soaking period
30. the section of the pin curl between the base and the first arch is the:
a. stem b. curl c. circle d. wave
31. During the haircutting procedure, the fine teeth or the styling comb are
used to:
a. detangle wet hair
b. holds the hair at high elevations
 c. comb and part the hair
d. comb the subsection before cutting
32. During a shampoo service, manipulating the scalp immediately follows:
a. squeezing excess water from hair
b. applying shampoo
c. adjusting water volume
d. comfortably seating the client
33. When preparing to shampoo a client, it’s important to:
a. apply an infrared lamp
b. apply a scalp steamer
c. brush the hair for 15 minutes
d. examine the client’s hair and scalp
34. Moisturizers contain an ingredient that helps the skin retain:
a. Oil b. water c. vitamins d. collagen
35. Madeleine requests for a scalp treatment service because her hair is dry.
Which of the following products would you recommend?
a. alcoholic lotion
b. mineral or sulfonated oil
c. Baby shampoo
d. moisturizers or emollients
36. How often would you advice a person for a facial with normal skin?
a. about once a week c. daily
b. about a month d. about twice a month
37. How can ingrown toe nails be prevented in pedicuring?
a. File or clip corners of nail.
b. File toe nails rounding them slightly to conform shape of toes.
c. Leave toe nails’ corner alone
d. Clipped dead skins near toenails’ corners.
38. When conducting a client consultation, you can begin to make decisions
about the most suitable haircut for the client by analyzing the:
a. hair length c. hair color
b. skin type d. face shape
39. In haircutting, your __________ hand will generally be your dominant hand.
a. holding c. cutting
b. weak d. controlling
40. Where all manicuring cosmetic supplies should be kept when not being
used?
a. On a clean shelf.
b. On the manicuring table
c. In a clean manicuring kit
d. In clean, closed containers

Entrepreneurship
1. A concept among business-minded individuals who want to start small, but
dream of becoming huge financial success in the future is known as
_________.
a. Entrepreneurship c. Small business
b. Enterprise d. Buy and sell
2. You want to start your own business, what should you consider?
a. Assess your entrepreneurial inclinations.
b. Get to know your target market.
c. Make a business plan.
d. All of the above should be considered.
3. To be able to steer your business in the first difficult months, you need a
good _________.
a. Marketing Plan c. Production Plan
b. Financial Plan d. Out-sourcing Plan
4. For the business to have a legal personality, a business man has to
__________.
a. Organize it.
b. Register it in proper institution / agency.
c. Hire lawyers for the business.
d. Hire an accountant for the business.
5. Which of the following implies that the entrepreneur has a “word of
honor”?
a. When he pays suppliers on due date.
b. Give employees salaries and benefits agreed on.
c. Deliver on the day his customer ask him to do.
d. All opinions above are correct.
6. In the business plan essentials, which part encapsulates entire business
plan?
a. The mission statement
b. The executive summary
c. The management team
d. The marketing plan
7. What type of entrepreneurial business actually produces the products they
sell?
a. Manufacturing c. Retailing
b. Wholesaling d. Service
8. A (n) __________ captures the reader’s attention, should explain the
business status, provide objectives, and describe products or services.
a. Executive summary c. Table of contents
b. transmittal letter d. fact sheet
9. Locations, facilities, labor and manufacturing [plans are part of:
a. Financial plan
b. Marketing plan
c. Implementation plan
 d. Production / Operations Plan
10. Work Ethics are:
a. based on moral virtues of hard work
b. based on working hard only when the manager is looking
c. based on looking for shortcuts
d. based on trying to get to work on time
11. An individual who can identify the various products or services which
people need and deliver these at the right time and place and at the price:
a. Entrepreneur c. Industrialist
b. Capitalist d. Contractor
12. A business form which is owned by only one person is:
a. Cooperative c. Partnership
b. Corporation d. Sole proprietorship
13. The ___________ plan tells what has to be done, when, how and who as far
as sales, advertising, policy and distribution.
a. Marketing c. Pricing
b. Financial d. Selection
14. The aspect of business management that analyzes and determines the
supply and demand for the product or service in the past and its competitive
position at present is:
a. Financial aspect c. Production aspect
b. Marketing aspect d. Budgeting aspect
15. A __________ statement should be short (one/two sentences) easy to
understand and easy to remember.
a. Mission c. Cash flow
b. Vision d. Pro Forma
16. The process of utilizing land, labor and capital to create market and
produce new goods and services:
a. Salesman c. Proprietorship
b. Partnership d. Entrepreneurship
17. The probable problems that a business and entrepreneur faces are:
a. Strengths c. Weakness
b. Opportunities d. Threats
18. Reviewing at any point of the business period the strength and
weaknesses of the venture is referred to as ___________.
a. Monitoring and evaluating
b. Risk taking
c. Opportunity seeking
d. SWOT analysis
19. A business form owned by only one person is:
a. Partnership c. Corporation
b. Sole Proprietorship d. Cooperative
20. The process of utilizing land, labor and capital to create market and
produce new goods and services:
a. Proprietorship c. Partnership
b. Entrepreneurship d. Salesman
21. Quality control refers to the firm’s evaluation of its ___________.
a. overall performance b. operational control
c. employee’s performance d. organizational control
22. If an entrepreneur acts to do things that meet or even exceed existing
standards of excellence then he is considered to be __________.
a. hard worker c. committed worker
b. risk taker d. goal setter
23. Profit is a concrete indicator of how well an entrepreneur has managed
his ___________.
a. business c. affairs
b. sales d. credits
24. If a lot of unknown and uncontrollable factors affect the success or failure
of a firm then an entrepreneur should be competent in __________.
a. making decisions
 b. seeking opportunity
c. introducing innovation
d. planning ahead
25. Environmental screening involves one of the following basic principles in
planning a business. Which one is it?
a. the plan must respond to consumer tastes and preferences
b. the plan must be based on simple projects
c. the plan must be based on the needs of the community
d. the plan must be flexible
26. A business enterprise must obtain a business permit from the
___________.
a. Mayor’s office c. DOLE
b. DTI d. SEC
27. Time frame, financial reserve and resources and cost are distinctive
features of __________.
a. business plan c. mechanical plan
b. electrical plan d. project plan
28. The competence to convince, use personal influence and develop explicit
strategies to influence people is associated with __________.
a. persuasion and networking
b. information seeking and monitoring
c. opportunity seeking and creativity
d. self confidence and skill in decision making
29. Business Code of Ethics:
a. should provide a list that only new employees must follow
b. Should exempt upper management
c. should change every week
d. should provide a framework for professional responsibility
30. Entrepreneurs adopt risk management programs to eliminate or reduce
risk. Which of the following is an exception?
 a. Employee safety program
b. Inaccurate accounting and financial reports
c. Burglars alarm, security guard’s and guard dogs
d. Proper safety program
31. Whenever an entrepreneur recruits, selects a person to fill a vacancy in
the organizational structure, he is performing a function of management
called:
a. controlling c. planning
b. directing d. staffing
32. Which of the following items is a trait that is NOT observed among high
achievers and entrepreneurs?
a. Willing to forego small inconveniences.
b. Persistent worker even in the face of difficulties and hardships.
c. Likes to associate with the hardworking and the knowledgeable
about many things.
d. Consider is not important to attain a position or to come up with
accomplishment in society.
33. Which of the following Best explains why goal- setting is important
especially in entrepreneurship?
a. It assures you of your being able to attain your objectives.
b. It helps make life more enjoyable and satisfying.
c. One is much more likely to get what he/she wants and is willing to
work for it.
d. You are only one who can tell what is important to you.
34. Which of the following basic principles in planning a business plan deals
with the necessity of environmental scanning?
a. The plan must be based on simple projects.
b. The plan must respond to consumer tastes and preferences.
c. The plan must be flexible.
d. The plan must be based on the needs of the community.
35. Business planning is a continuous process until consumer satisfaction is
smaximized and sustained. One of the components of business planning is
SWOT. What does SWOT means?
a. Strengths, Weaknesses, Opportunities and Threats
b. Strengths, Weaknesses, Operations and Threats
c. Supports, Weaknesses, Operations and Threats
d. Supports, Weaknesses, Operations and Time

Business Mathematics
1. At a supermarket, white sugar has increased from P 38 per kilo to P 46 per
kilo. What is the percent increase in the cost of the item?
a. 10% b. 20% c. 21% d. 25%
2. Tiger Woods shots the following scores in a recent golf tournament (68,
71, 66, 67). What was Tiger’s average score for that tournament?
a. 70 b. 68 c. 69 d. 67
3. If you are paid a certain amount of money for every sale you make or a
percent of the value of your sales, which type of pay are you receiving?
a. commission c. piece work
b. straight time pay d. profit share
4. What is it called when you determine how many units of a product must
be made and sold to cover production expenses?
a. quality control
b. break-even analysis
c. a time study analysis
d. unit analysis
5. Margie is buying donuts at the bakery for her classmates at school. She
wants to buy twice as many as students in her class. Margie has 18 students
in her class. About how many donuts should Margie buy?
a. 20 donuts c. 40 donuts
b. 50 donuts d. 60 donuts
6. Mr. Calbo had 776 4/5 dozens of canned tuna luncheon meat. He divided
equally these dozens of canned tuna luncheon meat to 8 buyers. How many
dozens of canned tuna luncheon meat did each buyer get?
a. 90 dozens c. 98 dozens
b. 98.8 dozens d. 97 1/10 dozens
7. Lea’s Enterprise gives 10% profit to all items for sale. What is the profit if
the capital of the goods is P 50.00, P 870.00?
a. P 5180.00 c. P 5, 087.00
b. P 5017.00 d. P 508.70
8. What is 125% expressed a s a mixed number in simplest form?
a. 1 ¼ c. 4/5
b. 125/100 d. 25/20
9. An asset is considered to be a current asset if:
a. It has been bought recently and was bought new and not used.
b. It could be sold immediately by the business for other assets.
c. It could be realized in cash or sold or consumed in the business
within one year.
d. It is a piece of new machinery that is expected to fast for at least ten
years
10. Net income is:
a. revenues less the cost of goods sold to customers and operating
expenses
b. revenues less the cost of goods sold to customers, operating
expenses interest expense and taxes
c. revenues less the cost of goods sold to customers
d. cash collected less cash paid out
11. Find the profit of Manny’s water refilling business with revenue of P 56,
000, 000 and costs of P 42, 000, 000.
a. P 14, 000, 000 c. P 1, 400, 000
b. P 140, 000 d. P 14, 000
12. How long it would take a $ 200 bank account earning 8% simple interest
to earn 4 40 interest?
a. 2 years c. 2.5 years
b. 1 year d. 1.5 years
13. Nora’s food stall has costs of P 2, 900. Her total food sales are P 11, 600.
What percent of her food sales do the food costs represent?
a. 20% b. 25% c. 27% d. 30%
14. Jonie needs 250 cookies for a buffet. he will make oatmeal raisin,
macaroons, and chocolate chunk cookies. He wants 25% of the cookies to be
oatmeal raisin and 15% of the cookies to be macaroons. How many
chocolate chunk cookies must Jonie bake?
a. 150 b. 125 c. 140 d. 100
15. What is the total of your cash, plus items you have purchased, plus
money your customers owe you called?
a. inventory c. liabilities
b. assets d. profit
16. What does a balance sheet show?
a. the financial position of your company on a certain date
b. how much money everybody in your company makes
c. the difference between two income statements
d. the summary of your company’s profit
17. If a shirt marked down 25%, what will the purchase price be?
a. P 25 c. 50% off
b. 75% of its original price d. P 75
18. What is the difference between the cost of a product and its selling price
called?
a. the retail price c. the discount
b. the markup d. the percentage discount
19. What is the correct accounting name given to distributions of cash or
other assets from an incorporated business to its shareholders?
a. business perks c. dividends
 b. bonuses d. drawings
20. A customer places a special order through 480 Furniture Store. The list
price in the manufacturer’s catalog is P 1, 600. 480 Furniture receives a 35%
trade discount. What is the net price for the furniture order?
a. P560 b. P1,535 c. P1,565 d. P1,040
21. Min’s Manufacturing offers discounts on most of its products. What is the
trade discount rate on an item with a list price of P 16.79 and a net price of P
12.42?
a. 22% b. 26% c. 54% d. 74%
22. Lina buys 4 scrapbook kits at P 9.99 each, 2 sets of scissors for P 9.99
each and 1 circle cutter for p 24.99. The sales tax rate is 5%. What is the
total purchase price?
a. P 8.25 c. P 68.22
b. P 162.69 d. P 173.18
23. During her vacation in the US, Carla had purchased a sweater from the
clearance rack and gave the clerk $30.00. She received $4.96 in change. IF
the sales tax rate was 8%, find the total selling price?
a. $ 21.04 c. $ 23.19
b. $ 25.04 d. $ 27.22
24. To pay for his son’s tuition, Mr. Torre borrows P95, 800.00 from a lending
institution with an interest rate of 9.5% a year. How much is his interest for
one year?
a. P 910.00 c. P 9,101.00
b. P 9011.00 d. P 9,111.00
25. Last week, Michelle bought a new computer for 10% off the advertised
price in an online store. The advertised price was $ 1,800. How much did
Michelle have to pay for the computer?
a. $ 1, 800 c. $ 1, 980
b. $ 2, 200 d. $ 1, 620
26. Which of these is true statement?
a. Payment made for the use of someone else’s money is called
interest.
 b. Payment made into an investment is called interest.
c. Payment made for the use of someone else’s money is called
principal.
d. Payment made into a bank account is called interest.
27. Paula always spends in full her P200 weekly allowance. She decided to
decrease her expenses by 24% for savings. Compute for her new weekly
allowance.
a. P52 b. P142 c. P152 d. P132
28. After net income in entered on the work sheet, the Balance Sheet debit
and credit columns must:
a. be the same amount As the total amount of the Income Statement
debit and credit columns
b. equal each other
c. be the same amount as the amount in the Adjusted Trial Balance
debit and credit columns
d. not be equal to each other and need not to be the same total
amounts as any other pair of columns on the work sheet
29. Adjusting entries:
a. need not be journalized since they appear on the work sheet
b. need not be posted if the financial statements are prepared from the
work sheet
c. are not needed if reversing entries are prepared
d. must be journalized and posted
30. Mr. Montemayor harvested 890 kilograms of shrimps from his fishpond.
He sold 6/8 kilograms of shrimps in international markets and 2/8 kilograms
of shrimps was sold in domestic markets. (a) How many kilograms of shrimps
did he sell in international markets? (b) How many kilograms did he sell in
domestic markets?
a. 660.25 kg / 140.75
b. 770 kg / 120 kg
c. 778.75 kg / 111 .25 kg
d. 667.5 kg / 222.5 kg
31. A marketing manager sold items worth P 189, 355, 000. His commission
as incentive is 7%. How much is his commission?
a. P 1,325.48 c. P 1,300.45
b. P 13,254.85 d. P 13,250.00
32. Aizza bought 3 ¼ kilograms of chico, 2 ½ kilograms of grapes, 4 ¾
kilograms of water melon. how many kilograms of fruits did she buy
altogether?
a. 9 ½ kg b. 10 ½ kg c. 7 ½ kg d. 11 kg
33. What is the decimal 0.33 written as a fraction?
a. 1/3 b. 1/4 c. 1/8 d. 1/33
34. Jessa made a fruit tart using red and green grapes. Forty percent of the
grapes are green. If she used a total of 80 grapes, how many red grapes did
she use?
a. 36 b. 42 c. 48 d. 50
35. Which of the following items should not be included in a listing of current
assets?
a. marketable securities
b. accounts payable
c. accounts receivable
d. inventories

ANSWER KEYS
Drafting
1. D 11. B 21. B 31. A
2. A 12. A 22. B 32. C
3. B 13. C 23. A 33. A
4. C 14. A 24. C 34. D
5. A 15. D 25. D 35. A
6. A 16. A 26. A
7. B 17. C 27. A
8. A 18. A 28. B
9. C 19. B 29. B
10. A 20. A 30. A
Carpentry / Woodworking
1. A 11. C 21. A 31. D
2. B 12. A 22. C 32. A
3. A 13. B 23. A 33. A
4. C 14. B 24. B 34. D
5. D 15. A 25. A 35. C
6. B 16. D 26. D
7. A 17. C 27. C
8. D 18. A 28. A
9. A 19. B 29. C
10. C 20. D 30. A
Basic Masonry and Concrete
1. A 11. A 21. A 31. B
2. C 12. B 22. D 32. C
3. A 13. B 23. D 33. A
4. D 14. C 24. B 34. A
5. B 15. A 25. C 35. C
6. A 16. B 26. B
7. A 17. C 27. A
8. D 18. C 28. A
9. B 19. A 29. A
10. D 20.C 30.A
Basic Plumbing
1. B 11. A 21. C 31. C
2. A 12. A 22. B 32. A
3. C 13. A 23. A 33. A
4. A 14. C 24. C 34. B
5. A 15. A 25. D 35. A
6. C 16. B 26. A
7. A 17. A 27. A
8. C 18. B 28. D
9. A 19. A 29. B
10. B 20. B 30. A
Basic Electricity
1. A 11. A 21. A 31. B
2. B 12. A 22. A 32. A
3. A 13. B 23. C 33. D
4. B 14. A 24. D 34. A
5. D 15. A 25. A
6. C 16. C 26. B
7. A 17. B 27. D
8. C 18. D 28. A
9. B 19. B 29. D
10. D 20.C 30.B
Basic Electronics
1. A 11. A 21. D 31. B
2. C 12. B 22. A 32. A
3. B 13. A 23. C 33. A
4. A 14. D 24. A 34. D
5. B 15. C 25. B 35. C
6. A 16. A 26. B
7. D 17. A 27. A
8. A 18. C 28. D
9. C 19. B 29. A
10. D 20. A 30. A

Foods
1. B 11. B 21. A 31. B
2. C 12. C 22. B 32. A
3. C 13. A 23. D 33. A
4. B 14. B 24. A 34. D
5. A 15. A 25. A 35. C
6. C 16. C 26. A 36. B
7. D 17. B 27. B 37. A
8. A 18. C 28. B 38. B
9. D 19. D 29. D 39. D
10. A 20. C 30. D

Cosmetology
1. C 11. D 21. B 31. D
2. C 12. D 22. A 32. B
3. D 13. A 23. B 33. D
4. C 14. B 24. B 34. B
5. A 15. D 25. D 35. D
6. B 16. C 26. A 36. A
7. B 17. C 27. D 37. B
8. A 18. A 28. B 38. D
9. A 19. D 29. C 39. C
10. B 20. A 30. A 40. D
Entrepreneurship
1. A 11. A 21. B 31. D
2. D 12. C 22. D 32. A
3. A 13. A 23. B 33. A
4. B 14. B 24. A 34. D
5. D 15. B 25. C 35. A
6. B 16. D 26. A
7. A 17. C 27. A
8. A 18. A 28. A
9. D 19. B 29. D
10. A 20. B 30. B

Business Mathematics
1. C 11. A 21. B 31. B
2. B 12. C 22. D 32. B
3. A 13. B 23. C 33. A
4. B 14. A 24. C 34. C
5. C 15. B 25. D 35. B
6. D 16. A 26. B
7. C 17. B 27. C
8. A 18. B 28. B
9. C 19. C 29. D
10. B 20. D 30. D